Prohibited Transaction Class Exemption 84-14 for Transactions Determined by Independent Qualified Professional Asset Managers (the QPAM Exemption); Correction, 65779-65786 [2024-17586]
Download as PDF
Federal Register / Vol. 89, No. 156 / Tuesday, August 13, 2024 / Rules and Regulations
administrative plan for other HCV
families.
III. Reporting Requirements
The VASH code was established for
use on line 2n of the Family Report
(form HUD–50058) or 2p of the MTW
50058, to indicate if the family
participates in a special program. The
information collection requested on
both Family Reports has been approved
by the Office of Management and
Budget (OMB) and given OMB control
number 2577–0083. No person is
required to respond to, nor shall any
person be subject to a penalty for failure
to comply with a collection of
information subject to the requirements
of the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA),
unless that collection displays a
currently valid OMB control number.
This code must remain on the HUD–
50058 and MTW 50058 for the duration
of the HUD–VASH family’s
participation in the program. The PHA
that administers the HUD–VASH
voucher on behalf of the family
(regardless of whether the PHA has
received an allocation of HUD–VASH
vouchers) must enter and maintain this
code on the HUD–50058 or MTW 50058.
Data will also be captured in the
Voucher Management System (VMS), or
any successor system, on monthly
leasing and expenditures for HUD–
VASH vouchers.
For any additional systems reporting
requirements that may be established,
HUD will provide further guidance.
Dominique Blom,
General Deputy Assistant Secretary, Office
of Public and Indian Housing.
[FR Doc. 2024–17957 Filed 8–12–24; 8:45 am]
BILLING CODE 4210–67–P
DEPARTMENT OF LABOR
Employee Benefits Security
Administration
29 CFR Part 2550
[Application No. D–12022]
lotter on DSK11XQN23PROD with RULES1
Z–RIN 1210 ZA07
Prohibited Transaction Class
Exemption 84–14 for Transactions
Determined by Independent Qualified
Professional Asset Managers (the
QPAM Exemption); Correction
Employee Benefits Security
Administration, U.S. Department of
Labor.
ACTION: Final amendment to class
exemption; technical correction.
AGENCY:
VerDate Sep<11>2014
17:19 Aug 12, 2024
Jkt 262001
This document gives notice of
a technical correction to the Department
of Labor’s final amendment to class
prohibited transaction exemption (PTE)
84–14 (the QPAM Exemption), which
was published in the Federal Register
on April 3, 2024. The QPAM Exemption
provides relief from certain prohibited
transaction restrictions of Title I of the
Employee Retirement Income Security
Act of 1974, as amended (ERISA) and
Title II of ERISA, as codified in the
Internal Revenue Code of 1986, as
amended (the Code). The corrections in
this document fix a typographical error
and make a minor clarification to a
provision to reflect the Department’s
original intent for the effect of the
amendment. These technical corrections
are consistent with the amended
exemption’s intended scope and the
analysis and data relied upon in the
Department’s final regulatory impact
analysis (RIA).
DATES:
Issuance date: This technical
correction is issued on August 13, 2024
without further action or notice.
Exemption Date: The PTE 84–14
amendment, as corrected herein, is
effective on June 17, 2024.
FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:
Brian Mica, telephone (202) 693–8540,
Office of Exemption Determinations,
Employee Benefits Security
Administration, U.S. Department of
Labor (this is not a toll-free number).
SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION: This
document makes a technical correction
to the Department of Labor’s final
amendment to class prohibited
transaction exemption (PTE) 84–14 (the
QPAM Exemption), which was
published in the Federal Register on
April 3, 2024 (89 FR 23090).
SUMMARY:
Background of the QPAM Exemption
A QPAM must be a registered
investment adviser, bank, or insurance
company that meets asset and equity
thresholds set forth in the exemption.
Section I of The QPAM Exemption
permits an investment fund managed by
a QPAM to engage in a broad range of
transactions with parties in interest with
respect to an ERISA-covered employee
benefit plan that invests in the fund as
long as the QPAM satisfies certain
protective conditions that are set forth
in the exemption. These transactions
would be prohibited by ERISA and the
Internal Revenue Code (the Code)
without the relief provided in the
exemption. Section I of the QPAM
Exemption does not include relief for
the QPAM to engage in any transactions
involving its own self-dealing or
conflicts of interest.
PO 00000
Frm 00025
Fmt 4700
Sfmt 4700
65779
The QPAM Final Amendment
The final amendment to the QPAM
Exemption the Department published
on April 3, 2024 (the Final
Amendment) 1 modifies Section I(g) of
the exemption, a provision under which
a QPAM may become ineligible to rely
on the QPAM Exemption for a period of
10 years if the QPAM, various affiliates,
or certain owners of the QPAM are
convicted of certain crimes or
participate in prohibited misconduct.
Among other changes, the final
amendment provides a One-Year
Transition period to help Plans and
IRAs avoid or minimize possible
negative impacts of terminating or
switching QPAMs or adjusting asset
management arrangements when a
QPAM becomes ineligible pursuant to
Section I(g). During the transition
period, ineligible QPAMs must send a
notice to their plan clients. Section
I(i)(1)(B)(i) of the Final Amendment
requires ineligible QPAMs to agree in
their Transition Period notice that they
will not restrict withdrawals during the
Transition Period (the Termination
Provision). Also, Section I(i)(1)(B)(ii) of
the Final Amendment prohibits
Ineligible QPAMs from imposing any
‘‘fees, penalties, or charges on client
Plans in connection with the process of
terminating or withdrawing from and
Investment Fund managed by the
QPAM. . . .’’ (The Penalty-Free
Withdrawal Provision).
Explanation of Corrections to the Final
Amendment
This document makes the following
technical corrections to the Final
Amendment:
1. Extraneous Word ‘‘or’’ at the End of
Section I(g)(1)(B)
The Department is removing the
extraneous word ‘‘or’’ that appears at
the end of Section I(g)(1)(B) of the Final
Amendment due to a scrivener’s error.
2. Requirement for Ineligible QPAMs
Not To Restrict Withdrawals During the
One-Year Transition Period—Section
I(i)((1)(B)(i)
As stated above, Section I(i)(1)(B)(i)
and (ii) of the Final Amendment require
ineligible QPAMs to include the
Termination and Penalty-Free
Withdrawal Provisions in the One-Year
Transition Period notices they send to
their plan clients. Both requirements are
based on conditions the Department has
1 See Amendment to Prohibited Transaction Class
Exemption 84–14 for Transactions Determined by
Independent Qualified Professional Asset Managers
(the QPAM Exemption) 89 FR 23090 (April 3,
2024).
E:\FR\FM\13AUR1.SGM
13AUR1
lotter on DSK11XQN23PROD with RULES1
65780
Federal Register / Vol. 89, No. 156 / Tuesday, August 13, 2024 / Rules and Regulations
included in individual exemptions it
has granted to QPAMs that have become
ineligible under Section I(g) of the
exemption. In the individual
exemptions, the Department has
included exception language in both
conditions that allow QPAMs to place
restrictions or impose fees on certain
withdrawals to ensure that all fund
investors are treated equitably and to
prevent a fund’s withdrawal from
having adverse consequences for other
investors remaining in the pooled fund.
The exception language protects ERISAcovered plans and IRAs from
circumstances that could occur where a
few investors immediately withdraw
from the fund, resulting in the fund not
having sufficient liquidity to satisfy the
remaining investors’ withdrawal
requests, causing delays and potential
harm to the remaining investors.
The Department intended to include
similar exception language in the
Termination and Penalty-Free
Withdrawal conditions of the Final
Amendment to reflect the language
included in the conditions in its
individual exemptions and to make the
conditions consistent with each other in
the Final Amendment. However, the
Department inadvertently omitted the
exception language from the
Termination Provision.
This technical correction reflects the
Department’s original intent to make the
provisions in the Final Amendment
consistent with each other and with the
provisions in the Department’s
individual exemptions by adding the
following exception language to the
Termination provision in Section
I(i)(1)(B)(i) of the amended QPAM
exemption: ‘‘. . . with the exception of
reasonable restrictions, appropriately
disclosed in advance, that are
specifically designed to ensure equitable
treatment of all investors in a pooled
fund in the event such withdrawal or
termination may have adverse
consequences for all other investors. In
connection with any of these
arrangements involving investments in
pooled funds subject to ERISA the
adverse consequences must relate to a
lack of liquidity of the underlying
assets, valuation issues, or regulatory
reasons that prevent the fund from
promptly redeeming a client Plan’s
investment, and such restrictions must
be applicable to all investors in the
pooled fund on equal terms and
effective no longer than reasonably
necessary to avoid the adverse
consequences.’’
In summary, these technical
corrections add language to the
exemption that the Department
intended to include to make the
VerDate Sep<11>2014
17:19 Aug 12, 2024
Jkt 262001
Termination and Penalty-Free
Withdrawal Provisions consistent with
each other and the provisions in the
Department’s individual exemptions
and to fix a scrivener’s error. Therefore,
based on the limited, corrective purpose
of these changes, the Department finds
for good cause that a notice and public
comment procedure is unnecessary.2
The Department further finds good
cause to determine that given the
limited, corrective purpose of these
changes, it is unnecessary to change the
effective date of the final amendment,
which remains June 17, 2024.3 The
corrections do not alter the analysis and
data contained in the RIA applicable to
the Final Amendment, including the
assessment of its costs and benefits.
The Department granted the Final
Amendment, which was proposed on its
own motion, pursuant to its authority
under ERISA section 408(a) and Code
section 4975(c)(2).4 As required by
ERISA section 408(a) and Code section
4975(c)(2), the Department finds that the
exemption, as amended and corrected
herein, is administratively feasible, in
the interests of Plans and their
participants and beneficiaries, and
protective of the rights of participants
and beneficiaries of Plans and IRA
owners. For convenience, the
Department is re-publishing the full text
of the corrected exemption below.
PTE 84–14
Based on the foregoing, PTE 84–14 is
corrected to read as follows:
Section I—General Exemption
The restrictions of ERISA section
406(a)(1)(A) through (D) and the taxes
imposed by Code section 4975(a) and
(b), by reason of Code section
4975(c)(1)(A) through (D), shall not
apply to a transaction between a Party
in Interest with respect to a Plan and an
Investment Fund (as defined in Section
VI(b)) in which the Plan has an interest,
and which is managed by a Qualified
Professional Asset Manager (QPAM) (as
defined in Section VI(a)), if the
following conditions are satisfied:
25
U.S.C. 553(b).
U.S.C. 553(d).
4 The exemption was granted in accordance with
procedures set forth in 29 CFR part 2570, subpart
B (76 FR 66637 (October 27, 2011)). Procedures
Governing the Filing and Processing of Prohibited
Transaction Exemption Applications were amended
effective April 8, 2024 (29 CFR part 2570, subpart
B (89 FR 4662 (January 24, 2024)). Please note that
effective December 31, 1978, section 102 of
Reorganization Plan No. 4 of 1978, 5 U.S.C. App.
(2018), transferred the authority of the Secretary of
the Treasury to issue exemptions to the Secretary
of Labor. Therefore, this notice of amendment to the
QPAM Exemption is issued solely by the
Department.
35
PO 00000
Frm 00026
Fmt 4700
Sfmt 4700
(a) At the Time of the Transaction (as
defined in Section VI(i)), the Party in
Interest, or its Affiliate (as defined in
Section VI(c)), does not have the
authority to—
(1) Appoint or terminate the QPAM as
a manager of the Plan assets involved in
the transaction, or
(2) Negotiate on behalf of the Plan the
terms of the management agreement
with the QPAM (including renewals or
modifications thereof) with respect to
the Plan assets involved in the
transaction;
Notwithstanding the foregoing, in the
case of an Investment Fund in which
two or more unrelated Plans have an
interest, a transaction with a Party in
Interest with respect to a Plan will be
deemed to satisfy the requirements of
this Section I(a) if the assets of the Plan
managed by the QPAM in the
Investment Fund, when combined with
the assets of other Plans established or
maintained by the same employer (or
Affiliate thereof described in Section
VI(c)(1) below) or by the same employee
organization, and managed in the same
Investment Fund, represent less than
ten (10) percent of the assets of the
Investment Fund;
(b) The transaction is not described
in—
(1) Prohibited Transaction Exemption
2006–16 (71 FR 63786; October 31,
2006) (relating to securities lending
arrangements) (as amended or
superseded),
(2) Prohibited Transaction Exemption
83–1 (48 FR 895; January 7, 1983)
(relating to acquisitions by plans of
interests in mortgage pools) (as
amended or superseded), or
(3) Prohibited Transaction Exemption
82–87 (47 FR 21331; May 18, 1982)
(relating to certain mortgage financing
arrangements) (as amended or
superseded);
(c) The terms of the transaction,
commitments, and investment of fund
assets, and any associated negotiations
are determined by the QPAM (or under
the authority and direction of the
QPAM) which represents the interests of
the Investment Fund. Either the QPAM,
or (so long as the QPAM retains full
fiduciary responsibility with respect to
the transaction) a property manager
acting in accordance with written
guidelines established and administered
by the QPAM, makes the decision on
behalf of the Investment Fund to enter
into the transaction, provided that the
transaction is not part of an agreement,
arrangement, or understanding designed
to benefit a Party in Interest. In
exercising its authority, the QPAM must
ensure that any transaction,
commitment, or investment of fund
E:\FR\FM\13AUR1.SGM
13AUR1
lotter on DSK11XQN23PROD with RULES1
Federal Register / Vol. 89, No. 156 / Tuesday, August 13, 2024 / Rules and Regulations
assets for which it is responsible is
based on its own independent exercise
of fiduciary judgment and free from any
bias in favor of the interests of the plan
sponsor or other parties in interest. The
QPAM may not be appointed or relied
upon to uncritically approve
transactions, commitments, or
investments negotiated, proposed, or
approved by the plan sponsor, or other
parties in interest. The prohibited
transaction relief provided under this
exemption applies only in connection
with an Investment Fund that is
established primarily for investment
purposes. No relief is provided under
this exemption for any transaction that
has been planned, negotiated, or
initiated by a Party in Interest, in whole
or in part, and presented to a QPAM for
approval to the extent the QPAM would
not have sole responsibility with respect
to the transaction as required by this
Section I(c);
(d) The Party in Interest dealing with
the Investment Fund is neither the
QPAM nor a person Related to the
QPAM;
(e) The transaction is not entered into
with a Party in Interest with respect to
any Plan whose assets are managed by
the QPAM, when combined with the
assets of other Plans established or
maintained by the same employer (or
Affiliate thereof described in subsection
VI(c)(1) below) or by the same employee
organization, and managed by the
QPAM, represent more than twenty (20)
percent of the total client assets
managed by the QPAM at the time of the
transaction; and
(f) At the Time of the Transaction, and
at the time of any subsequent renewal
or modification thereof that requires the
consent of the QPAM, the terms of the
transaction are at least as favorable to
the Investment Fund as the terms
generally available in arm’s length
transactions between unrelated parties.
(g) Integrity.
(1) Ineligibility due to a Criminal
Conviction or Prohibited Misconduct.
Subject to the Ineligibility Date
provision set forth in Section I(h), a
QPAM is ineligible to rely on this
exemption for 10 years following:
(A) A Criminal Conviction, as defined
in Section VI(r), of the QPAM or any
Affiliate thereof (as defined in Section
VI(d)), or any owner, direct or indirect,
of a five (5) percent or more interest in
the QPAM; or
(B) The QPAM, any Affiliate thereof
(as defined in Section VI(d)), or any
owner, direct or indirect, of a five (5)
percent or more interest in the QPAM
Participates In Prohibited Misconduct as
defined in Section VI(s) and VI(t);
VerDate Sep<11>2014
17:19 Aug 12, 2024
Jkt 262001
(2) Notice to the Department regarding
Participation In Prohibited Misconduct.
The QPAM must submit a notice to the
Department at QPAM@dol.gov if the
QPAM, any Affiliate (as defined in
Section VI(d)), or any owner, direct or
indirect, of a five (5) percent or more
interest in the QPAM, Participates In
Prohibited Misconduct as defined in
Section VI(s) and VI(t), or enters into an
agreement with a foreign government,
however denominated by the laws of the
relevant foreign government, that is
substantially equivalent to a nonprosecution agreement (NPA) or
deferred prosecution agreement (DPA)
described in section VI(s)(1). The notice
must be sent within 30 calendar days
after the Ineligibility Date for the
Prohibited Misconduct as determined
pursuant to Section (I)(h)(2) below or
the execution date of the substantiallyequivalent foreign NPA or DPA, and the
notice must include a description of the
Prohibited Misconduct or the
substantially-equivalent foreign NPA or
DPA and the name of and contact
information for the QPAM.
(h) Ineligibility Date. A QPAM shall
become ineligible:
(1) as of the ‘‘Conviction Date,’’ which
is the date of the judgment of the trial
court (or the date of the judgment of any
court in a foreign jurisdiction that is the
equivalent of a U.S. federal or state trial
court), regardless of whether that
judgment is appealed; or
(2)(A) as of the date on or after June
17, 2024 that the QPAM, any Affiliate
thereof (as defined in Section VI(d)), or
any owner, direct or indirect, of a five
(5) percent or more interest in the
QPAM executes a non-prosecution
agreement, or a deferred prosecution
agreement described in Section VI(s)(1);
or
(B) as of the date on or after June 17,
2024 that a final judgment (regardless of
whether the judgment is appealed) or a
court-approved settlement is ordered by
a Federal or State criminal or civil court
in connection with determining that the
QPAM, any Affiliate thereof (as defined
in Section VI(d)), or any owner, direct
or indirect, of a five (5) percent or more
interest in the QPAM has engaged in
Prohibited Misconduct as defined in
Section VI(s)(2) and VI(t).
A person will become eligible to rely
on this exemption again only upon a
subsequent judgment reversing such
person’s conviction or civil judgment,
the effective date of any individual
prohibited transaction exemption it
receives that expressly permits the relief
in this exemption, or the expiration of
the 10-year ineligibility period.
(i) One-Year Transition Period Due to
Ineligibility (One-Year Transition Period
PO 00000
Frm 00027
Fmt 4700
Sfmt 4700
65781
or Transition Period). Any QPAM that
becomes ineligible under subsection
I(g)(1) must provide a Transition Period
for its client Plans. Relief is available for
transactions (including past
transactions) under this exemption
during the Transition Period for a
maximum period of one year after the
Ineligibility Date, provided that the
QPAM complies with each condition of
the exemption throughout the one-year
period (including those additional
conditions specified in this subsection
(i)). The relief is available during the
Transition Period under this exemption
only for the QPAM’s client Plans that
had a pre-existing Written Management
Agreement required under subsection
VI(a) with the QPAM on the Ineligibility
Date. A QPAM must ensure that it
manages Plan assets prudently and
loyally during the Transition Period.
During the Transition Period, the QPAM
must comply with the following
additional conditions:
(1) Within 30 days after the
Ineligibility Date, the QPAM must
provide notice to the Department at
QPAM@dol.gov and each of its Client
Plans stating:
(A) Its failure to satisfy subsection
I(g)(1) and the resulting initiation of this
One-Year Transition Period;
(B) That during the Transition Period,
the QPAM:
(i) Agrees not to restrict the ability of
a client Plan to terminate or withdraw
from its arrangement with the QPAM,
with the exception of reasonable
restrictions, appropriately disclosed in
advance, that are specifically designed
to ensure equitable treatment of all
investors in a pooled fund in the event
such withdrawal or termination may
have adverse consequences for all other
investors. In connection with any of
these arrangements involving
investments in pooled funds subject to
ERISA the adverse consequences must
relate to a lack of liquidity of the
underlying assets, valuation issues, or
regulatory reasons that prevent the fund
from promptly redeeming a client Plan’s
investment, and such restrictions must
be applicable to all investors in the
pooled fund on equal terms and
effective no longer than reasonably
necessary to avoid the adverse
consequences;
(ii) Will not impose any fees,
penalties, or charges on client Plans in
connection with the process of
terminating or withdrawing from an
Investment Fund managed by the
QPAM except for reasonable fees,
appropriately disclosed in advance, that
are specifically designed to: (a) prevent
generally recognized abusive investment
practices, or (b) ensure equitable
E:\FR\FM\13AUR1.SGM
13AUR1
lotter on DSK11XQN23PROD with RULES1
65782
Federal Register / Vol. 89, No. 156 / Tuesday, August 13, 2024 / Rules and Regulations
treatment of all investors in a pooled
fund in the event such withdrawal or
termination may have adverse
consequences for all other investors,
provided that such fees are applied
consistently and in a like manner to all
such investors;
(iii) Agrees to indemnify, hold
harmless, and promptly restore actual
losses to the client Plans for any
damages that directly result to them
from a violation of applicable laws, a
breach of contract, or any claim arising
out of the conduct that is the subject of
a Criminal Conviction or Prohibited
Misconduct of the QPAM, an Affiliate
(as defined in Section VI(d)), or an
owner, direct or indirect, of a five (5)
percent or more interest in the QPAM.
Actual losses specifically include losses
and costs arising from unwinding
transactions with third parties and from
transitioning Plan assets to an
alternative asset manager as well as
costs associated with any exposure to
excise taxes under Code section 4975 as
a result of a QPAM’s inability to rely
upon the relief in the QPAM Exemption;
and
(iv) Will not employ or knowingly
engage any individual that Participated
In the conduct that is the subject of a
Criminal Conviction or Prohibited
Misconduct, regardless of whether the
individual is separately convicted in
connection with the criminal conduct.
(C) An objective description of the
facts and circumstances upon which the
Criminal Conviction or Prohibited
Misconduct is based, written with
sufficient detail to fully inform the
client Plan’s fiduciary of the nature and
severity of the conduct so that the
fiduciary can satisfy its duties of
prudence and loyalty under section 404
of ERISA (29 U.S.C. 1104), as
applicable, with respect to hiring,
monitoring, evaluating, and retaining
the QPAM in a non-QPAM capacity;
(2) As of the Ineligibility Date under
Section I(h), the QPAM must not
employ or knowingly engage any
individual that Participated In the
conduct that is the subject of a Criminal
Conviction or that Participated In
Prohibited Misconduct causing
ineligibility of the QPAM under
subsection I(g)(1); and
(3) After the One-Year Transition
Period expires, and if the Criminal
Conviction is not reversed on appeal,
the entity may not rely on the relief
provided in this exemption until the
expiration of the 10-year ineligibility
period unless it obtains an individual
exemption permitting it to continue
relying upon this exemption.
(j) Requests for an Individual
Exemption. A QPAM that is ineligible or
VerDate Sep<11>2014
17:19 Aug 12, 2024
Jkt 262001
anticipates that it will become ineligible
due to an actual or possible Criminal
Conviction or Participating In
Prohibited Misconduct as defined in
Sections VI(r) and VI(s) may apply for
an individual exemption from the
Department to continue to rely on the
relief provided in this exemption for a
longer period than the One-Year
Transition Period. An applicant should
review the Department’s most recently
granted individual exemptions
involving Section I(g) ineligibility with
the expectation that similar conditions
will be required of the applicant, if the
Department proposes and grants a
requested exemption. To that end, if an
applicant requests the Department to
exclude any term or condition from its
exemption that is included in a recently
granted individual exemption, the
applicant must include a detailed
statement with its exemption
application explaining the reason(s)
why the proposed variation is necessary
and in the interest and protective of
affected Plans, their participants and
beneficiaries, and individuals for whose
benefit a Plan described in Code section
4975(e)(1)(B) or (C) is established (IRA
owners). The Department will review
such requests consistent with the
requirements of ERISA section 408(a)
and Code section 4975(c)(2). Such
applicants also should provide detailed
information in their applications
quantifying the specific cost or harms in
dollar amounts, if any, their client Plans
would suffer if the QPAM could not rely
on the exemption after the Transition
Period, including the specific dollar
amounts of investment losses resulting
from foregone investment opportunities
and any evidence supporting the
proposition that investment
opportunities would be available to
client Plans on less advantageous terms.
An applicant should not construe the
Department’s acceptance of an
individual exemption application as a
guarantee that the Department will grant
an individual exemption. A QPAM that
submits an individual exemption
application must ensure that it manages
Plan assets prudently and loyally during
the Transition Period in accordance
with section 404 of ERISA (29 U.S.C.
1104), as applicable.
(k) Any QPAM that relies upon this
exemption must notify the Department
via email at QPAM@dol.gov. Each
QPAM that relies upon the exemption
must report the legal name of each
business entity relying upon the
exemption in the email to the
Department and any name the QPAM
may be operating under. This
notification needs to be reported only
PO 00000
Frm 00028
Fmt 4700
Sfmt 4700
once unless there is a change to the legal
name or operating name(s) of the QPAM
relying upon the exemption or the
QPAM no longer is relying on the
exemptive relief provided in the
exemption. The QPAM must provide
notice to the Department within ninety
(90) calendar days of its reliance on the
exemption or a change to its legal or
operating name. If the QPAM
inadvertently fails to provide notice to
the Department within the initial 90
calendar day period, it may notify the
Department of its reliance on the
exemption or name change and failure
to report without losing the relief
provided by this exemption. This notice
must be provided within an additional
90 calendar days along with an
explanation for the QPAM’s failure to
provide notice. A QPAM may notify the
Department if it is no longer relying
upon this exemption at any time.
Section II—Specific Exemption for
Employers
The restrictions of ERISA sections
406(a), 406(b)(1), and 407(a) and the
taxes imposed by Code section 4975(a)
and (b), by reason of Code section
4975(c)(1)(A) through (E), shall not
apply to:
(a) The sale, leasing, or servicing of
Goods or the furnishing of services, to
an Investment Fund managed by a
QPAM by a Party in Interest with
respect to a Plan having an interest in
the fund, if—
(1) The Party in Interest is an
employer any of whose employees are
covered by the Plan or is a person who
is a Party in Interest by virtue of a
relationship to such an employer
(described in Section VI(c) below),
(2) The transaction is necessary for
the administration or management of
the Investment Fund,
(3) The transaction takes place in the
ordinary course of a business engaged in
by the Party in Interest with the general
public,
(4) The amount attributable in any
taxable year of the Party in Interest to
transactions engaged in with an
Investment Fund pursuant to this
Section II(a) does not exceed one (1)
percent of the gross receipts derived
from all sources for the prior taxable
year of the Party in Interest, and
(5) The requirements of Sections I(c)
through (g) above are satisfied with
respect to the transaction.
(b) The leasing of office or commercial
space by an Investment Fund
maintained by a QPAM to a Party in
Interest with respect to a Plan having an
interest in the Investment Fund, if—
(1) The Party in Interest is an
employer any of whose employees are
E:\FR\FM\13AUR1.SGM
13AUR1
Federal Register / Vol. 89, No. 156 / Tuesday, August 13, 2024 / Rules and Regulations
lotter on DSK11XQN23PROD with RULES1
covered by the Plan or is a person who
is a Party in Interest by virtue of a
relationship to such an employer
(described in Section VI(c) below);
(2) No commission or other fee is paid
by the Investment Fund to the QPAM or
to the employer, or to an Affiliate of the
QPAM or employer (as defined in
Section VI(c) below), in connection with
the transaction;
(3) Any unit of space leased to the
Party in Interest by the Investment Fund
is suitable (or adaptable without
excessive cost) for use by different
tenants;
(4) The amount of space covered by
the lease does not exceed fifteen (15)
percent of the rentable space of the
office building, integrated office park, or
commercial center (if the lease does not
pertain to office space);
(5) In the case of a Plan that is not an
eligible individual account plan (as
defined in ERISA section 407(d)(3)),
immediately after the transaction is
entered into, the aggregate fair market
value of employer real property and
employer securities held by the
Investment Funds of the QPAM in
which the Plan has an interest does not
exceed ten (10) percent of the fair
market value of the assets of the Plan
held in those Investment Funds. In
determining the aggregate fair market
value of employer real property and
employer securities as described herein,
a Plan shall be considered to own the
same proportionate undivided interest
in each asset of the Investment Fund or
funds as its proportionate interest in the
total assets of the Investment Fund(s).
For purposes of this requirement, the
term ‘‘employer real property’’ means
real property leased to, and the term
‘‘employer securities’’ means securities
issued by an employer any of whose
employees are covered by the Plan or a
Party in Interest of the Plan by reason
of a relationship to the employer
described in ERISA section 3(14)(E) or
(G); and
(6) The requirements of Sections I(c)
through (g) above are satisfied with
respect to the transaction.
Section III—Specific Lease Exemption
for QPAMs
The restrictions of ERISA section
406(a)(1)(A) through (D), 406(b)(1) and
(2), and the taxes imposed by Code
section 4975(a) and (b), by reason of
Code section 4975(c)(1)(A) through (E),
shall not apply to the leasing of office
or commercial space by an Investment
Fund managed by a QPAM to the
QPAM, a person who is a Party in
Interest of a Plan by virtue of a
relationship to such QPAM described in
ERISA section 3(14)(G), (H), or (I), or a
VerDate Sep<11>2014
17:19 Aug 12, 2024
Jkt 262001
person not eligible for the General
Exemption of Section I above by reason
of Section I(a), if—
(a) The amount of space covered by
the lease does not exceed the greater of
7,500 square feet or one (1) percent of
the rentable space of the office building,
integrated office park, or of the
commercial center in which the
Investment Fund has the investment;
(b) The unit of space subject to the
lease is suitable (or adaptable without
excessive cost) for use by different
tenants;
(c) At the Time of the Transaction,
and at the time of any subsequent
renewal or modification thereof that
requires the consent of the QPAM, the
terms of the transaction are not more
favorable to the lessee than the terms
generally available in arm’s length
transactions between unrelated parties;
and
(d) No commission or other fee is paid
by the Investment Fund to the QPAM,
any person possessing the disqualifying
powers described in Section I(a), or any
Affiliate of such persons (as defined in
Section VI(c) below), in connection with
the transaction.
Section IV—Transactions Involving
Places of Public Accommodation
The restrictions of ERISA section
406(a)(1)(A) through (D) and 406(b)(1)
and (2) and the taxes imposed by Code
section 4975(a) and (b), by reason of
Code section 4975(c)(1)(A) through (E),
shall not apply to the furnishing of
services and facilities (and Goods
incidental thereto) by a place of public
accommodation owned by an
Investment Fund managed by a QPAM
to a Party in Interest with respect to a
Plan having an interest in the
Investment Fund, if the services and
facilities (and incidental Goods) are
furnished on a comparable basis to the
general public.
Section V—Specific Exemption
Involving QPAM-Sponsored Plans
The relief in Sections I, III, or IV
above from the applicable restrictions of
ERISA section 406(a), section 406(b)(1)
and (2), and the taxes imposed by Code
section 4975(a) and (b), by reason of
Code section 4975(c)(1)(A) through (E),
shall apply to a transaction involving
the assets of a Plan sponsored by the
QPAM or an Affiliate (as defined in
Section VI(c)) of the QPAM if:
(a) The QPAM has discretionary
authority or control with respect to the
Plan assets involved in the transaction;
(b) The QPAM adopts Written Policies
and Procedures that are designed to
ensure compliance with the conditions
of the exemption;
PO 00000
Frm 00029
Fmt 4700
Sfmt 4700
65783
(c) An independent auditor, who has
appropriate technical training or
experience and proficiency with
ERISA’s fiduciary responsibility
provisions and so represents in writing,
conducts an Exemption Audit on an
annual basis. Following completion of
the Exemption Audit, the auditor shall
issue a written report to the Plan
presenting its specific findings
regarding the level of compliance with:
(1) the Written Policies and Procedures
adopted by the QPAM in accordance
with Section V(b) above, and (2) the
objective requirements of this
exemption. The written report shall also
contain the auditor’s overall opinion
regarding whether the QPAM’s program
complied with: (1) the Written Policies
and Procedures adopted by the QPAM,
and (2) the objective requirements of the
exemption. The Exemption Audit and
the written report must be completed
within six months following the end of
the year to which the audit relates; and
(d) The transaction meets the
applicable requirements set forth in
Sections I, III, or IV above.
Section VI—Definitions and General
Rules
For purposes of this exemption:
(a) The term ‘‘Qualified Professional
Asset Manager’’ or ‘‘QPAM’’ means an
Independent Fiduciary which is—
(1) A bank, as defined in section
202(a)(2) of the Investment Advisers Act
of 1940 that has the power to manage,
acquire or dispose of assets of a Plan,
which bank has, as of the last day of its
most recent fiscal year, Equity Capital in
excess of $1,000,000. Effective as of the
last day of the fiscal year ending no later
than December 31, 2024, substitute
$1,570,300 for $1,000,000. Effective as
of the last day of the fiscal year ending
no later than December 31, 2027,
substitute $2,140,600 for $1,000,000.
Effective as of the last day of the fiscal
year ending no later than December 31,
2030, substitute $2,720,000 for
$1,000,000; or
(2) A savings and loan association, the
accounts of which are insured by the
Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation
that has made application for and been
granted trust powers to manage, acquire
or dispose of assets of a Plan by a State
or Federal authority having supervision
over savings and loan associations,
which savings and loan association has,
as of the last day of its most recent fiscal
year, Equity Capital or Net Worth in
excess of $1,000,000. Effective as of the
last day of the fiscal year ending no later
than December 31, 2024, substitute
$1,570,300 for $1,000,000. Effective as
of the last day of the fiscal year ending
no later than December 31, 2027,
E:\FR\FM\13AUR1.SGM
13AUR1
lotter on DSK11XQN23PROD with RULES1
65784
Federal Register / Vol. 89, No. 156 / Tuesday, August 13, 2024 / Rules and Regulations
substitute $2,140,600 for $1,000,000.
Effective as of the last day of the fiscal
year ending no later than December 31,
2030, substitute $2,720,000 for
$1,000,000; or
(3) An insurance company which is
qualified under the laws of more than
one State to manage, acquire, or dispose
of any assets of a Plan, which company
has, as of the last day of its most recent
fiscal year, Net Worth in excess of
$1,000,000 and which is subject to
supervision and examination by a State
authority having supervision over
insurance companies. Effective as of the
last day of the fiscal year ending no later
than December 31, 2024, substitute
$1,570,300 for $1,000,000. Effective as
of the last day of the fiscal year ending
no later than December 31, 2027,
substitute $2,140,600 for $1,000,000.
Effective as of the last day of the fiscal
year ending no later than December 31,
2030, substitute $2,720,000 for
$1,000,000; or
(4) An investment adviser registered
under the Investment Advisers Act of
1940 that has total client assets under its
management and control in excess of
$85,000,000 as of the last day of its most
recent fiscal year, and either (A)
Shareholders’ or Partners’ Equity in
excess of $1,000,000, or (B) payment of
all of its liabilities including any
liabilities that may arise by reason of a
breach or violation of a duty described
in ERISA sections 404 and 406 is
unconditionally guaranteed by—(i) A
person with a relationship to such
investment adviser described in
subsection VI(c)(1) below if the
investment adviser and such Affiliate
have Shareholders’ or Partners’ Equity,
in the aggregate, in excess of $1,000,000;
or (ii) A person described in (a)(1), (a)(2)
or (a)(3) of Section VI above; or (iii) A
broker-dealer registered under the
Securities Exchange Act of 1934 that
has, as of the last day of its most recent
fiscal year, Net Worth in excess of
$1,000,000. Effective as of the last day
of the fiscal year ending no later than
December 31, 2024, substitute
$101,956,000 for $85,000,000 and
$1,346,000 for $1,000,000. Effective as
of the last day of the fiscal year ending
no later than December 31, 2027,
substitute $118,912,000 for $85,000,000
and $1,694,000 for $1,000,000. Effective
as of the last day of the fiscal year
ending no later than December 31, 2030,
substitute $135,868,000 for $85,000,000
and $2,040,000 for $1,000,000; Provided
that such bank, savings and loan
association, insurance company, or
investment adviser has acknowledged in
a ‘‘Written Management Agreement’’
that it is a fiduciary with respect to each
Plan that has retained the QPAM.
VerDate Sep<11>2014
17:19 Aug 12, 2024
Jkt 262001
(5) By publication through notice in
the Federal Register, the Department
will make subsequent annual
adjustments for inflation to the Equity
Capital, Net Worth, and asset
management thresholds in subsection
VI(a)(1) through (4), rounded to the
nearest $10,000, no later than January
31 of each year. The adjustments will be
effective as of the last day of the fiscal
year in which the increase takes effect,
ending no later than December 31 of
such fiscal year.
(b) An ‘‘Investment Fund’’ includes
single customer and pooled separate
accounts maintained by an insurance
company, individual trusts and
common, collective or group trusts
maintained by a bank, and any other
account or fund to the extent that the
disposition of its assets (whether or not
in the custody of the QPAM) is subject
to the discretionary authority of the
QPAM.
(c) For purposes of Section I(a) and
Sections II and V above, an ‘‘Affiliate’’
of a person means—
(1) Any person directly or indirectly,
through one or more intermediaries,
Controlling, Controlled by, or under
Common Control with the person;
(2) Any corporation, partnership, trust
or unincorporated enterprise of which
such person is an officer, director, ten
(10) percent or more partner (except
with respect to Section II this figure
shall be five (5) percent), or highly
compensated employee as defined in
Code section 4975(e)(2)(H) (but only if
the employer of such employee is the
Plan sponsor); and
(3) Any director of the person or any
employee of the person who is a highly
compensated employee, as defined in
Code section 4975(e)(2)(H), or who has
direct or indirect authority,
responsibility or control regarding the
custody, management or disposition of
Plan assets involved in the transaction.
A named fiduciary (within the meaning
of ERISA section 402(a)(2)) of a Plan
with respect to the Plan assets involved
in the transaction and an employer any
of whose employees are covered by the
Plan will also be considered Affiliates
with respect to each other for purposes
of Section I(a) above if such employer or
an Affiliate of such employer has the
authority, alone or shared with others,
to appoint or terminate the named
fiduciary or otherwise negotiate the
terms of the named fiduciary’s
employment agreement.
(d) For purposes of Section I(g) above
an ‘‘Affiliate’’ of a person means—
(1) Any person directly or indirectly
through one or more intermediaries,
Controlling, Controlled by, or under
Common Control with the person;
PO 00000
Frm 00030
Fmt 4700
Sfmt 4700
(2) Any director of, Relative of, or
partner in, any such person;
(3) Any corporation, partnership, trust
or unincorporated enterprise of which
such person is an officer, director, or a
five percent or more partner or owner;
and
(4) Any employee or officer of the
person who—
(A) Is a highly compensated employee
(as defined in Code section
4975(e)(2)(H) or officer (earning ten (10)
percent or more of the yearly wages of
such person); or
(B) Has direct or indirect authority,
responsibility, or control regarding the
custody, management or disposition of
Plan assets.
(e) The terms ‘‘Controlling,’’
‘‘Controlled by,’’ ‘‘under Common
Control with,’’ and ‘‘Controls’’ means
the power to exercise a controlling
influence over the management or
policies of a person other than an
individual.
(f) The term ‘‘Party in Interest’’ means
a person described in ERISA section
3(14) and includes a ‘‘disqualified
person,’’ as defined in Code section
4975(e)(2).
(g) The term ‘‘Relative’’ means a
relative as that term is defined in ERISA
section 3(15), or a brother, a sister, or a
spouse of a brother or sister.
(h) A QPAM is ‘‘Related’’ to a Party
in Interest for purposes of Section I(d)
above if, as of the last day of its most
recent calendar quarter: (i) The QPAM
owns a ten (10) percent or more Interest
in the Party in Interest; (ii) a person
Controlling, or Controlled by, the QPAM
owns a twenty (20) percent or more
Interest in the Party in Interest; (iii) the
Party in Interest owns a ten (10) percent
or more Interest in the QPAM; or (iv) a
person Controlling, or Controlled by, the
Party in Interest owns a twenty (20)
percent or more Interest in the QPAM.
Notwithstanding the foregoing, a Party
in Interest is ‘‘Related’’ to a QPAM if: (i)
A person Controlling, or Controlled by,
the Party in Interest has an ownership
Interest that is less than twenty (20)
percent but greater than ten (10) percent
in the QPAM and such person exercises
Control over the management or policies
of the QPAM by reason of its ownership
Interest; (ii) a person Controlling, or
Controlled by, the QPAM has an
ownership Interest that is less than
twenty (20) percent but greater than ten
(10) percent in the Party in Interest and
such person exercises Control over the
management or policies of the Party in
Interest by reason of its ownership
Interest. For purposes of this definition:
(1) The term ‘‘Interest’’ means with
respect to ownership of an entity—
E:\FR\FM\13AUR1.SGM
13AUR1
lotter on DSK11XQN23PROD with RULES1
Federal Register / Vol. 89, No. 156 / Tuesday, August 13, 2024 / Rules and Regulations
(A) The combined voting power of all
classes of stock entitled to vote or the
total value of the shares of all classes of
stock of the entity if the entity is a
corporation,
(B) The capital interest or the profits
interest of the entity if the entity is a
partnership, or
(C) The beneficial interest of the
entity if the entity is a trust or
unincorporated enterprise; and
(2) A person is considered to own an
‘‘Interest’’ if, other than in a fiduciary
capacity, the person has or shares the
authority—
(A) To exercise any voting rights or to
direct some other person to exercise the
voting rights relating to such interest, or
(B) To dispose or to direct the
disposition of such interest.
(i) ‘‘At the Time of the Transaction’’
means the date upon which the
transaction is entered into. In addition,
in the case of a transaction that is
continuing, the transaction shall be
deemed to occur until it is terminated.
If any transaction is entered into on or
after December 21, 1982, or a renewal
that requires the consent of the QPAM
occurs on or after December 21, 1982,
and the requirements of this exemption
are satisfied at the time the transaction
is entered into or renewed, respectively,
the requirements will continue to be
satisfied thereafter with respect to the
transaction. Notwithstanding the
foregoing, this exemption shall cease to
apply to a transaction exempt by virtue
of Section I or Section II above at such
time as the percentage requirement
contained in Section I(e) is exceeded,
unless no portion of such excess results
from an increase in the assets
transferred for discretionary
management to a QPAM. For this
purpose, assets transferred do not
include the reinvestment of earnings
attributable to those Plan assets already
under the discretionary management of
the QPAM. Nothing in this paragraph
shall be construed as exempting a
transaction entered into by an
Investment Fund which becomes a
transaction described in ERISA section
406 or Code section 4975 while the
transaction is continuing, unless the
conditions of this exemption were met
either at the time the transaction was
entered into or at the time the
transaction would have become
prohibited but for this exemption.
(j) The term ‘‘Goods’’ includes all
things which are movable or which are
fixtures used by an Investment Fund but
does not include securities,
commodities, commodities futures,
money, documents, instruments,
accounts, chattel paper, contract rights,
and any other property, tangible or
VerDate Sep<11>2014
17:19 Aug 12, 2024
Jkt 262001
intangible, which, under the relevant
facts and circumstances, is held
primarily for investment.
(k) For purposes of subsection VI(a)(1)
and (2) above, the term ‘‘Equity Capital’’
means stock (common and preferred),
surplus, undivided profits, contingency
reserves, and other capital reserves.
(l) For purposes of subsection VI(a)(2),
(3), and (4) above, the term ‘‘Net Worth’’
means capital, paid-in and contributed
surplus, unassigned surplus,
contingency reserves, group
contingency reserves, and special
reserves.
(m) For purposes of subsection
VI(a)(4) above, the term ‘‘Shareholders’
or Partners’ Equity’’ means the equity
shown in the most recent balance sheet
prepared within the two years
immediately preceding a transaction
undertaken pursuant to this exemption,
in accordance with generally accepted
accounting principles.
(n) The term ‘‘Plan’’ refers to an
employee benefit plan described in
ERISA section 3(3) and/or a plan
described in Code section 4975(e)(1).
(o) For purposes of Section VI(a)
above, the term ‘‘Independent
Fiduciary’’ means a fiduciary managing
the assets of a Plan in an Investment
Fund that is independent of and
unrelated to the employer sponsoring
such Plan. For purposes of this
exemption, the fiduciary will not be
deemed to be independent of and
unrelated to the employer sponsoring
the Plan if such fiduciary directly or
indirectly Controls, is Controlled by, or
is under Common Control with the
employer sponsoring the Plan.
Notwithstanding the foregoing: (1) for
the period from December 21, 1982,
through November 3, 2010, a QPAM
managing the assets of a Plan in an
Investment Fund will not fail to satisfy
the requirements of this section solely
because such fiduciary is the employer
sponsoring the Plan or directly or
indirectly Controls, is Controlled by, or
is under Common Control with the
employer sponsoring the Plan; and (2)
effective after November 3, 2010 a
QPAM acting as a manager for its own
Plan or the Plan of an Affiliate (as
defined in subsection VI(c)(1) above)
will be deemed to satisfy the
requirements of this section if the
requirements of Section V above are
met.
(p) An ‘‘Exemption Audit’’ of a Plan
must consist of the following:
(1) A review of the Written Policies
and Procedures adopted by the QPAM
pursuant to Section V(b) above for
consistency with each of the objective
requirements of this exemption (as
described in Section VI(q) below);
PO 00000
Frm 00031
Fmt 4700
Sfmt 4700
65785
(2) A test of a representative sample
of the Plan’s transactions during the
audit period that is sufficient in size and
nature to afford the auditor a reasonable
basis:
(A) To make specific findings
regarding whether the QPAM is in
compliance with (i) the Written Policies
and Procedures adopted by the QPAM
pursuant to Section VI(q) below and (ii)
the objective requirements of this
exemption, and
(B) To render an overall opinion
regarding the level of compliance of the
QPAM’s program with subsection
VI(p)(2)(A)(i) and (ii) above;
(3) A determination as to whether the
QPAM has satisfied the definition of a
QPAM under the exemption; and (4)
Issuance of a written report describing
the steps performed by the auditor
during the course of its review and the
auditor’s findings.
(q) For purposes of Section VI(p), the
Written Policies and Procedures must
describe the following objective
requirements of this exemption and the
steps adopted by the QPAM to ensure
compliance with each of these
requirements:
(1) The definition of a QPAM in
Section VI(a);
(2) The requirement of Sections V(a)
and I(c) regarding the discretionary
authority or control of the QPAM with
respect to the Plan assets involved in
the transaction, in negotiating the terms
of the transaction and with respect to
the decision on behalf of the Investment
Fund to enter into the transaction;
(3) For a transaction described in
Section I above:
(A) That the transaction is not entered
into with any person who is excluded
from relief under Section I(a), Section
I(d), or Section I(e) above;
(B) That the transaction is not
described in any of the class exemptions
listed in Section I(b) above;
(4) If the transaction is described in
Section III above:
(A) That the amount of space covered
by the lease does not exceed the
limitations described in Section III(a)
above, and
(B) That no commission or other fee
is paid by the Investment Fund as
described in Section III(d) above.
(r) ‘‘Criminal Conviction’’ occurs
when a QPAM, any Affiliate thereof (as
defined in Section VI(d)), or any owner,
direct or indirect, of a five (5) percent
or more interest in the QPAM:
(1) is convicted in a U.S. federal or
state court or released from
imprisonment, whichever is later, as a
result of any felony involving abuse or
misuse of such person’s Plan position or
employment, or position or employment
E:\FR\FM\13AUR1.SGM
13AUR1
lotter on DSK11XQN23PROD with RULES1
65786
Federal Register / Vol. 89, No. 156 / Tuesday, August 13, 2024 / Rules and Regulations
with a labor organization; any felony
arising out of the conduct of the
business of a broker, dealer, investment
adviser, bank, insurance company or
fiduciary; income tax evasion; any
felony involving the larceny, theft,
robbery, extortion, forgery,
counterfeiting, fraudulent concealment,
embezzlement, fraudulent conversion,
or misappropriation of funds or
securities; conspiracy or attempt to
commit any such crimes or a crime in
which any of the foregoing crimes is an
element; or any crime that is identified
or described in ERISA section 411; or
(2) is convicted by a foreign court of
competent jurisdiction or released from
imprisonment, whichever is later, as a
result of a crime, however denominated
by the laws of the relevant foreign
government, that is substantially
equivalent to an offense described
in(r)(1) above (excluding convictions
and imprisonment that occur within a
foreign country that is included on the
Department of Commerce’s list of
‘‘foreign adversaries’’ that is codified in
15 CFR 7.4, as amended).
(s) ‘‘Prohibited Misconduct’’ means
when a QPAM, any Affiliate thereof (as
defined in Section VI(d)), or any owner,
direct or indirect, of a five (5) percent
or more interest in the QPAM:
(1) Enters into a non-prosecution
(NPA) or deferred prosecution
agreement (DPA) on or after June 17,
2024 with a U.S. federal or state
prosecutor’s office or regulatory agency,
where the factual allegations that form
the basis for the NPA or DPA would
have constituted a crime described in
Section VI(r) if they were successfully
prosecuted; or
(2) Is found or determined in a final
judgment, or court-approved settlement
by a Federal or State criminal or civil
court that is entered on or after June 17,
2024 in a proceeding brought by the
Department, the Department of
Treasury, the Internal Revenue Service,
the Securities and Exchange
Commission, the Department of Justice,
the Federal Reserve Bank, the Office of
the Comptroller of the Currency, the
Federal Depository Insurance
Corporation, the Commodities Futures
Trading Commission, a state regulator,
or state attorney general to have
Participated In one or more of the
following categories of conduct
irrespective of whether the court
specifically considers this exemption or
its terms:
(A) engaging in a systematic pattern or
practice of conduct that violates the
conditions of this exemption in
connection with otherwise non-exempt
prohibited transactions;
VerDate Sep<11>2014
17:19 Aug 12, 2024
Jkt 262001
(B) intentionally engaging in conduct
that violates the conditions of this
exemption in connection with otherwise
non-exempt prohibited transactions; or
(C) providing materially misleading
information to the Department, the
Department of Treasury, the Internal
Revenue Service, the Securities and
Exchange Commission, the Department
of Justice, the Federal Reserve Bank, the
Office of the Comptroller of the
Currency, the Federal Depository
Insurance Corporation, the Commodities
Futures Trading Commission, a state
regulator or a state attorney general in
connection with the conditions of the
exemption.
(t) ‘‘Participate In,’’ ‘‘Participates In,’’
‘‘Participating In,’’ ‘‘Participated In,’’
and ‘‘Participation In’’ all refer not only
to active participation in Prohibited
Misconduct, but also to knowing
approval of the conduct, or knowledge
of such conduct without taking active
steps to prohibit such conduct,
including reporting the conduct to the
appropriate compliance personnel.
(u) The QPAM maintains the records
necessary to enable the persons
described in subsection (u)(2) below to
determine whether the conditions of
this exemption have been met with
respect to a transaction for a period of
six years from the date of the transaction
in a manner that is reasonably
accessible for examination. No
prohibited transaction will be
considered to have occurred solely due
to the unavailability of such records if
they are lost or destroyed due to
circumstances beyond the control of the
QPAM before the end of the six-year
period.
(1) No party, other than the QPAM
responsible for complying with this
Section VI(u), will be subject to the civil
penalty that may be assessed under
ERISA section 502(i) or the excise tax
imposed by Code section 4975(a) and
(b), if applicable, if the records are not
maintained or available for examination
as required by this Section VI(u) below.
(2) Except as provided in subsection
(3) or precluded by 12 U.S.C. 484
(regarding limitations on visitorial
powers for national banks), and
notwithstanding any provisions of
ERISA section 504(a)(2) and (b), the
records are reasonably available at their
customary location during normal
business hours for examination by:
(A) Any authorized employee of the
Department or the Internal Revenue
Service or another state or federal
regulator,
(B) Any fiduciary of a Plan invested
in an Investment Fund managed by the
QPAM,
PO 00000
Frm 00032
Fmt 4700
Sfmt 4700
(C) Any contributing employer and
any employee organization whose
members are covered by a Plan invested
in an Investment Fund managed by the
QPAM, or
(D) Any participant or beneficiary of
a Plan invested in an Investment Fund
managed by the QPAM.
(3) None of the persons described in
subsection (2)(B) through (D) above are
authorized to examine records regarding
an Investment Fund that they are not
invested in, privileged trade secrets or
privileged commercial or financial
information of the QPAM, or
information identifying other
individuals.
(4) Should the QPAM refuse to
disclose information to a person
described in subsection (2)(A) through
(D) above on the basis that the
information is exempt from disclosure,
the QPAM must provide a written
notice advising the requestor of the
reasons for the refusal and that the
Department may request such
information by the close of the thirtieth
(30th) day following the request.
(5) A QPAM’s failure to maintain the
records necessary to determine whether
the conditions of this exemption have
been met will result in the loss of the
relief provided under this exemption
only for the transaction or transactions
for which such records are missing or
have not been maintained. Such failure
does not affect the relief for other
transactions if the QPAM maintains
required records for such transactions in
compliance with this Section VI(u).
Signed at Washington, DC, this 1st day of
August, 2024.
Lisa M. Gomez,
Assistant Secretary, Employee Benefits
Security Administration, U.S. Department of
Labor.
[FR Doc. 2024–17586 Filed 8–12–24; 8:45 am]
BILLING CODE 4510–29–P
FEDERAL MARITIME COMMISSION
46 CFR Part 501
[Docket No. FMC–2024–0007]
RIN 3072–AD01
Agency Seal
Federal Maritime Commission.
Direct final rule.
AGENCY:
ACTION:
The Federal Maritime
Commission (FMC or ‘‘the
Commission’’) is codifying its
description of the Commission’s seal
and prescribing requirements for when
the seal can be used. Use by any outside
person or organization may be made
SUMMARY:
E:\FR\FM\13AUR1.SGM
13AUR1
Agencies
[Federal Register Volume 89, Number 156 (Tuesday, August 13, 2024)]
[Rules and Regulations]
[Pages 65779-65786]
From the Federal Register Online via the Government Publishing Office [www.gpo.gov]
[FR Doc No: 2024-17586]
=======================================================================
-----------------------------------------------------------------------
DEPARTMENT OF LABOR
Employee Benefits Security Administration
29 CFR Part 2550
[Application No. D-12022]
Z-RIN 1210 ZA07
Prohibited Transaction Class Exemption 84-14 for Transactions
Determined by Independent Qualified Professional Asset Managers (the
QPAM Exemption); Correction
AGENCY: Employee Benefits Security Administration, U.S. Department of
Labor.
ACTION: Final amendment to class exemption; technical correction.
-----------------------------------------------------------------------
SUMMARY: This document gives notice of a technical correction to the
Department of Labor's final amendment to class prohibited transaction
exemption (PTE) 84-14 (the QPAM Exemption), which was published in the
Federal Register on April 3, 2024. The QPAM Exemption provides relief
from certain prohibited transaction restrictions of Title I of the
Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974, as amended (ERISA) and
Title II of ERISA, as codified in the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, as
amended (the Code). The corrections in this document fix a
typographical error and make a minor clarification to a provision to
reflect the Department's original intent for the effect of the
amendment. These technical corrections are consistent with the amended
exemption's intended scope and the analysis and data relied upon in the
Department's final regulatory impact analysis (RIA).
DATES:
Issuance date: This technical correction is issued on August 13,
2024 without further action or notice.
Exemption Date: The PTE 84-14 amendment, as corrected herein, is
effective on June 17, 2024.
FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT: Brian Mica, telephone (202) 693-8540,
Office of Exemption Determinations, Employee Benefits Security
Administration, U.S. Department of Labor (this is not a toll-free
number).
SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION: This document makes a technical correction
to the Department of Labor's final amendment to class prohibited
transaction exemption (PTE) 84-14 (the QPAM Exemption), which was
published in the Federal Register on April 3, 2024 (89 FR 23090).
Background of the QPAM Exemption
A QPAM must be a registered investment adviser, bank, or insurance
company that meets asset and equity thresholds set forth in the
exemption. Section I of The QPAM Exemption permits an investment fund
managed by a QPAM to engage in a broad range of transactions with
parties in interest with respect to an ERISA-covered employee benefit
plan that invests in the fund as long as the QPAM satisfies certain
protective conditions that are set forth in the exemption. These
transactions would be prohibited by ERISA and the Internal Revenue Code
(the Code) without the relief provided in the exemption. Section I of
the QPAM Exemption does not include relief for the QPAM to engage in
any transactions involving its own self-dealing or conflicts of
interest.
The QPAM Final Amendment
The final amendment to the QPAM Exemption the Department published
on April 3, 2024 (the Final Amendment) \1\ modifies Section I(g) of the
exemption, a provision under which a QPAM may become ineligible to rely
on the QPAM Exemption for a period of 10 years if the QPAM, various
affiliates, or certain owners of the QPAM are convicted of certain
crimes or participate in prohibited misconduct. Among other changes,
the final amendment provides a One-Year Transition period to help Plans
and IRAs avoid or minimize possible negative impacts of terminating or
switching QPAMs or adjusting asset management arrangements when a QPAM
becomes ineligible pursuant to Section I(g). During the transition
period, ineligible QPAMs must send a notice to their plan clients.
Section I(i)(1)(B)(i) of the Final Amendment requires ineligible QPAMs
to agree in their Transition Period notice that they will not restrict
withdrawals during the Transition Period (the Termination Provision).
Also, Section I(i)(1)(B)(ii) of the Final Amendment prohibits
Ineligible QPAMs from imposing any ``fees, penalties, or charges on
client Plans in connection with the process of terminating or
withdrawing from and Investment Fund managed by the QPAM. . . .'' (The
Penalty-Free Withdrawal Provision).
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
\1\ See Amendment to Prohibited Transaction Class Exemption 84-
14 for Transactions Determined by Independent Qualified Professional
Asset Managers (the QPAM Exemption) 89 FR 23090 (April 3, 2024).
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
Explanation of Corrections to the Final Amendment
This document makes the following technical corrections to the
Final Amendment:
1. Extraneous Word ``or'' at the End of Section I(g)(1)(B)
The Department is removing the extraneous word ``or'' that appears
at the end of Section I(g)(1)(B) of the Final Amendment due to a
scrivener's error.
2. Requirement for Ineligible QPAMs Not To Restrict Withdrawals During
the One-Year Transition Period--Section I(i)((1)(B)(i)
As stated above, Section I(i)(1)(B)(i) and (ii) of the Final
Amendment require ineligible QPAMs to include the Termination and
Penalty-Free Withdrawal Provisions in the One-Year Transition Period
notices they send to their plan clients. Both requirements are based on
conditions the Department has
[[Page 65780]]
included in individual exemptions it has granted to QPAMs that have
become ineligible under Section I(g) of the exemption. In the
individual exemptions, the Department has included exception language
in both conditions that allow QPAMs to place restrictions or impose
fees on certain withdrawals to ensure that all fund investors are
treated equitably and to prevent a fund's withdrawal from having
adverse consequences for other investors remaining in the pooled fund.
The exception language protects ERISA-covered plans and IRAs from
circumstances that could occur where a few investors immediately
withdraw from the fund, resulting in the fund not having sufficient
liquidity to satisfy the remaining investors' withdrawal requests,
causing delays and potential harm to the remaining investors.
The Department intended to include similar exception language in
the Termination and Penalty-Free Withdrawal conditions of the Final
Amendment to reflect the language included in the conditions in its
individual exemptions and to make the conditions consistent with each
other in the Final Amendment. However, the Department inadvertently
omitted the exception language from the Termination Provision.
This technical correction reflects the Department's original intent
to make the provisions in the Final Amendment consistent with each
other and with the provisions in the Department's individual exemptions
by adding the following exception language to the Termination provision
in Section I(i)(1)(B)(i) of the amended QPAM exemption: ``. . . with
the exception of reasonable restrictions, appropriately disclosed in
advance, that are specifically designed to ensure equitable treatment
of all investors in a pooled fund in the event such withdrawal or
termination may have adverse consequences for all other investors. In
connection with any of these arrangements involving investments in
pooled funds subject to ERISA the adverse consequences must relate to a
lack of liquidity of the underlying assets, valuation issues, or
regulatory reasons that prevent the fund from promptly redeeming a
client Plan's investment, and such restrictions must be applicable to
all investors in the pooled fund on equal terms and effective no longer
than reasonably necessary to avoid the adverse consequences.''
In summary, these technical corrections add language to the
exemption that the Department intended to include to make the
Termination and Penalty-Free Withdrawal Provisions consistent with each
other and the provisions in the Department's individual exemptions and
to fix a scrivener's error. Therefore, based on the limited, corrective
purpose of these changes, the Department finds for good cause that a
notice and public comment procedure is unnecessary.\2\ The Department
further finds good cause to determine that given the limited,
corrective purpose of these changes, it is unnecessary to change the
effective date of the final amendment, which remains June 17, 2024.\3\
The corrections do not alter the analysis and data contained in the RIA
applicable to the Final Amendment, including the assessment of its
costs and benefits.
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
\2\ 5 U.S.C. 553(b).
\3\ 5 U.S.C. 553(d).
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
The Department granted the Final Amendment, which was proposed on
its own motion, pursuant to its authority under ERISA section 408(a)
and Code section 4975(c)(2).\4\ As required by ERISA section 408(a) and
Code section 4975(c)(2), the Department finds that the exemption, as
amended and corrected herein, is administratively feasible, in the
interests of Plans and their participants and beneficiaries, and
protective of the rights of participants and beneficiaries of Plans and
IRA owners. For convenience, the Department is re-publishing the full
text of the corrected exemption below.
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
\4\ The exemption was granted in accordance with procedures set
forth in 29 CFR part 2570, subpart B (76 FR 66637 (October 27,
2011)). Procedures Governing the Filing and Processing of Prohibited
Transaction Exemption Applications were amended effective April 8,
2024 (29 CFR part 2570, subpart B (89 FR 4662 (January 24, 2024)).
Please note that effective December 31, 1978, section 102 of
Reorganization Plan No. 4 of 1978, 5 U.S.C. App. (2018), transferred
the authority of the Secretary of the Treasury to issue exemptions
to the Secretary of Labor. Therefore, this notice of amendment to
the QPAM Exemption is issued solely by the Department.
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
PTE 84-14
Based on the foregoing, PTE 84-14 is corrected to read as follows:
Section I--General Exemption
The restrictions of ERISA section 406(a)(1)(A) through (D) and the
taxes imposed by Code section 4975(a) and (b), by reason of Code
section 4975(c)(1)(A) through (D), shall not apply to a transaction
between a Party in Interest with respect to a Plan and an Investment
Fund (as defined in Section VI(b)) in which the Plan has an interest,
and which is managed by a Qualified Professional Asset Manager (QPAM)
(as defined in Section VI(a)), if the following conditions are
satisfied:
(a) At the Time of the Transaction (as defined in Section VI(i)),
the Party in Interest, or its Affiliate (as defined in Section VI(c)),
does not have the authority to--
(1) Appoint or terminate the QPAM as a manager of the Plan assets
involved in the transaction, or
(2) Negotiate on behalf of the Plan the terms of the management
agreement with the QPAM (including renewals or modifications thereof)
with respect to the Plan assets involved in the transaction;
Notwithstanding the foregoing, in the case of an Investment Fund in
which two or more unrelated Plans have an interest, a transaction with
a Party in Interest with respect to a Plan will be deemed to satisfy
the requirements of this Section I(a) if the assets of the Plan managed
by the QPAM in the Investment Fund, when combined with the assets of
other Plans established or maintained by the same employer (or
Affiliate thereof described in Section VI(c)(1) below) or by the same
employee organization, and managed in the same Investment Fund,
represent less than ten (10) percent of the assets of the Investment
Fund;
(b) The transaction is not described in--
(1) Prohibited Transaction Exemption 2006-16 (71 FR 63786; October
31, 2006) (relating to securities lending arrangements) (as amended or
superseded),
(2) Prohibited Transaction Exemption 83-1 (48 FR 895; January 7,
1983) (relating to acquisitions by plans of interests in mortgage
pools) (as amended or superseded), or
(3) Prohibited Transaction Exemption 82-87 (47 FR 21331; May 18,
1982) (relating to certain mortgage financing arrangements) (as amended
or superseded);
(c) The terms of the transaction, commitments, and investment of
fund assets, and any associated negotiations are determined by the QPAM
(or under the authority and direction of the QPAM) which represents the
interests of the Investment Fund. Either the QPAM, or (so long as the
QPAM retains full fiduciary responsibility with respect to the
transaction) a property manager acting in accordance with written
guidelines established and administered by the QPAM, makes the decision
on behalf of the Investment Fund to enter into the transaction,
provided that the transaction is not part of an agreement, arrangement,
or understanding designed to benefit a Party in Interest. In exercising
its authority, the QPAM must ensure that any transaction, commitment,
or investment of fund
[[Page 65781]]
assets for which it is responsible is based on its own independent
exercise of fiduciary judgment and free from any bias in favor of the
interests of the plan sponsor or other parties in interest. The QPAM
may not be appointed or relied upon to uncritically approve
transactions, commitments, or investments negotiated, proposed, or
approved by the plan sponsor, or other parties in interest. The
prohibited transaction relief provided under this exemption applies
only in connection with an Investment Fund that is established
primarily for investment purposes. No relief is provided under this
exemption for any transaction that has been planned, negotiated, or
initiated by a Party in Interest, in whole or in part, and presented to
a QPAM for approval to the extent the QPAM would not have sole
responsibility with respect to the transaction as required by this
Section I(c);
(d) The Party in Interest dealing with the Investment Fund is
neither the QPAM nor a person Related to the QPAM;
(e) The transaction is not entered into with a Party in Interest
with respect to any Plan whose assets are managed by the QPAM, when
combined with the assets of other Plans established or maintained by
the same employer (or Affiliate thereof described in subsection
VI(c)(1) below) or by the same employee organization, and managed by
the QPAM, represent more than twenty (20) percent of the total client
assets managed by the QPAM at the time of the transaction; and
(f) At the Time of the Transaction, and at the time of any
subsequent renewal or modification thereof that requires the consent of
the QPAM, the terms of the transaction are at least as favorable to the
Investment Fund as the terms generally available in arm's length
transactions between unrelated parties.
(g) Integrity.
(1) Ineligibility due to a Criminal Conviction or Prohibited
Misconduct. Subject to the Ineligibility Date provision set forth in
Section I(h), a QPAM is ineligible to rely on this exemption for 10
years following:
(A) A Criminal Conviction, as defined in Section VI(r), of the QPAM
or any Affiliate thereof (as defined in Section VI(d)), or any owner,
direct or indirect, of a five (5) percent or more interest in the QPAM;
or
(B) The QPAM, any Affiliate thereof (as defined in Section VI(d)),
or any owner, direct or indirect, of a five (5) percent or more
interest in the QPAM Participates In Prohibited Misconduct as defined
in Section VI(s) and VI(t);
(2) Notice to the Department regarding Participation In Prohibited
Misconduct. The QPAM must submit a notice to the Department at
[email protected] if the QPAM, any Affiliate (as defined in Section VI(d)),
or any owner, direct or indirect, of a five (5) percent or more
interest in the QPAM, Participates In Prohibited Misconduct as defined
in Section VI(s) and VI(t), or enters into an agreement with a foreign
government, however denominated by the laws of the relevant foreign
government, that is substantially equivalent to a non-prosecution
agreement (NPA) or deferred prosecution agreement (DPA) described in
section VI(s)(1). The notice must be sent within 30 calendar days after
the Ineligibility Date for the Prohibited Misconduct as determined
pursuant to Section (I)(h)(2) below or the execution date of the
substantially-equivalent foreign NPA or DPA, and the notice must
include a description of the Prohibited Misconduct or the
substantially-equivalent foreign NPA or DPA and the name of and contact
information for the QPAM.
(h) Ineligibility Date. A QPAM shall become ineligible:
(1) as of the ``Conviction Date,'' which is the date of the
judgment of the trial court (or the date of the judgment of any court
in a foreign jurisdiction that is the equivalent of a U.S. federal or
state trial court), regardless of whether that judgment is appealed; or
(2)(A) as of the date on or after June 17, 2024 that the QPAM, any
Affiliate thereof (as defined in Section VI(d)), or any owner, direct
or indirect, of a five (5) percent or more interest in the QPAM
executes a non-prosecution agreement, or a deferred prosecution
agreement described in Section VI(s)(1); or
(B) as of the date on or after June 17, 2024 that a final judgment
(regardless of whether the judgment is appealed) or a court-approved
settlement is ordered by a Federal or State criminal or civil court in
connection with determining that the QPAM, any Affiliate thereof (as
defined in Section VI(d)), or any owner, direct or indirect, of a five
(5) percent or more interest in the QPAM has engaged in Prohibited
Misconduct as defined in Section VI(s)(2) and VI(t).
A person will become eligible to rely on this exemption again only
upon a subsequent judgment reversing such person's conviction or civil
judgment, the effective date of any individual prohibited transaction
exemption it receives that expressly permits the relief in this
exemption, or the expiration of the 10-year ineligibility period.
(i) One-Year Transition Period Due to Ineligibility (One-Year
Transition Period or Transition Period). Any QPAM that becomes
ineligible under subsection I(g)(1) must provide a Transition Period
for its client Plans. Relief is available for transactions (including
past transactions) under this exemption during the Transition Period
for a maximum period of one year after the Ineligibility Date, provided
that the QPAM complies with each condition of the exemption throughout
the one-year period (including those additional conditions specified in
this subsection (i)). The relief is available during the Transition
Period under this exemption only for the QPAM's client Plans that had a
pre-existing Written Management Agreement required under subsection
VI(a) with the QPAM on the Ineligibility Date. A QPAM must ensure that
it manages Plan assets prudently and loyally during the Transition
Period. During the Transition Period, the QPAM must comply with the
following additional conditions:
(1) Within 30 days after the Ineligibility Date, the QPAM must
provide notice to the Department at [email protected] and each of its Client
Plans stating:
(A) Its failure to satisfy subsection I(g)(1) and the resulting
initiation of this One-Year Transition Period;
(B) That during the Transition Period, the QPAM:
(i) Agrees not to restrict the ability of a client Plan to
terminate or withdraw from its arrangement with the QPAM, with the
exception of reasonable restrictions, appropriately disclosed in
advance, that are specifically designed to ensure equitable treatment
of all investors in a pooled fund in the event such withdrawal or
termination may have adverse consequences for all other investors. In
connection with any of these arrangements involving investments in
pooled funds subject to ERISA the adverse consequences must relate to a
lack of liquidity of the underlying assets, valuation issues, or
regulatory reasons that prevent the fund from promptly redeeming a
client Plan's investment, and such restrictions must be applicable to
all investors in the pooled fund on equal terms and effective no longer
than reasonably necessary to avoid the adverse consequences;
(ii) Will not impose any fees, penalties, or charges on client
Plans in connection with the process of terminating or withdrawing from
an Investment Fund managed by the QPAM except for reasonable fees,
appropriately disclosed in advance, that are specifically designed to:
(a) prevent generally recognized abusive investment practices, or (b)
ensure equitable
[[Page 65782]]
treatment of all investors in a pooled fund in the event such
withdrawal or termination may have adverse consequences for all other
investors, provided that such fees are applied consistently and in a
like manner to all such investors;
(iii) Agrees to indemnify, hold harmless, and promptly restore
actual losses to the client Plans for any damages that directly result
to them from a violation of applicable laws, a breach of contract, or
any claim arising out of the conduct that is the subject of a Criminal
Conviction or Prohibited Misconduct of the QPAM, an Affiliate (as
defined in Section VI(d)), or an owner, direct or indirect, of a five
(5) percent or more interest in the QPAM. Actual losses specifically
include losses and costs arising from unwinding transactions with third
parties and from transitioning Plan assets to an alternative asset
manager as well as costs associated with any exposure to excise taxes
under Code section 4975 as a result of a QPAM's inability to rely upon
the relief in the QPAM Exemption; and
(iv) Will not employ or knowingly engage any individual that
Participated In the conduct that is the subject of a Criminal
Conviction or Prohibited Misconduct, regardless of whether the
individual is separately convicted in connection with the criminal
conduct.
(C) An objective description of the facts and circumstances upon
which the Criminal Conviction or Prohibited Misconduct is based,
written with sufficient detail to fully inform the client Plan's
fiduciary of the nature and severity of the conduct so that the
fiduciary can satisfy its duties of prudence and loyalty under section
404 of ERISA (29 U.S.C. 1104), as applicable, with respect to hiring,
monitoring, evaluating, and retaining the QPAM in a non-QPAM capacity;
(2) As of the Ineligibility Date under Section I(h), the QPAM must
not employ or knowingly engage any individual that Participated In the
conduct that is the subject of a Criminal Conviction or that
Participated In Prohibited Misconduct causing ineligibility of the QPAM
under subsection I(g)(1); and
(3) After the One-Year Transition Period expires, and if the
Criminal Conviction is not reversed on appeal, the entity may not rely
on the relief provided in this exemption until the expiration of the
10-year ineligibility period unless it obtains an individual exemption
permitting it to continue relying upon this exemption.
(j) Requests for an Individual Exemption. A QPAM that is ineligible
or anticipates that it will become ineligible due to an actual or
possible Criminal Conviction or Participating In Prohibited Misconduct
as defined in Sections VI(r) and VI(s) may apply for an individual
exemption from the Department to continue to rely on the relief
provided in this exemption for a longer period than the One-Year
Transition Period. An applicant should review the Department's most
recently granted individual exemptions involving Section I(g)
ineligibility with the expectation that similar conditions will be
required of the applicant, if the Department proposes and grants a
requested exemption. To that end, if an applicant requests the
Department to exclude any term or condition from its exemption that is
included in a recently granted individual exemption, the applicant must
include a detailed statement with its exemption application explaining
the reason(s) why the proposed variation is necessary and in the
interest and protective of affected Plans, their participants and
beneficiaries, and individuals for whose benefit a Plan described in
Code section 4975(e)(1)(B) or (C) is established (IRA owners). The
Department will review such requests consistent with the requirements
of ERISA section 408(a) and Code section 4975(c)(2). Such applicants
also should provide detailed information in their applications
quantifying the specific cost or harms in dollar amounts, if any, their
client Plans would suffer if the QPAM could not rely on the exemption
after the Transition Period, including the specific dollar amounts of
investment losses resulting from foregone investment opportunities and
any evidence supporting the proposition that investment opportunities
would be available to client Plans on less advantageous terms. An
applicant should not construe the Department's acceptance of an
individual exemption application as a guarantee that the Department
will grant an individual exemption. A QPAM that submits an individual
exemption application must ensure that it manages Plan assets prudently
and loyally during the Transition Period in accordance with section 404
of ERISA (29 U.S.C. 1104), as applicable.
(k) Any QPAM that relies upon this exemption must notify the
Department via email at [email protected]. Each QPAM that relies upon the
exemption must report the legal name of each business entity relying
upon the exemption in the email to the Department and any name the QPAM
may be operating under. This notification needs to be reported only
once unless there is a change to the legal name or operating name(s) of
the QPAM relying upon the exemption or the QPAM no longer is relying on
the exemptive relief provided in the exemption. The QPAM must provide
notice to the Department within ninety (90) calendar days of its
reliance on the exemption or a change to its legal or operating name.
If the QPAM inadvertently fails to provide notice to the Department
within the initial 90 calendar day period, it may notify the Department
of its reliance on the exemption or name change and failure to report
without losing the relief provided by this exemption. This notice must
be provided within an additional 90 calendar days along with an
explanation for the QPAM's failure to provide notice. A QPAM may notify
the Department if it is no longer relying upon this exemption at any
time.
Section II--Specific Exemption for Employers
The restrictions of ERISA sections 406(a), 406(b)(1), and 407(a)
and the taxes imposed by Code section 4975(a) and (b), by reason of
Code section 4975(c)(1)(A) through (E), shall not apply to:
(a) The sale, leasing, or servicing of Goods or the furnishing of
services, to an Investment Fund managed by a QPAM by a Party in
Interest with respect to a Plan having an interest in the fund, if--
(1) The Party in Interest is an employer any of whose employees are
covered by the Plan or is a person who is a Party in Interest by virtue
of a relationship to such an employer (described in Section VI(c)
below),
(2) The transaction is necessary for the administration or
management of the Investment Fund,
(3) The transaction takes place in the ordinary course of a
business engaged in by the Party in Interest with the general public,
(4) The amount attributable in any taxable year of the Party in
Interest to transactions engaged in with an Investment Fund pursuant to
this Section II(a) does not exceed one (1) percent of the gross
receipts derived from all sources for the prior taxable year of the
Party in Interest, and
(5) The requirements of Sections I(c) through (g) above are
satisfied with respect to the transaction.
(b) The leasing of office or commercial space by an Investment Fund
maintained by a QPAM to a Party in Interest with respect to a Plan
having an interest in the Investment Fund, if--
(1) The Party in Interest is an employer any of whose employees are
[[Page 65783]]
covered by the Plan or is a person who is a Party in Interest by virtue
of a relationship to such an employer (described in Section VI(c)
below);
(2) No commission or other fee is paid by the Investment Fund to
the QPAM or to the employer, or to an Affiliate of the QPAM or employer
(as defined in Section VI(c) below), in connection with the
transaction;
(3) Any unit of space leased to the Party in Interest by the
Investment Fund is suitable (or adaptable without excessive cost) for
use by different tenants;
(4) The amount of space covered by the lease does not exceed
fifteen (15) percent of the rentable space of the office building,
integrated office park, or commercial center (if the lease does not
pertain to office space);
(5) In the case of a Plan that is not an eligible individual
account plan (as defined in ERISA section 407(d)(3)), immediately after
the transaction is entered into, the aggregate fair market value of
employer real property and employer securities held by the Investment
Funds of the QPAM in which the Plan has an interest does not exceed ten
(10) percent of the fair market value of the assets of the Plan held in
those Investment Funds. In determining the aggregate fair market value
of employer real property and employer securities as described herein,
a Plan shall be considered to own the same proportionate undivided
interest in each asset of the Investment Fund or funds as its
proportionate interest in the total assets of the Investment Fund(s).
For purposes of this requirement, the term ``employer real property''
means real property leased to, and the term ``employer securities''
means securities issued by an employer any of whose employees are
covered by the Plan or a Party in Interest of the Plan by reason of a
relationship to the employer described in ERISA section 3(14)(E) or
(G); and
(6) The requirements of Sections I(c) through (g) above are
satisfied with respect to the transaction.
Section III--Specific Lease Exemption for QPAMs
The restrictions of ERISA section 406(a)(1)(A) through (D),
406(b)(1) and (2), and the taxes imposed by Code section 4975(a) and
(b), by reason of Code section 4975(c)(1)(A) through (E), shall not
apply to the leasing of office or commercial space by an Investment
Fund managed by a QPAM to the QPAM, a person who is a Party in Interest
of a Plan by virtue of a relationship to such QPAM described in ERISA
section 3(14)(G), (H), or (I), or a person not eligible for the General
Exemption of Section I above by reason of Section I(a), if--
(a) The amount of space covered by the lease does not exceed the
greater of 7,500 square feet or one (1) percent of the rentable space
of the office building, integrated office park, or of the commercial
center in which the Investment Fund has the investment;
(b) The unit of space subject to the lease is suitable (or
adaptable without excessive cost) for use by different tenants;
(c) At the Time of the Transaction, and at the time of any
subsequent renewal or modification thereof that requires the consent of
the QPAM, the terms of the transaction are not more favorable to the
lessee than the terms generally available in arm's length transactions
between unrelated parties; and
(d) No commission or other fee is paid by the Investment Fund to
the QPAM, any person possessing the disqualifying powers described in
Section I(a), or any Affiliate of such persons (as defined in Section
VI(c) below), in connection with the transaction.
Section IV--Transactions Involving Places of Public Accommodation
The restrictions of ERISA section 406(a)(1)(A) through (D) and
406(b)(1) and (2) and the taxes imposed by Code section 4975(a) and
(b), by reason of Code section 4975(c)(1)(A) through (E), shall not
apply to the furnishing of services and facilities (and Goods
incidental thereto) by a place of public accommodation owned by an
Investment Fund managed by a QPAM to a Party in Interest with respect
to a Plan having an interest in the Investment Fund, if the services
and facilities (and incidental Goods) are furnished on a comparable
basis to the general public.
Section V--Specific Exemption Involving QPAM-Sponsored Plans
The relief in Sections I, III, or IV above from the applicable
restrictions of ERISA section 406(a), section 406(b)(1) and (2), and
the taxes imposed by Code section 4975(a) and (b), by reason of Code
section 4975(c)(1)(A) through (E), shall apply to a transaction
involving the assets of a Plan sponsored by the QPAM or an Affiliate
(as defined in Section VI(c)) of the QPAM if:
(a) The QPAM has discretionary authority or control with respect to
the Plan assets involved in the transaction;
(b) The QPAM adopts Written Policies and Procedures that are
designed to ensure compliance with the conditions of the exemption;
(c) An independent auditor, who has appropriate technical training
or experience and proficiency with ERISA's fiduciary responsibility
provisions and so represents in writing, conducts an Exemption Audit on
an annual basis. Following completion of the Exemption Audit, the
auditor shall issue a written report to the Plan presenting its
specific findings regarding the level of compliance with: (1) the
Written Policies and Procedures adopted by the QPAM in accordance with
Section V(b) above, and (2) the objective requirements of this
exemption. The written report shall also contain the auditor's overall
opinion regarding whether the QPAM's program complied with: (1) the
Written Policies and Procedures adopted by the QPAM, and (2) the
objective requirements of the exemption. The Exemption Audit and the
written report must be completed within six months following the end of
the year to which the audit relates; and
(d) The transaction meets the applicable requirements set forth in
Sections I, III, or IV above.
Section VI--Definitions and General Rules
For purposes of this exemption:
(a) The term ``Qualified Professional Asset Manager'' or ``QPAM''
means an Independent Fiduciary which is--
(1) A bank, as defined in section 202(a)(2) of the Investment
Advisers Act of 1940 that has the power to manage, acquire or dispose
of assets of a Plan, which bank has, as of the last day of its most
recent fiscal year, Equity Capital in excess of $1,000,000. Effective
as of the last day of the fiscal year ending no later than December 31,
2024, substitute $1,570,300 for $1,000,000. Effective as of the last
day of the fiscal year ending no later than December 31, 2027,
substitute $2,140,600 for $1,000,000. Effective as of the last day of
the fiscal year ending no later than December 31, 2030, substitute
$2,720,000 for $1,000,000; or
(2) A savings and loan association, the accounts of which are
insured by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation that has made
application for and been granted trust powers to manage, acquire or
dispose of assets of a Plan by a State or Federal authority having
supervision over savings and loan associations, which savings and loan
association has, as of the last day of its most recent fiscal year,
Equity Capital or Net Worth in excess of $1,000,000. Effective as of
the last day of the fiscal year ending no later than December 31, 2024,
substitute $1,570,300 for $1,000,000. Effective as of the last day of
the fiscal year ending no later than December 31, 2027,
[[Page 65784]]
substitute $2,140,600 for $1,000,000. Effective as of the last day of
the fiscal year ending no later than December 31, 2030, substitute
$2,720,000 for $1,000,000; or
(3) An insurance company which is qualified under the laws of more
than one State to manage, acquire, or dispose of any assets of a Plan,
which company has, as of the last day of its most recent fiscal year,
Net Worth in excess of $1,000,000 and which is subject to supervision
and examination by a State authority having supervision over insurance
companies. Effective as of the last day of the fiscal year ending no
later than December 31, 2024, substitute $1,570,300 for $1,000,000.
Effective as of the last day of the fiscal year ending no later than
December 31, 2027, substitute $2,140,600 for $1,000,000. Effective as
of the last day of the fiscal year ending no later than December 31,
2030, substitute $2,720,000 for $1,000,000; or
(4) An investment adviser registered under the Investment Advisers
Act of 1940 that has total client assets under its management and
control in excess of $85,000,000 as of the last day of its most recent
fiscal year, and either (A) Shareholders' or Partners' Equity in excess
of $1,000,000, or (B) payment of all of its liabilities including any
liabilities that may arise by reason of a breach or violation of a duty
described in ERISA sections 404 and 406 is unconditionally guaranteed
by--(i) A person with a relationship to such investment adviser
described in subsection VI(c)(1) below if the investment adviser and
such Affiliate have Shareholders' or Partners' Equity, in the
aggregate, in excess of $1,000,000; or (ii) A person described in
(a)(1), (a)(2) or (a)(3) of Section VI above; or (iii) A broker-dealer
registered under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 that has, as of
the last day of its most recent fiscal year, Net Worth in excess of
$1,000,000. Effective as of the last day of the fiscal year ending no
later than December 31, 2024, substitute $101,956,000 for $85,000,000
and $1,346,000 for $1,000,000. Effective as of the last day of the
fiscal year ending no later than December 31, 2027, substitute
$118,912,000 for $85,000,000 and $1,694,000 for $1,000,000. Effective
as of the last day of the fiscal year ending no later than December 31,
2030, substitute $135,868,000 for $85,000,000 and $2,040,000 for
$1,000,000; Provided that such bank, savings and loan association,
insurance company, or investment adviser has acknowledged in a
``Written Management Agreement'' that it is a fiduciary with respect to
each Plan that has retained the QPAM.
(5) By publication through notice in the Federal Register, the
Department will make subsequent annual adjustments for inflation to the
Equity Capital, Net Worth, and asset management thresholds in
subsection VI(a)(1) through (4), rounded to the nearest $10,000, no
later than January 31 of each year. The adjustments will be effective
as of the last day of the fiscal year in which the increase takes
effect, ending no later than December 31 of such fiscal year.
(b) An ``Investment Fund'' includes single customer and pooled
separate accounts maintained by an insurance company, individual trusts
and common, collective or group trusts maintained by a bank, and any
other account or fund to the extent that the disposition of its assets
(whether or not in the custody of the QPAM) is subject to the
discretionary authority of the QPAM.
(c) For purposes of Section I(a) and Sections II and V above, an
``Affiliate'' of a person means--
(1) Any person directly or indirectly, through one or more
intermediaries, Controlling, Controlled by, or under Common Control
with the person;
(2) Any corporation, partnership, trust or unincorporated
enterprise of which such person is an officer, director, ten (10)
percent or more partner (except with respect to Section II this figure
shall be five (5) percent), or highly compensated employee as defined
in Code section 4975(e)(2)(H) (but only if the employer of such
employee is the Plan sponsor); and
(3) Any director of the person or any employee of the person who is
a highly compensated employee, as defined in Code section
4975(e)(2)(H), or who has direct or indirect authority, responsibility
or control regarding the custody, management or disposition of Plan
assets involved in the transaction. A named fiduciary (within the
meaning of ERISA section 402(a)(2)) of a Plan with respect to the Plan
assets involved in the transaction and an employer any of whose
employees are covered by the Plan will also be considered Affiliates
with respect to each other for purposes of Section I(a) above if such
employer or an Affiliate of such employer has the authority, alone or
shared with others, to appoint or terminate the named fiduciary or
otherwise negotiate the terms of the named fiduciary's employment
agreement.
(d) For purposes of Section I(g) above an ``Affiliate'' of a person
means--
(1) Any person directly or indirectly through one or more
intermediaries, Controlling, Controlled by, or under Common Control
with the person;
(2) Any director of, Relative of, or partner in, any such person;
(3) Any corporation, partnership, trust or unincorporated
enterprise of which such person is an officer, director, or a five
percent or more partner or owner; and
(4) Any employee or officer of the person who--
(A) Is a highly compensated employee (as defined in Code section
4975(e)(2)(H) or officer (earning ten (10) percent or more of the
yearly wages of such person); or
(B) Has direct or indirect authority, responsibility, or control
regarding the custody, management or disposition of Plan assets.
(e) The terms ``Controlling,'' ``Controlled by,'' ``under Common
Control with,'' and ``Controls'' means the power to exercise a
controlling influence over the management or policies of a person other
than an individual.
(f) The term ``Party in Interest'' means a person described in
ERISA section 3(14) and includes a ``disqualified person,'' as defined
in Code section 4975(e)(2).
(g) The term ``Relative'' means a relative as that term is defined
in ERISA section 3(15), or a brother, a sister, or a spouse of a
brother or sister.
(h) A QPAM is ``Related'' to a Party in Interest for purposes of
Section I(d) above if, as of the last day of its most recent calendar
quarter: (i) The QPAM owns a ten (10) percent or more Interest in the
Party in Interest; (ii) a person Controlling, or Controlled by, the
QPAM owns a twenty (20) percent or more Interest in the Party in
Interest; (iii) the Party in Interest owns a ten (10) percent or more
Interest in the QPAM; or (iv) a person Controlling, or Controlled by,
the Party in Interest owns a twenty (20) percent or more Interest in
the QPAM. Notwithstanding the foregoing, a Party in Interest is
``Related'' to a QPAM if: (i) A person Controlling, or Controlled by,
the Party in Interest has an ownership Interest that is less than
twenty (20) percent but greater than ten (10) percent in the QPAM and
such person exercises Control over the management or policies of the
QPAM by reason of its ownership Interest; (ii) a person Controlling, or
Controlled by, the QPAM has an ownership Interest that is less than
twenty (20) percent but greater than ten (10) percent in the Party in
Interest and such person exercises Control over the management or
policies of the Party in Interest by reason of its ownership Interest.
For purposes of this definition:
(1) The term ``Interest'' means with respect to ownership of an
entity--
[[Page 65785]]
(A) The combined voting power of all classes of stock entitled to
vote or the total value of the shares of all classes of stock of the
entity if the entity is a corporation,
(B) The capital interest or the profits interest of the entity if
the entity is a partnership, or
(C) The beneficial interest of the entity if the entity is a trust
or unincorporated enterprise; and
(2) A person is considered to own an ``Interest'' if, other than in
a fiduciary capacity, the person has or shares the authority--
(A) To exercise any voting rights or to direct some other person to
exercise the voting rights relating to such interest, or
(B) To dispose or to direct the disposition of such interest.
(i) ``At the Time of the Transaction'' means the date upon which
the transaction is entered into. In addition, in the case of a
transaction that is continuing, the transaction shall be deemed to
occur until it is terminated. If any transaction is entered into on or
after December 21, 1982, or a renewal that requires the consent of the
QPAM occurs on or after December 21, 1982, and the requirements of this
exemption are satisfied at the time the transaction is entered into or
renewed, respectively, the requirements will continue to be satisfied
thereafter with respect to the transaction. Notwithstanding the
foregoing, this exemption shall cease to apply to a transaction exempt
by virtue of Section I or Section II above at such time as the
percentage requirement contained in Section I(e) is exceeded, unless no
portion of such excess results from an increase in the assets
transferred for discretionary management to a QPAM. For this purpose,
assets transferred do not include the reinvestment of earnings
attributable to those Plan assets already under the discretionary
management of the QPAM. Nothing in this paragraph shall be construed as
exempting a transaction entered into by an Investment Fund which
becomes a transaction described in ERISA section 406 or Code section
4975 while the transaction is continuing, unless the conditions of this
exemption were met either at the time the transaction was entered into
or at the time the transaction would have become prohibited but for
this exemption.
(j) The term ``Goods'' includes all things which are movable or
which are fixtures used by an Investment Fund but does not include
securities, commodities, commodities futures, money, documents,
instruments, accounts, chattel paper, contract rights, and any other
property, tangible or intangible, which, under the relevant facts and
circumstances, is held primarily for investment.
(k) For purposes of subsection VI(a)(1) and (2) above, the term
``Equity Capital'' means stock (common and preferred), surplus,
undivided profits, contingency reserves, and other capital reserves.
(l) For purposes of subsection VI(a)(2), (3), and (4) above, the
term ``Net Worth'' means capital, paid-in and contributed surplus,
unassigned surplus, contingency reserves, group contingency reserves,
and special reserves.
(m) For purposes of subsection VI(a)(4) above, the term
``Shareholders' or Partners' Equity'' means the equity shown in the
most recent balance sheet prepared within the two years immediately
preceding a transaction undertaken pursuant to this exemption, in
accordance with generally accepted accounting principles.
(n) The term ``Plan'' refers to an employee benefit plan described
in ERISA section 3(3) and/or a plan described in Code section
4975(e)(1).
(o) For purposes of Section VI(a) above, the term ``Independent
Fiduciary'' means a fiduciary managing the assets of a Plan in an
Investment Fund that is independent of and unrelated to the employer
sponsoring such Plan. For purposes of this exemption, the fiduciary
will not be deemed to be independent of and unrelated to the employer
sponsoring the Plan if such fiduciary directly or indirectly Controls,
is Controlled by, or is under Common Control with the employer
sponsoring the Plan. Notwithstanding the foregoing: (1) for the period
from December 21, 1982, through November 3, 2010, a QPAM managing the
assets of a Plan in an Investment Fund will not fail to satisfy the
requirements of this section solely because such fiduciary is the
employer sponsoring the Plan or directly or indirectly Controls, is
Controlled by, or is under Common Control with the employer sponsoring
the Plan; and (2) effective after November 3, 2010 a QPAM acting as a
manager for its own Plan or the Plan of an Affiliate (as defined in
subsection VI(c)(1) above) will be deemed to satisfy the requirements
of this section if the requirements of Section V above are met.
(p) An ``Exemption Audit'' of a Plan must consist of the following:
(1) A review of the Written Policies and Procedures adopted by the
QPAM pursuant to Section V(b) above for consistency with each of the
objective requirements of this exemption (as described in Section VI(q)
below);
(2) A test of a representative sample of the Plan's transactions
during the audit period that is sufficient in size and nature to afford
the auditor a reasonable basis:
(A) To make specific findings regarding whether the QPAM is in
compliance with (i) the Written Policies and Procedures adopted by the
QPAM pursuant to Section VI(q) below and (ii) the objective
requirements of this exemption, and
(B) To render an overall opinion regarding the level of compliance
of the QPAM's program with subsection VI(p)(2)(A)(i) and (ii) above;
(3) A determination as to whether the QPAM has satisfied the
definition of a QPAM under the exemption; and (4) Issuance of a written
report describing the steps performed by the auditor during the course
of its review and the auditor's findings.
(q) For purposes of Section VI(p), the Written Policies and
Procedures must describe the following objective requirements of this
exemption and the steps adopted by the QPAM to ensure compliance with
each of these requirements:
(1) The definition of a QPAM in Section VI(a);
(2) The requirement of Sections V(a) and I(c) regarding the
discretionary authority or control of the QPAM with respect to the Plan
assets involved in the transaction, in negotiating the terms of the
transaction and with respect to the decision on behalf of the
Investment Fund to enter into the transaction;
(3) For a transaction described in Section I above:
(A) That the transaction is not entered into with any person who is
excluded from relief under Section I(a), Section I(d), or Section I(e)
above;
(B) That the transaction is not described in any of the class
exemptions listed in Section I(b) above;
(4) If the transaction is described in Section III above:
(A) That the amount of space covered by the lease does not exceed
the limitations described in Section III(a) above, and
(B) That no commission or other fee is paid by the Investment Fund
as described in Section III(d) above.
(r) ``Criminal Conviction'' occurs when a QPAM, any Affiliate
thereof (as defined in Section VI(d)), or any owner, direct or
indirect, of a five (5) percent or more interest in the QPAM:
(1) is convicted in a U.S. federal or state court or released from
imprisonment, whichever is later, as a result of any felony involving
abuse or misuse of such person's Plan position or employment, or
position or employment
[[Page 65786]]
with a labor organization; any felony arising out of the conduct of the
business of a broker, dealer, investment adviser, bank, insurance
company or fiduciary; income tax evasion; any felony involving the
larceny, theft, robbery, extortion, forgery, counterfeiting, fraudulent
concealment, embezzlement, fraudulent conversion, or misappropriation
of funds or securities; conspiracy or attempt to commit any such crimes
or a crime in which any of the foregoing crimes is an element; or any
crime that is identified or described in ERISA section 411; or
(2) is convicted by a foreign court of competent jurisdiction or
released from imprisonment, whichever is later, as a result of a crime,
however denominated by the laws of the relevant foreign government,
that is substantially equivalent to an offense described in(r)(1) above
(excluding convictions and imprisonment that occur within a foreign
country that is included on the Department of Commerce's list of
``foreign adversaries'' that is codified in 15 CFR 7.4, as amended).
(s) ``Prohibited Misconduct'' means when a QPAM, any Affiliate
thereof (as defined in Section VI(d)), or any owner, direct or
indirect, of a five (5) percent or more interest in the QPAM:
(1) Enters into a non-prosecution (NPA) or deferred prosecution
agreement (DPA) on or after June 17, 2024 with a U.S. federal or state
prosecutor's office or regulatory agency, where the factual allegations
that form the basis for the NPA or DPA would have constituted a crime
described in Section VI(r) if they were successfully prosecuted; or
(2) Is found or determined in a final judgment, or court-approved
settlement by a Federal or State criminal or civil court that is
entered on or after June 17, 2024 in a proceeding brought by the
Department, the Department of Treasury, the Internal Revenue Service,
the Securities and Exchange Commission, the Department of Justice, the
Federal Reserve Bank, the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency,
the Federal Depository Insurance Corporation, the Commodities Futures
Trading Commission, a state regulator, or state attorney general to
have Participated In one or more of the following categories of conduct
irrespective of whether the court specifically considers this exemption
or its terms:
(A) engaging in a systematic pattern or practice of conduct that
violates the conditions of this exemption in connection with otherwise
non-exempt prohibited transactions;
(B) intentionally engaging in conduct that violates the conditions
of this exemption in connection with otherwise non-exempt prohibited
transactions; or
(C) providing materially misleading information to the Department,
the Department of Treasury, the Internal Revenue Service, the
Securities and Exchange Commission, the Department of Justice, the
Federal Reserve Bank, the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency,
the Federal Depository Insurance Corporation, the Commodities Futures
Trading Commission, a state regulator or a state attorney general in
connection with the conditions of the exemption.
(t) ``Participate In,'' ``Participates In,'' ``Participating In,''
``Participated In,'' and ``Participation In'' all refer not only to
active participation in Prohibited Misconduct, but also to knowing
approval of the conduct, or knowledge of such conduct without taking
active steps to prohibit such conduct, including reporting the conduct
to the appropriate compliance personnel.
(u) The QPAM maintains the records necessary to enable the persons
described in subsection (u)(2) below to determine whether the
conditions of this exemption have been met with respect to a
transaction for a period of six years from the date of the transaction
in a manner that is reasonably accessible for examination. No
prohibited transaction will be considered to have occurred solely due
to the unavailability of such records if they are lost or destroyed due
to circumstances beyond the control of the QPAM before the end of the
six-year period.
(1) No party, other than the QPAM responsible for complying with
this Section VI(u), will be subject to the civil penalty that may be
assessed under ERISA section 502(i) or the excise tax imposed by Code
section 4975(a) and (b), if applicable, if the records are not
maintained or available for examination as required by this Section
VI(u) below.
(2) Except as provided in subsection (3) or precluded by 12 U.S.C.
484 (regarding limitations on visitorial powers for national banks),
and notwithstanding any provisions of ERISA section 504(a)(2) and (b),
the records are reasonably available at their customary location during
normal business hours for examination by:
(A) Any authorized employee of the Department or the Internal
Revenue Service or another state or federal regulator,
(B) Any fiduciary of a Plan invested in an Investment Fund managed
by the QPAM,
(C) Any contributing employer and any employee organization whose
members are covered by a Plan invested in an Investment Fund managed by
the QPAM, or
(D) Any participant or beneficiary of a Plan invested in an
Investment Fund managed by the QPAM.
(3) None of the persons described in subsection (2)(B) through (D)
above are authorized to examine records regarding an Investment Fund
that they are not invested in, privileged trade secrets or privileged
commercial or financial information of the QPAM, or information
identifying other individuals.
(4) Should the QPAM refuse to disclose information to a person
described in subsection (2)(A) through (D) above on the basis that the
information is exempt from disclosure, the QPAM must provide a written
notice advising the requestor of the reasons for the refusal and that
the Department may request such information by the close of the
thirtieth (30th) day following the request.
(5) A QPAM's failure to maintain the records necessary to determine
whether the conditions of this exemption have been met will result in
the loss of the relief provided under this exemption only for the
transaction or transactions for which such records are missing or have
not been maintained. Such failure does not affect the relief for other
transactions if the QPAM maintains required records for such
transactions in compliance with this Section VI(u).
Signed at Washington, DC, this 1st day of August, 2024.
Lisa M. Gomez,
Assistant Secretary, Employee Benefits Security Administration, U.S.
Department of Labor.
[FR Doc. 2024-17586 Filed 8-12-24; 8:45 am]
BILLING CODE 4510-29-P