Exemptions from Certain Prohibited Transaction Restrictions, 61816-61921 [2017-27977]
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DEPARTMENT OF LABOR
the type proposed to the Secretary of
Labor.
Employee Benefits Security
Administration
Statutory Findings
Exemptions from Certain Prohibited
Transaction Restrictions
Employee Benefits Security
Administration, Labor.
ACTION: Grant of individual exemptions.
AGENCY:
This document contains
exemptions issued by the Department of
Labor (the Department) from certain of
the prohibited transaction restrictions of
the Employee Retirement Income
Security Act of 1974 (ERISA or the Act)
and/or the Internal Revenue Code of
1986 (the Code). This notice includes
the following: 2017–03, JPMorgan Chase
& Co., D–11906; 2017–04, Deutsche
Investment Management Americas Inc.
(DIMA) and Certain Current and Future
Asset Management Affiliates of
Deutsche Bank AG, D–11908; 2017–05,
Citigroup Inc., D–11909; 2017–06,
Barclays Capital Inc., D–11910; 2017–
07, UBS Assets Management (Americas)
Inc.; UBS Realty Investors LLC; UBS
Hedge Fund Solutions LLC; UBS
O’Connor LLC; and Certain Future
Affiliates in UBS’s Asset Management
and Wealth Management Americas
Divisions, D–11907.
SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION: A notice
was published in the Federal Register of
the pendency before the Department of
a proposal to grant such exemption. The
notice set forth a summary of facts and
representations contained in the
application for exemption and referred
interested persons to the application for
a complete statement of the facts and
representations. The application has
been available for public inspection at
the Department in Washington, DC. The
notice also invited interested persons to
submit comments on the requested
exemption to the Department. In
addition the notice stated that any
interested person might submit a
written request that a public hearing be
held (where appropriate). The applicant
has represented that it has complied
with the requirements of the notification
to interested persons. One request for a
hearing was received by the
Department. Public comments were
received by the Department as described
in the granted exemption.
The notice of proposed exemption
was issued and the exemption is being
granted solely by the Department
because, effective December 31, 1978,
section 102 of Reorganization Plan No.
4 of 1978, 5 U.S.C. App. 1 (1996),
transferred the authority of the Secretary
of the Treasury to issue exemptions of
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SUMMARY:
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In accordance with section 408(a) of
the Act and/or section 4975(c)(2) of the
Code and the procedures set forth in 29
CFR part 2570, subpart B (76 FR 66637,
66644, October 27, 2011) 1 and based
upon the entire record, the Department
makes the following findings:
(a) The exemption is administratively
feasible;
(b) The exemption is in the interests
of the plan and its participants and
beneficiaries; and
(c) The exemption is protective of the
rights of the participants and
beneficiaries of the plan.
JPMorgan Chase Co. (JPMC or the
Applicant) Located in New York, New
York
[Prohibited Transaction Exemption 2017–03;
Exemption Application No. D–11906]
Discussion
On November 21, 2016, the
Department of Labor (the Department)
published a notice of proposed
exemption in the Federal Register at 81
FR 83372, for certain entities with
specified relationships to JPMC to
continue to rely upon the relief
provided by PTE 84–14 for a period of
five years,2 notwithstanding JPMC’s
criminal conviction, as described
herein. The Department is granting this
exemption in order to ensure that
Covered Plans 3 whose assets are
managed by a JPMC Affiliated QPAM or
JPMC Related QPAM may continue to
benefit from the relief provided by PTE
84–14. The exemption is effective from
1 The
Department has considered exemption
applications received prior to December 27, 2011
under the exemption procedures set forth in 29 CFR
part 2570, subpart B (55 FR 32836, 32847, August
10, 1990).
2 49 FR 9494 (March 13, 1984), as corrected at 50
FR 41430 (October 10, 1985), as amended at 70 FR
49305 (August 23, 2005) and as amended at 75 FR
38837 (July 6, 2010), hereinafter referred to as PTE
84–14 or the QPAM exemption.
3 The term ‘‘Covered Plan’’ is a plan subject to
Part 4 of Title 1 of ERISA (‘‘ERISA-covered plan’’)
or a plan subject to Section 4975 of the Code
(‘‘IRA’’) with respect to which a JPMC Affiliated
QPAM relies on PTE 84–14, or with respect to
which a JPMC Affiliated QPAM (or any JPMC
affiliate) has expressly represented that the manager
qualifies as a QPAM or relies on the QPAM class
exemption (PTE 84–14). A Covered Plan does not
include an ERISA-covered Plan or IRA to the extent
the JPMC Affiliated QPAM has expressly
disclaimed reliance on QPAM status or PTE 84–14
in entering into its contract, arrangement, or
agreement with the ERISA-covered plan or IRA. See
further discussion in this Preamble under the
heading Comment 8—Policies and Procedures
Relating to Compliance with ERISA and the Code—
Section I(h)(1)(ii)–(v).
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January 10, 2018 through January 9,
2023 (the Exemption Period).
No relief from a violation of any other
law is provided by this exemption,
including any criminal conviction
described in the proposed exemption.
Furthermore, the Department cautions
that the relief in this exemption will
terminate immediately if, among other
things, an entity within the JPMC
corporate structure is convicted of a
crime described in Section I(g) of PTE
84–14 (other than the Conviction)
during the Exemption Period. The terms
of this exemption have been specifically
designed to promote conduct that
adheres to basic fiduciary standards
under ERISA and the Code. The
exemption also aims to ensure that
plans and IRAs can terminate
relationships in an orderly and cost
effective fashion in the event a plan or
IRA fiduciary determines it is prudent
for the plan or IRA to sever its
relationship with an entity covered by
the exemption.
Written Comments
The Department invited all interested
persons to submit written comments
and/or requests for a public hearing
with respect to the notice of proposed
exemption, published in the Federal
Register at 81 FR 83372 on November
21, 2016. All comments and requests for
a hearing were due by January 20,
2017.4 The Department received written
comments from the Applicant, members
of the U.S. Congress, and a number of
plan and IRA clients of JPMC. After
considering these submissions, the
Department has determined to grant the
exemption, with revisions, as described
below.
Comment 1—Term of the Exemption
The Applicant requests that the
Department extend the term of the
exemption from five years to nine years
from the Conviction Date. The
Applicant states that the five year term
is inconsistent with precedent and
‘‘appears punitive.’’ The Applicant
further states that ‘‘exemptions should
reflect the underlying facts that
necessitated the exemption [and] [h]ere,
those facts are as follows: JPMC was
convicted of a single crime, based solely
on the misconduct of a single individual
who was not employed by the
Applicant’s asset management
businesses and who has been
terminated by a firm that has dedicated
and continues to dedicate significant
resources to enhancing the relevant
4 The Department received additional comments
from Applicant after the close of the comment
period.
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controls to prevent future instances of
similar misconduct.’’ The Applicant
states that ‘‘the exemption imposes
additional and burdensome
requirements on the asset management
businesses of the applicant-businesses
entirely uninvolved with the criminal
conduct.’’
Although the Applicant characterizes
the conduct as involving the isolated
actions of one individual, the
Department does not agree with the
apparent suggestion that the Applicant
bears little or no responsibility for the
criminal conduct. For example, JPMC’s
Plea Agreement contains the following
statement, under the heading Other
Relevant Conduct: ‘‘the defendant
[JPMC], through its currency traders and
sales staff, also engaged in other
currency trading and sales practices in
conducting FX Spot Market transactions
with customers via telephone, email,
and/or electronic chat, to wit: (i)
Intentionally working customers’ limit
orders one or more levels, or ‘pips,’
away from the price confirmed with the
customer; (ii) including sales markups,
through the use of live hand signals or
undisclosed prior internal arrangements
or communications, to prices given to
customers that communicated with
sales staff on open phone lines; (iii)
accepting limit orders from customers
and then informing those customers that
their orders could not be filled, in whole
or in part, when in fact the defendant
was able to fill the order but decided not
to do so because the defendant expected
it would be more profitable not to do so;
and (iv) disclosing non-public
information regarding the identity and
trading activity of the defendant’s
customers to other banks or other
market participants, in order to generate
revenue for the defendant at the expense
of its customers.’’
In developing this exemption, the
Department also considered statements
made by other regulators. The Financial
Conduct Authority’s (FCA) Final Notice
states: ‘‘[d]uring the Relevant Period,
JPMorgan did not exercise adequate and
effective control over its G10 spot FX
trading business. . . . The front office
failed adequately to discharge these
responsibilities with regard to obvious
risks associated with confidentiality,
conflicts of interest and trading
conduct.’’ The Notice further states:
‘‘These failings occurred in
circumstances where certain of those
responsible for managing front office
matters were aware of and/or at times
involved in behaviors described above.’’
By way of further example, the
Consent Order of the Office of the
Comptroller of the Currency (OCC)
states: ‘‘[t]he OCC’s examination
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findings established that the Bank [the
Applicant’s Corporate and Investment
Banking line of business] had
deficiencies in its internal controls and
had engaged in unsafe or unsound
banking practices with respect to the
oversight and governance of the Bank’s
FX trading business such that the Bank
failed to detect and prevent the conduct
set forth in paragraph twelve (12). The
deficiencies and unsafe or unsound
practices include the following: (a) The
Bank’s oversight and governance of its
FX trading business were weak and
lacked adequate formal guidance to
mitigate and manage risks related to
market conduct in FX Trading with
respect to sales, trading and supervisory
employees in that business . . . .’’
The Department also notes the size of
relevant fines imposed by various
regulators: The Department of Justice
imposed a $550 million fine; The Board
of Governors of the Federal Reserve
Board imposed a $342 million fine; and
the OCC, the Commodity Futures
Trading Commission, and the FCA
imposed fines of $350 million, $310
million, and £222,166,000, respectively.
This exemption is not punitive;
instead, its five-year term and protective
conditions reflect the Department’s
intent to protect Covered Plans that
entrust substantial assets to a JPMC
Affiliated QPAM, despite the serious
misconduct and supervisory failures
described above. The limited term of
this exemption gives the Department the
opportunity to review the adherence by
the JPMC Affiliated QPAMs to the
conditions set out herein. If the
Applicant seeks an extension of this
exemption, the Department will
examine whether the compliance and
oversight changes mandated by various
regulatory authorities are having the
desired effect on JPMC entities.
The relationship between the JPMC
Affiliated QPAMs and the Applicant’s
Corporate and Investment Banking line
of business (CIB) is substantial. The
Applicant states, ‘‘As of the date of the
Applicant’s application, JPMC Affiliated
QPAMs managed approximately $100
billion in plan assets through collective
investment trusts that use the custody
and administration services of the
Applicant’s Corporate and Investment
Banking line of business (CIB),
operating through the Bank. Similarly,
certain plans managed by JPMC
Affiliated QPAMs through separate
accounts have independently selected
CIB (operating through the Bank) as
their trustee and/or custodian, and
transactions directed by JPMC Affiliated
QPAMs on behalf of such plans would
necessarily require the trustee/custodian
to provide services for a direct or
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indirect fee.’’ The Applicant also states,
‘‘Because of all of the services CIB
necessarily provides to client accounts,
the wording of this proposed exemption
[that excludes the business line from
providing services to funds managed by
the Affiliated QPAMs] is tantamount to
a denial.’’
Notwithstanding the above, as noted
below, the Department has determined
to revise this exemption to permit CIB
to continue to provide services to funds
managed by JPMC Affiliated QPAMs,
based on the Department’s
determination that the conditions set
forth herein are sufficiently protective of
the Covered Plans, and given the type of
transactions covered by this exemption
and the Applicant’s representations
regarding the types of services provided
by CIB. The Department notes that the
JPMC Affiliated QPAMs’ substantial and
substantive dependency on the JPMC
CIB when managing plan and IRA assets
also supports the Department’s
conclusion that the conditions of the
exemption are necessary and
appropriate.
Comment 2—Description of Criminal
Conduct—Section I
The prefatory language to Section I of
the proposed exemption provides, ‘‘If
the proposed five-year exemption is
granted, certain asset managers with
specified relationships to JPMC (the
JPMC Affiliated QPAMs and the JPMC
Related QPAMs, as defined further in
Sections II(a) and II(b), respectively) will
not be precluded from relying on the
exemptive relief provided by Prohibited
Transaction Class Exemption 84–14
(PTE 84–14 or the QPAM Exemption),
notwithstanding the judgment of
conviction against JPMC (the
Conviction), as defined in Section II(e)),
for engaging in a conspiracy to: (1) fix
the price of, or (2) eliminate competition
in the purchase or sale of the Euro/U.S.
dollar currency pair exchanged in the
Foreign Exchange (FX) Spot Market, for
a period of five years beginning on the
date the exemption is granted.’’
The Applicant requests that the
description of the charged conduct—the
clause beginning ‘‘for engaging in a
conspiracy’’—be omitted. The Applicant
states that this description is inaccurate
and incomplete, will lead to disputes
with counterparties to the detriment of
plans, and will make it unlikely that
plans will benefit from or be protected
by this exemption.
After consideration of the Applicant’s
comment, the Department has revised
the exemption in the manner requested
by the Applicant.
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Comment 3—Knowing or Tacit
Approval—Sections I(a) and I(c)
Section I(a) of the proposed five-year
exemption provides, ‘‘(a) Other than a
single individual who worked for a nonfiduciary business within JPMorgan
Chase Bank and who had no
responsibility for, and exercised no
authority in connection with, the
management of plan assets, the JPMC
Affiliated QPAMs and the JPMC Related
QPAMs (including their officers,
directors, agents other than JPMC, and
employees of such QPAMs who had
responsibility for, or exercised authority
in connection with the management of
plan assets) did not know of, did not
have reason to know of, or participate
in the criminal conduct that is the
subject of the Conviction. For purposes
of this paragraph (a), ‘participate in’
includes the knowing or tacit approval
of the misconduct underlying the
Conviction;’’
Section I(c) of the proposed
exemption provides, ‘‘(c) The JPMC
Affiliated QPAMs will not employ or
knowingly engage any of the individuals
that participated in the criminal
conduct that is the subject of the
Conviction. For the purposes of this
paragraph (c), ‘participated in’ includes
the knowing or tacit approval of the
misconduct underlying Conviction;’’
The Applicant requests that the words
‘‘or tacit’’ in the phrase ‘‘knowing or
tacit approval’’ be deleted in Sections
I(a) and I(c). The Applicant states that
the term tacit approval ‘‘is undefined
and ambiguous, and potentially
encompasses a broad range of conduct
that could become the subject of
disputes with counterparties.’’
After consideration of the Applicant’s
comment, the Department has revised
the condition in the manner requested
by the Applicant.
Comment 4—Receipt of
Compensation—Section I(b)
Section I(b) of the proposed five-year
exemption provides, ‘‘(b) Other than a
single individual who worked for a nonfiduciary business within JPMorgan
Chase Bank and who had no
responsibility for, and exercised no
authority in connection with, the
management of plan assets, the JPMC
Affiliated QPAMs and the JPMC Related
QPAMs (including their officers,
directors, and agents other than JPMC,
and employees of such JPMC QPAMs)
did not receive direct compensation, or
knowingly receive indirect
compensation in connection with the
criminal conduct that is the subject of
the Conviction.’’
The Applicant states that Section I(b)
is not practically workable because an
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individual can receive compensation
only if the entity he or she works for
receives funds. The Applicant requests
that this condition be modified to reflect
that, although undefinable, a nonfiduciary business within JPMorgan
Chase Bank may have indirectly
received funds in connection with the
criminal conduct that is the subject of
the Conviction. The Applicant requests
that the Department modify this
condition as follows:
The JPMC Affiliated QPAMs and the
JPMC Related QPAMs (including their
officers, directors, and agents other than
JPMC, and employees of such JPMC
QPAMs who had responsibility for, or
exercised authority in connection with
the management of plan assets) did not
receive direct compensation, or
knowingly receive indirect
compensation, in connection with the
criminal conduct that is the subject of
the Conviction, other than a nonfiduciary line of business within
JPMorgan Chase Bank.
The Department has revised the
condition in the manner requested by
the Applicant. As revised, the condition
precludes relief if any asset management
personnel of JPMC received direct
compensation, or knowingly received
indirect compensation, in connection
with the criminal conduct that is the
subject of the Conviction.
Comment 5—Inclusion of ‘‘Investment
Banking Division of JPMorgan Chase
Bank’’—Sections I(d), I(g), and I(h)(1)(i)
Section I(d)of the proposed five-year
exemption provides, ‘‘(d) A JPMC
Affiliated QPAM will not use its
authority or influence to direct an
’investment fund’ (as defined in Section
VI(b) of PTE 84–14), that is subject to
ERISA or the Code and managed by
such JPMC Affiliated QPAM, to enter
into any transaction with JPMC or the
Investment Banking Division of
JPMorgan Chase Bank, or engage JPMC
or the Investment Banking Division of
JPMorgan Chase Bank to provide any
service to such investment fund, for a
direct or indirect fee borne by such
investment fund, regardless of whether
such transaction or service may
otherwise be within the scope of relief
provided by an administrative or
statutory exemption; ’’
Section I(g)of the proposed five-year
exemption provides, ‘‘(g) JPMC and the
Investment Banking Division of
JPMorgan Chase Bank will not provide
discretionary asset management
services to ERISA-covered plans or
IRAs, and will not otherwise act as a
fiduciary with respect to ERISA-covered
plan or IRA assets; ’’
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Section I(h)(1)(i) of the proposed fiveyear exemption provides, ‘‘(h)(1)(i) The
asset management decisions of the
JPMC Affiliated QPAM are conducted
independently of JPMC’s management
and business activities, including the
corporate management and business
activities of the Investment Banking
Division of JPMorgan Chase Bank; ’’
The Applicant requests that these
sections be revised to allow the
Investment Banking Division of
JPMorgan Chase Bank to provide
services, including the following
services, to investment funds managed
by the JPMC Affiliated QPAMs:
Safekeeping; settlement; administration;
full service class action filing service;
overdraft protection; sweep and deposit
services; portfolio accounting and
reporting services; payment processing
services; and foreign custodial services.
The Applicant states that not allowing
the Investment Banking Division of
JPMorgan Chase Bank to provide, or to
continue to provide, these services
would be harmful to more than a
thousand plans.
After considering the Applicant’s
comment, the Department has revised
the exemption in the manner requested
by the Applicant such that the condition
does not apply to the Investment
Banking Division of JPMorgan Chase
Bank. In addition, the Department has
clarified that Section I(d) applies to an
‘‘investment fund’’ that is subject to
ERISA or the Code and managed by
such JPMC Affiliated QPAM with
respect to Covered Plans. Finally, as
requested by the Applicant, Section I(g)
has been modified to clarify that JPMC
will not violate this condition in the
event that it inadvertently becomes an
investment advice fiduciary and that
JPMC can act as a fiduciary for plans
that it sponsors for its own employees
or employees of an affiliate.
Comment 6—Exercising Authority Over
Plan Assets—Section I(f)
Section I(f)of the proposed five-year
exemption provides, ‘‘(f) A JPMC
Affiliated QPAM or a JPMC Related
QPAM did not exercise authority over
the assets of any plan subject to Part 4
of Title I of ERISA (an ERISA-covered
plan) or section 4975 of the Code (an
IRA) in a manner that it knew or should
have known would: Further the criminal
conduct that is the subject of the
Conviction; or cause the JPMC QPAM or
its affiliates or related parties to directly
or indirectly profit from the criminal
conduct that is the subject of the
Conviction.’’
The Applicant requests that Section
I(f) be deleted, stating that it is
duplicative of Section I(b), ambiguous,
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and not administrable or in the interests
of plans. The Applicant states that the
first clause of the condition does not
differ in any material way from the very
first and most basic condition of the
exemption: That the asset management
businesses of the Affiliated QPAMs did
not know of or participate in the
conduct that is the subject of the
Conviction. The Applicant also states
that the second clause of the condition
which states, ‘‘or cause the JPMC QPAM
or its affiliates or related parties to
directly or indirectly profit from the
criminal conduct,’’ is confusing and
repetitive of the condition in section
I(b).
The Department declines to make the
Applicant’s requested revisions. The
Department does not view Condition I(f)
(which relates to exercising authority) as
ambiguous or duplicative of Section I(b)
(which relates to compensation).
Further, Condition I(f) is consistent with
the Applicant’s prior representation
that, ‘‘other than a single individual
who worked for a nonfiduciary business
within JPMorgan Chase Bank and who
had no responsibility for, and exercised
no authority in connection with, the
management of plan assets, the
Affiliated QPAMs did not participate in
the Conduct and (ii) no current or
former employee of JPMC or of any
Affiliated QPAM who previously has
been or who subsequently may be
identified by JPMC, or any U.S. or nonU.S. regulatory or enforcement agencies,
as having been responsible for the
Conduct will have any involvement in
providing asset management services to
plans and IRAs or will be an officer,
director, or employee of the Applicant
or of any Affiliated QPAM.’’ However,
for clarity, the Department has deleted
the term ‘‘related parties.’’ 5
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Comment 7—Time to Implement
Policies and Training—Section I(h)(1)–
(2)
Section I(h) of the proposed five-year
exemption provides, ‘‘(h)(1) Within four
(4) months of the Conviction, each JPMC
Affiliated QPAM must develop,
implement, maintain, and follow written
policies and procedures (the
Policies). . . (2) Within four (4) months
of the date of the Conviction, each JPMC
Affiliated QPAM must develop and
implement a program of training (the
Training), conducted at least annually,
for all relevant JPMC Affiliated QPAM
asset/portfolio management, trading,
legal, compliance, and internal audit
personnel . . .’’
5 See JPMC Exemption Application (May 20,
2015) at page 11.
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The Applicant requests that the
Department increase the development
period associated with the Policies and
Training Requirement (the Development
Period) from four (4) months to six (6)
months. The Applicant also seeks
confirmation that, following the
Development Period, it will have twelve
(12) months to complete the Training for
all relevant employees, and that it must
do so again in every succeeding twelve
(12) month period. In support of this
request, the Applicant represents that
JPMC Affiliated QPAMs manage assets
for hundreds of ERISA-covered plans,
through separate accounts; over a
thousand plans, through collective
investment trusts; and more than
160,000 IRAs, through various lines of
business. The Applicant states that it
may take up to six (6) months for all of
these asset management staffs to satisfy
the conditions set out in
subparagraph(h) and then an additional
twelve (12) months to accomplish all of
the training. The Applicant further
requests that Section I(h) be streamlined
to match the requirements of PTE 2016–
15.
The Department emphasizes that the
JPMC QPAMs must comply with the
Policies and Training requirements
within both PTE 2016–15 and this
exemption. To this end, the Department
has revised the policies and training
requirements of Section I(h) to conform
with PTE 2016–15. The two exemptions
now follow this timeline: (i) Each JPMC
Affiliated QPAM must have developed
the Policies and Training required by
PTE 2016–15 by July 9, 2017; (ii) the
first annual Training under PTE 2016–
15 must be completed by July 9, 2018;
(iii) each JPMC Affiliated QPAM must
develop the Policies and Training
required by this exemption, as
necessary, by July 9, 2018; and (iv) the
first Training under this exemption
must be completed by July 9, 2019. By
the end of this 30-month period, asset/
portfolio management, trading, legal,
compliance, and internal audit
personnel who were employed from the
start to the end of the period must have
been trained twice.
Comment 8—Policies and Procedures
Relating to Compliance With ERISA and
the Code—Section I(h)(1)(ii)–(v)
Section I(h)(1)(ii)–(v) of the proposed
five-year exemption provides,‘‘(h)(1)
Within four (4) months of the
Conviction, each JPMC Affiliated QPAM
must develop, implement, maintain,
and follow written policies and
procedures (the Policies) requiring and
reasonably designed to ensure that:
. . . (ii) The JPMC Affiliated QPAM
fully complies with ERISA’s fiduciary
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duties, and with ERISA and the Code’s
prohibited transaction provisions, and
does not knowingly participate in any
violation of these duties and provisions
with respect to ERISA-covered plans
and IRAs;
(iii) The JPMC Affiliated QPAM does
not knowingly participate in any other
person’s violation of ERISA or the Code
with respect to ERISA-covered plans
and IRAs;
(iv) Any filings or statements made by
the JPMC Affiliated QPAM to regulators
including, but not limited to, the
Department, the Department of the
Treasury, the Department of Justice, and
the Pension Benefit Guaranty
Corporation, on behalf of ERISAcovered plans or IRAs, are materially
accurate and complete, to the best of
such QPAM’s knowledge at that time;
[and]
(v) The JPMC Affiliated QPAM does
not make material misrepresentations or
omit material information in its
communications with such regulators
with respect to ERISA-covered plans or
IRAs, or make material
misrepresentations or omit material
information in its communications with
ERISA-covered plans and IRA clients.’’
The Applicant requests that these
subparagraphs be stricken as duplicative
and already mandated by statute. The
Applicant states that these conditions
could be read to apply the fiduciary
duties of ERISA to IRAs, which it claims
would be overly broad, punitive, and
not rationally related to asset
management under the exemption. In
the event the Department declines to
strike the above subsections, the
Applicant requests the following
revisions to subsections (ii)–(v):
Subsection (ii): The Applicant
requests that JPMC Affiliated QPAMs be
required to comply with ERISA’s
fiduciary duties, ‘‘with respect to
ERISA-covered plans managed in
reliance on PTE 84–14,’’ and with
ERISA and the Code’s prohibited
transaction provisions, ‘‘as applicable,
with respect to ERISA-covered plans
and IRAs managed in reliance on PTE
84–14.’’
Subsection (iii): The Applicant
requests the removal of ‘‘or the Code,’’
and ‘‘IRAs.’’ With the Applicant’s
requested revision, subsection (iii)
would read, ‘‘The JPMC Affiliated
QPAM does not knowingly participate
in any other person’s violation of ERISA
with respect to ERISA-covered plans.’’
Subsection (iv): The Applicant
requests that the phrase, ‘‘on behalf of
ERISA-covered plans or IRAs,’’ be
changed to, ‘‘on behalf of ERISAcovered plans or IRAs for which a JPMC
Affiliated QPAM provides asset
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management or other discretionary
fiduciary services in reliance on PTE
84–14.’’
Subsection (v): The Applicant
requests that the subparagraph be
revised to, ‘‘(v) The JPMC Affiliated
QPAM does not intentionally make
material misrepresentations or omit
material information, to the best of such
QPAM’s knowledge at that time, in its
communications with ERISA-covered
plans and IRA clients, the assets of
which are managed by such JPMC
Affiliated QPAM in reliance on PTE 84–
14.’’
In response to the Applicant’s
comments, the Department has modified
the Policies’ requirement of adherence
to the fiduciary and prohibited
transaction provisions of ERISA and the
Code so that the Policies expressly focus
on the provisions only to the extent
‘‘applicable’’ under ERISA and the
Code. In general, however, the
Department has otherwise retained the
stringency and breadth of the Policies
requirement, which is more than
justified by the compliance and
oversight failures exhibited by JPMC
throughout the long period of time
during which the criminal misconduct
persisted.
The specific elements of the Policies
requirement as set forth in this
exemption are essential to its protective
purposes. In approving this exemption,
the Department significantly relies upon
conditions designed to ensure that those
relying upon its terms for prohibited
transaction relief will adopt a culture of
compliance centered on basic fiduciary
norms and standards of fair dealing, as
reflected in the Policies. These
standards are core protections of this
exemption.
The Department has made some
additional changes, however, which
should not detract from the Policies’
protective purpose. Thus, as requested
by the Applicant, subsection (v) has
been revised to contain the ‘‘to the best
of QPAM’s knowledge at the time’’
concept found in subsection (iv); and
the applicability of subsections (iv) and
(v) has been narrowed to ERISA-covered
plans and IRAs with respect to which a
JPMC Affiliated QPAM relies on PTE
84–14, or with respect to which a JPMC
Affiliated QPAM has expressly
represented that the manager qualifies
as a QPAM or relies on the QPAM class
exemption in its dealings with the
ERISA-covered plan or IRA (hereinafter,
a Covered Plan). To the extent a JPMC
QPAM would prefer not to be subject to
this provision, however, it may
expressly disclaim reliance on QPAM
status or PTE 84–14 in entering into its
contract with the Covered Plan. This
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revision is consistent with the
Department’s intent to protect ERISAcovered plans and IRAs that may have
hired a JPMC Affiliated QPAM based on
the manager’s express representation
that it relies on or qualifies under PTE
84–14.
As explained in more detail below,
the Department will not strike a
condition merely because it is also a
statutory requirement. It is the express
intent of the Department to preclude
relief for a JPMC affiliated QPAM that
fails to meet the requirements of this
exemption, including those derived
from basic standards codified in statute,
as applicable.
Comment 9—Correction of Violations
and Failures To Comply—Section
I(h)(1)(vii)
Section I(h)(1)(vii) of the proposed
five-year exemption provides, ‘‘Any
violation of, or failure to comply with an
item in subparagraphs (ii) through (vi),
is corrected promptly upon discovery,
and any such violation or compliance
failure not promptly corrected is
reported, upon the discovery of such
failure to promptly correct, in writing, to
appropriate corporate officers, the head
of compliance, and the General Counsel
(or their functional equivalent) of the
relevant JPMC Affiliated QPAM, the
independent auditor responsible for
reviewing compliance with the Policies,
and an appropriate fiduciary of any
affected ERISA-covered plan or IRA that
is independent of JPMC; however, with
respect to any ERISA-covered plan or
IRA sponsored by an ‘affiliate’ (as
defined in Section VI(d) of PTE 84–14)
of JPMC or beneficially owned by an
employee of JPMC or its affiliates, such
fiduciary does not need to be
independent of JPMC. A JPMC Affiliated
QPAM will not be treated as having
failed to develop, implement, maintain,
or follow the Policies, provided that it
corrects any instance of noncompliance
promptly when discovered, or when it
reasonably should have known of the
noncompliance (whichever is earlier),
and provided that it adheres to the
reporting requirements set forth in this
subparagraph (vii).’’
The Applicant cites this condition as
an example of how the Department
made the proposed exemption
‘‘inexplicably’’ and ‘‘arbitrarily’’ more
burdensome and onerous than other
such exemptions it has granted
previously. More specifically, the
Applicant seeks several revisions to
Section I(h)(vii), stating that its
notification requirements are overbroad,
and that terms such as ‘‘appropriate
corporate officers’’ and ‘‘corrected
promptly’’ are either vague or
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undefined. The Applicant requests that
‘‘subparagraphs (ii) through (vi)’’ be
revised to read ‘‘subparagraphs (i)
through (vi).’’ The Applicant also
requests that the last sentence of the
subparagraph (h) be revised, because it
is ‘‘overly broad and does not
meaningfully provide relief in instances
where a violation or compliance failure
is corrected.’’ The Applicant suggests
the subparagraph (h) be revised to read,
‘‘Within sixty (60) days of discovery of
any violation of, or failure to comply
with, an item in subparagraphs (i)
through (vi), the JPMC QPAM will
formulate, in writing, a plan to address
such violation or failure (a Correction
Plan). To the extent any such Correction
Plan is not formulated within sixty (60)
days of discovery, the JPMC Affiliated
QPAM will report in writing such
violation of, or failure to comply with,
the item in subparagraphs (i) through
(vi) to the head of compliance . . . .’’
In response to the Applicant’s general
comment, the Department has based the
conditions of this exemption on both
the particular facts of this case and its
experience over time with previous
exemptions. For the reasons set out
herein, the Department has concluded
that the specific conditions of this
exemption are appropriate and give the
Department a reasonable basis for
concluding that the exemptions are
appropriately protective of affected
plans and IRAs. As noted above, a
central aim of the exemption is to
ensure that those relying upon the
exemption for relief from the prohibited
transaction rules will consistently act to
promote a culture of fiduciary
compliance, notwithstanding the
conduct that violated Section I(g) of PTE
84–14.
After considering the Applicant’s
specific requests for revisions, however,
the Department has replaced
‘‘appropriate corporate officers’’ with
‘‘the head of compliance and the
General Counsel (or their functional
equivalent) of the relevant line of
business that engaged in the violation or
failure.’’ The Department also will not
condition the exemption on a
requirement for notification of
violations to an appropriate fiduciary of
any affected ERISA-covered plan or IRA
that is independent of JPMC.
However, the Department is not
revising the ‘‘subparagraphs (ii) through
(vi)’’ reference to include ‘‘subparagraph
(i)’’ because the Department intends to
preclude relief to the extent a JPMC
Affiliated QPAM fails to develop,
implement, maintain, and follow
written policies and procedures.
Clearly, it is not enough merely to
develop policies and procedures,
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without also implementing,
maintaining, and following the terms of
those policies and procedures. Covered
Plans do not benefit from the creation of
strong policies and procedures, unless
they are actually followed.
The Department has revised the term
‘‘corrected promptly’’ for consistency
with the Department’s intent that
violations or compliance failures be
corrected ‘‘as soon as reasonably
possible upon discovery or as soon after
the QPAM reasonably should have
known of the noncompliance
(whichever is earlier).’’ However,
contrary to the Applicant’s suggestion,
the Department intends to preclude
relief to the extent violations or failures
are not corrected as required by the
exemption. Therefore, the Department
has not adopted the Applicant’s
proposed subparagraph (vii), which
requires little more than the formulation
of a correction plan, without any
corresponding obligation to actually
implement the plan.
Comment 10—Training Incorporated in
Policies—Section I(h)(2)(i)
Section I(h)(2)(i) of the proposed fiveyear exemption provides, ‘‘. . . The
Training must: (i) Be set forth in the
Policies and, at a minimum, cover the
Policies, ERISA and Code compliance
(including applicable fiduciary duties
and the prohibited transaction
provisions), ethical conduct, the
consequences for not complying with
the conditions of this five-year
exemption (including any loss of
exemptive relief provided herein), and
prompt reporting of wrongdoing.’’
The Applicant states that the
requirement in Section I(h)(2)(i) that the
Training must be ‘‘set forth in’’ the
Policies is impracticable and may cause
significant logistical challenges over
time. Accordingly, the Applicant
requests that Section I(h)(2)(i) be revised
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‘‘. . . The Training must, at a minimum,
cover the Policies, ERISA and Code
compliance (including applicable fiduciary
duties and the prohibited transaction
provisions), ethical conduct, the
consequences for not complying with the
conditions of this permanent exemption
(including any loss of exemptive relief
provided herein), and prompt reporting of
wrongdoing.’’
After considering this comment, the
Department has revised the condition as
requested by the Applicant.
Comment 11—Training by Independent
Professional—Section I(h)(2)(ii)
Section I(h)(2)(ii) of the proposed fiveyear exemption provides, ‘‘. . . The
Training must: . . . (ii) Be conducted by
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an independent professional who has
been prudently selected and who has
appropriate technical training and
proficiency with ERISA and the Code.’’
The Applicant requests that Section
I(h)(2)(ii) be deleted, stating that
requiring an independent professional is
likely to be ‘‘counterproductive, a waste
of time and resources, and less effective
than using internal personnel who are
familiar with Applicant’s processes and
staff . . . .’’
Although the Department does not
agree with the Applicant’s
characterization that hiring an
appropriate independent professional,
prudently-selected, would be
counterproductive and a waste of
resources, the Department is persuaded
that appropriate JPMC personnel,
prudently selected, should be allowed
to conduct the training, and has revised
the condition accordingly.
Comment 12—Audit—Section I(i)(1)
Section I(i)(1) of the proposed fiveyear exemption requires that each JPMC
Affiliated QPAM ‘‘submits to an audit
conducted annually by an independent
auditor, who has been prudently
selected and who has appropriate
technical training and proficiency with
ERISA and the Code, to evaluate the
adequacy of, and the JPMC Affiliated
QPAM’s compliance with, the Policies
and Training described herein. The
audit requirement must be incorporated
in the Policies. Each annual audit must
cover a consecutive twelve (12) month
period starting with the twelve (12)
month period that begins on the
effective date of the five-year
exemption, and each annual audit must
be completed no later than six (6)
months after the period to which the
audit applies;’’
The Applicant requests that the audit
requirement be deleted from the
exemption in its entirety. The Applicant
states that requiring the audit of asset
management units that were not
accused of wrongdoing is unnecessary
and essentially seeks to punish
businesses that have not been convicted
of a crime. The Applicant requests that,
if the audit condition is not omitted, the
annual audit should be performed by
the Applicant’s Internal Audit function.
The Applicant also requests the removal
of the requirement mandating
incorporation of the audit conditions
into the Policies, as the Applicant
believes such inclusion serves no
purpose and does not further the
interest of plans. Additionally, the
Applicant requests the removal of the
phrase ‘‘technical training and
proficiency,’’ because it is redundant
and undefined.
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The Department declines to delete the
audit requirement in its entirety. A
recurring, independent, and prudently
conducted audit of the JPMC Affiliated
QPAMs is critical to ensuring the
QPAMs’ compliance with the Policies
and Training mandated by this
exemption, and the adequacy of the
Policies and Training. The required
discipline of regular audits underpins
the Department’s finding that the
exemption should help prevent the sort
of compliance failures that led to the
Conviction and is protective of Covered
Plans and their participants,
beneficiaries, and beneficial owners, as
applicable.
The Department views the audit
requirement as an integral component of
the exemption, without which the
Department would be unable to make its
finding that the exemption is protective
of Covered Plans and their participants,
beneficiaries, and beneficial owners, as
applicable. A recurring, independent
audit of the JPMC Affiliated QPAMs is
a critical means by which to verify the
adequacy of, and compliance with, the
Policies and Training mandated by this
exemption.
This exemption’s conditions are
based, in part, on the Department’s
assessment of the seriousness and
duration of the misconduct that resulted
in the violation of Section I(g) of PTE
84–14, as well as the apparent
inadequacy of the controls and oversight
mechanisms at JPMC to prevent the
misconduct. The FCA’s Final Notice
states: ‘‘[d]uring the Relevant Period,
JPMorgan did not exercise adequate and
effective control over its G10 spot FX
trading business,’’ and that, ‘‘[t]he front
office failed adequately to discharge
these responsibilities with regard to
obvious risks associated with
confidentiality, conflicts of interest and
trading conduct.’’ The OCC states: ‘‘the
Bank had deficiencies in its internal
controls and had engaged in unsafe or
unsound banking practices with respect
to the oversight and governance of the
Bank’s FX trading business . . . .’’
Accordingly, the Department declines to
delete the audit requirement in its
entirety.
The Department, however, recognizes
that, notwithstanding JPMC’s oversight
failures, only a small number of
individuals at JPMC directly engaged in
the misconduct at issue. Thus, the
United States District Court for the
District of Connecticut stated, in
connection with the sentencing of JP
Morgan Chase & Co., that ‘‘the conduct
at issue here was engaged in by a very
small number of individuals’’ and ‘‘we
do not have banks who appear to have
condoned conduct at any high-ranking
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level.’’ 6 Accordingly, the Department
has determined to change the audit
interval under this exemption, from
annual to biennial. Section I(i)(1) of the
exemption, therefore, now requires that
each JPMC Affiliated QPAM ‘‘submits to
an audit conducted every two years by
an independent auditor.’’ Each audit
must cover the preceding consecutive
twelve (12) month period. The first
audit must cover the period from July
10, 2018 through July 9, 2019, and must
be completed by January 9, 2020. The
second audit must cover the period from
July 10, 2020 through July 9, 2021, and
must be completed by January 9, 2022.
In the event that the Exemption Period
is extended or a new exemption is
granted, the third audit would cover the
period from July 10, 2022 through July
9, 2023, and would be completed by
January 9, 2024, unless the Department
chose to alter the audit requirement in
the new or extended exemption; 7
The Department declines to revise
Section I(i)(1) to permit the Applicant’s
Internal Audit Department to carry out
this exemption’s required audit
functions, as such a revision would not
be protective of Covered Plans. Auditor
independence is essential to this
exemption, as it allows for an impartial
analysis of the JPMC Affiliated QPAMs.
Permitting the Applicant’s Internal
Audit Department to carry out this
exemption’s required audit functions
would be insufficiently protective of
Covered Plans. The independence of the
auditor is the cornerstone of the
integrity of the audit process and is of
primary importance to avoid conflicts of
interest and any inappropriate influence
on the auditor’s findings. The
fundamental importance of auditor
independence to the integrity of the
audit process is well established. For
example, the United States Securities
and Exchange Commission (SEC)
promulgated regulations at 17 CFR
210.2–01 to ensure auditors are
independent of their clients, and under
17 CFR 240.10A–2, it is unlawful for an
auditor not to be independent in certain
circumstances. Likewise, the Public
Company Accounting Oversight Board’s
6 See TRANSCRIPT of Proceedings: as to JP
Morgan Chase & Co. (January 5, 2017 at pages 29–
30).
7 The third audit referenced above would not
have to be completed until after the Exemption
Period expires. If the Department ultimately decides
to grant relief for an additional period, it could
decide to alter the terms of the exemption,
including the audit conditions (and the timing of
the audit requirements). Nevertheless, the
Applicant should anticipate that the Department
will insist on strict compliance with the audit terms
and schedule set forth above. As it considers any
new exemption application, the Department may
also contact the auditor for any information relevant
to its determination.
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(PCAOB) Rule 3520 states that a public
accounting firm and its associated
persons must be independent of the
firm’s audit client. When working on an
audit or attest engagement, the
Association of Independent Certified
Public Accountants’ (AICPA) Code of
Professional Conduct, Objectivity and
Independence Principle (AICPA,
Professional Standards, ET section
0.300.050.01) states that members
should be independent in fact and
appearance. Moreover, ERISA section
103(a)(3)(A) requires an accountant
hired by an employee benefit plan to
examine the plan’s financial statements
to be independent. Notwithstanding the
Applicant’s representations regarding
the staff size and internal policies of
JPMC’s Internal Audit Department,
serious misconduct occurred over an
extended period of time at a JPMC
entity.
The Department also disagrees with
the Applicant’s assertion that the phrase
‘‘technical training and proficiency’’ is
redundant. The two terms are not
synonymous, as a person may have
taken technical training in a given
subject matter but may not be proficient
in that subject matter. The exemption
requires that the auditor be both
technically trained and proficient in
ERISA as well as the Code. Accordingly,
the Department declines to change the
phrase ‘‘technical training and
proficiency’’ as used in Section I(i)(1).
The Department also declines to
delete the requirement that the audit
conditions be incorporated in the
Policies. The audit requirement
provides a critical independent check
on compliance with this exemption’s
conditions, and helps ensure that the
basic protections set forth in the Policies
are taken seriously. Accordingly, the
specifics of the audit requirement are
important components of the Policies.
Their inclusion in the Policies promotes
compliance and sends an important
message to the institutions’ employees
and agents, as well as to Covered Plan
clients, that compliance with the
policies and procedures will be subject
to careful independent review.
After consideration of the Applicant’s
concerns regarding the annual audit, the
Department is revising the audit
condition to require an audit on at least
a biennial basis. The Departments notes
that if the audit uncovers material
deficiencies with JPMC’s compliance
with this exemption, then the Applicant
should consider conducting an
additional audit after making
corrections to ensure that it remains in
compliance with the exemption. In any
event, the Department emphasizes that
it retains the right to conduct its own
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investigation of compliance based on
any such indicators of problems.
Comment 13—Access to Business—
Section I(i)(2)
Section I(i)(2) of the proposed fiveyear exemption requires that ‘‘as
permitted by law, each JPMC Affiliated
QPAM and, if applicable JPMC, will
grant the auditor unconditional access
to its business . . .’’
The Applicant requests that the access
granted by Section I(i)(2) be limited to:
(1) Relevant materials reasonably
necessary to conduct the audit; and (2)
non-privileged materials that do not
contain trade secrets. The Applicant
argues that the ‘‘unconditional access’’
required by this condition is too broad
and that the absence of specific
exclusions could lead to confusion,
dispute, and infringement on the JPMC
Affiliated QPAMs’ right to protect
privileged communications,
confidential supervisory information
with other regulators (for which the
privilege is held by others), irrelevant
materials, and trade secrets.
In the Department’s view, to ensure a
thorough and robust audit, the
independent auditor must be granted
access to information it deems necessary
to make sound conclusions. Access to
such information must be within the
scope of the audit engagement and
denied only to the extent any disclosure
is not permitted by state or federal
statute. Enumerating specific
restrictions on the accessibility of
certain information may have a
dampening effect on the auditor’s ability
to perform the procedures necessary to
make valid conclusions and therefore
undermine the effectiveness of the
audit. The auditor’s access to such
information, however, is limited to
information relevant to the auditor’s
objectives as specified by the terms of
this exemption and to the extent
disclosure is not prevented by state or
federal statute, or involves
communications subject to attorney
client privilege. In this regard, the
Department has modified Section I(i)(2)
accordingly.
Comment 14—Engagement Letter—
Section I(i)(3)
Section I(i)(3) of the proposed fiveyear exemption requires the auditor’s
engagement to ‘‘specifically require the
auditor to determine whether each JPMC
Affiliated QPAM has developed,
implemented, maintained, and followed
the Policies . . . and has developed and
implemented the Training, as required
herein.’’
The Applicant requests that Section
I(i)(3) be deleted in its entirety, stating
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that it is unnecessarily duplicative of
the substantive requirements of the
exemption and that the Applicant will
be bound by the conditions of the
exemption, whether or not they also
appear in the auditor’s engagement
letter.
The Department does not concur with
the Applicant’s request. By including a
statement of the audit’s intended
purpose and required determinations in
the auditor’s agreement, the Applicant
ensures that both the auditor and the
JPMC Affiliated QPAMs a have clear
understanding of the purpose and
expectations of the audit process.
Therefore, the Department declines to
omit Section I(i)(3) from the exemption.
Comment 15—Auditor’s Test of
Operational Compliance—Section I(i)(4)
Section I(i)(4) of the proposed fiveyear exemption provides that, ‘‘[t]he
auditor’s engagement must specifically
require the auditor to test each JPMC
Affiliated QPAM’s operational
compliance with the Policies and
Training’’ and ‘‘the auditor must test a
sample of each QPAM’s transactions
involving ERISA-covered Plans and
IRAs sufficient in size and nature to
afford the auditor a reasonable basis to
determine operational compliance with
the Policies and Training.’’
The Applicant requests that Section
I(i)(4) be deleted in its entirety. The
Applicant argues that this Section is
unnecessarily duplicative, as other
conditions of the exemption govern the
audit’s scope, the auditor’s technical
skill, and the prudence of the selection
process. The Applicant also argues that
the second sentence of Section I(i)(4)
unnecessarily intrudes upon the
auditor’s function and independence.
Additionally, the Applicant states that
auditors should be granted discretion as
to when to sample transactions, as an
auditor may not have the capacity to test
significant data within the time periods
required under this exemption.
The Department declines to make the
Applicant’s requested revisions with
respect to Section I(i)(4). The inclusion
of written audit parameters in the
auditor’s engagement letter is necessary
both to document expectations
regarding the audit work and to ensure
that the auditor can responsibly perform
its important work. As stated above,
clearly defined audit parameters will
minimize any potential for dispute
between the Applicant and the auditor.
It is appropriate and necessary for the
exemption to require a certain amount,
and type, of audit work to be performed.
Similarly, given the scope and number
of relevant transactions, proper
sampling is necessary for the auditor to
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reach reasonable and reliable
conclusions. Although the Department
has declined to delete this section in its
entirety, as requested by the Applicant,
the Department has revised this
condition for consistency with other
conditions of this exemption which are
tailored to the Department’s interest in
protecting Covered Plans. Therefore, the
condition now applies to Covered Plans
(i.e., ERISA-covered plans and IRAs
with respect to which the JPMC
Affiliated QPAM relies on PTE 84–14 or
has expressly represented that it
qualifies as a QPAM or relies on the
QPAM class exemption in its dealings
with the ERISA-covered plan or IRA).
The Department notes that Section
I(i)(4) does not specify the number of
transactions that the auditor must test,
but rather requires, for each QPAM, that
the auditor test a sample of each such
QPAM’s transactions involving Covered
Plans, ‘‘sufficient in size and nature to
afford the auditor a reasonable basis to
determine operational compliance with
the Policies and Training.’’
Comment 16—Draft of the Audit
Report—Section I(i)(5)
Section I(i)(5) of the proposed fiveyear exemption requires that ‘‘. . . on or
before the end of the relevant period
described in Section I(i)(1) for
completing the audit, the auditor must
issue a written report (the Audit Report)
to JPMC and the JPMC Affiliated QPAM
. . .’’
The Applicant requests a modification
of Section I(i)(5) that would allow the
Applicant sufficient time to correct any
findings of noncompliance by the
auditor before the issuance of the final
Audit Report and its provision to the
Department. The Applicant states that
permitting it to review a draft of the
Audit Report well in advance of its
submission to the Department would
allow the Applicant to implement plans
to correct any violations or findings of
noncompliance identified by the
auditor. The Applicant states that
communication with the audited entity
is an appropriate audit procedure which
ensures that the auditor’s factual
premises are correct. The Applicant also
states that the time required to review
the audit should be in advance of the
Audit Report’s submission and should
not take away from the six (6) months
given to complete the audit and the
thirty (30) days to submit the Audit
Report to the Department. The
Applicant therefore requests that
Section I(i)(5) contain a provision: (1)
Requiring the auditor to issue a draft
Audit Report to the Applicant and the
JPMC Affiliated QPAMs at the end of
the period for the completion of the
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audit, as described in Section I(i)(1); and
(2) providing the Applicant and the
JPMC Affiliated QPAM thirty (30) days
to review such draft Audit Report.
Additionally, the Applicant requests
that the exemption allow the auditor to
issue one consolidated Audit Report
covering all the JPMC Affiliated
QPAMs.
The Department agrees that it is
appropriate and beneficial for the
auditor and the entity being audited to
communicate during the audit process.
Such communication allows for a dialog
regarding, among other things, factual
premises, findings, and conclusions.
With regard to issues of noncompliance,
communication should take place as
soon as possible, but in no case later
than five (5) days following the
discovery of such noncompliance (see
Section I(i)(6)) to allow time for the
Applicant to provide additional
information to the auditor and correct
the noncompliance. However, the
Department considers a requirement
directing the auditor to provide a draft
Audit Report to the audited entity in all
cases to be inappropriate, as it is a
matter best determined by the Applicant
and the auditor. The Department notes
that, while contemplating the time
frames for completion and submission
of the Audit Report, it did take into
account the auditor’s procedural work
and communications with the
Applicant. The Applicant has not
demonstrated the need for additional
time to complete and submit the Audit
Report. The Department therefore
declines to modify Section I(i)(5) as
requested by the Applicant.
Lastly, the Department has accepted
the Applicant’s recommendation that
the auditor be allowed to issue one
consolidated Audit Report and has
modified Section I(i)(5) accordingly.
Comment 17—Auditor’s Determination
of Compliance—I(i)(5)(i)
Section I(i)(5)(i) of the proposed fiveyear exemption provides, in part: ‘‘Any
determination by the auditor regarding
the adequacy of the Policies and
Training and the auditor’s
recommendations (if any) with respect
to strengthening the Policies and
Training of the respective JPMC
Affiliated QPAM must be promptly
addressed by such JPMC Affiliated
QPAM, and any action taken by such
JPMC Affiliated QPAM to address such
recommendations must be included in
an addendum to the Audit Report
(which addendum is completed prior to
the certification described in Section
I(i)(7) below).’’
The Applicant asserts that Section
I(i)(5)(i) is arbitrary, capricious, and
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ambiguous and requests that the term
‘‘promptly’’ be omitted from the
condition because it will cause disputes
over its meaning. The Applicant argues
that this perceived ambiguity is
problematic in this context because
addressing the auditor’s
recommendation could be a lengthy
process.
In addition, Section I(i)(5)(i) states:
‘‘Furthermore, the auditor must not rely
on the Annual Report created by the
compliance officer (the Compliance
Officer) as described in Section I(m)
below in lieu of independent
determinations and testing performed
by the auditor as required by Section
I(i)(3) and (4) above.’’
The Applicant requests that this
provision of Section I(i)(5) be deleted, as
it imposes a counterproductive
limitation on the auditor’s use of the
Annual Review and usurps the auditor’s
judgment regarding how to perform its
role, and whether and when to rely
upon any and all resources. The
Applicant further states, that denying
the auditor the opportunity to fully use
its judgment as to which resources it
will rely upon contradicts the
underlying purpose of this exemption’s
broader audit condition, especially in
light of the requirements relating to the
auditor’s selection and qualifications.
Moreover, the Applicant states that the
language of this condition will interfere
with the workability of the exemption
and its use by plans. To that end, the
Applicant states that if counterparties
cannot determine whether this
requirement has been complied with,
the exemption will not be used, to the
detriment of plans.
The Department acknowledges that
the Applicant’s efforts to address the
auditor’s recommendations regarding
any inadequacy in the Policies and
Training identified by the auditor, may
take longer to implement than the time
limits mandated by the proposed
exemption. Accordingly, the
Department is modifying Section
I(i)(5)(i) to reflect the possibility that the
JPMC Affiliated QPAMs’ efforts to
address the auditor’s recommendations
regarding inadequacies in the Policies
and Training identified by the auditor,
may not be completed by the
submission date of the Audit Report and
may require a written plan to address
such items. However, any
noncompliance identified by the auditor
must be promptly addressed. The
Department does not agree that the word
‘‘promptly’’ creates inappropriate
ambiguity in the condition and declines
to remove the word.
The final sentence of Section I(i)(5)(i)
expresses the Department’s intent that
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the auditor not rely solely on the work
of the Compliance Officer and the
contents of the Annual Report in
formulating its conclusions or findings.
The auditor must perform its own
independent testing to formulate its
conclusions. This exemption does not
prohibit the auditor from considering
the Compliance Officer’s Annual Report
in carrying out its audit function,
including the formulation of an audit
plan. This exemption, however, does
prohibit the auditor from reaching
conclusions that are exclusively based
upon the contents of the Compliance
Officer’s Annual Report. The
Department has modified Section
I(i)(5)(i) to more clearly reflect these
views.
Included with its comment on Section
I(i)(5)(i), the Applicant requests the
deletion of the Compliance Officer and
Annual Review requirements set out in
Section I(m). The Department’s response
to this request is discussed below.
Comment 18—Adequacy of the Annual
Review—Section I(i)(5)(ii)
Section I(i)(5)(ii) of the proposed fiveyear exemption provides that ‘‘[t]he
Audit Report must include the auditor’s
specific determinations regarding: . . .
(ii) The adequacy of the Annual Review
described in Section I(m) and the
resources provided to the Compliance
Officer in connection with such Annual
Review.’’
The Applicant asserts that requiring
the auditor to assess the adequacy of the
resources provided to the Compliance
Officer is overreaching and should be
deleted. The Applicant states that, while
the auditor function requires
proficiency in ERISA, it does not require
sophistication or expertise on resource
allocation. According to the Applicant,
the question of whether the Compliance
Officer has met its obligations under
this exemption will be subject to the
auditor’s review. The Applicant states
that if the auditor finds any deficiencies
in the review, the Applicant will
address such issues including any
allocation of resources.
As discussed in detail below, the
Department views the Compliance
Officer and the Annual Review as
integral to ensuring compliance with the
exemption. An independent assessment
by the auditor of the adequacy of the
Annual Review is essential to providing
the Department with the assurance that
the Applicant and the JPMC Affiliated
QPAMs have given these matters the
utmost priority and have taken the
actions necessary to comply with the
exemption. However, the Department
agrees that the QPAMs need not require
the auditor to opine on the adequacy of
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the resources allocated to the
Compliance Officer and has modified
Section I(i)(5)(ii) accordingly. If,
however, the auditor observes
compliance issues related to the
Compliance Officer or available
resources, it would be appropriate for
the auditor to opine on those problems.
Comment 19—Certification of the
Audit—Section I(i)(7)
Section I(i)(7) of the proposed fiveyear exemption provides, in part, that
‘‘. . . the General Counsel, or one of the
three most senior executive officers of
the JPMC Affiliated QPAM to which the
Audit Report applies, must certify in
writing, under penalties of perjury, that
the officer has reviewed that Audit
Report and this exemption; addressed,
corrected, or remedied any inadequacy
identified in the Audit Report . . .’’
The Applicant requests that this
condition be modified to remove
ambiguity, enhance workability, and
avoid aspects that could be interpreted
as punitive. The Applicant claims that
the requirements of Section I(i)(7)
should take into account JPMC’s
business structure and allow the
Applicant to determine which senior
officers will review the Audit Report.
The Applicant states that it would be
preferable that an executive related to
an asset/investment management
business operating through the QPAM
review the Audit Report. In this regard,
the Applicant requests Section I(i)(7) be
modified in part as follows: ‘‘the
General Counsel or one of the three
most senior executives of the line of
business engaged in discretionary assets
management activities through the
JPMC Affiliated QPAM with respect to
which the Audit Report applies . . .’’.
The Department concurs that a senior
executive officer with knowledge of the
asset management business within the
QPAM should be allowed to review the
Audit Report, and has modified the
language of Section I(i)(7), accordingly.
The Applicant also requests that the
timing of Section I(i)(7) be clarified. In
this regard, the Applicant states that
compliance with this condition would
be impossible if, for example, a
recommendation takes longer to
implement than the 30-day period
contemplated in Section I(i)(9) for the
Audit Report to be certified and
provided to the Department.
While the Department does not view
Section I(i)(7) as ambiguous, the
Department is aware, as stated above,
that the Applicant’s efforts to address
the auditor’s recommendations
regarding inadequacies in the Policies
and Training identified by the auditor
may take longer to implement than the
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timeframe to submit the certified Audit
Report. With respect to this issue, the
Department did not intend to limit
corrective actions to those that could
only be completed prior to the
submission of the Audit Report.
Therefore, the Department has modified
Section I(i)(7) to reflect that the senior
officer may certify that a written plan to
address the inadequacies regarding the
Policies and Training identified in the
auditor’s Report is in place.
The Applicant also states that this
condition should clarify that it may
appropriately ‘‘address’’ an inadequacy
by noting that an alternative action to
the auditor’s recommendation, or even
no action, is a preferable means of
protecting ERISA plan clients and IRAs.
The Applicant states that this condition
is intrusive, as it invites the auditor,
through its conclusions and
recommendations, to micromanage the
business of the relevant JPMC QPAM.
The Applicant claims that, with broad
access to a JPMC Affiliated QPAM’s
records, the auditor could identify any
number of potential inadequacies, all of
which the JPM Affiliated QPAM should
not be required to accept
unconditionally.
As mentioned above, the Department
has determined that it is necessary for
the auditor to be afforded unfettered
access to JPMC Affiliated QPAM
records, to the extent that the analysis
of such records falls within the twelve
month period to which the audit relates.
For the first audit required by this
exemption, that period runs from
January 10, 2018 through January 9,
2019. The conditions of this exemption
do not prohibit the Applicant from
disagreeing with the auditor with
respect to whether certain practices fail
to comply with the terms of this
exemption. However, in those
circumstances where the auditor is not
persuaded to change its position on a
matter the auditor considers
noncompliant, the Applicant will be
responsible to correct such matters. Nor
do the conditions of this exemption
prohibit the Applicant from disagreeing
with the auditor with respect to the
appropriate method for correcting or
addressing issues of noncompliance.
The Department would expect the
Applicant and the auditor to have
meaningful communications on such
differences of opinion. In the event the
Applicant chooses to apply a corrective
method that differs from that
recommended by the auditor, the Audit
Report and the Addendum attached
thereto should explain in detail the
noncompliance, the auditor’s
recommended action, the corrective
method chosen, and, if applicable, why
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the Applicant chose a corrective method
different from that recommended by the
auditor.
Lastly, the Applicant requests
deletion of the requirement in Section
I(i)(7) for certification by the senior
executive officer under penalties of
perjury. The Applicant argues that this
requirement is unnecessary and
inappropriate as this exemption already
requires accuracy in communications
with regulators and clients.
The Department declines to remove
this requirement, which makes clear the
importance of the correction process
and creates a strong incentive going
forward to take seriously the audit
process—and compliance generally.
Comment 20—Review and Certification
of Audit Report—Section I(i)(8)
Section I(i)(8) the proposed five-year
exemption provides that ‘‘[t]he Risk
Committee of JPMC’s Board of Directors
is provided a copy of each Audit Report;
and a senior executive officer with a
direct reporting line to the highest
ranking legal officer of JPMC must
review the Audit Report for each JPMC
Affiliated QPAM . . .’’
The Applicant requests that the
requirement to provide the Audit Report
to the Risk Committee of JPMC’s Board
of Directors be omitted. The Applicant
states that the Department, in imposing
this condition, is acting beyond the
scope of its authority. The Applicant
also represents that this condition
constitutes micromanaging by the
Department and is inappropriate and
unnecessary. The Applicant further
states that this requirement does not
protect plans and participants and is
duplicative of other conditions
contained in this exemption. The
Applicant argues that a mandate by the
Department concerning JPMC’s internal
processes for handling information is
outside the scope of the exemption and
does not further the statutory goal of
protecting plans.
The Applicant requests that the
exemption provide that the certifying
reviewer be a senior executive officer.
The Applicant further states that the
exemption should not mandate that the
certifying reviewer be a senior executive
officer in the direct reporting line to the
highest ranking legal officer of JPMC.
Finally, the Applicant requests the
requirement in Section I(i)(8) that the
certification by the senior executive
officer be made under penalty of perjury
be deleted, as it is unnecessary.
The Department notes that in its
application and related materials, the
Applicant has represented that it has
established, or is in the process of
establishing comprehensive changes to
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processes and procedures that are, in
part, intended to change the culture at
JPMC from the top down. As
represented by the Applicant, these
changes are focused on enhancements
in: (1) Supervision, controls, and
governance; (2) compliance risk
assessment; (3) transaction monitoring
and communications surveillance; (4)
compliance testing; and (5) internal
audit.8
The Department has developed this
exemption to ensure that the highest
levels of management are aware of ongoing matters concerning JPMC, the
JPMC Affiliated QPAMs, and
compliance with this exemption.
Requiring the provision of the Audit
Report to the Board of Directors and
certification by a senior executive
officer in the reporting line of the
highest legal compliance officer
provides assurance that the highest
levels of management within JPMC stay
informed about JPMC’s and the JPMC
Affiliated QPAMs’ compliance with the
terms of this exemption. In the
Department’s view, such officials are in
the best position to ensure that any
inadequacy identified by the auditor is
appropriately addressed and that
necessary changes to corporate policy
are effectuated if and where necessary.
Requiring certification under penalty of
perjury is consistent with the
Department’s longstanding view that
basic requirements of compliance and
integrity are fundamental to an entity’s
ability to qualify as a QPAM.
Comment 21—Availability of the Audit
Report—Section I(i)(9)
The Applicant claims that the
requirements in Section I(i)(9) that
‘‘each JPMC Affiliated QPAM must
make its Audit Report unconditionally
available for examination by any duly
authorized employee or representative
of the Department, other relevant
regulators, and any fiduciary of an
ERISA-covered plan or IRA, the assets of
which are managed by such JPMC
Affiliated QPAM’’ is outside the scope
of the exemption and is unnecessary.
The Applicant states that the
availability of the Audit Report should
be limited to ERISA-covered plans and
IRAs for which the Applicant relies on
PTE 84–14. The Applicant argues that it
is overly-broad, punitive and not related
to the relief provided in the exemption
to extend this condition to plans and
IRAs for which the Affiliated JPMC
QPAMs do not rely on PTE 84–14.
Additionally, the Applicant requests
that the Audit Report should be made
8 See JPMC Exemption Application (May 20,
2015) at page 12.
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available upon request and that any
such provision of the Audit Report may
be facilitated via electronic delivery.
The Department does not agree that
the condition in Section I(i)(9) is
punitive. As the Applicant recognized
in its application, ERISA-covered plans,
IRAs, and counterparties routinely rely
on QPAM status before entering into
agreements with financial institutions,
even if those institutions do not believe
compliance with PTE 84–14 is strictly
necessary for any particular transaction.
Accordingly, the Department has an
interest in ensuring that the conditions
of this exemption broadly protect
ERISA-covered plans and IRAs that
have relied on QPAM status in deciding
to enter into an agreement with the
Applicant or the Affiliated JPMC
QPAMs.
Nevertheless, the Department has
revised Section I(i)(9) to clarify that the
JPMC Affiliated QPAMs are required to
make the documents available to any
fiduciary of a Covered Plan. The Audit
Report, in any event, will be
incorporated into the public record
attributable to this exemption, under
Exemption Application Number D–
11906, and, therefore, independently
accessible by members of the public.
Accordingly, the Department has
determined to revise the condition by
replacing the phrase ‘‘an ERISA-covered
plan or IRA, the assets of which are
managed by such JPMC Affiliated
QPAM’’ with the term ‘‘Covered Plan’’
(as defined in Section II(c)). Lastly, the
Department agrees that access to the
Audit Report need only be upon request
and such access can be electronic, and
has revised the exemption accordingly.
Comment 22—Engagement
Agreements—Section I(i)(10)
The Applicant claims that the
requirement under Section I(i)(10)(B)
which provides, ‘‘[e]ach JPMC Affiliated
QPAM and the auditor must submit to
OED . . . (B) any engagement
agreement entered into with any other
entity retained in connection with such
QPAM’s compliance with the Training
or Policies conditions of this five-year
exemption, no later than six (6) months
after the Conviction Date (and one
month after the execution of any
agreement thereafter)’’ should be
omitted as it is unnecessary, punitive,
and not in the interest of plans or their
participants. The Applicant states that
the terms of engagement between the
JPMC Affiliated QPAMS and the auditor
and trainer should be left to the
discretion of the parties to such
engagement agreements. The Applicant
maintains that it is intrusive to mandate
that every service provider contract that
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relates to the Policies and the Training
be provided to the Department.
Additionally, the Applicant requests
that the timeframe for provision of the
auditor’s engagement be modified to no
later than six (6) months after execution
of such engagement agreement.
In coordination with the Department’s
modification of Section I(h)(2)(ii) to
remove the requirement that the
Training must be conducted by an
independent professional, the
Department has determined to remove
the requirement in Section I(i)(10)(B) to
provide to the Department the
engagement agreements entered into
with entities retained in connection
with compliance with the Training or
Policies conditions. Furthermore, to
remove any confusion and uncertainty
regarding the timing of the submission
of the auditor’s engagement agreement,
the Department has modified Section
I(i)(10) to require that the auditor’s
engagement agreement be submitted to
the Office of Exemption Determinations
no later than two (2) months after the
engagement agreement is entered into
by the Applicant and the independent
auditor.
Comment 23—Auditor’s Workpapers—
Section I(i)(11)
Section I(i)(11) the proposed five-year
exemption provides that the ‘‘auditor
must provide OED, upon request, all of
the workpapers created and utilized in
the course of the audit, including, but
not limited to: The audit plan; audit
testing; identification of any instance of
noncompliance by the relevant JPMC
Affiliated QPAM; and an explanation of
any corrective or remedial action taken
by the applicable JPMC Affiliated
QPAM.’’ The Applicant states that
Section I(i)(11) is duplicative and could
cause the Applicant to lose the
exemption due to the auditor’s actions
or inaction. Additionally, the Applicant
notes that this condition should account
for workpapers which the auditor does
not want to submit to the public file on
the basis of confidentiality or privacy of
information. The Applicant argues that
such workpapers may contain
information such as client data,
employee personal information, and
other sensitive information. The
Applicant therefore requests that the
Department exempt such workpapers in
a manner that does not compromise the
Department’s ability to review such
workpapers. Finally, the Applicant
claims that by stating ‘‘all of the
workpapers’’ and then providing list of
what ‘‘all’’ might encompass, the
Department is being overzealous and
duplicative.
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The Department acknowledges that
certain information contained in the
workpapers may be confidential and
proprietary, and having that information
in a public file may create needless or
avoidable disclosure issues. The
Department has determined to modify
Section I(i)(11) to remove the
requirement that the auditor provide the
workpapers to OED,9 and instead
require that the auditor provide access
to the workpapers for the Department’s
review and inspection. However, given
the importance of the workpapers to the
Department’s own review and the
Applicant’s contractual relationship
with the auditor, the Department
declines to include, as requested by the
Applicant, a statement in Section
I(i)(11) that a failure on behalf of the
auditor to meet this condition will not
violate the exemption.
Comment 24—Replacement of
Auditor—Section I(i)(12)
Section I(i)(12) of the proposed fiveyear exemption states that: ‘‘JPMC must
notify the Department at least thirty (30)
days prior to any substitution of an
auditor . . . and that JPMC
demonstrate[e] to the Department’s
satisfaction that such new auditor is
independent of JPMC, experienced in
the matters that are the subject of the
exemption, and capable of making the
determination required by [the]
exemption.’’
The Applicant requests that this
Section I(i)(12) be deleted as it is
inconsistent with the condition for the
initial selection of an auditor and
duplicative of other substantive terms of
the exemption. Initially, the Applicant
notes that permitting JPMC’s internal
audit department to perform the audit
functions required under this exemption
would render this condition
unnecessary. The Applicant states that
requiring JPMC to demonstrate the
independence and qualifications of the
auditor prior to a substitution serves no
useful purpose, given the audit process
timeline laid out under this exemption.
The Applicant states that, since the
exemption does not grant the
Department the authority to approve the
initial auditor selection, likewise the
Department should not have the
authority to approve the selection of a
subsequent auditor. The Applicant
states that many circumstances which
could necessitate an auditor change
would not relate to compliance with the
terms of the exemption. The Applicant
9 OED is the Office of Exemption Determinations
within the Employee Benefits Security
Administration agency of the United States
Department of Labor.
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states that if the Department’s concern
is the removal of a critical auditor, this
condition is not rationally related to
such an issue.
As explained above, the Department
does not agree that the internal audit
department of JPMC is the appropriate
entity to perform the audit. The
auditor’s independence is critical to the
Department’s determination that the
exemption protects Covered Plans. This
exemption is not unique in requiring the
Department be notified of changes to
service providers (see, e.g., the
requirement of Schedule C of the Form
5500 Annual Return/Report for the Plan
Administrator of certain plans to report
to the Department a termination of the
plan’s auditor and/or enrolled actuary
and to provide an explanation of the
reasons for the termination, including a
description of any material disputes or
matters of disagreement concerning the
termination). Furthermore, requiring the
Applicant to notify the Department of
the substitution of an auditor serves to
ensure that the JPMC Affiliated QPAMs
are attentive to the audit process and the
protections it provides; and that the
Department has the information it needs
to review compliance. The Department
has determined to modify Section
I(i)(12) to remove the requirement for
JPMC to demonstrate the independence
and qualifications of the auditor,
however, and requires instead that
JPMC, no later than two months from
the engagement of the replacement
auditor, notify the Department of a
change in auditor and of the reason(s)
for the substitution including any
material disputes between the
terminated auditor and JPMC. JPMC’s
fiduciary obligations with respect to the
selection of the auditor, as well as the
significant role a credible selection
plays in reducing the need for more
extensive oversight by the Department,
should be sufficient to safeguard the
selection process.
Comments 25–26—Contracts With Plans
and IRAs—Section I(j)
Section I(j) of the proposed five-year
exemption provides: ‘‘Effective as of the
effective date of this five-year
exemption, with respect to any
arrangement, agreement, or contract
between a JPMC Affiliated QPAM and
an ERISA-covered plan or IRA for which
a JPMC Affiliated QPAM provides asset
management or other discretionary
fiduciary services, each JPMC Affiliated
QPAM agrees and warrants:
(1) To comply with ERISA and the
Code, as applicable with respect to such
ERISA-covered plan or IRA; to refrain
from engaging in prohibited
transactions that are not otherwise
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exempt (and to promptly correct any
inadvertent prohibited transactions);
and to comply with the standards of
prudence and loyalty set forth in section
404 of ERISA, as applicable, with
respect to each such ERISA-covered
plan and IRA;
(2) To indemnify and hold harmless
the ERISA-covered plan or IRA for any
damages resulting from a JPMC
Affiliated QPAM’s violation of
applicable laws, a JPMC Affiliated
QPAM’s breach of contract, or any claim
brought in connection with the failure of
such JPMC Affiliated QPAM to qualify
for the exemptive relief provided by PTE
84–14 as a result of a violation of
Section I(g) of PTE 84–14 other than the
Conviction;
(3) Not to require (or otherwise cause)
the ERISA-covered plan or IRA to waive,
limit, or qualify the liability of the JPMC
Affiliated QPAM for violating ERISA or
the Code or engaging in prohibited
transactions;
(4) Not to require the ERISA-covered
plan or IRA (or sponsor of such ERISAcovered plan or beneficial owner of such
IRA) to indemnify the JPMC Affiliated
QPAM for violating ERISA or engaging
in prohibited transactions, except for
violations or prohibited transactions
caused by an error, misrepresentation,
or misconduct of a plan fiduciary or
other party hired by the plan fiduciary
who is independent of JPMC, and its
affiliates;
(5) Not to restrict the ability of such
ERISA-covered plan or IRA to terminate
or withdraw from its arrangement with
the JPMC Affiliated QPAM (including
any investment in a separately managed
account or pooled fund subject to ERISA
and managed by such QPAM), with the
exception of reasonable restrictions,
appropriately disclosed in advance, that
are specifically designed to ensure
equitable treatment of all investors in a
pooled fund in the event such
withdrawal or termination may have
adverse consequences for all other
investors as a result of an actual lack of
liquidity of the underlying assets,
provided that such restrictions are
applied consistently and in like manner
to all such investors;
(6) Not to impose any fees, penalties,
or charges for such termination or
withdrawal with the exception of
reasonable fees, appropriately disclosed
in advance, that are specifically
designed to prevent generally
recognized abusive investment practices
or specifically designed to ensure
equitable treatment of all investors in a
pooled fund in the event such
withdrawal or termination may have
adverse consequences for all other
investors, provided that such fees are
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applied consistently and in like manner
to all such investors; and
(7) Not to include exculpatory
provisions disclaiming or otherwise
limiting liability of the JPMC Affiliated
QPAM for a violation of such
agreement’s terms, except for liability
caused by an error, misrepresentation,
or misconduct of a plan fiduciary or
other party hired by the plan fiduciary
who is independent of JPMC, and its
affiliates;
(8) Within four (4) months of the date
of the Conviction, each JPMC Affiliated
QPAM must provide a notice of its
obligations under this Section I(j) to
each ERISA-covered plan and IRA for
which an JPMC Affiliated QPAM
provides asset management or other
discretionary fiduciary services. For all
other prospective ERISA-covered plan
and IRA clients for which a JPMC
Affiliated QPAM provides asset
management or other discretionary
services, the JPMC Affiliated QPAM will
agree in writing to its obligations under
this Section I(j) in an updated
investment management agreement
between the JPMC Affiliated QPAM and
such clients or other written contractual
agreement’’.
The Applicant states that Section I(j)
of the proposed exemption is overbroad,
entirely inappropriate, not rationallyrelated to asset management,
inconsistent with the Administrative
Procedure Act (the APA), an attempt to
create a private right of action for IRAs,
and punitive; that it should be limited
to ERISA-covered plans and IRAs with
respect to which the Applicant relies on
the QPAM Exemption; and that it is not
reasonably designed to protect plans or
their participants. The Applicant also
requests that the condition clarify that it
supersedes the analogous condition in
PTE 2016–15, so as not to impose
duplicative requirements, and also be
modified to read as follows: ‘‘This
subparagraph supersedes Section I(i) of
PTE 2016–15, as of the date of the
exemption’s publication in the Federal
Register. Effective as of the publication
date, with respect to any arrangement,
agreement, or contract between a JPMC
Affiliated QPAM and an ERISA-covered
plan or IRA for which a JPMC Affiliated
QPAM provides asset management or
other discretionary fiduciary services in
reliance on PTE 84–14 . . . .’’
As explained above, ERISA-covered
plans and IRAs routinely rely on QPAM
status as a condition of entering into
transactions with financial institutions,
even with respect to transactions that do
not require adherence to PTE 84–14.
Indeed, the Applicant recognized this
fact in its application (see, e.g.,
Applicant’s statement that ‘‘[w]hile
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equity strategies rarely rely on the
QPAM Exemption, plans invested in
such strategies could decide to find
other managers or pooled funds if the
affiliated investment managers were no
longer QPAMs’’). In addition, it may not
always be clear whether the JPMC
Affiliated QPAM intends to rely upon
PTE 84–14 for any particular
transaction. Accordingly, it is critical to
ensure that protective conditions are in
place to safeguard the interests of
ERISA-covered plans and IRAs that are
acting in reliance on the availability of
this exemption, particularly those who
may not have entered into the
transaction in the first place, but for the
Department’s grant of this exemption.
The Department has a clear interest in
protecting such Covered Plans that enter
into an asset management agreement
with a JPMC Affiliated QPAM in
reliance on the manager’s qualification
as a QPAM. Moreover, when a Covered
Plan terminates its relationship with an
asset manager, it may incur significant
costs and expenses as its investments
are unwound and in connection with
finding a new asset manager. The
Department rejects the view that it acts
outside its authority by protecting
ERISA-covered plans and IRAs that rely
on JPMC’s asset managers’ eligibility for
this exemption, and reemphasizes the
seriousness of the criminal misconduct
that caused JPMC to need this
exemption. The Department may grant
an exemption under Section 408(a) of
ERISA or Section 4975(c)(2)(C) of the
Code only to the extent the Secretary
finds, among other things, that the
exemption is protective of the affected
plan(s) or IRA(s). As noted by
regulators, personnel at JPMorgan Chase
Bank, a QPAM, engaged in serious
misconduct over an extended period of
time at the expense of their own clients.
This misconduct appears to have
stemmed, in part, from deficiencies in
control and oversight.
Notwithstanding the misconduct,
which resulted in violation of Section
I(g) of PTE 84–14, the Department has
granted this exemption based, in
significant part, upon the inclusion of
Section I(j)(1) in the exemption, which
protects Covered Plans by, among other
things, requiring JPMC Affiliated
QPAMs to make an express commitment
to their customers to adhere to the
requirements of ERISA and the Code, as
applicable. As previously indicated, the
Department has concluded that a
culture of compliance, centered on
adherence to basic standards of fair
dealing as set forth in this exemption,
gives the Department a compelling basis
for making the required statutory
findings that the exemption is in the
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interests of plan and IRA investors and
protective of their rights. Absent such
findings, the exemption would have
been denied.
In response to the Applicant’s
comments, however, the Department
has required an express commitment to
comply with the fiduciary standards
and prohibited transaction rules only to
the extent these provisions are
‘‘applicable’’ under ERISA and the
Code. This section, as modified, should
serve its salutary purposes of promoting
a culture of compliance and enhancing
the ability of plans and IRA customers
to sever their relationships with
minimal injury in the event of noncompliance. This conclusion is
reinforced, as well, by the limited
nature of the relief granted by this
exemption, which generally does not
extend to transactions that involve selfdealing.
In response to the Applicant’s
comments, the Department also notes
that nothing in ERISA or the Code
prevents the Department from
conditioning relief on express
contractual commitments to adhere to
the requirements set out herein. The
QPAMs remain free to disclaim reliance
on the exemption and to avoid such
express contractual commitments. To
the extent, however, that they hold
themselves out as fiduciary QPAMs,
they should be prepared to make an
express commitment to their customers
to adhere to the requirements of this
exemption. This commitment
strengthens and reinforces the
likelihood of compliance, and helps
ensure that, in the event of
noncompliance, customers—
particularly IRA customers—will be
insulated from injuries caused by noncompliance. These protections also
ensure that customers will be able to
extricate themselves from transactions
that become prohibited as a result of the
QPAMs’ misconduct, without fear of
sustaining additional losses as a result
of the QPAMs’ actions. In this
connection, however, the Department
emphasizes that the only claims
available to the QPAMs’ customers
pursuant to these contractual
commitments are those separately
provided by ERISA or other state and
federal laws that are not preempted by
ERISA. As before, private litigants have
only those causes of action specifically
authorized by laws that exist
independent of this exemption.
Comment 27—Indemnity Provision—
Section I(j)(2).
Section I(j)(2) of the proposed fiveyear exemption provides that
‘‘[e]ffective as of the effective date of
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this five-year exemption, with respect to
any arrangement, agreement, or contract
between a JPMC Affiliated QPAM and
an ERISA covered plan or IRA for which
a JPMC Affiliated QPAM provides asset
management or other discretionary
fiduciary services, each JPMC Affiliated
QPAM agrees and warrants: . . . (2) To
indemnify and hold harmless the
ERISA-covered plan or IRA for any
damages resulting from a JPMC
Affiliated QPAM’s violation of
applicable laws, a JPMC Affiliated
QPAM’s breach of contract, or any claim
brought in connection with the failure of
such JPMC Affiliated QPAM to qualify
for the exemptive relief provided by PTE
84–14 as a result of a violation of
Section I (g) of PTE 84–14 other than the
Conviction.’’
The Applicant requests that this
condition be deleted because it is
punitive, beyond the Department’s
authority, and provides for damages that
are excessive and/or not reasonably
related to any conduct of the JPMC
Affiliated QPAMs. In addition, the
Applicant represents that the condition
may operate in a manner that is
fundamentally unfair because it is not
limited to clients who are harmed
through a direct, causal link to the loss
of exemptive relief provided by PTE 84–
14.
Also with respect to section I(j)(2), the
Applicant requests clarifying language
stating that the JPMC Affiliated QPAM
indemnification obligations under this
exemption do not extend to damages
resulting from, or caused by forces
beyond the control of JPMC, including
certain acts of government authorities
and acts of God.
In this regard, the Applicant requests
a revision of section I(j)(2) such that
each JPMC Affiliated QPAM must agree
and warrant to indemnify and hold
harmless the ERISA-covered plan or
IRA, ‘‘for any reasonable losses
involving such arrangement, agreement
or contract and resulting directly from a
JPMC Affiliated QPAM’s violation of
ERISA, or, to the extent the JPMC
Affiliated QPAM relies on the exemptive
relief provided by PTE 84–14 under the
arrangement, agreement or contract for
any explicit transactional exit costs of
any instrument with respect to which
PTE 84–14 was expressly relied upon
and for which no other exemption is
available, resulting directly and solely
from the failure of such JPMC Affiliated
QPAM to qualify for the exemptive relief
provided by PTE 84–14 as a result of a
violation of Section I(g) of PTE 84–14,
other than as a result of the
Conviction.’’
As explained above, the intended
purpose of this exemption is to protect
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ERISA-covered plans and IRAs who
entrust the JPMC Affiliated QPAMs with
the management of their retirement
assets. To this end, the Department
believes that the protective purpose of
this exemption is furthered by Section
I(j)(2). The Department emphasizes that
this condition is not punitive, but rather
ensures that, when an ERISA-covered
plan or IRA enters into an asset
management agreement with a JPMC
Affiliated QPAM in reliance on the
manager’s qualification as a QPAM, it
may expect adherence to basic fiduciary
norms and standards of fair dealing,
notwithstanding the prior conviction.
The condition also ensures that the
ERISA-covered plan or IRA will be able
to disengage from that relationship in
the event that the terms of this
exemption are violated without undue
injury. Accordingly, the Department has
revised the applicability of this
condition to more closely reflect this
interest. In particular, the condition
applies only to Covered Plans. As
indicated above, if the asset manager
would prefer not to be subject to these
provisions as exemption conditions, it
may expressly disclaim reliance on
QPAM status or PTE 84–14 in entering
into its contract with the ERISA-covered
plan or IRA (in that case, however, it
could not rely on the exemption for
relief). The Department has made
certain further changes to this condition
upon consideration of the Applicant’s
comment. These changes include:
renumbering the condition for clarity;
replacing ‘‘applicable laws’’ with
clarifying language that conforms to the
one-year exemption; and replacing ‘‘any
damages’’ with ‘‘actual losses resulting
directly from’’ certain acts or omissions
of the JPMC Affiliated QPAMs. Because
I(j)(2) extends only to actual losses
resulting directly from the actions of the
JPMC Affiliated QPAMs, it does not
encompass losses solely caused by other
parties, events, or acts of God.
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Comment 28—Limits on Liability—
Section I(j)(3) and I(j)(7).10
Sections I(j)(3) and I(j)(7) of the
proposed five-year exemption provide
that ‘‘[e]ffective as of the effective date
of this five-year exemption, with respect
to any arrangement, agreement, or
contract between a JPMC Affiliated
QPAM and an ERISA-covered plan or
IRA for which a JPMC Affiliated QPAM
provides asset management or other
discretionary fiduciary services, each
10 The Department has determined that
subsection (4) is duplicative of the exemption’s
prohibition on exculpatory clauses, described
below. Thus, the subsection has been deleted.
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JPMC Affiliated QPAM agrees and
warrants:
. . . (3) Not to require (or otherwise
cause) the ERISA-covered plan or IRA to
waive, limit, or qualify the liability of
the JPMC Affiliated QPAM for violating
ERISA or the Code or engaging in
prohibited transactions; [and] . . . (7)
Not to include exculpatory provisions
disclaiming or otherwise limiting
liability of the JPMC Affiliated QPAM
for a violation of such agreement’s
terms, except for liability caused by an
error, misrepresentation, or misconduct
of a plan fiduciary or other party hired
by the plan fiduciary who is
independent of JPMC, and its affiliates.’’
The Applicant requests that these
conditions be deleted because they:
duplicate the statutory requirements in
ERISA and the Code, which ensure that
the JPMC Affiliated QPAMs remain
liable to their plan or IRA clients for the
asset manager’s violations of the law; do
not afford plans and IRAs any greater
protection; and amount to unnecessary
overregulation. To the extent there is a
violation of a contract, the Applicant
represents that adequate causes of
action exist to remedy the issue.
Alternatively, the Applicant requests
that, if the Department declines to
amend Section I(j)(7) as requested, this
Section be revised to clarify that losses
caused by counterparties, trading
venues, or acts of terrorism, war, etc.,
are carved out of the QPAM’s liability.
The Department declines to delete
Section I(j)(3) from the final exemption.
As the Applicant points out, ERISA
already precludes ERISA fiduciaries
from disclaiming obligations under
ERISA. See ERISA section 410
(prohibiting exculpatory clauses as void
against public policy). To the extent the
exemption condition prevents the JPMC
Affiliated QPAMs from including
contractual provisions that are void as
against public policy there is no
legitimate basis for objection. Such
exculpatory language should not be in
the governing documents in the first
place and is potentially misleading
because it suggests disclaimer of
obligations that may not be disclaimed.
Outside the context of ERISA section
410, the provision’s requirement that
the JPMC Affiliated QPAMs retain
accountability for adherence to the basic
obligations set forth in this exemption is
justified by the misconduct that led to
the Conviction as discussed above, and
by the need to ensure that ERISAcovered plan and IRA customers may
readily obtain redress and exit contracts
with JPMC Affiliated QPAMs without
harm in the event of violations.
The Department has determined that
Section I(j)(4), as proposed, is
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61829
duplicative of the exemption’s
prohibition on exculpatory clauses,
described below. Thus, that subsection
has been deleted. Accordingly, the
subsections in Section I(j) have been
renumbered.
The Department has modified Section
I(j)(6) (formerly (j)(7)) to clarify that the
prohibition on exculpatory provisions
does not extend to losses that arise from
an act or event not caused by JPMC.
Nothing in this section alters the
prohibition on exculpatory provisions
set forth in ERISA Section 410.
Comment 29—Termination and
Withdrawal Restriction
Under Sections I(j)(5) and I(j)(6) of the
proposed five-year exemption, the JPMC
Affiliated QPAMs agree: ‘‘. . . (5) Not to
restrict the ability of such ERISAcovered plan or IRA to terminate or
withdraw from its arrangement with the
JPMC Affiliated QPAM (including any
investment in a separately managed
account or pooled fund subject to ERISA
and managed by such QPAM), with the
exception of reasonable restrictions,
appropriately disclosed in advance, that
are specifically designed to ensure
equitable treatment of all investors in a
pooled fund in the event such
withdrawal or termination may have
adverse consequences for all other
investors as a result of an actual lack of
liquidity of the underlying assets,
provided that such restrictions are
applied consistently and in like manner
to all such investors; [and] . . . (6) Not
to impose any fees, penalties, or charges
for such termination or withdrawal with
the exception of reasonable fees,
appropriately disclosed in advance, that
are specifically designed to prevent
generally recognized abusive investment
practices or specifically designed to
ensure equitable treatment of all
investors in a pooled fund in the event
such withdrawal or termination may
have adverse consequences for all other
investors, provided that such fees are
applied consistently and in like manner
to all such investors.’’
The Applicant represents that these
conditions should be deleted because
they are harmful to ERISA-covered
plans and IRAs and their participants
and beneficiaries, and are punitive to
the Applicant. Withdrawal provisions,
according to the Applicant, should be
designed to protect all investors in a
pooled fund or in a particular strategy.
The Applicant states that the proposed
restrictions here would disrupt the
JPMC Affiliated QPAMs’ existing
relationships with and contractual
obligations to their clients,
notwithstanding the fact that plans and
IRAs have determined that such
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relationships are in their best interests.
The Applicant represents that lockup
provisions are commonly used,
designed to protect all investors in a
pooled fund, and applied evenly to all
investors. If conditions relating to
withdrawal are not permitted, the
Applicant asserts that ERISA-covered
plans and IRAs will not be able to invest
in their desired alternatives or
strategies.
The Applicant requests that, should
these conditions be retained, they be
modified as follows: Under renumbered
Sections I(j)(4) and (j)(5), the JPMC
Affiliated QPAMs agree: ‘‘. . . (4) Not to
restrict the ability of such ERISAcovered plan or IRA to terminate or
withdraw from its arrangement with the
JPMC Affiliated QPAM with respect to
any investment in a separately managed
account or pooled fund subject to ERISA
and managed by such QPAM, with the
exception of reasonable restrictions,
appropriately disclosed in advance, that
are specifically designed to ensure
equitable treatment of all investors in a
pooled fund in the event such
withdrawal or termination may have
adverse consequences for all other
investors; [and] . . . (5) Not to impose
any fees, penalties, or charges for such
termination or withdrawal with the
exception of reasonable fees,
appropriately disclosed in advance, that
are specifically designed to prevent
generally recognized abusive investment
practices or specifically designed to
ensure equitable treatment of all
investors in a pooled fund in the event
such withdrawal or termination may
have adverse consequences for all other
investors, provided that such fees are
applied consistently and in like manner
to all such investors.’’
The Department has revised
renumbered Section I(j)(4) in partial
satisfaction of the Applicant’s request.
This section now provides, ’’Not to
restrict the ability of such Covered Plan
to terminate or withdraw from its
arrangement with the JPMC Affiliated
QPAM with respect to any investment
in a separately managed account or
pooled fund subject to ERISA and
managed by such QPAM, with the
exception of reasonable restrictions,
appropriately disclosed in advance, that
are specifically designed to ensure
equitable treatment of all investors in a
pooled fund in the event such
withdrawal or termination may have
adverse consequences for all other
investors. In connection with any such
arrangements involving investments in
pooled funds subject to ERISA entered
into after the effective date of this
exemption, the adverse consequences
must relate to of a lack of liquidity of
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the underlying assets, valuation issues,
or regulatory reasons that prevent the
fund from promptly redeeming Covered
Plan’s investment, and such restrictions
must be applicable to all such investors
and effective no longer than reasonably
necessary to avoid the adverse
consequences.’’
Renumbered Section I(j)(5) is
consistent with the Applicant’s request.
Comment 30—Updated Investment
Management Agreement
Section I(j)(8) of the proposed fiveyear exemption provides that ‘‘[w]ithin
four (4) months of the date of the
Conviction, each JPMC Affiliated QPAM
must provide a notice of its obligations
under this Section I(j) to each ERISAcovered plan and IRA for which an
JPMC Affiliated QPAM provides asset
management or other discretionary
fiduciary services. For all other
prospective ERISA-covered plan and
IRA clients for which a JPMC Affiliated
QPAM provides asset management or
other discretionary services, the JPMC
Affiliated QPAM will agree in writing to
its obligations under this Section I(j) in
an updated investment management
agreement between the JPMC Affiliated
QPAM and such clients or other written
contractual agreement.’’
The Applicant represents that this
condition is duplicative and
‘‘potentially inconsistent’’ with PTE
2016–15, and could cause the Applicant
to lose the exemption through the
actions of another. The Applicant
requests that the Department publish a
notice of technical correction to PTE
2016–15 to eliminate the notice to
clients under that exemption so that
only one notice with the final
obligations will be provided to clients.
The Applicant states that it should not
be required to issue two sets of
potentially inconsistent notices to
clients. Instead, once the final
exemption is published in the Federal
Register, the Applicant suggests that the
condition be modified to require that
the notices, and the proposed and final
exemptions, be sent to clients within six
(6) months. The Applicant asserts that
this request will alleviate client
confusion. Alternatively, the Applicant
requests that the Department modify
renumbered Section I(j)(7) so that it will
deem any notices and mailings under
PTE 2016–15 to meet the requirements
of the final exemption. In addition, the
Applicant requests that the Department
modify renumbered Section I(j)(7) to
clarify that it is limited to agreements,
arrangements, or contracts in which a
JPMC Affiliated QPAM provides
services in reliance on PTE 84–14, and
where the Applicant has a direct
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contractual relationship with the plan or
IRA. Finally, the Applicant represents
that a bilateral investment management
agreement containing the obligations
under Section I(j) should not be
required. If the client refuses to sign an
updated agreement, the Applicant states
that the JPMC Affiliated QPAM
unintentionally may be in violation of
this condition even where it has met the
substantive requirements of Section I(j).
The Applicant represents that its
compliance with the exemption should
not depend on action by its clients.
Therefore, the Applicant requests that
this requirement be eliminated, and that
renumbered Section I(j)(7) be revised as
follows to reflect the Applicant’s
aforementioned changes: ‘‘Within six (6)
months of the date of this exemption’s
publication in the Federal Register,
each JPMC Affiliated QPAM will provide
a notice of its obligations under this
Section I(j) to each ERISA-covered plan
and IRA for which a JPMC Affiliated
QPAM provides asset management or
other discretionary fiduciary services in
a direct contractual relationship and in
reliance on PTE 84–14 as of the date of
the notice. The Applicant shall be
deemed to have met this condition if,
with respect to any plan or IRA client,
the Applicant met the requirements of
PTE 2016–15. For all other ERISAcovered plan and IRA clients (i.e., those
plans and IRAs that become direct
contractual clients after the time the
notice described in PTE 2016–15 is
provided to existing clients) for which a
JPMC Affiliated QPAM provides asset
management or other discretionary
services in reliance on PTE 84–14, the
JPMC Affiliated QPAM will provide a
notice of its obligations under this
Section I(j) to such clients within six (6)
months after the date of publication of
this exemption.’’ 11
The Department declines to make a
change to PTE 2016–15, since, among
other things, the change the Applicant
seeks is not a technical correction, but
rather would require amending that
exemption. Accordingly, the Applicant
must fully comply with the terms of
PTE 2016–15, including Section I(j).
However, the Department has modified
renumbered Section I(j)(7) for better
coordination with PTE 2016–15. As
modified, the exemption’s text now
11 In a letter to the Department dated March 7,
2017, the Applicant expresses similar concerns
about the perceived inconsistencies, duplicative
nature, and administrative challenges created by the
client notification requirement in Section I(i) of PTE
2016–15 as well as in the proposed exemption. In
the letter, the Applicant recommends that the
notice be provided to clients only after the final
exemption has been granted. This is consistent with
the Applicant’s proposed revisions to renumbered
Section I(j)(7).
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provides that a notice that satisfies
Section I(i)(2) of that exemption will
satisfy renumbered Section I(j)(7) of this
exemption, unless the notice contains
any language that limits, or is
inconsistent with, the scope of this
exemption.
As noted above, the Department has
an interest in protecting an ERISAcovered plan or IRA that enters into an
asset management agreement with a
JPMC Affiliated QPAM in reliance on
the manager’s qualification as a QPAM,
regardless of whether the QPAM relies
on the class exemption when managing
the ERISA-covered plan’s or IRA’s
assets. The Department has revised the
applicability of this condition to more
closely reflect this interest, and the
condition now applies to Covered Plans.
The Department has also modified the
condition so that a JPMC Affiliated
QPAM will not violate the condition
solely because a Covered Plan refuses to
sign an updated investment
management agreement. In addition, the
JPMC Affiliated QPAM must give notice
of its obligations under Section I(j) to
each Covered Plan by July 9, 2018,
consistent with the applicant’s request
for additional time to provide the
notice.
Comment 31—Notice to Plan Clients—
Section I(k)(1) 12
Section I(k)(1) of the proposed fiveyear exemption provides that ‘‘[w]ithin
thirty (30) days of the publication of this
proposed five-year exemption in the
Federal Register, each JPMC Affiliated
QPAM will provide a notice of the
proposed five-year exemption, along
with a separate summary describing the
facts that led to the Conviction (the
Summary), which have been submitted
to the Department, and a prominently
displayed statement (the Statement)
that the Conviction results in a failure
to meet a condition in PTE 84–14, to
each sponsor of an ERISA-covered plan
and each beneficial owner of an IRA for
which a JPMC Affiliated QPAM provides
asset management or other
discretionary services, or the sponsor of
an investment fund in any case where
a JPMC Affiliated QPAM acts only as a
sub-advisor to the investment fund in
which such ERISA-covered plan and
IRA invests. In the event that this
proposed five-year exemption is
granted, the Federal Register copy of
the notice of final five-year exemption
must be delivered to such clients within
sixty (60) days of its publication in the
Federal Register, and may be
delivered electronically (including by an
12 The Department has renumbered this condition
as section I(k) in this exemption.
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email that has a link to the exemption).
Any prospective clients for which a
JPMC Affiliated QPAM provides asset
management or other discretionary
services must receive the proposed and
final five-year exemptions with the
Summary and the Statement prior to, or
contemporaneously with, the client’s
receipt of a written asset management
agreement from the JPMC Affiliated
QPAM.’’
The Applicant requests that (k)(1) be
changed to require each existing and
prospective client with respect to which
the Applicant has a direct contractual
relationship and relies on the QPAM
exemption, to be provided with a link
to the proposed and final exemption
within six (6) months after publication;
and prospective clients after six (6)
months should receive the proposed
and final exemptions through any
reasonable delivery method (such as a
written notice of the applicable website
where the exemptions can be found).
The Applicant asserts that the
provision, as proposed, is overbroad and
punitive and not rationally related to
the use of the QPAM Exemption. The
Applicant also states that, for
prospective clients, it is duplicative to
provide the Summary and the copies of
the proposal and final grant, which both
state the same facts and will be
burdensome to prospective clients due
to the size of the asset management
agreement.
The Department notes that the
proposed exemption provides details of
the facts and circumstances underlying
the Conviction not found in the
Summary or this exemption. One of the
purposes of such a complete disclosure
is to ensure that all interested parties are
aware of and attentive to the complete
facts and circumstances surrounding
JPMC’s application for exemption.
Requiring the disclosure of the
Summary, proposal, and grant provides
the opportunity for all parties to have
knowledge of these facts and
circumstance. Notwithstanding this, the
Department has modified the condition
to clarify that disclosures may be
provided electronically. Further, the
notice requirement has been narrowed
to ERISA-covered plans and IRAs that
would benefit from this knowledge (i.e.,
Covered Plans).
Comment 32—Notice to Non-Plan
Clients—Section I(k)(2)
Section I(k)(2) of the proposed fiveyear exemption provides, ‘‘[e]ach JPMC
Affiliated QPAM will provide a Federal
Register copy of the proposed five-year
exemption, a Federal Register copy of
the final five-year exemption; the
Summary; and the Statement to each:
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(A) Current Non-Plan Client within four
(4) months of the effective date, if any,
of a final five-year exemption; and (B)
Future Non-Plan Client prior to, or
contemporaneously with, the client’s
receipt of a written asset management
agreement from the JPMC Affiliated
QPAM. For purposes of this
subparagraph (2), a Current Non-Plan
Client means a client of a JPMC
Affiliated QPAM that: is neither an
ERISA-covered plan nor an IRA; has
assets managed by the JPMC Affiliated
QPAM as of the effective date, if any, of
a final five-year exemption; and has
received a written representation
(qualified or otherwise) from the JPMC
Affiliated QPAM that such JPMC
Affiliated QPAM qualifies as a QPAM or
qualifies for the relief provided by PTE
84–14 . . . .’’
The Applicant requests that Section
(I)(k)(2) be deleted in its entirety
because, in its opinion, the provision is
punitive and beyond the Department’s
authority. The Applicant requests that
any notice requirement be limited to
ERISA-covered plans and IRAs that
have a direct contractual relationship
with a JPMC Affiliated QPAM and
actually rely on PTE 84–14.
Given the breadth of the notice
requirements otherwise mandated by
the exemption, and its decision to
restrict the requirements to those
arrangements for which QPAM status
plays an integral role (i.e., the QPAM
represents or relies upon its QPAM
status), the Department has determined
to delete this provision.
Comment 33—Compliance Officer—
Section I(m)
Section I(m) of the proposed five-year
exemption provides, in part, ‘‘JPMC
designates a senior compliance officer
(the Compliance Officer) who will be
responsible for compliance with the
Policies and Training requirements
describe herein. The Compliance Officer
must conduct an annual review (the
Annual Review) to determine the
adequacy and effectiveness of the
implementation of the Policies and
Training . . . .’’
The Applicant requests that the
conditions relating to the Compliance
Officer be deleted because they are
punitive, inconsistent with precedent,
and inconsistent with the APA. The
Applicant states that the criminal
conduct that necessitated the exemption
did not involve in any way JPMC’s asset
management business, and that the
QPAMs already have very robust
compliance departments. The Applicant
states that it is duplicative to have
another layer of compliance and the
condition substitutes the Department’s
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judgment for that of the Applicant and
its many other regulators. Furthermore,
the Applicant states that the criminal
conduct was the result of one single
former FX trader, and that the inclusion
of this condition is without any
precedent, and is arbitrary and
capricious. Finally, the Applicant states
that every compliance officer is not a
lawyer, and that the condition’s time
frames are inconsistent, and not
practicable.
The Department is removing the
requirement that the Compliance Officer
be a legal professional (i.e., a lawyer),
but declines to make the Applicant’s
other requested changes. JPMC
personnel engaged in serious
misconduct that was not limited to one
trader and that was caused, at least in
part, by serious failures of compliance
and oversight. The misconduct relevant
to the development of this exemption
spanned multiple years and involved
repeated failures by JPMC personnel, in
supervisory and oversight positions.
The Department’s determination to
grant this exemption is based in part on
the Department’s view that an internal
compliance officer with responsibility
for the policies and procedures
mandated by this exemption will
provide the level of oversight necessary
to ensure that such Policies and
Training are properly implemented.
Comment 34—Deferred Prosecution
Agreement/Non-Prosecution
Agreement—Section I(o)
Section I(o) of the proposed five-year
exemption provides, with respect to any
Deferred Prosecution Agreement or
Non-Prosecution Agreement: ‘‘During
the effective period of the five-year
exemption JPMC: (1) Immediately
discloses to the Department any
Deferred Prosecution Agreement (a
DPA) or a Non-Prosecution Agreement
(an NPA) with the U.S. Department of
Justice, entered into by JPMC or any of
its affiliates in connection with conduct
described in Section I(g) of PTE 84–14
or section 411 of ERISA; and (2)
Immediately provides the Department
any information requested by the
Department, as permitted by law,
regarding the agreement and/or conduct
and allegations that led to the
agreement. After review of the
information, the Department may
require JPMC, its affiliates, or related
parties, as specified by the Department,
to submit a new application for the
continued availability of relief as a
condition of continuing to rely on this
exemption. If the Department denies the
relief requested in the new application,
or does not grant such relief within
twelve months of application, the relief
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described herein is revoked as of the
date of denial or as of the expiration of
the twelve month period, whichever
date is earlier.’’
The Applicant requests that this
condition be deleted because it is
punitive, and is inconsistent with the
APA, statutory authority, and the
Department’s own regulatory authority.
The Applicant states that the condition
contravenes the DOL’s exemption
procedure regulation at 29 CFR part
2570, which requires that the
Department propose a notice of
termination of an exemption for public
comment. The Applicant also states that
the provision could create risk and
uncertainty, including uncertainty for
counterparties, with respect to the very
transactions that this exemption is
designed to prevent from suddenly
expiring. According to the Applicant,
the condition itself could have the effect
of causing plans to terminate such
transactions at significant cost. The
Applicant also suggests that parties
could enter into an NPA or a DPA for
investigations where a bank is not
convicted, and in some cases, not even
charged with, a felony. The Applicant
states further that the timing and factual
basis of the NPA/DPA could be distant
in time or place from the current plan
management operations that should be
the Department’s concern. Finally, the
Applicant states that the provision is
inconsistent with the anti-criminal
provisions of Section I(g) of PTE 84–14
or section 411 of ERISA, which both
require actual convictions, whereas an
NPA/DPA is related to a decision by the
DOJ not to prosecute.
The Department in no way intended
that this condition be read as providing
for an automatic revocation of this
exemption, and in light of the
Applicant’s comments, has revised the
condition accordingly. As revised, the
condition simply requires that the
Applicant notify the Department if and
when it or any of its affiliates enter into
a DPA or NPA with the U.S. Department
of Justice for conduct described in
section I(g) of PTE 84–14 or ERISA
Section 411 and immediately provide
the Department with any information
requested by the Department, as
permitted by law, regarding the
agreement and/or conduct and
allegations that led to the agreement.
The Department retains the right to
propose a withdrawal of the exemption
pursuant to its procedures contained at
29 CFR 2570.50, should the
circumstances warrant such action.
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Comment 35—Right to Copies of
Policies and Procedures—Section I(p)
Section I(p) of the proposed five-year
exemption provides that, ‘‘[e]ach JPMC
Affiliated QPAM, in its agreements with
ERISA-covered plan and IRA clients, or
in other written disclosures provided to
ERISA-covered plan and IRA clients,
within 60 days prior to the initial
transaction upon which relief hereunder
is relied, and then at least once
annually, will clearly and prominently:
Inform the ERISA-covered plan and IRA
client that the client has the right to
obtain copies of the QPAM’s written
Policies adopted in accordance with the
exemption.’’
The Applicant requests that this
condition be deleted because it is
impracticable, duplicative, and
punitive, and not reasonably designed
to be protective of plans and their
participants. The Applicant states that it
has over 300 policies and procedures
that touch on ERISA and the Code and
it is not reasonable to require the
disclosure and provision of all the
policies. Furthermore, the Applicant
states that it cannot provide notice sixty
(60) days prior to the time that the
exemption is used because that date will
precede the final exemption. Finally,
the Applicant states that the number of
notices required to be provided to
clients is overly burdensome and
excessive, and will lead to confusion
and clients ignoring the mailings.
The Department disagrees, in part,
with the Applicant’s comment.
Affording ERISA covered-plan and IRA
clients a means by which to review and
understand the Policies implemented in
connection with this exemption is a
vital protection that is fundamental to
this exemption’s purpose. However, the
Department has modified the condition
so that the QPAMs, at their election,
may instead provide Covered Plans
disclosure that accurately describes or
summarizes key components of the
Policies, rather than provide the Policies
in their entirety. The Department has
also determined that such disclosure
may be continuously maintained on a
website, provided that the website link
to the summary of the written Policies
is clearly and prominently disclosed to
those Covered Plan clients to whom this
section applies. The Department also
agrees with the Applicant that the
timing requirement for disclosure
should be revised and, accordingly, has
modified the condition of Section I(p) to
require notice regarding the information
on the website within six months of the
initial effective date of this exemption,
and thereafter to the extent certain
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material changes are made to the
Policies.
Comment 36—No-Fault Provision—
Section I(q)
Section I(q) of the proposed five-year
exemption provides that, ‘‘[a] JPMC
Affiliated QPAM or a JPMC Related
QPAM will not fail to meet the terms of
this exemption solely because a
different JPMC Affiliated QPAM or JPMC
Related QPAM fails to satisfy a
condition for relief described in Sections
I(c), (d), (h), (i), (j), (k), (l), (n) and (p).’’
The Applicant requests that the relief
provided under Section I(q) be extended
to cover Sections I(e), (f), (g), and (m).
The Applicant states that the failure of
one JPMC Affiliated QPAM to meet
these conditions should not disqualify
all other JPMC Affiliated QPAMs from
reliance on this exemption. The
Applicant also states that the auditor’s
failure to fulfill its requirements under
this exemption should not disqualify
the JPMC Affiliated QPAMs from
relying on the exemption.
The Department declines to extend
the relief provided under Section I(q) to
Sections I(e), (f), (g), and (m).
Section I(e) provides that any failure
of a JPMC Affiliated QPAM or JPMC
Related QPAM to comply with Section
I(g) of PTE 84–14 arose solely from the
Conviction. As set forth in the
Applicant’s materials, the Conviction is
the sole reason a new exemption is
necessary for the JPMC Affiliated
QPAMs. If there were a new or
additional conviction of a crime
described in Section I(g) of PTE 84–14,
the Department would need to assess
the misconduct, its scope, and its
significance. Without such an
assessment, the Department could not
be confident of the adequacy of the
conditions set forth herein with respect
to the JPMC Affiliated QPAMs and
Related QPAMs. Indeed, depending on
the particular facts, a subsequent
criminal conviction could be strong
evidence of the inadequacy of this
exemption’s conditions to protect
Covered Plans. Further, as stated above,
the Department is not obligated to grant
further relief to the extent such a
conviction occurs.
Section I(f) provides that no JPMC
Affiliated QPAM or JPMC Related
QPAM exercised authority over the
assets of any ERISA-covered plan or IRA
in a manner that it knew or should have
known would: further the criminal
conduct that is the subject of the
Conviction; or cause the JPMC QPAM or
its affiliates or related parties to directly
or indirectly profit from the criminal
conduct that is the subject of the
Conviction. The Applicant has, in its
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application and in its response to
questions raised by the Department,
provided statements under penalty of
perjury, that they are in compliance
with this condition, and the Department
relied upon those statements in granting
this relief. Based on these statements,
the Department determines that there is
no reason to include relief from Section
I(f) in Section I(q).
Section I(g) requires two specific
entities, JPMC and the Investment Bank
of JPMorgan Chase Bank, refrain from
providing investment management
services to plans. Section I(m) requires
JPMC to install a Compliance Officer to
undertake various compliance and
reporting obligations. Thus, with respect
to Sections I(g) and (m), the obligations
imposed extend exclusively to JPMC
and the Investment Bank of JPMorgan
Chase Bank. Consequently, if the relief
under I(q) were extended to Sections I(g)
and I(m), it would render them virtually
meaningless. There would be little or no
effective penalty for the failure to
comply with the conditions, as the
Affiliated and Related QPAMs would
remain free to rely on the exemption’s
terms. The Department also believes
that the potential for disqualification of
all JPMC Affiliated QPAMs under this
agreement will serve as additional
incentive for JPMC and JPMorgan Chase
Bank to comply in good-faith with the
provisions of Sections I(g) and (m).
Finally, except as noted in Comment
23 above, the Department accepts the
Applicant’s comment that failure of the
auditor to comply with any of the
conditions of the exemption, should not
be treated as a failure by the JPMC
Affiliated QPAMs to comply with the
conditions of the exemption provided
that such failure was not due to the
actions or inactions of JPMC or its
affiliates, and Section I(q) is amended,
accordingly.
Comment 37—Definition of Affiliated
QPAM—Section II(a)
Section II(a) of the proposed five-year
exemption provides: ‘‘(a) The term
‘‘JPMC Affiliated QPAM’’ means a
‘‘qualified professional asset
manager’’(as defined in Section VI(a) of
PTE 84–14) that relies on the relief
provided by PTE 84–14 and with respect
to which JPMC is a current or future
‘‘affiliate’’ (as defined in Section
VI(d)(1) of PTE 84–14). The term ‘‘JPMC
Affiliated QPAM’’ excludes the parent
entity, JPMC, the division implicated in
the criminal conduct that is the subject
of the Conviction.’’
The Applicant states that the last
sentence of proposed Section II(a)
contains an unintended error, as JPMC
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is not a division but is the parent
company in the affiliated group.
The Department agrees with this
comment and has modified the Section
accordingly. The Department has
reordered Section II, as described below.
Comment 38—Definition of
Conviction—Section II(e)
Section II(e) of the proposed five-year
exemption provides: ‘‘The term
‘Conviction’ means the judgment of
conviction against JPMC for violation of
the Sherman Antitrust Act, 15 U.S.C. 1,
which is scheduled to be entered in the
District Court for the District of
Connecticut (the District Court) (Case
Number 3:15-cr-79-SRU), in connection
with JPMC, through one of its euro/U.S.
dollar (EUR/USD) traders, entering into
and engaging in a combination and
conspiracy to fix, stabilize, maintain,
increase or decrease the price of, and rig
bids and offers for, the EUR/USD
currency pair exchanged in the FX spot
market by agreeing to eliminate
competition in the purchase and sale of
the EUR/USD currency pair in the
United States and elsewhere. For all
purposes under this exemption,
‘conduct’ of any person or entity that is
the ‘subject of [a] Conviction’
encompasses any conduct of JPMC and/
or their personnel, that is described in
the Plea Agreement, (including the
Factual Statement), and other official
regulatory or judicial factual findings
that are a part of this record.’’
The Applicant states that this
definition inaccurately paraphrases the
Plea Agreement and significantly
expands the conduct to which JPMC
was charged and pleaded guilty. The
Applicant states that it is neither
appropriate nor accurate for the
Department to expand the definition
beyond the charge that was the subject
of the Plea Agreement.
After considering this comment, the
Department has revised the definition
accordingly.
Comment 39—Notice to Interested
Persons
The Applicant requests that the
Department confirm, and the
Department so confirms, that the
Applicant had 30 days after Federal
Register publication of the proposal to
notify interested persons.
Comment 40—Summary of Facts and
Representations
The Applicant seeks certain
clarifications to the Summary of Facts
and Representations that the
Department does not view as relevant to
its determination whether to grant this
exemption. Those requested
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any case where a JPMC Affiliated QPAM
acts only as a sub-advisor to the
investment fund in which such ERISAcovered plan and IRA invests.
Comment of John Williams (December
7, 2016)
Mr. Williams comments that it is
unclear ‘‘how an entity which has been
convicted of wrong-doing should be
granted a 5-year exemption from
regulations that it has already violated.’’
The Applicant responds that Mr.
Williams’ statement is based on an
erroneous view that the Applicant has
entered into a guilty plea with the
Department. With regard to the notice to
interested persons, the Applicant states
that Mr. Williams’ comment
misconstrues, and improperly conflates,
the criminal proceedings and the
purpose of the proposed exemption. The
Applicant states that it is not seeking,
and the proposed exemption does not
grant, relief from regulations that have
already been violated. The Applicant
further states that, although the JPMC
Affiliated QPAMs did not participate in
or know of the misconduct, the
conviction of the non-asset manager
affiliate would nevertheless disqualify
the uninvolved asset managers from
relying on the QPAM exemption. The
Department reiterates that it determined
that this exemption is protective of, and
in the interest of, Covered Plans given
the enhanced compliance and oversight
requirements it imposes on JPMC
Affiliated QPAMs.
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clarifications may be found as part of
the public record for Application No. D–
11906, in a letter to the Department,
dated January 20, 2017.
Comment of Mark Levy (December 20,
2016)
Mr. Levy, who states that he owns a
Chase investment account, urges the
Department not to ‘‘grant[ the
Applicant] a ‘pass’ for their wrong doing
[sic],’’ because ‘‘[n]o institution should
be considered ‘too big’ to pay its share
of imposed fines/penalties.’’
In response, the Applicant states that,
among other things, JPMC is liable for
approximately $1.9 billion in monetary
penalties imposed by the Department of
Justice and other regulators; and that the
asset management businesses of the
JPMC affiliated QPAMs had no
involvement in, or knowledge of, the
misconduct. The Department reiterates
that this exemption is not punitive and
is instead designed to protect Covered
Plans.
Comment of Lauri Robinson (December
12, 2016)
Ms. Robinson states that it ‘‘is very
difficult for laypersons to understand
how I can be adversely affected by this,’’
and requests that the Department ‘‘make
it easier to understand or elaborate on
how it effects [sic] current IRAs.’’ Ms.
Robinson believes that the Applicant
‘‘should have informed customers of the
violation and 550 million dollar fine.’’
In response, the Applicant states that,
among other things, the conviction was
a matter of public record as of the date
on which the plea agreement was
entered, and that Ms. Robinson was
notified, as an interested person, in
accordance with the terms of the
proposed exemption.
The Department notes that each JPMC
Affiliated QPAM must provide a notice
of the exemption, along with a separate
summary describing the facts that led to
the Conviction, and a prominently
displayed statement that the Conviction
results in a failure to meet a condition
in PTE 84–14, to each sponsor or
beneficial owner of a Covered Plan, or
the sponsor of an investment fund in
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Comment of Dan Cable (December 22,
2016)
Mr. Cable objects to the exemption in
general by stating he does not believe
that: (i) The Applicant is taking its
criminal behavior seriously, (ii) the
QPAM exemption is not customarily
and routinely used, and (iii) the
Applicant has not adequately
demonstrated harm to clients if the
exemption is not granted.
In response, the Applicant states that,
among other things, the Department of
Justice, the District Court, and other
applicable regulators already have
imposed upon the Applicant certain
monetary penalties and other sanctions
intended to punish the Applicant and
deter future wrongdoing. The Applicant
states that it has taken responsibility for
the conduct that was the basis of the
plea agreement, that the JPMC Affiliated
QPAMs had no involvement in the
conduct, and that such conduct violated
neither ERISA nor the Department’s
regulations. As such, the Applicant
states that Department should not use
the exemption process to further punish
these uninvolved asset managers, and
that to do so would only harm the plan
and IRA clients of the uninvolved JPMC
Affiliated QPAMs.
The commenter also expresses
concern that the training and audit
requirements of the proposed exemption
are inadequate. In response, the
Applicant disagrees and states that these
proposed requirements are imposed on
entities that had no involvement in the
criminal conduct and that these
requirements add to pre-existing robust
and comprehensive training, audit, and
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compliance functions — both firm-wide
and specific to the asset management
businesses.
The commenter also expresses
concern that the JPMC Affiliated
QPAMs benefited from the criminal
conduct that is the subject of the
Conviction. In response, the Applicant
notes that the proposed exemption
contains the following condition: ‘‘(b)
Other than a single individual who
worked for a non-fiduciary business
within JPMorgan Chase Bank and who
had no responsibility for, and exercised
no authority in connection with, the
management of plan assets, the JPMC
Affiliated QPAMs and the JPMC Related
QPAMs (including their officers,
directors, agents other than JPMC, and
employees of such JPMC QPAMs) did
not receive direct compensation, or
knowingly receive indirect
compensation in connection with the
criminal conduct that is the subject of
the Conviction.’’ The Applicant states
that it is able to and will comply with
this condition.
The commenter expresses skepticism
that the JPMC Affiliated QPAMs will
not ‘‘hire any of the crooks.’’ In
response, the Applicant states that the
proposed exemption contains the
following condition: ‘‘The JPMC
Affiliated QPAMs will not employ or
knowingly engage any of the individuals
that participated in the criminal
conduct that is the subject of the
Conviction.’’ The Applicant states that it
is able to and will comply with this
condition.
The commenter states that the QPAM
exemption is not routinely relied upon
by the Applicant. According to the
Applicant, practically all retirement
plans expect their asset managers to use
the QPAM exemption, and many
counterparties expect representations
from the Applicant that it applies.
Finally, the commenter states that it is
unclear how a client of the JPMC
Affiliated QPAMs would be harmed in
the event that the Department does not
grant the requested exemption. In
response, the Applicant states that the
loss of QPAM status for the JPMC
Affiliated QPAMs would have a very
substantial impact, affecting a
significant number of ERISA plans and
IRAs. The Applicant notes that, as of the
time its application was filed, the
Applicant managed approximately
$65.5 billion in assets for ERISA plans,
and over $12 billion in IRA assets for
over 32,000 IRAs.
Comment of Sharon Bushman
(December 26, 2016)
The commenter, who states she is the
holder of an IRA managed by the
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Applicant, states that she does not
understand the notice to interested
persons, and requests that no action be
taken on the exemption until a full
explanation is provided regarding the
implications for individual clients. In
response, the Applicant states that the
Department fully explained the purpose
and effect of the exemption in the
preamble to the Federal Register notice.
As noted above, each JPMC Affiliated
QPAM must provide a notice of the
exemption, along with a separate
summary describing the facts that led to
the Conviction, and a prominently
displayed statement that the Conviction
results in a failure to meet a condition
in PTE 84–14, to each sponsor or
beneficial owner of a Covered Plan, or
the sponsor of an investment fund in
any case where a JPMC Affiliated QPAM
acts only as a sub-advisor to the
investment fund in which such ERISAcovered plan and IRA invests.
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Comment of Cynthia Beaver (January 18,
2017)
The commenter states that she does
not understand the notice to interested
persons and requests clarification
regarding whether she will be required
to move her account if the exemption is
not granted. If the exemption is granted,
the commenter asks whether there will
be adequate ‘‘outside oversight’’ to
ensure that her account is safe.
In response, the Applicant expresses
the view that the proposed exemption’s
conditions (taking into account the
Applicant’s comments with respect to
the proposal) are sufficient and are
designed to protect clients such as the
commenter from the any adverse effects
of the JPMC Affiliated QPAMs losing
the QPAM exemption.
The Department notes that the
exemption requires an extensive audit
every two years by a qualified auditor
who is independent of JPMC.
Comment—Letter From House
Committee on Financial Services
The Department also received a
comment letter from certain members of
Congress (the Members) regarding this
exemption, as well as regarding other
QPAM-related proposed one year
exemptions. In the letter, the Members
stated that certain conditions contained
in these proposed exemptions are
crucial to protecting the investments of
our nation’s workers and retirees,
referring to proposed conditions which
require each bank to: (a) Indemnify and
hold harmless ERISA-covered plans and
IRAs for any damages resulting from the
future misconduct of such bank; and (b)
disclose to the Department any Deferred
Prosecution Agreement or a Non-
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Prosecution Agreement with the U.S.
Department of Justice. The Members
also requested that the Department hold
hearings in connection with the
proposed exemptions.
The Department acknowledges the
Members’ concerns regarding the need
for public discourse regarding proposed
exemptions. To this end, the
Department’s procedures regarding
prohibited transaction exemption
requests under ERISA (the Exemption
Procedures) afford interested persons
the opportunity to request a hearing.
Specifically, section 2570.46(a) of the
Exemption Procedures provides that,
‘‘[a]ny interested person who may be
adversely affected by an exemption
which the Department proposes to grant
from the restrictions of section 406(b) of
ERISA, section 4975(c)(1)(E) or (F) of the
Code, or section 8477(c)(2) of FERSA
may request a hearing before the
Department within the period of time
specified in the Federal Register notice
of the proposed exemption.’’ The
Exemption Procedures provide that
‘‘[t]he Department will grant a request
for a hearing made in accordance with
paragraph (a) of this section where a
hearing is necessary to fully explore
material factual issues identified by the
person requesting the hearing.’’ The
Exemption Procedures also provide that
‘‘[t]he Department may decline to hold
a hearing where: (1) The request for the
hearing does not meet the requirements
of paragraph (a) of this section; (2) the
only issues identified for exploration at
the hearing are matters of law; or (3) the
factual issues identified can be fully
explored through the submission of
evidence in written (including
electronic) form.’’ 13
While the Members’ letter raises
important policy issues, it does not
appear to raise specific material factual
issues. The Department previously
explored a wide range of legal and
policy issues regarding Section I(g) of
the QPAM Exemption during a public
hearing held on January 15, 2015 in
connection with the Department’s
proposed exemption involving Credit
Suisse AG, and has determined that an
additional hearing on these issues is not
necessary.
After giving full consideration to the
record, the Department has decided to
grant the exemption, as described above.
The complete application file
(Application No. D–11906) is available
for public inspection in the Public
Disclosure Room of the Employee
Benefits Security Administration, Room
N–1515, U.S. Department of Labor, 200
13 29 CFR part 2570, published at 76 FR 66653
(October 27, 2011).
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61835
Constitution Avenue NW, Washington,
DC 20210.
For a more complete statement of the
facts and representations supporting the
Department’s decision to grant this
exemption, refer to the notice of
proposed exemption published on
November 21, 2016 at 81 FR 83372.
Exemption
Section I: Covered Transactions
Certain entities with specified
relationships to JPMC (hereinafter, the
JPMC Affiliated QPAMs and the JPMC
Related QPAMs, as defined in Sections
II(g) and II(h), respectively) will not be
precluded from relying on the
exemptive relief provided by Prohibited
Transaction Class Exemption 84–14
(PTE 84–14 or the QPAM Exemption),
notwithstanding the Conviction, as
defined in Section II(a), during the
Exemption Period,14 provided that the
following conditions are satisfied:
(a) Other than a single individual who
worked for a non-fiduciary business
within JPMorgan Chase Bank and who
had no responsibility for, and exercised
no authority in connection with, the
management of plan assets, the JPMC
Affiliated QPAMs and the JPMC Related
QPAMs (including their officers,
directors, agents other than JPMC, and
employees of such QPAMs who had
responsibility for, or exercised authority
in connection with the management of
plan assets) did not know of, did not
have reason to know of, or participate in
the criminal conduct that is the subject
of the Conviction. For purposes of this
paragraph (a), ‘‘participate in’’ means
the knowing approval of the misconduct
underlying the Conviction;
(b) Apart from a non-fiduciary line of
business within JPMorgan Chase Bank,
the JPMC Affiliated QPAMs and the
JPMC Related QPAMs (including their
officers, directors, and agents other than
JPMC, and employees of such JPMC
QPAMs who had responsibility for, or
exercised authority in connection with
the management of plan assets) did not
receive direct compensation, or
knowingly receive indirect
compensation, in connection with the
criminal conduct that is the subject of
the Conviction;
(c) The JPMC Affiliated QPAMs will
not employ or knowingly engage any of
14 Section I(g) of PTE 84–14 generally provides
relief only if ‘‘[n]either the QPAM nor any affiliate
thereof . . . nor any owner . . . of a 5 percent or
more interest in the QPAM is a person who within
the 10 years immediately preceding the transaction
has been either convicted or released from
imprisonment, whichever is later, as a result of’’
certain felonies including violation of the Sherman
Antitrust Act, Title 15 United States Code, Section
1.
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the individuals that participated in the
criminal conduct that is the subject of
the Conviction. For the purposes of this
paragraph (c), ‘‘participated in’’ means
the knowing approval of the misconduct
underlying the Conviction;
(d) At all times during the Exemption
Period, no JPMC Affiliated QPAM will
use its authority or influence to direct
an ‘‘investment fund’’ (as defined in
Section VI(b) of PTE 84–14), that is
subject to ERISA or the Code and
managed by such JPMC Affiliated
QPAM with respect to one or more
Covered Plans, to enter into any
transaction with JPMC, or to engage
JPMC to provide any service to such
investment fund, for a direct or indirect
fee borne by such investment fund,
regardless of whether such transaction
or service may otherwise be within the
scope of relief provided by an
administrative or statutory exemption;
(e) Any failure of a JPMC Affiliated
QPAM or a JPMC Related QPAM to
satisfy Section I(g) of PTE 84–14 arose
solely from the Conviction;
(f) A JPMC Affiliated QPAM or a
JPMC Related QPAM did not exercise
authority over the assets of any plan
subject to Part 4 of Title I of ERISA (an
ERISA-covered plan) or section 4975 of
the Code (an IRA) in a manner that it
knew or should have known would:
further the criminal conduct that is the
subject of the Conviction; or cause the
JPMC Affiliated QPAM, the JPMC
Related QPAM, or their affiliates to
directly or indirectly profit from the
criminal conduct that is the subject of
the Conviction;
(g) Other than with respect to
employee benefit plans maintained or
sponsored for its own employees or the
employees of an affiliate, JPMC will not
act as a fiduciary within the meaning of
section 3(21)(A)(i) or (iii) of ERISA, or
section 4975(e)(3)(A) and (C) of the
Code, with respect to ERISA-covered
plan and IRA assets; provided, however,
that JPMC will not be treated as
violating the conditions of this
exemption solely because it acted as an
investment advice fiduciary within the
meaning of section 3(21)(A)(ii) or
section 4975(e)(3)(B) of the Code;
(h)(1) By July 9, 2018, each JPMC
Affiliated QPAM must develop,
implement, maintain, and follow
written policies and procedures (the
Policies). The Policies must require, and
must be reasonably designed to ensure
that:
(i) The asset management decisions of
the JPMC Affiliated QPAM are
conducted independently of the
corporate management and business
activities of JPMC;
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(ii) The JPMC Affiliated QPAM fully
complies with ERISA’s fiduciary duties
and with ERISA and the Code’s
prohibited transaction provisions, as
applicable with respect to each Covered
Plan, and does not knowingly
participate in any violation of these
duties and provisions with respect to
Covered Plans;
(iii) The JPMC Affiliated QPAM does
not knowingly participate in any other
person’s violation of ERISA or the Code
with respect to Covered Plans;
(iv) Any filings or statements made by
the JPMC Affiliated QPAM to regulators,
including, but not limited to, the
Department, the Department of the
Treasury, the Department of Justice, and
the Pension Benefit Guaranty
Corporation, on behalf of or in relation
to Covered Plans are materially accurate
and complete, to the best of such
QPAM’s knowledge at that time;
(v) To the best of the JPMC Affiliated
QPAM’s knowledge at the time, the
JPMC Affiliated QPAM does not make
material misrepresentations or omit
material information in its
communications with such regulators
with respect to Covered Plans;
(vi) The JPMC Affiliated QPAM
complies with the terms of this
exemption; and
(vii) Any violation of, or failure to
comply with an item in subparagraphs
(ii) through (vi), is corrected as soon as
reasonably possible upon discovery, or
as soon after the QPAM reasonably
should have known of the
noncompliance (whichever is earlier),
and any such violation or compliance
failure not so corrected is reported,
upon the discovery of such failure to so
correct, in writing, to the head of
compliance and the General Counsel (or
their functional equivalent) of the
relevant line of business that engaged in
the violation or failure, and the
independent auditor responsible for
reviewing compliance with the Policies.
A JPMC Affiliated QPAM will not be
treated as having failed to develop,
implement, maintain, or follow the
Policies, provided that it corrects any
instance of noncompliance as soon as
reasonably possible upon discovery, or
as soon as reasonably possible after the
QPAM reasonably should have known
of the noncompliance (whichever is
earlier), and provided that it adheres to
the reporting requirements set forth in
this subparagraph (vii);
(2) By July 9, 2018, each JPMC
Affiliated QPAM must develop a
program of training (the Training), to be
conducted at least annually, for all
relevant JPMC Affiliated QPAM asset/
portfolio management, trading, legal,
compliance, and internal audit
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personnel. The first Training under this
Final Exemption must be completed by
all relevant JPMC Affiliated QPAM
personnel by July 9, 2019 (by the end of
this 30-month period, asset/portfolio
management, trading, legal, compliance,
and internal audit personnel who were
employed from the start to the end of
the period must have been trained
twice: the first time under PTE 2016–15;
and the second time under this
exemption). The Training must:
(i) At a minimum, cover the Policies,
ERISA and Code compliance (including
applicable fiduciary duties and the
prohibited transaction provisions),
ethical conduct, the consequences for
not complying with the conditions of
this exemption (including any loss of
exemptive relief provided herein), and
prompt reporting of wrongdoing; and
(ii) Be conducted by a professional
who has been prudently selected and
who has appropriate technical training
and proficiency with ERISA and the
Code;
(i)(1) Each JPMC Affiliated QPAM
submits to an audit conducted every
two years by an independent auditor
who has been prudently selected and
who has appropriate technical training
and proficiency with ERISA and the
Code, to evaluate the adequacy of, and
each JPMC Affiliated QPAM’s
compliance with, the Policies and
Training described herein. The audit
requirement must be incorporated in the
Policies. Each audit must cover the
preceding consecutive twelve (12)
month period. The first audit must
cover the period from July 10, 2018
through July 9, 2019, and must be
completed by January 9, 2020. The
second audit must cover the period from
July 10, 2020 through July 9, 2021, and
must be completed by January 9, 2022.
In the event that the Exemption Period
is extended or a new exemption is
granted, the third audit would cover the
period from July 10, 2022 through July
9, 2023, and would have to be
completed by January 9, 2024 (unless
the Department chooses to alter the
biennial audit requirement in the new
or extended exemption);’’ 15
(2) Within the scope of the audit and
to the extent necessary for the auditor,
15 The third audit referenced above would not
have to be completed until after the Exemption
Period expires. If the Department ultimately decides
to grant relief for an additional period, it could
decide to alter the terms of the exemption,
including the audit conditions (and the timing of
the audit requirements). Nevertheless, the
Applicant should anticipate that the Department
will insist on strict compliance with the audit terms
and schedule set forth above. As it considers any
new exemption application, the Department may
also contact the auditor for any information relevant
to its determination.
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in its sole opinion, to complete its audit
and comply with the conditions for
relief described herein, and only to the
extent such disclosure is not prevented
by state or federal statute, or involves
communications subject to attorney
client privilege, each JPMC Affiliated
QPAM and, if applicable, JPMC, will
grant the auditor unconditional access
to its business, including, but not
limited to: its computer systems;
business records; transactional data;
workplace locations; training materials;
and personnel. Such access is limited to
information relevant to the auditor’s
objectives as specified by the terms of
this exemption;
(3) The auditor’s engagement must
specifically require the auditor to
determine whether each JPMC Affiliated
QPAM has developed, implemented,
maintained, and followed the Policies in
accordance with the conditions of this
exemption, and has developed and
implemented the Training, as required
herein;
(4) The auditor’s engagement must
specifically require the auditor to test
each JPMC Affiliated QPAM’s
operational compliance with the
Policies and Training. In this regard, the
auditor must test, for each QPAM, a
sample of such QPAM’s transactions
involving Covered Plans, sufficient in
size and nature to afford the auditor a
reasonable basis to determine such
QPAM’s operational compliance with
the Policies and Training;
(5) For each audit, on or before the
end of the relevant period described in
Section I(i)(1) for completing the audit,
the auditor must issue a written report
(the Audit Report) to JPMC and the
JPMC Affiliated QPAM to which the
audit applies that describes the
procedures performed by the auditor
during the course of its examination.
The auditor, at its discretion, may issue
a single consolidated Audit Report that
covers all the JPMC Affiliated QPAMs.
The Audit Report must include the
auditor’s specific determinations
regarding:
(i) The adequacy of each JPMC
Affiliated QPAM’s Policies and
Training; each JPMC Affiliated QPAM’s
compliance with the Policies and
Training; the need, if any, to strengthen
such Policies and Training; and any
instance of the respective JPMC
Affiliated QPAM’s noncompliance with
the written Policies and Training
described in Section I(h) above. The
JPMC Affiliated QPAM must promptly
address any noncompliance. The JPMC
Affiliated QPAM must promptly address
or prepare a written plan of action to
address any determination by the
auditor regarding the adequacy of the
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Policies and Training and the auditor’s
recommendations (if any) with respect
to strengthening the Policies and
Training of the respective Affiliated
QPAM. Any action taken or the plan of
action to be taken by the respective
JPMC Affiliated QPAM must be
included in an addendum to the Audit
Report (such addendum must be
completed prior to the certification
described in Section I(i)(7) below). In
the event such a plan of action to
address the auditor’s recommendation
regarding the adequacy of the Policies
and Training is not completed by the
time of submission of the Audit Report,
the following period’s Audit Report
must state whether the plan was
satisfactorily completed. Any
determination by the auditor that the
respective JPMC Affiliated QPAM has
implemented, maintained, and followed
sufficient Policies and Training must
not be based solely or in substantial part
on an absence of evidence indicating
noncompliance. In this last regard, any
finding that a JPMC Affiliated QPAM
has complied with the requirements
under this subparagraph must be based
on evidence that the particular JPMC
Affiliated QPAM has actually
implemented, maintained, and followed
the Policies and Training required by
this exemption. Furthermore, the
auditor must not solely rely on the
Annual Report created by the
compliance officer (the Compliance
Officer), as described in Section I(m)
below, as the basis for the auditor’s
conclusions in lieu of independent
determinations and testing performed
by the auditor, as required by Section
I(i)(3) and (4) above; and
(ii) The adequacy of the most recent
Annual Review described in Section
I(m);
(6) The auditor must notify the
respective JPMC Affiliated QPAM of any
instance of noncompliance identified by
the auditor within five (5) business days
after such noncompliance is identified
by the auditor, regardless of whether the
audit has been completed as of that
date;
(7) With respect to each Audit Report,
the General Counsel, or one of the three
most senior executive officers of the line
of business engaged in discretionary
asset management services through the
JPMC Affiliated QPAM with respect to
which the Audit Report applies, must
certify in writing, under penalty of
perjury, that the officer has reviewed the
Audit Report and this exemption; that
such JPMC Affiliated QPAM has
addressed, corrected or remedied any
noncompliance and inadequacy or has
an appropriate written plan to address
any inadequacy regarding the Policies
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and Training identified in the Audit
Report. Such certification must also
include the signatory’s determination
that the Policies and Training in effect
at the time of signing are adequate to
ensure compliance with the conditions
of this exemption, and with the
applicable provisions of ERISA and the
Code;
(8) The Risk Committee of JPMC’s
Board of Directors is provided a copy of
each Audit Report; and a senior
executive officer with a direct reporting
line to the highest ranking legal
compliance officer of JPMC must review
the Audit Report for each JPMC
Affiliated QPAM and must certify in
writing, under penalty of perjury, that
such officer has reviewed each Audit
Report;
(9) Each JPMC Affiliated QPAM
provides its certified Audit Report, by
regular mail to: Office of Exemption
Determinations (OED), 200 Constitution
Avenue NW, Suite 400, Washington, DC
20210; or by private carrier to: 122 C
Street NW, Suite 400, Washington, DC
20001–2109. This delivery must take
place no later than thirty (30) days
following completion of the Audit
Report. The Audit Report will be made
part of the public record regarding this
exemption. Furthermore, each JPMC
Affiliated QPAM must make its Audit
Report unconditionally available,
electronically or otherwise, for
examination upon request by any duly
authorized employee or representative
of the Department, other relevant
regulators, and any fiduciary of a
Covered Plan;
(10) Each JPMC Affiliated QPAM and
the auditor must submit to OED: Any
engagement agreement(s) entered into
pursuant to the engagement of the
auditor under this exemption, no later
than two (2) months after the execution
of any such engagement agreement;
(11) The auditor must provide the
Department, upon request, for
inspection and review, access to all the
workpapers created and utilized in the
course of the audit, provided such
access and inspection is otherwise
permitted by law; and
(12) JPMC must notify the Department
of a change in the independent auditor
no later than two (2) months after the
engagement of a substitute or
subsequent auditor and must provide an
explanation for the substitution or
change including a description of any
material disputes between the
terminated auditor and JPMC;
(j) As of January 10, 2018 and
throughout the Exemption Period, with
respect to any arrangement, agreement,
or contract between a JPMC Affiliated
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QPAM and a Covered-Plan, the JPMC
Affiliated QPAM agrees and warrants:
(1) To comply with ERISA and the
Code, as applicable with respect to such
Covered Plan; to refrain from engaging
in prohibited transactions that are not
otherwise exempt (and to promptly
correct any inadvertent prohibited
transactions); and to comply with the
standards of prudence and loyalty set
forth in section 404 of ERISA with
respect to each such ERISA-covered
plan and IRA to the extent that section
is applicable;
(2) To indemnify and hold harmless
the Covered Plan for any actual losses
resulting directly from a JPMC Affiliated
QPAM’s violation of ERISA’s fiduciary
duties, as applicable, and of the
prohibited transaction provisions of
ERISA and the Code, as applicable; a
breach of contract by the QPAM; or any
claim arising out of the failure of such
JPMC Affiliated QPAM to qualify for the
exemptive relief provided by PTE 84–14
as a result of a violation of Section I(g)
of PTE 84–14 other than the Conviction.
This condition applies only to actual
losses caused by the JPMC Affiliated
QPAM’s violations.
(3) Not to require (or otherwise cause)
the Covered Plan to waive, limit, or
qualify the liability of the JPMC
Affiliated QPAM for violating ERISA or
the Code or engaging in prohibited
transactions;
(4) Not to restrict the ability of such
Covered Plan to terminate or withdraw
from its arrangement with the JPMC
Affiliated QPAM with respect to any
investment in a separately managed
account or pooled fund subject to ERISA
and managed by such QPAM, with the
exception of reasonable restrictions,
appropriately disclosed in advance, that
are specifically designed to ensure
equitable treatment of all investors in a
pooled fund in the event such
withdrawal or termination may have
adverse consequences for all other
investors. In connection with any such
arrangements involving investments in
pooled funds subject to ERISA entered
into after the initial effective date of this
exemption, the adverse consequences
must relate to of a lack of liquidity of
the underlying assets, valuation issues,
or regulatory reasons that prevent the
fund from promptly redeeming an
ERISA-covered plan’s or IRA’s
investment, and such restrictions must
be applicable to all such investors and
effective no longer than reasonably
necessary to avoid the adverse
consequences;
(5) Not to impose any fees, penalties,
or charges for such termination or
withdrawal with the exception of
reasonable fees, appropriately disclosed
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in advance, that are specifically
designed to prevent generally
recognized abusive investment practices
or specifically designed to ensure
equitable treatment of all investors in a
pooled fund in the event such
withdrawal or termination may have
adverse consequences for all other
investors, provided that such fees are
applied consistently and in like manner
to all such investors; and
(6) Not to include exculpatory
provisions disclaiming or otherwise
limiting liability of the JPMC Affiliated
QPAM for a violation of such
agreement’s terms. To the extent
consistent with Section 410 of ERISA,
however, this provision does not
prohibit disclaimers for liability caused
by an error, misrepresentation, or
misconduct of a plan fiduciary or other
party hired by the plan fiduciary who is
independent of JPMC and its affiliates,
or damages arising from acts outside the
control of the JPMC Affiliated QPAM;
(7) By July 9, 2018, each JPMC
Affiliated QPAM must provide a notice
of its obligations under this Section I(j)
to each Covered Plan. For all other
prospective Covered Plans, the JPMC
Affiliated QPAM will agree to its
obligations under this Section I(j) in an
updated investment management
agreement between the JPMC Affiliated
QPAM and such clients or other written
contractual agreement. This condition
will be deemed met for each Covered
Plan that received a notice pursuant to
PTE 2016–15 that meets the terms of
this condition. Notwithstanding the
above, a JPMC Affiliated QPAM will not
violate the condition solely because a
Plan or IRA refuses to sign an updated
investment management agreement;
(k) By March 10, 2018, each JPMC
Affiliated QPAM will provide a notice
of the exemption, along with a separate
summary describing the facts that led to
the Conviction (the Summary), which
have been submitted to the Department,
and a prominently displayed statement
(the Statement) that the Conviction
results in a failure to meet a condition
in PTE 84–14, to each sponsor and
beneficial owner of a Covered Plan, or
the sponsor of an investment fund in
any case where a JPMC Affiliated QPAM
acts as a sub-advisor to the investment
fund in which such ERISA-covered plan
and IRA invests. Any prospective client
for which a JPMC Affiliated QPAM
relies on PTE 84–14 or has expressly
represented that the manager qualifies
as a QPAM or relies on the QPAM class
exemption must receive the proposed
and final exemptions with the Summary
and the Statement prior to, or
contemporaneously with, the client’s
receipt of a written asset management
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agreement from the JPMC Affiliated
QPAM. Disclosures may be delivered
electronically.
(l) The JPMC Affiliated QPAMs must
comply with each condition of PTE 84–
14, as amended, with the sole exception
of the violation of Section I(g) of PTE
84–14 that is attributable to the
Conviction;
(m)(1) By July 9, 2018, JPMC
designates a senior compliance officer
(the Compliance Officer) who will be
responsible for compliance with the
Policies and Training requirements
described herein. The Compliance
Officer must conduct an annual review
for each annual period beginning on
January 10, 2018, (the Annual
Review) 16 to determine the adequacy
and effectiveness of the implementation
of the Policies and Training. With
respect to the Compliance Officer, the
following conditions must be met:
(i) The Compliance Officer must be a
professional who has extensive
experience with, and knowledge of, the
regulation of financial services and
products, including under ERISA and
the Code; and
(ii) The Compliance Officer must have
a direct reporting line to the highestranking corporate officer in charge of
legal compliance for asset management;
(2) With respect to each Annual
Review, the following conditions must
be met:
(i) The Annual Review includes a
review of: Any compliance matter
related to the Policies or Training that
was identified by, or reported to, the
Compliance Officer or others within the
compliance and risk control function (or
its equivalent) during the previous year;
any material change in the relevant
business activities of the JPMC
Affiliated QPAMs; and any change to
ERISA, the Code, or regulations related
to fiduciary duties and the prohibited
transaction provisions that may be
applicable to the activities of the JPMC
Affiliated QPAMs;
(ii) The Compliance Officer prepares
a written report for each Annual Review
(each, an Annual Report) that (A)
summarizes his or her material activities
during the preceding year; (B) sets forth
any instance of noncompliance
discovered during the preceding year,
and any related corrective action; (C)
details any change to the Policies or
Training to guard against any similar
instance of noncompliance occurring
again; and (D) makes recommendations,
as necessary, for additional training,
16 Such Annual Review must be completed with
respect to the annual periods ending January 9,
2019; January 9, 2020; January 9, 2021; January 9,
2022; and January 9, 2023.
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procedures, monitoring, or additional
and/or changed processes or systems,
and management’s actions on such
recommendations;
(iii) In each Annual Report, the
Compliance Officer must certify in
writing that to his or her knowledge: (A)
The report is accurate; (B) the Policies
and Training are working in a manner
which is reasonably designed to ensure
that the Policies and Training
requirements described herein are met;
(C) any known instance of
noncompliance during the preceding
year and any related correction taken to
date have been identified in the Annual
Report; and (D) the JPMC Affiliated
QPAMs have complied with the Policies
and Training, and/or corrected (or is
correcting) any instances of
noncompliance in accordance with
Section I(h) above;
(iv) Each Annual Report must be
provided to appropriate corporate
officers of JPMC and each JPMC
Affiliated QPAM to which such report
relates; the head of compliance and the
General Counsel (or their functional
equivalent) of the relevant JPMC
Affiliated QPAM; and must be made
unconditionally available to the
independent auditor described in
Section I(i) above;
(v) Each Annual Review, including
the Compliance Officer’s written
Annual Report, must be completed
within three (3) months following the
end of the period to which it relates;
(n) Each JPMC Affiliated QPAM will
maintain records necessary to
demonstrate that the conditions of this
exemption have been met, for six (6)
years following the date of any
transaction for which such JPMC
Affiliated QPAM relies upon the relief
in the exemption;
(o) During the Exemption Period,
JPMC: (1) Immediately discloses to the
Department any Deferred Prosecution
Agreement (a DPA) or a NonProsecution Agreement (an NPA) with
the U.S. Department of Justice, entered
into by JPMC or any of its affiliates in
connection with conduct described in
Section I(g) of PTE 84–14 or section 411
of ERISA; and (2) immediately provides
the Department any information
requested by the Department, as
permitted by law, regarding the
agreement and/or conduct and
allegations that led to the agreement;
(p) By July 9, 2018, each JPMC
Affiliated QPAM, in its agreements
with, or in other written disclosures
provided to Covered Plans, will clearly
and prominently inform Covered Plan
clients of their right to obtain a copy of
the Policies or a description (‘‘Summary
Policies’’) which accurately summarizes
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key components of the QPAM’s written
Policies developed in connection with
this exemption. If the Policies are
thereafter changed, each Covered Plan
client must receive a new disclosure
within six (6) months following the end
of the calendar year during which the
Policies were changed.17 With respect to
this requirement, the description may be
continuously maintained on a website,
provided that such website link to the
Policies or the Summary Policies is
clearly and prominently disclosed to
each Covered Plan; and
(q) A JPMC Affiliated QPAM or a
JPMC Related QPAM will not fail to
meet the terms of this exemption solely
because a different JPMC Affiliated
QPAM or JPMC Related QPAM fails to
satisfy a condition for relief described in
Sections I(c), (d), (h), (i), (j), (k), (l), (n)
and (p); or if the independent auditor
described in Section I(i) fails a provision
of the exemption other than the
requirement described in Section
I(i)(11), provided that such failure did
not result from any actions or inactions
of JPMC or its affiliates.
Section II: Definitions
(a) The term ‘‘Conviction’’ means the
judgment of conviction against JPMC for
violation of the Sherman Antitrust Act,
15 U.S.C. 1, entered in the District Court
for the District of Connecticut (the
District Court) (case number 3:15–cr–
79–SRU). For all purposes under this
exemption, ‘‘conduct’’ of any person or
entity that is the ‘‘subject of [a]
Conviction’’ encompasses the conduct
described in Paragraph 4(g)–(i) of the
Plea Agreement filed in the District
Court in case number 3:15–cr–79–SRU;
and
(b) The term ‘‘Conviction Date’’ means
the date of the judgment of the trial
court. For avoidance of confusion, the
Conviction Date is January 10, 2017, as
set forth on page 3 of Dkt. 49, in case
number 3:15–cr–79–SRU.
(c) The term ‘‘Covered Plan’’ means a
plan subject to Part 4 of Title 1 of ERISA
(‘‘ERISA-covered plan’’) or a plan
subject to Section 4975 of the Code
(‘‘IRA’’) with respect to which a JPMC
Affiliated QPAM relies on PTE 84–14,
or with respect to which a JPMC
Affiliated QPAM (or any JPMC affiliate)
has expressly represented that the
manager qualifies as a QPAM or relies
on the QPAM class exemption (PTE 84–
14). A Covered Plan does not include an
ERISA-covered Plan or IRA to the extent
17 In the event Applicant meets this disclosure
requirement through Summary Policies, changes to
the Policies shall not result in the requirement for
a new disclosure unless, as a result of changes to
the Policies, the Summary Policies are no longer
accurate.
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61839
the JPMC Affiliated QPAM has
expressly disclaimed reliance on QPAM
status or PTE 84–14 in entering into its
contract, arrangement, or agreement
with the ERISA-covered plan or IRA;
(d) The terms ‘‘ERISA-covered plan’’
and ‘‘IRA’’ mean, respectively, a plan
subject to Part 4 of Title I of ERISA and
a plan subject to section 4975 of the
Code.
(e) The term ‘‘Exemption Period’’
means January 10, 2018, through
January 9, 2023;
(f) The term ‘‘JPMC’’ means JPMorgan
Chase and Co., the parent entity, but
does not include any subsidiaries or
other affiliates;
(g) The term ‘‘JPMC Affiliated QPAM’’
means a ‘‘qualified professional asset
manager,’’ as defined in Section VI(a) of
PTE 84–14, that relies on the relief
provided by PTE 84–14 and with
respect to which JPMC is a current or
future ‘‘affiliate’’ (as defined in Section
VI(d)(1) of PTE 84–14). The term ‘‘JPMC
Affiliated QPAM’’ excludes the parent
entity, JPMC, the entity implicated in
the criminal conduct that is the subject
of the Conviction
(h) The term ‘‘JPMC Related QPAM’’
means any current or future ‘‘qualified
professional asset manager’’ (as defined
in section VI(a) of PTE 84–14) that relies
on the relief provided by PTE 84–14,
and with respect to which JPMC owns
a direct or indirect five percent or more
interest, but with respect to which JPMC
is not an ‘‘affiliate’’ (as defined in
Section VI(d)(1) of PTE 84–14).
Effective Date
This exemption is effective on January
10, 2018. The term of the exemption is
from January 10, 2018, through January
9, 2023 (the Exemption Period).
Department’s Comment: The
Department cautions that the relief in
this exemption will terminate
immediately if, among other things, an
entity within the JPMC corporate
structure is convicted of a crime
described in Section I(g) of PTE 84–14
(other than the Conviction) during the
Exemption Period. Although JPMC
could apply for a new exemption in that
circumstance, the Department would
not be obligated to grant the exemption.
The terms of this exemption have been
specifically designed to permit plans to
terminate their relationships in an
orderly and cost effective fashion in the
event of an additional conviction or a
determination that it is otherwise
prudent for a plan to terminate its
relationship with an entity covered by
the exemption.
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Further Information
For more information on this
exemption, contact Mr. Joseph Brennan
of the Department, telephone (202) 693–
8456. (This is not a toll-free number.)
Deutsche Investment Management
Americas Inc. (DIMA) and Certain
Current and Future Asset Management
Affiliates of Deutsche Bank AG
(collectively, the Applicant or the DB
QPAMs), Located in New York, New
York
[Prohibited Transaction Exemption 2017–04;
Exemption Application No. D–11908]
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Discussion
On November 21, 2016, the
Department of Labor (the Department)
published a notice of proposed
exemption in the Federal Register at 81
FR 83400, for certain entities with
specified relationships to Deutsche
Securities Korea, Co. (DSK) 18 or DB
Group Services (UK) Limited (DB Group
Services) 19 to continue to rely upon the
relief provided by PTE 84–14 for a
period of five years,20 notwithstanding
certain criminal convictions, as
described herein (the Convictions).
The Department is granting this
exemption to ensure that Covered
Plans 21 with assets managed by an asset
manager within the corporate family of
Deutsche Bank AG (together with its
current and future affiliates, Deutsche
Bank) may continue to benefit from the
relief provided by PTE 84–14. The
effective date of this exemption is April
18, 2018, and the exemption is effective
from April 18, 2018 through April 17,
2021 (the Exemption Period).
No relief from a violation of any other
law is provided by this exemption,
including any criminal conviction
18 Deutsche Securities Korea, Co. is a South
Korean ‘‘affiliate’’ (as defined in Section VI(c) of
PTE 84–14) of Deutsche Bank AG.
19 DB Group Services (UK) Limited is United
Kingdom-based ‘‘affiliate’’ (as defined in Section
VI(c) of PTE 84–14) of Deutsche Bank AG.
20 (49 FR 9494, March 13, 1984), as corrected at
50 FR 41430 (October 10, 1985), as amended at 70
FR 49305 (August 23, 2005) and as amended at 75
FR 38837 (July 6, 2010), hereinafter referred to as
PTE 84–14 or the QPAM exemption.
21 ‘‘Covered Plan’’ is a plan subject to Part 4 of
Title 1 of ERISA (‘‘ERISA-covered plan’’) or a plan
subject to section 4975 of the Code (‘‘IRA’’) with
respect to which a DB QPAM relies on PTE 84–14,
or with respect to which a DB QPAM (or any
Deutsche Bank affiliate) has expressly represented
that the manager qualifies as a QPAM or relies on
the QPAM class exemption (PTE 84–14). A Covered
Plan does not include an ERISA-covered plan or
IRA to the extent the DB QPAM has expressly
disclaimed reliance on the QPAM status or PTE 84–
14 in entering into its contract, arrangement, or
agreement with the ERISA-covered plan or IRA. See
further discussion in this preamble under the
heading Comment 5—Policies and Procedures
related to DB QPAM Disclosures—Section
I(h)(1)(iv)–(v).
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described in the proposed exemption.
Furthermore, the Department cautions
that the relief in this exemption will
terminate immediately if, among other
things, an entity within the Deutsche
Bank corporate structure is convicted of
a crime described in Section I(g) of PTE
84–14 (other than the Convictions)
during the Exemption Period. The terms
of this exemption are designed to
promote adherence to basic fiduciary
standards under ERISA and the Code.
This exemption also aims to ensure that
Covered Plans can terminate
relationships in an orderly and cost
effective fashion in the event the
fiduciary of a Covered Plan determines
it is prudent to terminate the
relationship with a DB QPAM.
Written Comments
The Department invited all interested
persons to submit written comments
and/or requests for a public hearing
with respect to the notice of proposed
exemption, published in the Federal
Register at 81 FR 83400 on November
21, 2016. All comments and requests for
a hearing were due by January 5, 2017.22
The Department received written
comments from the Applicant, members
of the U.S. Congress, and a number of
plan and IRA clients of Deutsche Bank.
After considering these submissions, the
Department has determined to grant the
exemption, with revisions, as described
below.
The Applicant requests that the
parenthetical explanation for
‘‘participated in’’ be deleted in both
Section I(a) and I(c). The Applicant
states that the language in both sections
preceding the parentheticals is clear and
unambiguous, rendering the
parentheticals unnecessary.
Alternatively, the Applicant requests
that, should the parenthetical remain in
the exemption, the Department removes
the words ‘‘or tacit’’ in the phrase
‘‘knowing or tacit approval’’ in Sections
I(a) and I(c). The Applicant states that
the term ‘‘is undefined and ambiguous,
and potentially encompasses a broad
range of conduct that could become the
subject of disputes with counterparties.’’
The Applicant also states that ‘‘tacit
approval’’ should not be replaced with
the term ‘‘condone’’ (as the Department
did in paragraph (c) in the Final
Temporary Exemption), as it is
duplicative of and has the same
meaning as ‘‘approve’’.
The Department declines to delete the
parenthetical explanations in Sections
I(a) and I(c). Rather, after consideration,
the Department removed ‘‘or tacit’’ from
both conditions so that ‘‘participated
in’’ means the ‘‘knowing approval of the
misconduct underlying the
Convictions.’’
Comment 2—Exercising Authority Over
Plan Assets—Section I(f)
Section I(f) of the proposed exemption
provides, ‘‘(f) A DB QPAM did not
Comment 1—Knowing or Tacit
exercise authority over the assets of any
Approval—Sections I(a) and I(c)
plan subject to Part 4 of Title I of ERISA
Section I(a) of the proposed
(an ERISA-covered plan) or section 4975
exemption provides, ‘‘(a) The DB
of the Code (an IRA) in a manner that
QPAMs (including their officers,
it knew or should have known would:
directors, agents other than Deutsche
further the criminal conduct that is the
Bank, and employees of such DB
subject of the Convictions; or cause the
QPAMs) did not know of, have reason
QPAM, affiliates, or related parties to
to know of, or participate in the criminal directly or indirectly profit from the
conduct of DSK and DB Group Services
criminal conduct that is the subject of
that is the subject of the Convictions (for the Convictions.’’
purposes of this Section I(a),
Deutsche Bank requests that the
‘‘participate in’’ includes the knowing or phrase ‘‘related parties’’ in Condition
tacit approval of the misconduct
I(f) be deleted as the term ‘‘is undefined
underlying the Convictions).’’
and could lead to confusion.’’ The
Section I(c) of the proposed
Applicant also states that this condition
exemption provides, ‘‘(c) The DB
may be interpreted as implicating the
QPAMs will not employ or knowingly
purchase, for a plan or IRA, of any
engage any of the individuals that
instrument linked to a benchmark rate.
participated in the criminal conduct
Deutsche Bank requests that the
that is the subject of the Convictions (for Department add clarification language
the purposes of this Section I(c),
which ‘‘[provides] that this condition is
‘‘participated in’’ includes the knowing
not violated solely because an ERISAor tacit approval of the misconduct
covered plan or IRA managed by a DB
underlying the Convictions).’’
QPAM purchased, sold or held an
economic interest in a security or
22 The comment period was subsequently
product, the value of which was tied to
extended by the Department to January 17, 2017.
a benchmark interest rate implicated in
However, the Department received additional
the conduct that is the subject of the
comments from the Applicant after the close of the
extended comment period.
Convictions.’’
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After consideration, the Department
deleted the phrase ‘‘related parties’’ for
clarity. However, the Department
declines to make the Applicant’s other
requested revisions. The Department
does not view Condition I(f) (which
relates to exercising authority) as
confusing. Further, Condition I(f) is
consistent with the Applicant’s prior
representation that, with respect to the
conviction of DB Group Services (UK)
Limited (DB Group Services) for LIBOR
manipulation (the US Conviction), ‘‘[no]
current or former employee of [DB
Group Services] or of any affiliated
QPAM who previously has been or who
subsequently may be identified by [DB
Group Services], Deutsche Bank AG or
any U.S. or non-U.S. regulatory or
enforcement agencies as having been
responsible for the [LIBOR-related
misconduct] will be an officer, director,
or employee of any Applicant or of any
other current or future affiliated QPAM;
and . . . no employee of [DB Group
Services] or of any affiliated QPAM who
was involved in the [LIBOR-related
misconduct] had any, or will have any
future, involvement in the current or
future affiliated QPAMs’ asset
management activities.’’ 23 With respect
to the conviction of Deutsche Securities
Korea Co. (DSK) for market
manipulation (the Korean Conviction),
the Applicant has represented that
‘‘Deutsche Bank’s [Asset & Wealth
Management] Division had no
involvement whatsoever in the conduct
or compliance issues that formed the
basis for the LIBOR and South Korea
matters . . . .’’ 24
Furthermore, the Department does not
believe that the proposed carve-out for
transactions involving the sale,
purchase or holding of instruments tied
to a benchmark interest rate is
necessary. The Applicant has informed
the Department that, with respect to
condition I(a), the Applicant can
represent the following: ‘‘Other than
certain individuals who worked for nonasset management business within DBSI
and/or DBAG and [who] had no
responsibility for, and exercised no
authority in connection with, the
management of plan assets, and are no
longer employed by DBSI and DBAG,
the DB QPAMs (including their officers,
directors, agents other than Deutsche
Bank, and employees of such DB
QPAMs) did not know of, have reason
to know of, or participate in the
criminal conduct of DSK and DB Group
23 See DIMA Exemption Application (April 23,
2015), at 12–13.
24 See Deutsche Bank AG Submission to the
Department of Labor in Further Support of
Applications for Conditional Exemption (September
18, 2015), at 8.
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18:59 Dec 28, 2017
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Services that is the subject of the
Convictions.’’ 25 The Department
believes that this representation
obviates the need for a carve-out,
regardless of whether the instrument
involved in the transaction is tied to a
benchmark interest rate.
In addition, the Department clarified
that Section I(d) applies (a) to
‘‘investment funds’’ managed by the DB
QPAM with respect to Covered Plans,
and (b) at all times during the
Exemption Period.
Comment 3—Restriction on Provision of
Discretionary Asset Management
Services—Section I(g)
Section I(g) of the proposed
exemption provides, ‘‘(g) DSK and DB
Group Services will not provide
discretionary asset management
services to ERISA-covered plans or
IRAs, nor will otherwise act as a
fiduciary with respect to ERISA-covered
plan and IRA assets.’’
Deutsche Bank states that the phrase
‘‘otherwise act as a fiduciary’’ precludes
DSK and DB Group Services from acting
as a fiduciary in any way with respect
to ERISA-covered plans and IRA assets,
including under the Department’s new
‘‘Definition of the Term ‘Fiduciary’;’’
‘‘Conflict of Interest Rule—Retirement
Investment Advice,’’ 81 FR 200946
(April 8, 2016), and including with
respect to DSK’s and DB Group
Services’ own internal plans. Deutsche
Bank represents that because DSK acts
as a broker-dealer and may provide
investment advice, such conduct will
require DSK to acknowledge that it is
acting as a fiduciary once the new
fiduciary rule becomes effective, and
this condition would make it impossible
for plans to engage DSK for any services
at all. The Applicant states that, while
DSK and DB Group Services should not
be permitted to act as discretionary asset
managers of ERISA-covered plans and
IRAs because of the crimes which led to
the Convictions, the Department should
not preclude ERISA-covered plans or
IRAs from independently engaging DSK
for other services or limit the activities
of any entity other than those so
convicted. The Applicant requests that
‘‘provide discretionary asset
management services to ERISA-covered
plans or IRAs, nor will otherwise act as
a fiduciary with respect to ERISAcovered plan and IRA assets’’ be
replaced with ‘‘act as fiduciaries within
the meaning of ERISA Section
3(21)(A)(i) or (iii), or Code Section
4975(e)(3)(A) or (C), with respect to
ERISA-covered plan and IRA assets.’’
25 Applicant Submission to the Department (May
25, 2017), at 3.
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61841
Also, the Applicant requests that the
Department provide a carve-out ‘‘with
respect to employee benefit plans
maintained or sponsored for their own
employees or the employees of an
affiliate.’’
Furthermore, Deutsche Bank states
that it, like many foreign banks, uses
foreign service companies, like DB
Group Services, to hire and pay
employees who then work for, and are
supervised by, other entities in the
Deutsche Bank controlled group. The
Applicant represents that DB Group
Services provides employees to
Deutsche Bank asset management
affiliates, and that these employees are
then responsible for the employees’
training, supervision, compliance, etc.,
as if they were employed by such
affiliates. Accordingly, Deutsche Bank
requests confirmation that the fact that
DB Group Services employs and pays
such individual employees will not
cause a DB QPAM to fail to meet this
condition. Specifically, the Applicant
requests that the Department qualify
Section I(g) by ‘‘[providing] that DSK
and DB Group Services will not be
treated as violating this condition solely
because they acted as investment advice
fiduciaries within the meaning of ERISA
Section 3(21)(A)(ii), or Section
4975(e)(3)(B) of the Code, or because DB
Group Services employees may be
double-hatted, seconded, supervised or
otherwise subject to the control of a DB
QPAM, including in a discretionary
fiduciary capacity with respect to the
DB QPAM clients.’’
The Department concurs with the
Applicant, and has modified Section I(g)
of the final exemption accordingly.
The Department has also clarified that
this condition does not apply with
respect to employee benefit plans
maintained or sponsored for their own
employees or the employees of an
affiliate of DSK or DB Group Services.
Comment 4—Policies and Procedures
Relating to Compliance With ERISA and
the Code—Section I(h)(1)(ii)–(iii)
Sections I(h)(1)(ii)–(iii) of the
proposed exemption provide, ‘‘(h)(1)
Each DB QPAM must immediately
develop, implement, maintain, and
follow written policies and procedures
(the Policies) requiring and reasonably
designed to ensure that:
(ii) The DB QPAM fully complies with
ERISA’s fiduciary duties and with
ERISA and the Code’s prohibited
transaction provisions, and does not
knowingly participate in any violation
of these duties and provisions with
respect to ERISA-covered plans and
IRAs;
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(iii) The DB QPAM does not
knowingly participate in any other
person’s violation of ERISA or the Code
with respect to ERISA-covered plans
and IRAs;’’
The Applicant requests that the
subparagraph I(h)(1)(iii) be stricken as
duplicative. The Applicant states that
the requirement that a DB QPAM ‘‘not
knowingly participate in any other
person’s violation’’ is ‘‘subsumed within
the requirement’’ that such DB QPAM
‘‘not knowingly participate in any
violation’’ of the duties and provisions
set forth in ERISA and the Code
(including Section 405 of ERISA).
The Department declines to make this
deletion. The specific elements of the
Policies requirement as set forth in this
exemption are essential to its protective
purposes. In approving this exemption,
the Department significantly relies upon
conditions designed to ensure that those
relying upon its terms for prohibited
transaction relief will adopt a culture of
compliance centered on basic fiduciary
norms and standards of fair dealing, as
reflected in the Policies. These
standards are core protections of this
exemption. The Department does not
view subparagraph (iii) of Section
I(h)(1), which relates to a DB QPAM’s
compliance with ERISA or the Code, as
duplicative of subparagraph (ii), which
includes also a DB QPAM’s full
compliance with ERISA’s fiduciary
duties, and with ERISA and the Code’s
prohibited transaction provisions.
Subparagraph (ii) is based on the DB
QPAM’s management of assets of
Covered Plans. On the other hand,
subparagraph (iii) focuses on the DB
QPAM’s diligence in collaborating with
third parties in the management of
assets of Covered Plans.
The Department modified the
Policies’ requirement of adherence to
the fiduciary and prohibited transaction
provisions of ERISA and the Code in
subparagraph (ii) so that the Policies
expressly focus on the provisions only
to the extent ‘‘in each such case as
applicable with respect to each Covered
Plan . . . .’’ In general, however, the
Department has otherwise retained the
stringency and breadth of the Policies
requirement, which is more than
justified by the compliance and
oversight failures exhibited by Deutsche
Bank throughout the long period of time
during which the criminal misconduct
persisted. The Department notes that it
made minor revisions to reflect the fact
that DB QPAMs may already have
Policies under the previous exemption,
in which case, they are required to
‘‘maintain’’ such Policies.
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Comment 5—Policies and Procedures
Related to DB QPAM Disclosures—
Section I(h)(1)(iv)–(v)
Sections I(h)(1)(iv)–(v) of the
proposed exemption provide, ‘‘(h)(1)
Each DB QPAM must immediately
develop, implement, maintain, and
follow written policies and procedures
(the Policies) requiring and reasonably
designed to ensure that:
(iv) Any filings or statements made by
the DB QPAM to regulators, including
but not limited to, the Department, the
Department of the Treasury, the
Department of Justice, and the Pension
Benefit Guaranty Corporation, on behalf
of ERISA-covered plans or IRAs are
materially accurate and complete, to the
best of such QPAM’s knowledge at that
time;
(v) The DB QPAM does not make
material misrepresentations or omit
material information in its
communications with such regulators
with respect to ERISA-covered plans or
IRAs, or make material
misrepresentations or omit material
information in its communications with
ERISA-covered plan and IRA clients.’’
The Applicant states that Sections
I(h)(1)(iv) I(h)(1)(v) are ‘‘overlapping,
duplicative and extend beyond the
scope of exemptive relief’’ to instances
where the Applicant is not acting in
reliance on PTE 84–14. The Applicant
requests that the subparagraphs be
limited to situations where the
Applicant is relying on PTE 84–14 and
this exemption. Also, Deutsche Bank
states that the distinction between
subparagraph (iv)’s requirement that
information provided to regulators be
materially accurate and complete and
subparagraph (v)’s requirement that
such communications may not have
material misrepresentations or
omissions is unclear, and suggests the
reference in (v) be deleted. Finally,
Deutsche Bank requests that the phrase
‘‘to the best of such QPAM’s knowledge
at that time’’ should appear in
subparagraph (h)(1)(v) as it does in
subparagraph (h)(1)(iv), but is absent
from condition (h)(1)(v).
The Department notes that the Section
I(h) requirement that the policies and
procedures developed by the DB QPAM
adhere to basic fiduciary norms is a
protective measure that is necessary in
light of the substantial compliance and
oversight failures exhibited by Deutsche
Bank throughout the long period of time
during which the misconduct persisted.
Notwithstanding this, the Department is
revising the condition, in part, as
requested by the Applicant.
Subsection (v) has been revised to
contain the ‘‘to the best of QPAM’s
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knowledge at the time’’ concept found
in subsection (iv); and the applicability
of subsections (iv) and (v) has been
narrowed to ERISA-covered plans and
IRAs with respect to which a DB QPAM
relies on PTE 84–14, or with respect to
which a DB QPAM has expressly
represented that the manager qualifies
as a QPAM or relies on the QPAM class
exemption in its dealings with the
ERISA-covered plan or IRA (hereinafter,
a Covered Plan). To the extent a DB
QPAM would prefer not to be subject to
this provision, however, it may
expressly disclaim reliance on QPAM
status or PTE 84–14 in entering into its
contract with an ERISA-covered plan or
IRA, and such plan or IRA is not a
Covered Plan.26 This revision is
consistent with the Department’s intent
to protect Covered Plans that may have
hired a DB QPAM based on the
understanding that the manager
qualifies as a QPAM or relies on PTE
84–14.
As noted in more detail below, the
Department will not strike a condition
merely because it is also a statutory
requirement. It is the express intent of
the Department to preclude relief for a
DB QPAM that fails to meet the
requirements of this exemption,
including those derived from basic
norms codified in statute, as applicable.
Comment 6—Corrections of Violations
and Failures To Comply—Section
I(h)(1)(vii)
Section I(h)(1)(vii) of the proposed
exemption provides, ‘‘(vii) Any violation
of, or failure to comply with, an item in
subparagraphs (ii) through (vi), is
corrected promptly upon discovery, and
any such violation or compliance failure
not promptly corrected is reported,
upon the discovery of such failure to
promptly correct, in writing, to
appropriate corporate officers, the head
of compliance and the General Counsel
(or their functional equivalent) of the
relevant DB QPAM, the independent
auditor responsible for reviewing
compliance with the Policies, and an
appropriate fiduciary of any affected
ERISA-covered plan or IRA that is
independent of Deutsche Bank;
however, with respect to any ERISAcovered plan or IRA sponsored by an
‘affiliate’ (as defined in Section VI(d) of
PTE 84–14) of Deutsche Bank or
beneficially owned by an employee of
Deutsche Bank or its affiliates, such
fiduciary does not need to be
independent of Deutsche Bank. A DB
26 Of course, neither may the QPAM rely on PTE
84–14 or this exemption with respect to any such
ERISA-covered plan or IRA for which it has
expressly disclaimed reliance on QPAM status or
PTE 84–14.
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QPAM will not be treated as having
failed to develop, implement, maintain,
or follow the Policies, provided that it
corrects any instance of noncompliance
promptly when discovered, or when it
reasonably should have known of the
noncompliance (whichever is earlier),
and provided that it adheres to the
reporting requirements set forth in this
subparagraph (vii).’’
The Applicant states that Section
I(h)(1)(vii) extends beyond the scope
necessary to ensure compliance with
other requirements in condition (h).
Deutsche Bank states that the reporting
requirement is not needed given the
‘‘multiple, overlapping requirements’’
related to the Annual Review and the
Audit Report.
Deutsche Bank also references several
‘‘ambiguities’’ in subparagraph (vii). The
Applicant states that the term
‘‘promptly’’ is undefined, and, as a
result, it is unclear when a violation
must be corrected and when the
reporting obligation is triggered.
Similarly, the phrases ‘‘appropriate
corporate officers . . . of the relevant
DB QPAM’’ and ‘‘appropriate fiduciary
of any affected ERISA-covered plan or
IRA’’ are undefined. The Applicant
states that the last sentence of
subparagraph (vii) does not provide
meaningful relief because some
corrections will take longer to complete
than the exemption appears to permit.
The Applicant suggests that the
correction procedure provided in
subparagraph (vii) should apply to any
violation of or failure to comply with
subparagraph (i) regarding the policy
governing independence in asset
management decisions as well. The
Applicant further suggests that it should
be allowed to correct any errors under
the policy, as with the other errors.
Deutsche Bank states that the
Department has not explained why a
failure under subparagraph (i), however
inadvertent, should result in an
automatic loss of the exemption.
Deutsche Bank suggests the following
language: ‘‘(vii) Within sixty (60) days of
its discovery of any violation of, or
failure to comply with, an item in
subparagraphs (i) through (vi), such DB
QPAM will formulate, in writing, a plan
to address such violation or failure (a
Correction Plan). To the extent any such
Correction Plan is not formulated within
sixty (60) days of the DB QPAM’s
discovery of such violation or failure,
the DB QPAM will report in writing
such violation or failure to the head of
compliance or the General Counsel (or
their functional equivalents) of the
relevant line of business that engaged in
such violation or failure.’’
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The Department has based the
conditions of this exemption on both
the particular facts underlying the
Convictions and its experience over
time with previous exemptions. For the
reasons set out herein, the Department
has concluded that the specific
conditions of this exemption are
appropriate and give the Department a
reasonable basis for concluding that the
exemptions are appropriately protective
of affected plans and IRAs. As noted
above, a central aim of the exemption is
to ensure that those relying upon the
exemption for relief from the prohibited
transaction rules will consistently act to
promote a culture of fiduciary
compliance, notwithstanding the
conduct that violated Section I(g) of PTE
84–14.
The Department does not agree with
the Applicant’s contention that the
Section I(h)(1)(vii) extends beyond the
scope necessary to ensure compliance
with other requirements in Section I(h),
or that it is duplicative of the Annual
Report and Audit Report requirements.
The Department considers the Policies,
and the DB QPAM’s compliance
therewith, to be a fundamental
component of exemptive relief, and this
Section I(h)(1)(vii) emphasizes the
importance of this compliance,
including the correction process.
Further the Department notes that the
audits and Annual Reports are periodic
and do not reflect the timeframe that
this condition is intended to reflect.
Regarding the Applicant’s requests for
revisions, the Department is replacing
‘‘appropriate corporate officers’’ with
‘‘the head of compliance and the
General Counsel (or their functional
equivalent) of the relevant DB QPAM
that engaged in the violation or failure.’’
The Department also will not condition
the exemption on a requirement for
notification of violations to an
appropriate fiduciary of any affected
ERISA-covered plan or IRA that is
independent of Deutsche Bank.
However, the Department is not
revising the ‘‘subparagraphs (ii) through
(vi)’’ reference to include ‘‘subparagraph
(i)’’ because the Department intends to
preclude relief to the extent a DB QPAM
fails to develop, implement, maintain,
and follow written policies and
procedures. Clearly, it is not enough
merely to develop policies and
procedures, without also implementing,
maintaining, and following the terms of
those policies and procedures. Covered
Plans do not benefit from the creation of
strong policies and procedures, unless
they are actually followed.
The Department has revised the term
‘‘corrected promptly’’ for consistency
with the Department’s intent that
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violations or compliance failures be
corrected ‘‘as soon as reasonably
possible upon discovery or as soon after
the QPAM reasonably should have
known of the noncompliance
(whichever is sooner).’’ However, the
Department intends to preclude relief to
the extent violations or failures are not
corrected as required by the exemption.
Therefore, the Department has not
adopted the Applicant’s proposed
subparagraph (vii), which requires little
more than the formulation of a
correction plan, without any
corresponding obligation to actually
implement the plan.
Comment 7—Time to Implement
Training—Section I(h)(2)
The prefatory language in Section
I(h)(2) provides, ‘‘(2) Each DB QPAM
must immediately develop and
implement a program of training (the
Training), conducted at least annually,
for all relevant DB QPAM asset/portfolio
management, trading, legal,
compliance, and internal audit
personnel.’’
Deutsche Bank requests that, in order
to avoid confusion over whether
Applicant must train the same pool of
employees multiple times in a year, the
Department add a clarifying proviso to
this requirement, specifically, at the end
of the first sentence in the prefatory
language: ‘‘(this condition in paragraph
(h)(2) shall be deemed to be met with
respect to any employee trained in
accordance with the requirements of
PTE 2016–12 or the temporary one-year
exemption within the prior 12
months).’’ The Applicant states that it is
also subject to a similar training
requirement under the temporary
exemption. Deutsche Bank represents
that, during the period covered by PTE
2015–15, it trained more than 1,000 of
its employees.
The Department clarifies that, to the
extent that the Training requirements in
Section I(h)(2) of the exemption, and the
corresponding requirements in PTE
2016–13 and PTE 2016–12 are
consistent, such provisions should be
harmonized so that the sequential
exemptions do not inadvertently require
multiple trainings per year. Consistent
with this requested change in the
prefatory language, the Department has
added further clarity on the timeline
with respect to the Training. The
Department is specifying that ‘‘the first
Training under this Exemption must be
completed by all relevant DB QPAM
personnel by April 17, 2019.’’
Furthermore, the Department specifies
that, by April 17, 2019, asset/portfolio
management, trading, legal, compliance,
and internal audit personnel who were
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employed from April 18, 2017 through
April 17, 2019 must have been trained
at least twice: the first time under PTE
2016–13; and the second time under
this exemption. The Department notes
that it made minor revisions to reflect
the fact that DB QPAMs may already
have Training under the previous
exemption, in which case, they are
required to ‘‘maintain.’’
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Comment 8—Training Set Forth in
Policies—Section I(h)(2)(i)
Section I(h)(2)(i) of the proposed
exemption provides, ‘‘(2) Each DB
QPAM must immediately develop and
implement a program of training (the
Training), conducted at least annually,
for all relevant DB QPAM asset/portfolio
management, trading, legal,
compliance, and internal audit
personnel. The Training must:
(i) Be set forth in the Policies and at
a minimum, cover the Policies, ERISA
and Code compliance (including
applicable fiduciary duties and the
prohibited transaction provisions),
ethical conduct, the consequences for
not complying with the conditions of
this exemption (including any loss of
exemptive relief provided herein), and
prompt reporting of wrongdoing;’’
The Applicant states that the
requirement in Section I(h)(2)(i) that the
Training must be ‘‘set forth in’’ the
Policies may cause significant logistical
challenges over time. The Applicant
requests that the section be clarified,
such that only the requirement of the
Training should be set forth in the
Policies.
The Department concurs with the
Applicant’s comment and has revised
the condition accordingly.
Comment 9—Training by Independent
Professional—Section I(h)(2)(ii)
Section I(h)(2)(ii) of the proposed
exemption provides, ‘‘. . . The Training
must: . . . (ii) Be conducted by an
independent professional who has been
prudently selected and who has
appropriate technical and training and
proficiency with ERISA and the Code.’’
The Applicant requests that Section
I(h)(2)(ii) be deleted, stating that it is not
necessary for the Department to specify
who conducts the Training, what the
professional’s background is, how the
Training is conducted or when the
independent auditor is required under
Section I(i)(1) to evaluate the adequacy
of DB QPAMs’ compliance with the
Training requirement. Deutsche Bank
further states that the requirement may
be ‘‘counterproductive, as the most
effective trainer may be someone with
detailed knowledge of the DB QPAMs’
business and compliance practices that
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an ‘independent’ trainer may lack.’’
Finally, Deutsche Bank states that the
term ‘‘independent professional’’ is also
undefined. Alternatively, Deutsche
Bank suggests, the Training must ‘‘(ii)
Be conducted by an individual(s) (either
in person, remotely or electronically,
such as through live or recorded webbased training) who has appropriate
proficiency with ERISA and the Code.’’
Although the Department does not
agree with the Applicant’s
characterization that hiring an
appropriate independent professional,
prudently selected, would be
counterproductive, the Department is
persuaded that appropriate Deutsche
Bank personnel, prudently selected,
should be allowed to conduct the
training, and has revised the condition
accordingly. The Department declines to
incorporate the Applicant’s requested
language regarding the use of electronic
or web-based methods in conducting the
Training. The revised I(h)(2)(ii) now
states that the Training ‘‘[b]e conducted
by a professional who has been
prudently selected and who has
appropriate technical training and
proficiency with ERISA and the Code.’’
Comment 10—Audit—Section I(i)(1)
Section I(i)(1) of the proposed
exemption requires that each Deutsche
Bank QPAM ‘‘submits to an audit
conducted annually by an independent
auditor, who has been prudently
selected and who has appropriate
technical training and proficiency with
ERISA and the Code. . . .’’ Section
I(i)(1) also provides that ‘‘[t]he audit
requirement must be incorporated in the
Policies . . . .’’
The Applicant requests deletion of the
requirement that the audit requirement
be incorporated in the Policies, as its
duplication in the Policies serves no
apparent purpose. The Applicant
further suggests that the auditor should
be given discretion to define the precise
audit period under this exemption
(which may be more or less than 12
months), so as to avoid a short audit
period in the event that this exemption
is granted before the expiration of the
first audit period under the final
temporary exemption. To this end, the
Applicant requests the following be
added to the condition: ‘‘(provided that
the first audit period hereunder may be
longer or shorter than 12 months at the
election of the auditor to avoid an
unreasonably short audit period).’’ The
Applicant requests that the reference to
‘‘appropriate technical training’’ be
deleted, as it appears ‘‘duplicative of
proficiency in ERISA.’’
The Department does not agree with
the Applicant’s assertion that the phrase
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‘‘technical training and proficiency’’ is
duplicative. In this regard, the
Department does not believe that the
two terms are synonymous, as a person
may have taken technical training in a
given subject matter but may not be
proficient in that subject matter. The
exemption requires that the auditor be
both technically trained and proficient
in ERISA as well as the Code.
Accordingly, the Department declines to
change the phrase ‘‘technical training
and proficiency’’ as used in Section
I(i)(1).
The Department also declines to
delete the requirement that the audit
conditions be incorporated in the
Policies. The audit requirement
provides a critical independent check
on compliance with this exemption’s
conditions, and helps ensure that the
basic protections set forth in the Policies
are taken seriously. Accordingly, the
specifics of the audit requirement are
important components of the Policies.
Their inclusion in the Policies promotes
compliance and sends an important
message to the institutions’ employees
and agents, as well as to Covered Plan
clients, that compliance with the
policies and procedures will be subject
to careful independent review.
The Department further declines to
incorporate the Applicant’s suggested
language regarding the timeline of the
audit required by the temporary
exemption. The audit required under
the temporary exemption covers a
period from October 24, 2016 until
April 17, 2018, which is not an
unreasonably short audit period.
Each audit must cover the preceding
12-month period. The first audit must
cover the period from April 18, 2018
through April 17, 2019, and must be
completed by October 17, 2019. The
second audit must cover the period from
April 18, 2019 through April 17, 2020,
and must be completed by October 17,
2020. In the event that the Exemption
Period is extended or a new exemption
is granted, the third audit would cover
the period from April 18, 2020 through
April 17, 2021, and would have to be
completed by October 17, 2021, unless
the Department chooses to alter the
annual audit requirement in any
potential new or extended exemption.
Comment 11—Access to Business—
Section I(i)(2)
Section I(i)(2) of the proposed
exemption requires that ‘‘as permitted
by law, each DB QPAM and, if
applicable Deutsche Bank, will grant the
auditor unconditional access to its
business . . . .’’
The Applicant requests that the access
granted by Section I(i)(2) be limited to
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non-privileged materials relevant to the
scope of exemptive relief that do not
contain trade secrets. The Applicant
states that, with the breadth of the
‘‘unconditional access’’ described in the
proposed exemption, ‘‘the absence of a
specific limitation could lead to
confusion, disputes, and infringement
on DB or a DB QPAM’s rights to protect
its privileged communications and trade
secrets or intrusion into activities falling
outside the scope of exemptive relief.’’
The Applicant states that the condition,
as written in the proposed exemption,
leaves the determination of necessity
solely to the auditor. The Applicant
suggests the following revised
condition: ‘‘(2) To the extent necessary
for the auditor, in its sole opinion, to
complete its audit and comply with the
conditions for relief described herein,
and as permitted by law, each DB
QPAM and, if applicable, and solely to
determine if the provisions of the
exemption involving Deutsche Bank are
met, Deutsche Bank, will grant the
auditor unconditional access to its
relevant business, including, but not
limited to: Its relevant computer
systems; relevant business records;
transactional data relating to ERISA
plans and IRAs managed by a DB QPAM
in reliance on PTE 84–14 and this
exemption; workplace locations;
relevant training materials; and
personnel (for avoidance of doubt, this
condition does not require access to
privileged, trade secret and other
similarly sensitive business
information).’’
In the Department’s view, to ensure a
thorough and robust audit, the auditor
must be granted access to information
the auditor deems necessary for the
auditor to make sound conclusions.
Access to such information must be
within the scope of the audit
engagement and denied only to the
extent any disclosure is not permitted
by state or federal statute. Enumerating
specific restrictions on the accessibility
of certain information would have a
dampening effect on the auditor’s ability
to perform the procedures necessary to
make valid conclusions and would
therefore undermine the effectiveness of
the audit. The auditor’s access to such
information, however, is limited to
information relevant to the auditor’s
objectives as specified by the terms of
this exemption and to the extent
disclosure is not prevented by state or
federal statute or involves
communications subject to attorney
client privilege. In this regard, the
Department has modified Section I(i)(2)
accordingly.
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Comment 12—Auditor’s Test of
Operational Compliance—Section I(i)(4)
Section I(i)(4) of the proposed
exemption provides that, ‘‘[t]he
auditor’s engagement must specifically
require the auditor to test each DB
QPAM’s operational compliance with
the Policies and Training’’ and ‘‘the
auditor must test a sample of each
QPAM’s transactions involving ERISAcovered Plans and IRAs sufficient in
size and nature to afford the auditor a
reasonable basis to determine
operational compliance with the
Policies and Training.’’
The Applicant requests that Section
I(i)(4) be deleted in its entirety. The
Applicant states that other conditions of
the exemption govern the audit’s scope,
the auditor’s technical skill, and the
prudence of the selection process. The
Applicant also states that the second
sentence of Section I(i)(4) unnecessarily
intrudes upon the auditor’s function
and independence. The Applicant
asserts that the Department should defer
to the judgment of the auditor whether
and when to sample transactions.
The Department declines to make the
Applicant’s requested revision with
respect to Section I(i)(4). The
requirements of this exemption
concerning the content of the auditor’s
engagement are necessary to ensure
administrative feasibility and to protect
Covered Plans. The inclusion of written
audit parameters in the auditor’s
engagement letter is necessary both to
document expectations regarding the
audit work and to ensure that the
auditor can responsibly perform its
important work. As stated above, clearly
defined audit parameters will minimize
any potential for dispute between the
Applicant and the auditor. Also, given
the scope and number of relevant
transactions, proper sampling is
necessary for the auditor to reach
reasonable and reliable conclusions.
Although the Department has declined
to delete this section in its entirety, as
requested by the Applicant, the
Department has revised this condition
for consistency with other conditions of
this exemption which are tailored to the
Department’s interest in protecting
Covered Plans. Therefore, the condition
now applies to Covered Plans (i.e.,
ERISA-covered plans and IRAs with
respect to which the DB QPAM relies on
PTE 84–14 or has expressly represented
that it qualifies as a QPAM or relies on
the QPAM class exemption in its
dealings with the ERISA-covered plan
or IRA).
The Department notes that Section
I(i)(4) does not specify the number of
transactions that the auditor must test,
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but rather requires, for each QPAM, that
the auditor test a sample of such
QPAM’s transactions involving Covered
Plans, ‘‘sufficient in size and nature to
afford the auditor a reasonable basis to
determine operational compliance with
the Policies and Training.’’
Comment 13—Auditor’s Determination
of Compliance—I(i)(5)(i)
Section I(i)(5)(i) of the proposed
exemption provides, ‘‘(5) For each
audit, on or before the end of the
relevant period described in Section
I(i)(1) for completing the audit, the
auditor must issue a written report (the
Audit Report) to Deutsche Bank and the
DB QPAM to which the audit applies
that describes the procedures performed
by the auditor during the course of its
examination. The Audit Report must
include the auditor’s specific
determinations regarding:
(i) The adequacy of the DB QPAM’s
Policies and Training; the DB QPAM’s
compliance with the Policies and
Training; the need, if any, to strengthen
such Policies and Training; and any
instance of the respective DB QPAM’s
noncompliance with the written Policies
and Training described in Section I(h)
above. Any determination by the auditor
regarding the adequacy of the Policies
and Training and the auditor’s
recommendations (if any) with respect
to strengthening the Policies and
Training of the respective DB QPAM
must be promptly addressed by such DB
QPAM, and any action taken by such
DB QPAM to address such
recommendations must be included in
an addendum to the Audit Report
(which addendum is completed prior to
the certification described in Section
I(i)(7) below). Any determination by the
auditor that the respective DB QPAM
has implemented, maintained, and
followed sufficient Policies and Training
must not be based solely or in
substantial part on an absence of
evidence indicating noncompliance. In
this last regard, any finding that the DB
QPAM has complied with the
requirements under this subsection
must be based on evidence that
demonstrates the DB QPAM has
actually implemented, maintained, and
followed the Policies and Training
required by this exemption.
Furthermore, the auditor must not rely
on the Annual Report created by the
Compliance Officer as described in
Section I(m) below in lieu of
independent determinations and testing
performed by the auditor as required by
Section I(i)(3) and (4) above.’’
The Applicant requests deletion of the
term ‘‘promptly’’ because it is undefined
and will cause disputes over its
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meaning. The Applicant states that this
perceived ambiguity is problematic in
this context because addressing the
auditor’s recommendation could be a
lengthy process.
In addition, the Applicant requests
that Section I(i)(5) be modified because
it imposes a counterproductive
limitation on the auditor’s use of the
Annual Review and usurps the auditor’s
judgment regarding how to perform its
role. According to the Applicant, it is
‘‘unnecessary’’ for the Department to
specify how the auditor performs its
work in light of the requirements
relating to the auditor’s selection and
qualifications. The Applicant also states
that denying the auditor the discretion
to rely on the Annual Report
undermines the protection the Annual
Report gives plans, as the Annual
Report may identify issues the auditor
did not independently discover. To this
end, the Applicant suggests the
following revised sentence regarding the
Auditor’s use of the Annual Report:
‘‘Furthermore, in conducting the
required audit, the auditor may consider
the Annual Report created by the
Compliance Officer as described in
Section I(m) below, as the auditor
deems appropriate.’’
The Department acknowledges that
the Applicant’s efforts to address the
auditor’s recommendations regarding
any inadequacy in the Policies and
Training identified by the auditor, may
take longer to implement than the time
limits mandated by the proposed
exemption. Accordingly, the
Department is modifying Section
I(i)(5)(i) to reflect the possibility that the
DB QPAMs’ efforts to address the
auditor’s recommendations regarding
inadequacies in the Policies and
Training identified by the auditor, may
not be completed by the submission
date of the Audit Report and may
require a written plan to address such
items. However, any noncompliance
identified by the auditor must be
promptly addressed. The Department
does not agree that the word ‘‘promptly’’
creates inappropriate ambiguity in the
condition and declines to remove the
word.
The final sentence of Section I(i)(5)(i)
expresses the Department’s intent that
the auditor not rely solely on the work
of the Compliance Officer and the
contents of the Annual Report in
formulating its conclusions or findings.
The Auditor must perform its own
independent testing to formulate its
conclusions. This exemption does not
prohibit the Auditor from considering
the Compliance Officer’s Annual Report
in carrying out its audit function,
including the formulation of an audit
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plan. This exemption, however, does
prohibit the Auditor from basing its
conclusions exclusively on the contents
of the Compliance Officer’s Annual
Report. The Department has modified
Section I(i)(5)(i) to more clearly reflect
these views.
Included with its comment on Section
I(i)(5)(i), the Applicant notes its request
for the deletion of the Compliance
Officer and Annual Review
requirements set out in Section I(m).
The Department’s response to this
request is discussed below.
The Department also modified
Section I(i)(5) to provide that ‘‘the
auditor, at its discretion, may issue a
single consolidated Audit Report which
covers all the DB QPAMs.’’ The
Department notes the potential logistical
advantage and administrative feasibility
with respect to the Department’s receipt
of the audit report pursuant to Section
I(i)(9) if there is one report
encompassing all of the DB QPAMs.
Comment 14—Adequacy of the Annual
Review—Section I(i)(5)(ii)
Section I(i)(5)(ii) of the proposed
exemption provides that ‘‘[t]he Audit
Report must include the auditor’s
specific determinations regarding: . . .
(ii) The adequacy of the Annual Review
described in Section I(m) and the
resources provided to the Compliance
Officer in connection with such Annual
Review.’’
The Applicant requests deletion of the
Compliance Officer and Annual Review
provisions in Section I(i)(5)(ii) of the
proposed exemption. If the Compliance
Officer and Annual Review provisions
do remain in the exemption, the
Applicant requests that the Annual
Report is provided to the auditor, who
then can make a determination as to the
adequacy of the report.
The Applicant also asserts that the
proposed exemption contains multiple
conditions relating to the auditor’s
selection and qualifications, and the
auditor should be trusted in its
judgment. Accordingly, the Applicant
argues that the phrase ‘‘and the
resources provided to the Compliance
officer in connection with such Annual
Review’’ should be deleted, because,
according to the Applicant, resource
requests by the Compliance Officer
should not translate into a public debate
with the Department and the auditor on
whether the DB QPAMs should be
allowed to use PTE 84–14. The
Applicant states that this condition
interferes with the administrability of
the exemption and its use by plans, if
counterparties cannot understand the
requirement or test whether it has been
complied with.
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As discussed in detail below, the
Department views the Compliance
Officer and the Annual Review as
integral to ensuring compliance with the
exemption. A recurring, independent,
and prudently conducted audit of the
DB QPAMs is critical to ensuring the
QPAMs’ compliance with the Policies
and Training mandated by this
exemption, and the adequacy of the
Policies and Training. The required
discipline of regular audits underpins
the Department’s finding that the
exemption is protective of plans and
their participants, and should help
prevent the sort of compliance failures
that led to the Conviction. The
Department agrees, however, that the
auditor need not opine on the adequacy
of the resources allocated to the
Compliance Officer. Thus, the
Department modified Section I(i)(5)(ii)
accordingly. If, however, the auditor
observes compliance issues related to
the Compliance Officer or available
resources, it would be appropriate for
the auditor to opine on those problems.
Comment 15—Certification of the
Audit—Section I(i)(7)
Section I(i)(7) of the proposed
exemption provides, ‘‘(7) With respect
to each Audit Report, the General
Counsel, or one of the three most senior
executive officers of the DB QPAM to
which the Audit Report applies, must
certify in writing, under penalty of
perjury, that the officer has reviewed the
Audit Report and this exemption;
addressed, corrected, or remedied any
inadequacy identified in the Audit
Report; and determined that the Policies
and Training in effect at the time of
signing are adequate to ensure
compliance with the conditions of this
proposed five-year exemption and with
the applicable provisions of ERISA and
the Code.’’
The Applicant requests that this
condition be modified to account for
Deutsche Bank’s business structure and
permit the Applicant to decide which
senior officers should review the Audit
Report. Deutsche Bank requests that the
reviewing individual be ‘‘one of the
three most senior officers with
responsibility for the asset management
business of the DB QPAM (or, to the
extent no such senior officer has
responsibility for the asset management
business of the DB QPAM, one of the
three most senior executives of the line
of business engaged in discretionary
asset management activities through the
DB QPAM).’’ Deutsche Bank further
requests that the timing of this provision
be clarified, as remedying issues found
during the course of the Audit may
prove to be a lengthier process than the
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30-day certification period as required
in Section I(i)(9). The Applicant states
that the provision should require only
that a process for remedying issues
should be initiated in a timely fashion.
Deutsche Bank also requests that the
condition clarify that ‘‘addressing’’ an
inadequacy may constitute either
accepting the auditor’s
recommendation, pointing out that
alternative action is appropriate, or
disagreeing with the auditor. The
Applicant states that the auditor is not
a monitor or part of the Applicant’s
management, and thus should not
dictate how the Applicant runs its asset
management business.
The Applicant also requests the
following addition to the condition:
‘‘For purposes of this condition, a DB
QPAM does not fail to address a
potential inadequacy identified by the
auditor by proposing an alternative
means of protecting relevant ERISA plan
clients and IRAs.’’
The Applicant further requests
deletion of the requirement that the
Audit Report be certified under penalty
of perjury.
The Department concurs that a senior
executive officer engaged in the asset
management business within the QPAM
should be allowed to review the Audit
Report, and has modified the language
of Section I(i)(7), accordingly.
While the Department does not view
Section I(i)(7) as ambiguous, the
Department is aware, as stated above,
that the Applicant’s efforts to address
the auditor’s recommendations may take
longer to implement than the timeframe
to submit the certified Audit Report.
With respect to this issue, the
Department did not intend to limit
corrective actions to those that could
only be completed prior to the
submission of the Audit Report.
Therefore, the Department has modified
Section I(i)(7) to reflect that the senior
officer may certify that a written plan to
address the inadequacies regarding the
Policies and Training identified in the
Auditor’s Report is in place.
As mentioned above, the Department
has determined that it is necessary for
the Auditor to be afforded unfettered
access to DB QPAM records, to the
extent that the analysis of such records
falls within the twelve-month period to
which the audit relates. For the first
audit required by this exemption, that
period runs from April 18, 2018 through
April 17, 2019. The conditions of this
exemption do not prohibit the
Applicant from disagreeing with the
auditor with respect to whether certain
practices fail to comply with the terms
of this exemption. However, in those
circumstances where the auditor is not
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persuaded to change its position on a
matter the auditor considers
noncompliant, the Applicant will be
responsible to correct such matters. Nor
do the conditions of this exemption
prohibit the Applicant from disagreeing
with the auditor with respect to the
appropriate method for correcting or
addressing issues of noncompliance.
The Department would expect the
Applicant and the auditor to have
meaningful communications on such
differences of opinion. In the event the
Applicant chooses to apply a corrective
method that differs from that
recommended by the Auditor, the Audit
Report and the Addendum attached
thereto should explain in detail the
noncompliance, the auditor’s
recommended action, the corrective
method chosen, and why the Applicant
chose a corrective method different from
that recommended by the Auditor. The
Department declines to remove the
requirement for certification by the
senior executive officer under penalty of
perjury, which makes clear the
importance of the correction process
and creates a strong incentive to take
seriously the audit process and
compliance generally.
Comment 16—Review and Certification
of Audit Report—Section I(i)(8)
Section I(i)(8) of the proposed
exemption provides, ‘‘(8) The Risk
Committee of Deutsche Bank’s Board of
Directors is provided a copy of each
Audit Report; and a senior executive
officer with a direct reporting line to the
highest ranking legal compliance officer
of Deutsche Bank must review the Audit
Report for each DB QPAM and must
certify in writing, under penalty of
perjury, that such officer has reviewed
each Audit Report.’’
In its comment, Deutsche Bank
requests that the condition be revised to
conform with Deutsche Bank’s corporate
structure. Specifically, the Applicant
states that Deutsche Bank’s Audit
Committee would be an appropriate
recipient of the Audit Report given
Deutsche Bank’s current structure. The
Applicant represents that ‘‘the Audit
Committee supports the Supervisory
Board in, among other things, the
following matters: Monitoring the
financial accounting process; the
effectiveness of the risk management
system, particularly of the internal
control system and the internal audit
system; the auditing of the financial
statements, especially with regard to the
auditor’s independence and the
additional services provided by the
auditor; and the Management Board’s
prompt remediation—through suitable
measures—of the deficiencies identified
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by the auditor. Furthermore, the Audit
Committee is informed about special
audits, substantial complaints and other
exceptional measures on the part of
bank regulatory authorities.’’
The Applicant requests flexibility in
determining which committee should
review the Audit Report in the event of
future corporate restructuring or
transferring of responsibility. Deutsche
Bank requests the following addition to
the condition: ‘‘another committee as
reasonably selected by the Supervisory
Board.’’
Finally, the Applicant requests the
requirement in Section I(i)(8) that the
certification by the senior executive
officer be made under penalty of perjury
be deleted, as it is unnecessary.
The Department is revising Section
I(i)(8) of the exemption to require that
‘‘[t]he Audit Committee of Deutsche
Bank’s Supervisory Board is provided a
copy of each Audit Report; and a senior
executive officer with a direct reporting
line to the highest ranking compliance
officer of Deutsche Bank must review
the Audit Report for each DB QPAM
and must certify in writing, under
penalty of perjury, that such officer has
reviewed each Audit Report.’’
Furthermore, the Department agrees to
allow for flexibility in choosing the
committee. In this regard, the exemption
now requires notice to the Department
prior to any change in the committee
that receives the Audit Report.
The Department has developed this
exemption to ensure that the highest
levels of management are aware of
ongoing matters concerning Deutsche
Bank, the DB QPAMs, and compliance
with this exemption. Requiring the
provision of the Audit Report to the
Audit Committee and certification by a
senior executive officer in the reporting
line of the highest legal compliance
officer provides assurance that the
highest levels of management within
Deutsche Bank stay informed about
Deutsche Bank’s and the DB QPAMs’
compliance with the terms of this
exemption. In the Department’s view,
such officials are in the best position to
ensure that any inadequacy identified
by the auditor is appropriately
addressed and that necessary changes to
corporate policy are made if and where
necessary. Requiring certification under
penalty of perjury is consistent with the
Department’s longstanding view that
basic requirements of compliance and
integrity are fundamental to an entity’s
ability to qualify as a QPAM.
Comment 17—Availability of the Audit
Report—Section I(i)(9)
Section I(i)(9) of the proposed
exemption provides, ‘‘(9) Each DB
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QPAM provides its certified Audit
Report, by regular mail to: The
Department’s Office of Exemption
Determinations (OED), 200 Constitution
Avenue NW, Suite 400, Washington, DC
20210, or by private carrier to: 122 C
Street NW, Suite 400, Washington, DC
20001–2109, no later than 45 days
following its completion. The Audit
Report will be part of the public record
regarding this exemption. Furthermore,
each DB QPAM must make its Audit
Report unconditionally available for
examination by any duly authorized
employee or representative of the
Department, other relevant regulators,
and any fiduciary of an ERISA-covered
plan or IRA, the assets of which are
managed by such DB QPAM;’’
The Applicant states that the
availability of the Audit Report should
be limited to ERISA-covered plans and
IRAs for which the Applicant relies on
PTE 84–14. The Applicant argues that it
is overly-broad, punitive and not related
to the relief provided in the exemption
to extend this condition to plans and
IRAs for which the DB QPAMs do not
rely on PTE 84–14.
The Department does not agree that
the condition in Section I(i)(9) is
punitive. As the Applicant recognized
in its application, ERISA-covered plans,
IRAs, and counterparties routinely rely
on QPAM status before entering into
agreements with financial institutions,
even if those institutions do not believe
compliance with PTE 84–14 is strictly
necessary for any particular transaction.
Accordingly, the Department has an
interest in ensuring that the conditions
of this exemption broadly protect
ERISA-covered plans and IRAs that
have relied on QPAM status in deciding
to enter into an agreement with the
Applicant or the DB QPAMs.
Nevertheless, the Department has
revised Section I(i)(9) to clarify that the
DB QPAMs are required to make the
documents available to any fiduciary of
a Covered Plan. The Audit Report, in
any event, will be incorporated into the
public record attributable to this
exemption, under Exemption
Application Number D–11908, and,
therefore, independently accessible by
members of the public. Accordingly, the
Department has determined to revise the
condition by replacing the phrase ‘‘an
ERISA-covered plan or IRA, the assets of
which are managed by such DB QPAM’’
with the term ‘‘Covered Plan’’ (as
defined in Section II(b)). Lastly, the
Department is modifying the condition
such that access to the Audit Report
need only be upon request and such
access can be electronic, and has revised
the exemption accordingly.
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Comment 18—Engagement
Agreements—Section I(i)(10)
Section I(i)(10) of the proposed
exemption provides, ‘‘(10) Each DB
QPAM and the auditor must submit to
OED: (A) Any engagement agreement(s)
entered into pursuant to the engagement
of the auditor under this exemption;
and (B) any engagement agreement
entered into with any other entity
retained in connection with such
QPAM’s compliance with the Training
or Policies conditions of this proposed
exemption, no later than six (6) months
after the effective date of this exemption
(and one month after the execution of
any agreement thereafter).’’
The Applicant requests deletion of
clause (B) related to engagement
agreements entered into with respect to
the Training or Policies conditions.
Deutsche Bank cites the multiple
conditions in the exemption for the
qualifications of the trainer, the contents
of the Policies, and the auditor’s review
of the adequacy of the Training and
Policies, and submits that this condition
duplicates part of the auditor’s role and
is burdensome. The Applicant states
that this condition as written could
require filing of numerous consultant
and service provider engagement letters
associated with developing the Training
and Policies. The Applicant asserts that
there is no reason for the Department to
see and review, and make available to
the public, every service provider
contract that could relate to policies,
procedures or training. The Applicant
further requests that any engagement
agreements submitted to the Department
be redacted to protect confidential
business terms.
In coordination with the Department’s
modification of Section I(h)(2)(ii) to
remove the requirement that the
Training must be conducted by an
independent professional, the
Department has determined to remove
the requirement in Section I(i)(10)(B) to
provide to the Department the
engagement agreements entered into
with entities retained in connection
with compliance with the Training or
Policies conditions.
Furthermore, to remove any confusion
and uncertainty regarding the timing of
the submission of the auditor’s
engagement agreement, the Department
has modified Section I(i)(10) to require
that the auditor’s engagement agreement
be submitted to the Office of Exemption
Determinations no later than two (2)
months after the execution of any such
engagement agreement.
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Comment 19—Auditor’s Workpapers—
Section I(i)(11)
Section I(i)(11) of the proposed
exemption provides, ‘‘(11) The auditor
must provide OED, upon request, all of
the workpapers created and utilized in
the course of the audit, including, but
not limited to: the audit plan; audit
testing; identification of any instance of
noncompliance by the relevant DB
QPAM; and an explanation of any
corrective or remedial action taken by
the applicable DB QPAM.’’
The Applicant requests that this
language be limited to ensure that any
confidential or otherwise sensitive
business information is redacted prior to
any disclosure of the workpapers in a
public file. The Applicant cites the
sensitive information to which the
auditor will have access, such as client
information, marketing data, personal
information of the QPAM’s employees,
and other business details. The
Applicant states that the condition can
be limited to allow the auditor, and
OED,27 to inspect such information
without it being disclosed in the public
record. Furthermore, the Applicant
requests for all of the provisions in the
exemption that relate to the auditor to
make it clear that Applicant will not
lose the benefit of the exemption for
failures of the auditor. The Applicant
requests that the Department either not
include the workpapers as part of the
public file, or provide that ‘‘any
confidential business or personal
information of the DB QPAMs, Deutsche
Bank, and their clients (or the officers,
directors, employees or agents thereof)
reflected in the workpapers, including,
without limitation, client
communications, shall be redacted, and
provided further that nothing herein
shall be deemed to limit any authority
the Department may otherwise have to
inspect such information without
making it part of the public file.’’
The Department acknowledges that
certain information contained in the
workpapers may be confidential and
proprietary, and having that information
in a public file may create needless or
avoidable disclosure issues. The
Department has determined to modify
Section I(i)(11) to remove the
requirement that the auditor provide the
workpapers to OED, and instead require
that the auditor provide access to the
workpapers for the Department’s review
and inspection. However, given the
importance of the workpapers to the
Department’s own review and the
27 OED is the Office of Exemption Determinations
within the Employee Benefits Security
Administration agency of the United States
Department of Labor.
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Applicant’s contractual relationship
with the auditor, the Department
declines to include, as requested by the
Applicant, a statement in Section
I(i)(11) that a failure on behalf of the
auditor to meet this condition will not
violate the exemption.
months from the engagement of a
substitute or subsequent auditor, notify
the Department of a change in auditor
and of the reason(s) for the substitution
including any material disputes
between the terminated auditor and
Deutsche Bank.
Comment 20—Replacement of the
Auditor—Section I(i)(12)
Section I(i)(12) of the proposed
exemption provides, ‘‘(12) Deutsche
Bank must notify the Department at
least 30 days prior to any substitution of
an auditor, except that no such
replacement will meet the requirements
of this paragraph unless and until
Deutsche Bank demonstrates to the
Department’s satisfaction that such new
auditor is independent of Deutsche
Bank, experienced in the matters that
are the subject of the exemption and
capable of making the determinations
required of this exemption.’’
The Applicant requests that this
condition be deleted, as the exemption
requires the auditor to satisfy multiple
conditions with respect to
qualifications, and it serves no useful
purpose to require the Applicant to
demonstrate that the auditor satisfies
such additional standards before
substitution, particularly given the
timeline of the audit process. The
Applicant states that the Department
has not required its approval of the
initial choice of auditor. The Applicant
states that there is a multitude of
possible reasons that an auditor would
need to be replaced, including the
auditor being unable to complete an
audit timely.
This exemption is not unique in
requiring the Department be notified of
changes to service providers (See, e.g.,
the requirement of Schedule C of the
Form 5500 Annual Return/Report for
the Plan Administrator of certain plans
to report to the Department a
termination of the plan’s auditor and/or
enrolled actuary and to provide an
explanation of the reasons for the
termination, including a description of
any material disputes or matters of
disagreement concerning the
termination). Furthermore, requiring the
Applicant to notify the Department of
the substitution of an auditor serves to
ensure that the DB QPAMs are attentive
to the audit process and the protections
it provides; and that the Department has
the information it needs to review
compliance. However, the Department
has determined to modify Section
I(i)(12) to remove the requirement for
Deutsche Bank to demonstrate the
independence and qualifications of the
auditor, and requires instead that
Deutsche Bank, no later than two
Comment 21—Contracts with ERISACovered Plans and IRAs—Section I(j)
The prefatory language to Section I(j)
of the proposed exemption provides, ‘‘(j)
Effective as of the effective date of this
exemption, with respect to any
arrangement, agreement, or contract
between a DB QPAM and an ERISAcovered plan or IRA for which a DB
QPAM provides asset management or
other discretionary fiduciary services,
each DB QPAM agrees and warrants:’’
In its comment, Deutsche Bank
requests that this condition be limited to
ERISA-covered plans and IRAs with
respect to which the Applicant relies on
PTE 84–14 and this exemption.
Deutsche Bank states that extending this
provision to ERISA-covered plans and
IRAs for which the DB QPAMs do not
rely on it is overly broad, punitive, and
not related to asset management or the
scope of the exemptive relief.
As explained above, Plans and IRAs
routinely rely on QPAM status as a
condition of entering into transactions
with financial institutions, even with
respect to transactions that do not
require adherence to PTE 84–14. As the
Applicant represented to the
Department on December 24, 2015,
‘‘plan investors may rely on the
availability of the QPAM exemption
even for pooled funds intended to
qualify for an exception under the
Department’s plan asset regulation. The
QPAM exemption provides a broad,
effective back-stop against non-exempt
prohibited transactions in the event a
pooled fund inadvertently ceases to
meet the conditions of that exception.’’
In addition, it may not always be clear
whether the DB QPAM intends to rely
upon PTE 84–14 for any particular
transaction. Accordingly, it is critical to
ensure that protective conditions are in
place to safeguard the interests of
ERISA-covered plans and IRAs that are
acting in reliance on the availability of
this exemption, particularly those who
may not have entered into the
transaction in the first place, but for the
Department’s grant of this exemption.
The Department has a clear interest in
protecting such ERISA-covered plans
and IRAs that enter into an asset
management agreement with a Deutsche
Bank asset manager in reliance on the
manager’s qualification as a QPAM.
Moreover, when an ERISA-covered plan
or IRA terminates its relationship with
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61849
an asset manager, it may incur
significant costs and expenses as its
investments are unwound and in
connection with finding a new asset
manager. The Department has revised
this condition for consistency with its
interest in protecting ERISA-covered
plans and IRAs that rely upon QPAM
status. Therefore, the Department has
substituted the term ‘‘Covered Plan’’ for
‘‘an ERISA-covered plan or IRA for
which a DB QPAM provides asset
management or other discretionary
fiduciary services’’ to memorialize this
interest so that the condition now
applies to ERISA-covered plans and
IRAs only when the Deutsche Bank
asset manager relies on PTE 84–14 or
has expressly represented that it
qualifies as a QPAM or relies on the
QPAM class exemption in its dealings
with the ERISA-covered plan or IRA.
To the extent a DB QPAM would
prefer not to be subject to these
conditions, however, it may expressly
disclaim reliance on QPAM status or
PTE 84–14 in entering into its contract
with the ERISA-covered plan or IRA.
Comment 22—Contracts with ERISACovered Plans and IRAs—Section I(j)(1)
Section I(j)(1) of the proposed
exemption provides, ‘‘(j) Effective as of
the effective date of this exemption,
with respect to any arrangement,
agreement, or contract between a DB
QPAM and an ERISA-covered plan or
IRA for which a DB QPAM provides
asset management or other
discretionary fiduciary services, each
DB QPAM agrees and warrants:
(1) To comply with ERISA and the
Code, as applicable with respect to such
ERISA-covered plan or IRA; to refrain
from engaging in prohibited
transactions that are not otherwise
exempt (and to promptly correct any
inadvertent prohibited transactions);
and to comply with the standards of
prudence and loyalty set forth in section
404 of ERISA with respect to each such
ERISA-covered plan and IRA;’’
In its comment, Deutsche Bank
requests that Section I(j)(1) be deleted,
as it constitutes an attempt to provide a
private right of action for IRAs that
Congress did not require. The Applicant
states that the provision imposes legal
requirements on IRAs, such as duties of
prudence and loyalty, that Congress did
not require; for plans subject to ERISA,
this provision is entirely duplicative of
the private right of action in ERISA. The
Applicant states that the exemption
proposes to change the enforcement of
ERISA and the Code for all asset
management clients and to create
private rights of action above and
beyond ERISA and the Code. The
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Applicant states that this exemption did
not arise out of a violation of ERISA,
and the Department’s grant or denial of
an exemption is not aimed at punishing
institutions for criminal conduct under
laws other than ERISA, especially when
they have already been punished under
those other laws.
If this provision is not deleted, the
Applicant requests that ‘‘promptly’’ be
deleted for similar reasons as noted
earlier, and that the condition be revised
as follows: ‘‘(1) To comply with ERISA
and the Code, as applicable, with
respect to such ERISA-covered plan or
IRA, [and] to refrain from engaging in
prohibited transactions that are not
otherwise exempt (and to correct any
inadvertent prohibited transactions).’’
The Department rejects the view that
it acts outside its authority by protecting
ERISA-covered plans and IRAs that rely
on Deutsche Bank’s asset managers’
eligibility for this exemption, and
reemphasizes the seriousness of the
criminal misconduct that created the
need for this exemption. The
Department may grant an exemption
under section 408(a) of ERISA or section
4975(c)(2)(C) of the Code only to the
extent the Secretary finds, among other
things, that the exemption is protective
of the affected ERISA-covered plan(s)
and/or IRA(s) (i.e., the Covered Plans).
As noted in the exemption application,
personnel at Deutsche Bank, including
at different Deutsche Bank divisions
acting as QPAMs, engaged in serious
misconduct over an extended period of
time. This misconduct appears to have
stemmed, in part, from deficiencies in
control and oversight.
Notwithstanding the misconduct,
which resulted in violations of Section
I(g) of PTE 84–14, the Department has
determined that this exemption is
protective of Covered Plans and in the
interest of participants, beneficiaries,
and beneficial owners of such Covered
Plans. The Department made this
determination based, in significant part,
upon the protections of Section I(j) that
require DB QPAMs to make an express
commitment to Covered Plans to adhere
to the requirements of ERISA and the
Code, as applicable. As previously
indicated, the Department has
concluded that a culture of compliance,
centered on adherence to basic
standards of fair dealing as set forth in
this exemption, gives the Department a
compelling basis for making the
required statutory findings that the
exemption is in the interest of, and
protects the rights of, participants,
beneficiaries, and beneficial owners of
Covered Plans. Absent such findings,
the exemption would have been denied.
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The Department does not accept the
view that an exemption may not contain
a condition, such as an obligation to
adhere to basic fiduciary norms of
prudence and loyalty, to the extent that
it duplicates a statutory requirement.
Nothing in the ERISA or the Code
suggests that the Department is
forbidden, in exercising its discretion to
craft protective exemption conditions,
from basing its conditions on protective
conditions that Congress itself has
adopted in related contexts. Nor has the
Department created any new causes of
action through this exemption. As
before, private litigants would have only
those causes of action specifically
authorized by laws that exist
independent of this exemption.
The Department declines to delete the
term ‘‘promptly’’ for the same reasons as
noted previously. Furthermore, for the
reasons set forth above, the Department
has modified the clause ‘‘and to comply
with the standards of prudence and
loyalty set forth in section 404 of ERISA
with respect to each such ERISAcovered plan and IRA.’’ Instead, with
respect to this clause, the Department
has required an express commitment to
comply with the fiduciary standards
and prohibited transaction rules only to
the extent these provisions are
‘‘applicable’’ under ERISA and the
Code. The revised terms, together with
this exemption’s limited relief (e.g., this
exemption generally does not extend to
transactions that involve self-dealing)
should serve to promote a culture of
compliance and protect Covered Plans
and their participants, beneficiaries, and
beneficial owners.
In response to the Applicant’s
comments, the Department also notes
that nothing in ERISA or the Code
prevents the Department from
conditioning relief on express
contractual commitments to adhere to
the requirements set out herein. The DB
QPAMs remain free to disclaim reliance
on the exemption and to avoid such
express contractual commitments. To
the extent, however, that they hold
themselves out as fiduciary QPAMs,
they should be prepared to make an
express commitment to their customers
to adhere to the requirements of this
exemption. This commitment
strengthens and reinforces the
likelihood of compliance, and helps
ensure that, in the event of
noncompliance, Covered Plans are
insulated from injuries caused by
noncompliance. These protections also
ensure that Covered Plans are able to
extricate themselves from transactions
that become prohibited as a result of the
QPAMs’ misconduct, without fear of
sustaining additional losses as a result
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of the QPAMs’ actions. In this
connection, however, the Department
emphasizes that the only claims
available to the QPAMs’ Covered Plans
customers pursuant to these contractual
commitments are those separately
provided by ERISA or other state and
federal laws that are not preempted by
ERISA.
Comment 23—Indemnity and Limits on
Liability—Sections I(j)(2), (3), (6), and
(7)
Sections I(j)(2), (3), (6) and (7) of the
proposed exemption provide, ‘‘(j)
Effective as of the effective date of this
exemption, with respect to any
arrangement, agreement, or contract
between a DB QPAM and an ERISAcovered plan or IRA for which a DB
QPAM provides asset management or
other discretionary fiduciary services,
each DB QPAM agrees and warrants:
(2) Not to require (or otherwise cause)
the ERISA-covered plan or IRA to waive,
limit, or qualify the liability of the DB
QPAM for violating ERISA or the Code
or engaging in prohibited transactions;
(3) Not to require the ERISA-covered
plan or IRA (or sponsor of such ERISAcovered plan or beneficial owner of such
IRA) to indemnify the DB QPAM for
violating ERISA or engaging in
prohibited transactions, except for
violations or prohibited transactions
caused by an error, misrepresentation,
or misconduct of a plan fiduciary or
other party hired by the plan fiduciary
who is independent of Deutsche Bank;
(6) Not to include exculpatory
provisions disclaiming or otherwise
limiting liability of the DB QPAM for a
violation of such agreement’s terms,
except for liability caused by an error,
misrepresentation, or misconduct of a
plan fiduciary or other party hired by
the plan fiduciary who is independent
of Deutsche Bank and its affiliates; and
(7) To indemnify and hold harmless
the ERISA—covered plan or IRA for any
damages resulting from a violation of
applicable laws, a breach of contract, or
any claim arising out of the failure of
such DB QPAM to qualify for the
exemptive relief provided by PTE 84–14
as a result of a violation of Section I(g)
of PTE 84–14 other than the
Convictions;’’
In its comment, the Applicant
requests that the indemnity required by
Section I(j)(7) be deleted as it may
operate in a manner that is
fundamentally unfair. The Applicant
views the indemnity provision as not
being limited to clients who are harmed
through a direct, causal link to the loss
of the exemptive relief provided by PTE
84–14. According to the Applicant, the
condition appears to protect plans and
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IRAs against damages well beyond those
provided under Section 409(a) of
ERISA, for all sort of harms, including
those (i) that arise from violations and
breaches by third parties, (ii) that arise
only tenuously from the manager’s
conduct, (iii) that may be grossly
unreasonable in amount, (iv) for claims
without merit and (v) for claims in
connection with accounts that do not
rely on the relief provided by PTE 84–
14.
The Applicant requests that, if the
Department decides to retain the
provision, the Department should
expressly tie the indemnity to damages
with a proximate, causal connection to
relevant conduct of the manager. The
Applicant provides the following
revisions: ‘‘(7) To indemnify and hold
harmless the ERISA-covered plan or IRA
for any reasonable damages involving
such arrangement, agreement or contract
and resulting directly from a violation of
ERISA by such DB QPAM, or, to the
extent the DB QPAM relies on the
exemptive relief provided by PTE 84–14
and this exemption under the
arrangement, agreement or contract, the
failure of such DB QPAM to qualify for
the exemptive relief provided by PTE
84–14 and this exemption as a result of
a violation of Section I(g) of PTE 84–14
other than as a result of the Convictions.
This condition does not require
indemnification for indirect, special,
consequential or punitive damages.’’
The Applicant contends that the other
provisions enumerated above extend
beyond the scope of relief and contain
duplicative requirements, both
internally and with respect to
requirements that are already in ERISA.
The Applicant states that the broad
indemnity in subsection (7)
substantively provides all of the
protections contained in subsections (2),
(3) and (6) (i.e., if the client is to be
indemnified, it is confusing and
unnecessary to restate that protection
multiple times in multiple ways). The
Applicant further states that if Section
I(j)(7) remains, Sections I(j) (2), (3) and
(6) should be deleted. Alternatively, if
the Department decides to delete
Section I(j)(7), while retaining Sections
I(j)(3) and (6), Section I(j)(2) should be
deleted because it is subsumed within
the more detailed and qualified
condition in Section I(j)(3).
The Department has determined that
Section I(j)(3), as proposed, is
duplicative of the exemption’s
prohibition on exculpatory clauses,
described below, and has deleted
subsection (j)(3). The Department has
made certain further changes to this
condition upon consideration of the
Applicant’s comment. These changes
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include: Renumbering the condition for
clarity; replacing ‘‘applicable laws’’
with clarifying language that conforms
to the one-year exemption; replacing
‘‘any damages’’ with ‘‘actual losses
resulting directly from’’ certain acts or
omissions of the DB QPAMs; and
adding language which affirms that the
obligations under this condition do not
extend to damages caused by acts that
are beyond the control of the DB
QPAMS. However, with respect to the
indemnification clause, now
renumbered Section I(j)(2), the purpose
of this exemption is to protect Covered
Plans. Section I(j)(2) is essential to
achieving that purpose. The Department
emphasizes that this condition is not
punitive, but rather ensures that, a
Covered Plan may expect a DB QPAM
to adhere to basic fiduciary norms and
standards of fair dealing,
notwithstanding the Convictions. The
condition also ensures that Covered
Plans have the ability to disengage from
a relationship with a DB QPAM without
undue injury if Deutsche Bank violates
the terms of this exemption.
Accordingly, the Department has
revised the applicability of this
condition to more closely reflect this
interest. In particular, the condition
applies to Covered Plans. As indicated
above, if the asset manager would prefer
not to be subject to these provisions as
exemption conditions, it may expressly
disclaim reliance on QPAM status or
PTE 84–14 in entering into its contract
with an ERISA-covered plan or IRA (in
that case, however, it could not rely on
the exemption for relief).
The Department also modified former
Section I(j)(6) (now I(j)(2)) to clarify that
the prohibition on exculpatory
provisions does not extend to losses that
arise from an act or event not caused by
Deutsche Bank. Nothing in this section
alters the prohibition on exculpatory
provisions set forth in ERISA Section
410.
The Department declines to delete
former Section I(j)(2), now (j)(3), from
the final exemption. As the Applicant
points out, ERISA already precludes
ERISA fiduciaries from disclaiming
obligations under ERISA. See ERISA
section 410 (prohibiting exculpatory
clauses as void against public policy).
To the extent the exemption condition
prevents the DB QPAMs from including
contractual provisions that are void as
against public policy there is no
legitimate basis for objection. Such
exculpatory language should not be in
the governing documents in the first
place and is potentially misleading
because it suggests disclaimer of
obligations that may not be disclaimed.
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Outside the context of ERISA section
410, the provision’s requirement that
the DB QPAMs retain accountability for
adherence to the basic obligations set
forth in this exemption is justified by
the misconduct that led to the
Convictions as discussed above, and by
the need to ensure that Covered Plan
customers may readily obtain redress
and exit contracts with DB QPAMs
without harm in the event of violations.
Comment 24—Termination and
Withdrawal Restrictions—Sections
I(j)(4) and (5)
Sections I(j)(4) and (5) of the proposed
exemption provide, ‘‘(j) Effective as of
the effective date of this exemption,
with respect to any arrangement,
agreement, or contract between a DB
QPAM and an ERISA-covered plan or
IRA for which a DB QPAM provides
asset management or other
discretionary fiduciary services, each
DB QPAM agrees and warrants:
(4) Not to restrict the ability of such
ERISA-covered plan or IRA to terminate
or withdraw from its arrangement with
the DB QPAM (including any
investment in a separately managed
account or pooled fund subject to ERISA
and managed by such QPAM), with the
exception of reasonable restrictions,
appropriately disclosed in advance, that
are specifically designed to ensure
equitable treatment of all investors in a
pooled fund in the event such
withdrawal or termination may have
adverse consequences for all other
investors as a result of an actual lack of
liquidity of the underlying assets,
provided that such restrictions are
applied consistently and in like manner
to all such investors;
(5) Not to impose any fees, penalties,
or charges for such termination or
withdrawal with the exception of
reasonable fees, appropriately disclosed
in advance, that are specifically
designed to prevent generally
recognized abusive investment practices
or specifically designed to ensure
equitable treatment of all investors in a
pooled fund in the event such
withdrawal or termination may have
adverse consequences for all other
investors, provided that such fees are
applied consistently and in like manner
to all such investors;’’
In its comment, the Applicant
requests that Sections I(j)(4) and (5) be
deleted entirely. The Applicant states
that lockup provisions in facilitating the
investment strategies are used to protect
all investors in a pooled fund and
applied evenhandedly to all investors.
However, the Applicant states, the
conditions would provide ERISAcovered plan and IRA clients investing
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in the fund with an advantage, to the
detriment of public plans and other
investors. The Applicant states that the
conditions are unnecessary. If the
Department declines to delete the
provisions, the Applicant requests that
they be revised to allow restrictions
related to liquidity issues as well as
those related to ensuring compliance
with regulatory requirements,
addressing valuation issues, and
permitting the fund to pursue the
investors’ chosen investment strategy.
Specifically, with respect to subsection
(j)(4), the Applicant requests that the
language ‘‘as a result of an actual lack
of liquidity of the underlying assets’’ be
stricken from the condition.
Furthermore, with respect to subsection
(j)(5), the Applicant requests that
‘‘prevent generally recognized abusive
investment practices or specifically
designed to’’ be removed.
The Department declines to delete
Sections I(j)(4) and (5) from this
exemption. The Department has revised
subsection (j)(4) to further clarify the
Department’s intent, but refuses to
remove the concept entirely. Therefore,
the Department has replaced ‘‘as a result
of an actual lack of liquidity of the
underlying assets, provided that such
restrictions are applied consistently and
in like manner to all such investors’’
with ‘‘In connection with any such
arrangements involving investments in
pooled funds subject to ERISA entered
into after the effective date of this
exemption, the adverse consequences
must relate to of a lack of liquidity of
the underlying assets, valuation issues,
or regulatory reasons that prevent the
fund from promptly redeeming an
ERISA-covered plan’s or IRA’s
investment, and such restrictions must
be applicable to all such investors and
effective no longer than reasonably
necessary to avoid the adverse
consequences.’’ Finally, the Department
declines to make the Applicant’s
requested change to subsection I(j)(5).
Comment 25—Updated Investment
Management Agreement—Section I(j)(8)
Section I(j)(8) of the proposed
exemption provides, ‘‘(8) Within four (4)
months of the effective date of this
proposed exemption, each DB QPAM
must provide a notice of its obligations
under this Section I(j) to each ERISAcovered plan and IRA for which the DB
QPAM provides asset management or
other discretionary fiduciary services.
For all other prospective ERISA-covered
plan and IRA clients for which a DB
QPAM provides asset management or
other discretionary fiduciary services,
the DB QPAM must agree in writing to
its obligations under this Section I(j) in
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18:59 Dec 28, 2017
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an updated investment management
agreement or advisory agreement
between the DB QPAM and such clients
or other written contractual agreement.’’
The Applicant states that the
provision is overly broad because it is
not limited to ERISA-covered plans and
IRAs for which DB QPAMs rely on PTE
84–14 and this exemption. The
Applicant requests that this provision
be limited to such ERISA-covered plan
and IRA clients. The Applicant states
that the four-month notice period is too
short, and requests the Department
extend the notice period to at least six
months.
The Applicant also requests that the
Department provide a carve-out such
that the Applicant does not need to
provide any notices under this
provision to existing clients to which it
provided notice under Section I(j) of
PTE 2016–13, assuming that the notice
required in the current provision here is
substantially similar to that required
under PTE 2016–13. To this end, the
Applicant requests the following
language be added to this condition:
‘‘(For avoidance of doubt, notices
provided to existing clients under
Section I(j) of PTE 2016–13 will be
deemed to satisfy this requirement).’’
Furthermore, the Applicant states that
a bilateral management agreement
containing the obligations under Section
I(j) should not be mandated. The
Applicant states that the DB QPAM
would be in violation of this condition
if a client refuses to sign the updated
agreement. The Applicant asserts that
its compliance with the exemption
should not depend on action by its
clients. Accordingly, the Applicant
requests that this requirement be
eliminated, and that this condition
instead require the DB QPAMS to
‘‘provide a written notice of its
obligations under this Section I(j)’’ to its
prospective ERISA-covered plan and
IRA clients.
The Department has modified Section
I(j)(8), now renumbered as Section
I(j)(7), for better coordination with PTE
2016–13. As modified, the exemption’s
text now provides that a notice that
satisfies Section I(i)(2) of PTE 2016–13
will satisfy renumbered Section I(j)(7) of
this exemption, unless the notice
contains any language that limits, or is
inconsistent with, the scope of this
exemption. Additionally, the time
period for providing the notice is now
six months, although the Department
has specified the exact six-month
deadline for such notice, which is
October 17, 2018.
As noted above, the Department has
an interest in protecting an ERISAcovered plan or IRA that enters into an
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asset management agreement with a
Deutsche Bank asset manager in reliance
on the manager’s qualification as a
QPAM, regardless of whether the QPAM
relies on the class exemption when
managing the ERISA-covered plan’s or
IRA’s assets. The Department has
revised the applicability of this
condition to more closely reflect this
interest, and the condition now applies
to ERISA-covered plans and IRAs for
which a DB QPAM expressly represents
that the manager qualifies as a QPAM or
relies on the QPAM class exemption.
The condition does not apply to an
ERISA-covered plan or IRA with respect
to which the Deutsche Bank asset
manager has expressly disclaimed
reliance on QPAM status or PTE 84–14
in entering into its contract with the
ERISA-covered plan or IRA. The
Department has also modified the
condition such that a DB QPAM will not
violate the condition solely because a
Covered Plan refuses to sign an updated
investment management agreement.
Comment 26—Notice to Plan Clients—
Section I(k)(1)
Section I(k)(1) of the proposed
exemption provides that, ‘‘(k)(1) Notice
to ERISA-covered plan and IRA clients.
Within fifteen (15) days of the
publication of this proposed exemption
in the Federal Register, each DB
QPAM will provide a notice of the
proposed exemption, along with a
separate summary describing the facts
that led to the Convictions (the
Summary), which have been submitted
to the Department, and a prominently
displayed statement (the Statement)
that each Conviction separately results
in a failure to meet a condition in PTE
84–14, to each sponsor of an ERISAcovered plan and each beneficial owner
of an IRA for which a DB QPAM
provides asset management or other
discretionary fiduciary services, or the
sponsor of an investment fund in any
case where a DB QPAM acts only as a
sub-advisor to the investment fund in
which such ERISA-covered plan and
IRA invests. In the event that this
proposed exemption is granted, the
Federal Register copy of the notice of
final exemption must be delivered to
such clients within sixty (60) days of its
publication in the Federal Register,
and may be delivered electronically
(including by an email that has a link
to the exemption). Any prospective
clients for which a DB QPAM provides
asset management or other
discretionary fiduciary services must
receive the proposed and final
exemptions with the Summary and the
Statement prior to, or
contemporaneously with, the client’s
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receipt of a written asset management
agreement from the DB QPAM.’’
In its comment, the Applicant
contends that this condition should be
limited to ERISA-covered plans and
IRAs with respect to which the
Applicant relies on PTE 84–14 and this
exemption, as not applying such a
limitation is overly broad, punitive, and
not related to the use of this exemption.
Furthermore, the Applicant states it
should not be required to provide to
clients a separate summary of facts in
addition to the notice of the proposed
exemption, which contains the facts and
representations set forth in the preamble
and ‘‘is a far more fulsome and complete
explanation.’’ The Applicant requests
that the condition make clear that the
condition may be satisfied through other
documentation, such as a subscription
agreement. The Applicant further
requests flexibility with respect to the
fifteen-day time-period for providing the
notice, suggesting the following
language be added: ‘‘or such longer
period as agreed to with the
Department.’’ The Applicant also
requests that ‘‘the client’s receipt of a
written asset management agreement’’
be replaced with ‘‘the client’s signing of
a written asset management agreement
(or other written documentation).’’
The Department notes that the
proposed exemption provides details of
the facts and circumstances underlying
the conviction not found in the
Summary or the final grant. One of the
purposes of such a complete disclosure
is to ensure that all interested parties are
aware of and attentive to the complete
facts and circumstances surrounding
Deutsche Bank’s application for
exemption. In this regard, these parties
include clients that receive an asset
management agreement, which is why
the Department is not revising the
provision in the manner requested.
Requiring the disclosure of the
Summary, proposal, and this final grant
provides the opportunity for all parties
to have knowledge of these facts and
circumstances. Notwithstanding this,
the Department has modified the
condition to clarify that disclosures may
be provided electronically. Further, the
Department is narrowing the notice
requirement to each ‘‘sponsor and
beneficial owner of a Covered Plan.’’
Notice does not need to be given to a
client with respect to whom a DB
QPAM has expressly disclaimed
reliance on QPAM status or reliance on
PTE 84–14.
With respect to the Applicant’s
requested change regarding the
timeframe, the Department believes that
requiring that delivery be completed in
60 days following the publication of this
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61853
audit, unfair and punitive. The
Applicant states that no conduct by the
DB QPAMs merits a separate Annual
Review dedicated to ERISA. The
Applicant asserts that the provision
assumes facts unsupported by the
record, namely: (1) That DB QPAMs will
not comply with ERISA or the Code and
applicable exemptions; (2) that their
Comment 27—Notice to Non-Plan
existing compliance structure, even
Clients—Section I(k)(2)
when enhanced by the conditions of
Section I(k)(2) of the proposed
this exemption and earlier ones, are
exemption provides, ‘‘[e]ach DB QPAM
insufficient; and (3) that the auditor is
will provide a Federal Register copy
either incapable of adequately testing
of the proposed exemption, a Federal
the DB QPAMs’ compliance with
Register copy of the final exemption;
ERISA, the Code and applicable
the Summary; and the Statement to
exemptions or the auditor cannot be
each: (A) Current Non-Plan Client
trusted to conduct this testing. The
within four (4) months of the effective
Applicant states that this provision also
date, if any, of a final exemption; and
appears in none of the earlier individual
(B) Future Non-Plan Client prior to, or
exemptions that allowed applicants to
contemporaneously with, the client’s
rely on PTE 84–14 notwithstanding a
receipt of a written asset management
criminal conviction violating Section
agreement, or other written contractual
I(g) of PTE 84–14. The Applicant asserts
agreement, from the DB QPAM. For
that the inclusion of this condition
purposes of this subparagraph (2), a
treats the Applicant unfairly and is
Current Non-Plan Client means a client
inconsistent with the Administrative
of a DB QPAM that: Is neither an ERISA- Procedure Act and Section 408(a) of
covered plan nor an IRA; has assets
ERISA and Section 4975 of the Code.
managed by the DB QPAM as of the
Deutsche Bank states that, if the
effective date, if any, of a final
Department declines to delete Section
exemption; and has received a written
I(m), the provision should be modified
representation (qualified or otherwise)
so as to not interfere with the auditor,
from the DB QPAM that such DB QPAM reduce the time that auditor has to
qualifies as a QPAM or qualifies for the
complete its work or impose on the DB
relief provided by PTE 84–14. For
QPAMs duplicative or irrelevant and,
purposes of this subparagraph (2), a
therefore, unnecessary conditions.
Furthermore, the Applicant states that
Future Non-Plan Client means a
Department should not require the
prospective client of a DB QPAM that:
Is neither an ERISA-covered plan nor an Compliance Officer to complete
substantially similar work that it
IRA; has assets managed by the DB
expects of the auditor in a substantially
QPAM after the effective date, if any, of
shorter timeframe. The Applicant states
a final exemption; and has received a
that the Compliance Officer should
written representation (qualified or
otherwise) from the DB QPAM that such report to an officer with familiarity with
asset management, not some unrelated
DB QPAM qualifies as a QPAM or
business. The Applicant asserts that the
qualifies for the relief provided by PTE
Annual Review should be concerned
84–14.’’
only with the subject matter of this
The Applicant requested that Section
exemption, such as material compliance
I(k)(2) be deleted in its entirety. Given
with ERISA and the Code, and not gauge
the breadth of the notice requirement
the adequacy of the resources provided
otherwise mandated by the exemption,
to the Compliance Officer.
and its decision to restrict the
The Department discusses the
requirement to those arrangements for
Applicant’s overarching concerns with
which QPAM status plays an integral
Section I(m) in response to the
role (i.e., the DB QPAM represents or
individual changes to specific
relies upon its QPAM status), the
provisions below.
Department has determined to delete
Section I(m)(1)(ii) of the proposed
this provision.
exemption states, in relevant part, ‘‘(1)
Comment 28—Compliance Officer—
Deutsche Bank designates a senior
Section I(m)
compliance officer (the Compliance
Officer) who will be responsible for
Section I(m) of the proposed
compliance with the Policies and
exemption outlines the requirements
Training requirements described herein.
associated with appointment of a
The Compliance Officer must conduct
Compliance Officer and an
an annual review (the Annual Review)
accompanying Annual Review.
In its comment, Deutsche Bank argues to determine the adequacy and
effectiveness of the implementation of
that Section I(m) is duplicative of the
exemption in the Federal Register
provides sufficient time for the
Applicant to prepare the Summary and
effect delivery. The Department has
moved this 60-day requirement to the
beginning of Section I(k) by specifying
a specific date upon which notice
should be completed, June 17, 2018.
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the Policies and Training. With respect
to the Compliance Officer, the following
conditions must be met:
(ii) The Compliance Officer must have
a direct reporting line to the highestranking corporate officer in charge of
legal compliance that is independent of
Deutsche Bank’s other business lines;’’
With respect to subsection I(m)(1)(ii),
the Applicant requests that ‘‘of legal
compliance that is independent of
Deutsche Bank’s other business lines’’
be replaced with ‘‘of compliance for
asset management.’’ The Department
has made changes in line with the
Applicant’s request, but has not
removed the word ‘‘legal.’’
Section I(m)(2) of the proposed
exemption states, ‘‘(2) With respect to
each Annual Review, the following
conditions must be met:
(i) The Annual Review includes a
review of: Any compliance matter
related to the Policies or Training that
was identified by, or reported to, the
Compliance Officer or others within the
compliance and risk control function (or
its equivalent) during the previous year;
any material change in the business
activities of the DB QPAMs; and any
change to ERISA, the Code, or
regulations related to fiduciary duties
and the prohibited transaction
provisions that may be applicable to the
activities of the DB QPAMs;’’
With respect to this section, the
Applicant requests: substituting ‘‘Any
material compliance matter’’ for ‘‘Any
compliance matter’’; deletion of ‘‘or
others within the compliance and risk
control function (or its equivalent);’’ and
clarification that the Annual Review
encompass ‘‘any material change in the
business activities of the DB QPAMs
that may impact their compliance with
ERISA or Section 4975 of the Code.’’
The Department declines to add the
word ‘‘material’’ due to the focused
scope of the Annual Review on the
Policies and Training required under
this exemption. The Department also
declines to delete the phrase ‘‘or others
within the compliance and risk control
function (or its equivalent)’’ because it
is important that all relevant
compliance matters be properly
accounted for, not simply those that
make their way to the Compliance
Officer. The Department has added the
word ‘‘relevant’’ to clarify that any
changes to the QPAM’s business
activities should be relevant to the
scope and coverage of this exemption.
Section I(m)(2)(ii) of the proposed
exemption states, ‘‘The Compliance
Officer prepares a written report for
each Annual Review (each, an Annual
Report) that (A) summarizes his or her
material activities during the preceding
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18:59 Dec 28, 2017
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year; (B) sets forth any instance of
noncompliance discovered during the
preceding year, and any related
corrective action; (C) details any change
to the Policies or Training to guard
against any similar instance of
noncompliance occurring again; and (D)
makes recommendations, as necessary,
for additional training, procedures,
monitoring, or additional and/or
changed processes or systems, and
management’s actions on such
recommendations;’’
With respect to this section, the
Applicant suggests that the Annual
Report ‘‘(A) summarizes his or her
material activities in connection with
any compliance matter related to the
Policies or Training during the
preceding year; (B) sets forth any
material instance of noncompliance
related to the Policies or Training
discovered during the preceding year,
and any related corrective action; (C)
details any material change to the
Policies or Training to guard against any
similar instance of noncompliance
occurring again; and (D) makes
recommendations, as necessary, for
additional training, procedures,
monitoring, or additional and/or
changed processes or systems relating to
the Policies or Training, and
management’s actions on such
recommendations.’’
The Department declines to make
these changes because Section (m)(1)
properly sets out the scope of the
Annual Review in that it is meant ‘‘to
determine the adequacy and
effectiveness of the implementation of
the Policies and Training.’’ Any
additional requirements outlined with
respect to the Annual Review should be
handled accordingly.
Section I(m)(2)(iii) of the proposed
exemption states, ‘‘In each Annual
Report, the Compliance Officer must
certify in writing that to his or her
knowledge: (A) The report is accurate;
(B) the Policies and Training are
working in a manner which is
reasonably designed to ensure that the
Policies and Training requirements
described herein are met; (C) any known
instance of noncompliance during the
preceding year and any related
correction taken to date have been
identified in the Annual Report; (D) the
DB QPAMs have complied with the
Policies and Training in all respects,
and/or corrected any instances of
noncompliance in accordance with
Section I(h) above; and (E) Deutsche
Bank has provided the Compliance
Officer with adequate resources,
including, but not limited to, adequate
staffing;
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With respect to this section, the
Applicant requests that ‘‘certify in
writing’’ be replaced with ‘‘state,’’ that
‘‘any known instances of
noncompliance’’ be ‘‘related to the
Policies or Training,’’ and that the
review of whether ‘‘Deutsche Bank has
provided the Compliance Officer with
adequate resources, including, but not
limited to, adequate staffing’’ be deleted.
The Department has deleted
paragraph (E) regarding staffing and
resources, as requested by the
Applicant, but has not made the other
requested changes because these
provisions are properly limited in scope
to the Policies and Training as outlined
in Section I(m)(1).
Section I(m)(2)(v) of the proposed
exemption states, ‘‘Each Annual Review,
including the Compliance Officer’s
written Annual Report, must be
completed at least three (3) months in
advance of the date on which each audit
described in Section I(i) is scheduled to
be completed;’’
With respect to this section, the
Applicant requests that the Annual
Review, including the Annual Report,
be completed ‘‘at least one (1) month in
advance of the date on which each audit
described in Section I(i) is scheduled to
be completed.’’
The Department has modified this
section slightly so that it is no longer
tied to completion of the audit, but
rather the end of the period to which the
Annual Report and Annual Review
relates.
Comment 29—Deferred Prosecution
Agreement/Non-Prosecution
Agreement—Section I(p)
Section I(p) of the proposed
exemption provides, ‘‘(p)(1) During the
effective period of this exemption,
Deutsche Bank immediately discloses to
the Department any Deferred
Prosecution Agreement (a DPA) or NonProsecution Agreement (an NPA)
entered into by Deutsche Bank or any of
its affiliates with the U.S Department of
Justice, in connection with conduct
described in Section I(g) of PTE 84–14
or section 411 of ERISA; and (2)
Immediately provides the Department
any information requested by the
Department, as permitted by law,
regarding such agreement and/or
conduct and allegations that led to the
agreement. After review of the
information, the Department may
require Deutsche Bank or its affiliates,
as specified by the Department, to
submit a new application for the
continued availability of relief as a
condition of continuing to rely on this
exemption. If the Department denies the
relief requested in the new application,
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or does not grant such relief within
twelve (12) months of the application,
the relief described herein is revoked as
of the date of denial or as of the
expiration of the twelve month period,
whichever date is earlier;’’
In its comment, the Applicant
requests that the Department delete
Section I(p). The Applicant asserts that
the condition does not meet the
requirements of either the
Administrative Procedure Act or the
Department’s own regulations,
specifically with regards to withdrawal
or revocation of an exemption. The
Applicant also takes issue with the
substance of the Department’s proposed
informal termination. Specifically,
according to the Applicant, its inclusion
in the exemption raises the risk of an
immediate loss of exemptive relief and
related uncertainty in connection with
thousands of transactions and
investments with respect to its plan
asset clients.
Deutsche Bank also contends that the
timing of NPAs and DPAs is uncertain,
as the activities under investigation also
may be remote, historical, or unrelated
to DB QPAMs’ activities. The Applicant
notes that the condition does not build
in any notice to plan fiduciaries,
counterparties, or other parties in
interest that rely on QPAM, and as such
is not administrable or protective of
plans.
The Applicant asserts that Section I(p)
is inconsistent with the anti-criminal
rules of Section I(g) of PTE 84–14 and
Section 411 of ERISA as neither NPAs
nor DPAs rise to the level of
convictions. Moreover, this condition
establishes a precedent to be inserted
into every one of these matters—
regardless of how attenuated the
conduct is from plans and participants,
and even if it is clearly in the interest
of plans and participants to keep the
individual QPAM exemption in place,
and not to have uncertainty around this
outcome.
The Applicant suggests revisions if
the Department declines to delete the
condition. Specifically, the Applicant
seeks to clarify that the Applicant will
‘‘[provide] the Department any nonprivileged information requested by the
Department, as permitted by law,
regarding such agreement and/or
conduct and allegations that led to the
agreement.’’ Furthermore, the Applicant
seeks deletion of the following: ‘‘After
review of the information, the
Department may require Deutsche Bank
or its affiliates, as specified by the
Department, to submit a new
application for the continued
availability of relief as a condition of
continuing to rely on this exemption. If
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the Department denies the relief
requested in the new application, or
does not grant such relief within twelve
(12) months of the application, the relief
described herein is revoked as of the
date of denial or as of the expiration of
the twelve month period, whichever
date is earlier.’’
The Department in no way intended
the condition to be read as providing for
an automatic revocation of this
exemption and, in light of the
Applicant’s comments, has revised the
condition accordingly. As revised, the
condition simply requires that the
Applicant notify the Department if and
when it or any of its affiliates enter into
a DPA or NPA with the U.S. Department
of Justice for conduct described in
section I(g) of PTE 84–14 or ERISA
section 411 and immediately provide
the Department with any information
requested by the Department, as
permitted by law, regarding the
agreement and/or conduct and
allegations that led to the agreement.
The Department retains the right to
propose a withdrawal of the exemption
pursuant to its procedures contained at
29 CFR 2570.50, should the
circumstances warrant such action.
Regarding the Applicant’s comment
that the timing and factual basis of the
NPA or DPA could be far removed or
distant in time or place from current
plan management operations, the
Department notes that entering into a
DPA or NPA may reflect conduct that
could have sustained a criminal
conviction, and such conduct would be
relevant to the Department’s
determination whether to allow an
entity to continue to rely on this
exemption or to grant a subsequent
exemption when this exemption
expires. Such agreements are not
entered into lightly and can stem from
misconduct that reflects directly on the
parties’ willingness and ability to
adhere to the standards set forth herein.
Similarly, such agreement can have a
direct bearing on the efficacy of the
affected institution’s policies and
procedures in preventing misconduct,
such as the policies and procedures
mandated by this exemption.
The Department declines to specify
that the DB QPAMs need only provide
‘‘non-privileged information’’ upon
request by the Department. As stated
above, the Department will evaluate the
conduct underlying the new DPA or
NPA and will review all relevant
information.
Comment 30—Right to Copies of
Policies and Procedures—Section I(q)
Section I(q) of the proposed
exemption provides, ‘‘(q) Each DB
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QPAM, in its agreements with ERISAcovered plan and IRA clients, or in other
written disclosures provided to ERISAcovered plan and IRA clients, within 60
days prior to the initial transaction
upon which relief hereunder is relied,
and then at least once annually, will
clearly and prominently inform the
ERISA-covered plan and IRA client that
the client has the right to obtain copies
of the QPAM’s written Policies adopted
in accordance with this exemption.’’
In its comment, the Applicant states
that there are difficulties in informing
ERISA-covered plan and IRA clients
within sixty (60) days prior to the
period the exemption is relied on
because the Applicant intends to rely on
the exemptive relief provided hereunder
as soon as possible to ensure efficient
trading on behalf of ERISA plan and IRA
clients. The Applicant requests that the
initial informing of clients be ‘‘prior to
or concurrently with the initial
transaction upon which relief hereunder
is relied.’’ The Applicant also states that
the annual notification requirements
represent another duplicative and
overlapping notice requirement to
clients, which are burdensome and
potentially confusing to clients, and
requests that the annual notification
requirement be deleted. The Applicant
argues that providing the client with the
exemption notice, which in turn
informs the client that it can request and
receive the policies and procedures
upon request should obviate the need
for additional mailings.
Affording ERISA-covered plan and
IRA clients a means by which to review
and understand the Policies
implemented in connection with this
exemption is a vital protection that is
fundamental to this exemption’s
purpose. However, the Department has
modified the condition so that the
QPAMs, at their election, may instead
provide Covered Plans disclosure that
accurately describes or summarizes key
components of the Policies, rather than
the policies in their entirety. The
Department has also determined that
such disclosure may be continuously
maintained on a website, provided that
the website link to the summary of the
written Policies is clearly and
prominently disclosed to those ERISAcovered plan and IRA clients to whom
this section applies. The Department
also agrees with the Applicant that the
timing requirement for disclosure
should be revised and, accordingly, has
modified Section I(q) to require notice
regarding the information on the
website within 6 months of the effective
date of this exemption (by October 17,
2018), and thereafter to the extent
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Comments 32 and 38—Definition of DB
QPAM—Section II(b)
Comment 31—Definition of
Convictions—Section II(a)
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certain material changes are made to the
Policies.
Section II(b) of the proposed
exemption provides, ‘‘(a) The term ‘DB
QPAM’ means a ‘qualified professional
asset manager’ (as defined in Section
VI(a) of PTE 84–14) that relies on the
relief provided by PTE 84–14 and with
respect to which DSK or DK Group
Services is a current or future ‘affiliate’
(as defined in Section VI(d) of PTE 84–
14). For purposes of this exemption,
Deutsche Bank Securities, Inc. (DBSI),
including all entities over which it
exercises control; and Deutsche Bank
AG, including all of its branches, are
excluded from the definition of a DB
QPAM’’ (footnote omitted).
In its comment, the Applicant
requests that the reference to Section
VI(d) of PTE 84–14 be specified as
Section VI(d)(1) because Deutsche Bank
is seeking relief only for control
‘‘affiliates’’ as defined in Section
VI(d)(1). The Department agrees this is
the intended scope of relief and has
revised the definition accordingly.
The Applicant requests that Deutsche
Bank Services Inc. (DBSI) be permitted
to act as a QPAM. However, as noted in
the proposal to this exemption,
Deutsche Bank had previously advised
the Department that ‘‘[t]he DB QPAMs
(including their officers, directors,
agents other than Deutsche Bank, and
employees of such DB QPAMs) did not
know of, have reason to know of, or
participate in the criminal conduct of
DSK that is the subject of the
Conviction.’’ Then, in a letter to the
Department dated July 15, 2016,
Deutsche Bank raised the possibility
that an individual (John Ripley), while
employed at DBSI, may have known or
had reason to know of the criminal
conduct of DSK that is the subject of the
Korean Conviction. Similarly, the
Applicant further noted that, with
respect to the LIBOR-related
misconduct, ‘‘certain sell side
employees of DBSI, the dual registrant,
may have known about the conduct that
is the subject of the plea agreement.’’
For nearly nine months, following the
publication of PTE 2015–15, the
Applicant failed to raise with the
Department the ‘‘interpretive’’ issue
regarding whether an individual or
individuals employed at DBSI may have
known or had reason to know of the
criminal conduct at DSK,
notwithstanding the previous
representation, and whether DBSI was
still eligible to act as a QPAM.
Consequently, the Department is not
persuaded that DBSI should be
permitted to act as a QPAM.
Section II(a) of the proposed
exemption provides, ‘‘(a) The term
‘Convictions’ means (1) the judgment of
conviction against DB Group Services,
in Case 3:15–cr–00062–RNC to be
entered in the United States District
Court for the District of Connecticut to
a single count of wire fraud, in violation
of 18 U.S.C. 1343, and (2) the judgment
of conviction against DSK entered on
January 25, 2016, in Seoul Central
District Court, relating to charges filed
against DSK under Articles 176, 443,
and 448 of South Korea’s Financial
Investment Services and Capital
Markets Act for spot/futures-linked
market price manipulation. For all
purposes under this exemption,
‘conduct’ of any person or entity that is
the ‘subject of [a] Conviction’
encompasses any conduct of Deutsche
Bank and/or their personnel, that is
described in the Plea Agreement
(including the Factual Statement
thereto), Court judgments (including the
judgment of the Seoul Central District
Court), criminal complaint documents
from the Financial Services Commission
in Korea, and other official regulatory or
judicial factual findings that are a part
of this record,’’
In its comment, the Applicant states
that this definition inaccurately
paraphrases the Plea Agreement and
Seoul Central District Court decision
and significantly expands the conduct
with respect to both the Conviction and
the Korean Conviction. The Applicant
requests that the language ‘‘any conduct
of Deutsche Bank and/or their
personnel, that is described in the Plea
Agreement (including the Factual
Statement thereto), Court judgments
(including the judgment of the Seoul
Central District Court), criminal
complaint documents from the
Financial Services Commission in
Korea, and other official regulatory or
judicial factual findings that are part of
this record’’ be replaced with ‘‘the
factual allegations described in
Paragraph 13 of the Plea Agreement
filed in the District Court in Case
Number 3:15-cr-00062–RNC, and in the
’Criminal Acts’ section pertaining to
’Defendant DSK’ in the Decision of the
Seoul Central District Court.’’
After considering this comment, the
Department has revised the definition to
be consistent with the definition of
‘‘Convictions’’ in the temporary
exemption.
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The Applicant also suggests that,
while the Definition of QPAM could be
revised to preclude relief for DSK and
DB Group Services, Deutsche Bank AG
should be permitted to act as a QPAM,
stating that Deutsche Bank AG and its
branches were not convicted of a crime,
and excluding those entities is unfair
given the scope of relief provided to
other banks subject to a disqualifying
conviction. The Applicant, however,
has not demonstrated that the
exemption’s existing conditions would
adequately protect affected ERISAcovered plans and IRAs to the extent
Deutsche Bank AG is permitted to act as
a QPAM. Accordingly, the Department
has not revised the exemption as
requested.
Comments 33, 35–37, 40—Summary of
Facts and Representations
The Applicant seeks certain factual
updates and clarifications and
statements regarding the Summary of
Facts and Representations. The
Department notes that the factual
updates and clarifications may be found
as part of the public record for
Application No. D–11908, in its
comment letter to the Department, dated
January 17, 2017.
Comment 34—DBSI
The preamble to the proposed
exemption states: ‘‘In a letter to the
Department dated July 15, 2016,
Deutsche Bank raised the possibility
that an individual [John Ripley], while
employed at DBSI, may have known or
had reason to know of the criminal
conduct of DSK that is the subject of the
Korean Conviction.’’ (footnote omitted).
The preamble also states that DB did not
raise any ‘‘interpretive questions
regarding Section I(a) of PTE 2015–15,
or express any concerns regarding
DBSI’s possible noncompliance, during
the comment period for PTE 2015–15,’’
and that ‘‘a period of approximately
nine months passed before Deutsche
Bank raised an interpretive question
regarding Section I(a) of PTE 2015–15.’’
In its comment letter, the Applicant
contests the suggestion of the statements
above that Deutsche Bank had failed to
previously disclose Mr. Ripley’s
knowledge of the conduct and his
employment with DBSI to the
Department. The Applicant asserts that
it identified Mr. Ripley both as an
employee of DBSI and a subject of the
Korean case on numerous prior
occasions, as far back as 2011. The
Department referenced these disclosures
by identifying Mr. Ripley, his
employment at DBSI, and his
involvement in the case in the proposed
exemption on behalf of Deutsche Bank
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AG related to exemption application no.
D–11696, at 80 FR 51314 (August 24,
2015) (the DSK Proposal). The
Applicant contends that it did not raise
any interpretative question on Section
I(a) of PTE 2015–15 earlier because
Deutsche Bank assumed that the
Department would not impose an
exemption condition that the
Department knew Deutsche Bank could
not meet.
The Department acknowledges the
disclosures by the Applicant regarding
Mr. Ripley, his employment at DBSI,
and his alleged role in the conduct
underlying the Korean Conviction.
However, the Department emphasizes
that, despite the references to Mr. Ripley
in the DSK Proposal and the proposed
condition I(a) that the ‘‘[t]he DB QPAMs
(including their officers, directors,
agents other than Deutsche Bank, and
employees of such DB QPAMs) did not
know of, have reason to know of, or
participate in the criminal conduct of
DSK that is the subject of the
Conviction,’’ the Applicant did not
submit a comment highlighting this
concern. The Department notes that,
pursuant to the DSK Proposal, the
Applicant had seven (7) days to submit
a comment. It did not do so.
Furthermore, following the grant of PTE
2015–15, if the Applicant believed that
the Department had included ‘‘an
exemption condition that . . .
[Deutsche Bank] could not meet,’’ the
Applicant could have asked the
Department for clarification at any time.
The Department further notes that, at
the time of the grant of PTE 2015–15,
the Department was processing
Exemption Application no. D–11956,
and was in regular contact with the
Applicant regarding that submission. In
fact, a tentative denial conference was
held on November 9, 2015, between
representatives of the Department and
the Applicant, pursuant to a tentative
denial letter dated July 16, 2015. In
addition to the tentative denial
conference, the Applicant submitted
substantial information in support of the
application, and to address the
Department’s concerns raised both in
the letter and at the November 9, 2015,
conference. However, the Applicant did
not raise this potential concern for
approximately nine months and
elaborated in the July 15, 2016 letter
referenced in the summary of facts and
representations in the proposed
exemption.
In the July 15, 2016, letter, the
Applicant further noted that, with
respect to the LIBOR-related
misconduct, ‘‘certain sell side
employees of DBSI, the dual registrant,
may have known about the conduct that
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is the subject of the plea agreement.’’ In
a follow-up submission to the
Department dated August 19, 2016, the
Applicant represented that ‘‘[to] the best
of the Applicant’s knowledge, no person
employed by DBSI was determined to be
responsible for the LIBOR misconduct,
although one person who worked for the
Bank may have been dual hatted to
DBSI prior to 2008.’’
Comments 39, 41, 42—Technical
Corrections in the Operative Language
In Section II(i) of the exemption,
formerly Section II(g) in the proposed
exemption, the Department has replaced
the term ‘‘Factual Statement’’ with
‘‘Agreed Statement of Facts.’’ The
Department has also replaced the term
‘‘action’’ with ‘‘charge.’’ Finally, the
Department has deleted the phrase
‘‘related to the manipulation of the
London Interbank Offered Rate
(LIBOR).’’ The Department notes that
the modified Section II(i) in the
exemption is consistent with Section
II(g) in the temporary exemption.
The Department has modified both
the prefatory language of Section I and
Section II(e) of the exemption to reflect
the fact that the full name of DB Group
Services is ‘‘DB Group Services (UK)
Limited.’’
The Department has further modified
the prefatory language of Section I to
reflect the correct date of the Korean
Conviction as January 25, 2016.
The Department also notes that the
defined terms in Section II have been
reordered in their entirety so that they
now appear in alphabetical order.
Comment 43—Term of the Exemption
In its comment, the Applicant
requests that the Department extend the
term of the exemption to the remaining
9 years. The Applicant states that the
conduct underlying the Convictions was
isolated and limited to business not
related to Deutsche Bank’s asset
management business, which is separate
from the business of both DB Group
Services and DSK. The Applicant
further states that the Department
historically has granted ten-year
exemptions for cases involving serious
criminal conduct and the present
exemption should be disposed of in a
like manner. The Applicant notes that
the differences in the standards seem
‘‘arbitrary, and unrelated to the
conduct,’’ as ‘‘the Department has
departed from its historic practice of
granting exemptions for similar
circumstances with similar conditions.’’
The Applicant states that the
Department has not provided an
explanation for the conditions new to
this exemption ‘‘other than its belief
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61857
that crimes are serious.’’ The Applicant
states that ‘‘the exemption is not a
proper place to further punish
Applicant and it should not be treated
more harshly than prior applicants.’’
Rather, the Applicant represents that it
has entered into agreements with
prosecutors and regulators and paid
fines to address the subject misconduct.
The Applicant asserts that ‘‘[tbhe
exemption process is not an appropriate
place to re-examine those resolutions.’’
The Applicant further states: ‘‘ERISA
was not violated here, and the asset
management and wealth management
businesses were not implicated in the
criminal proceedings. It is thus
unfortunate that the Department has
chosen to impose conditions that
suggest that the DB affiliated asset
managers have violated some provision
of ERISA that requires punitive
conditions moving forward. There is
simply no reason that Applicant should
not receive the traditional ten-year
exemption that the Department has
historically granted to applicants for
QPAM exemptions.’’ The Applicant
states that the crimes did not occur in
asset management. Rather, the
Applicant states that ’’[t]he auditor’s
report, which will be available to plan
fiduciaries and to the Department, will
be a sufficient indicator of the DB
QPAMs’ compliance with the
exemption, without requiring
reapplication after 5 years.’’
Although the Applicant characterizes
the conduct as unrelated to Deutsche
Bank’s asset management business, the
Department does not agree with the
apparent suggestion that the Applicant
bears little or no responsibility for the
criminal conduct, or that the
misconduct amounted to mere isolated
instances. This exemption was
developed based on the Department’s
view that the misconduct relevant to the
Convictions occurred at Deutsche Bank
entities. With respect to the Korean
Conviction, the record includes the
Decision by the Seoul Central District
Court (the Korean Court) dated January
25, 2016. The Korean Court decision
notes: ‘‘Defendant DSK could have
anticipated and prevented in advance
its officers and employees’ violation of
the [Korean Financial Investment
Services and Capital Markets Act] in
light of the size of its business, the
number of its officers and employees,
and its past experiences of engaging in
the financial investment business in
Korea.’’
With respect to the US Conviction,
the record includes the Plea Agreement
between the DOJ and DB Group Services
and the accompanying Agreed
Statement of Facts, as well as the
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Deferred Prosecution Agreement entered
into by Deutsche Bank AG. The Plea
Factual Statement states: ‘‘From at least
2003 through at least 2010, [Deutsche
Bank] derivatives traders engaged in a
scheme to defraud [Deutsche Bank’s]
counterparties by secretly attempting to
manipulate and manipulating U.S.
Dollar, Yen, and Pound Sterling LIBOR,
as well as EURIBOR [IBOR]. They
carried out this scheme by attempting to
manipulate and manipulating the
various IBOR submissions. These
derivatives traders requested that the
[Deutsche Bank] IBOR submitters send
in benchmark interest rates that would
benefit the traders’ trading positions,
rather than rates that complied with the
definitions of the IBORs. These
derivatives traders either requested a
particular IBOR contribution for a
particular tenor and currency, or
requested that the rate submitter
contribute a higher, lower, or
unchanged rate for a particular tenor
and currency . . . In the instances when
the published benchmark interest rates
were manipulated in [Deutsche Bank’s]
favor due to [Deutsche Bank’s]
manipulation of its own or other banks’
submissions, that manipulation
benefitted DB derivatives traders, or
minimized their losses, to the detriment
of counterparties located in Connecticut
and elsewhere, at least with respect to
the particular transactions comprising
the trading positions that the traders
took into account in making their
requests to the rate submitters. Certain
[Deutsche Bank] pool and MMD
derivatives traders who tried to
manipulate LIBOR and EURIBOR
submissions understood the features of
the derivatives products tied to these
benchmark interest rates; accordingly,
they understood that to the extent they
increased their profits or decreased their
losses in certain transactions from their
efforts to manipulate rates, their
counterparties would suffer
corresponding adverse financial
consequences with respect to those
particular transactions. The derivatives
traders did not inform their
counterparties that the traders were
engaging in efforts to manipulate the
IBORs to which the profitability of their
trades was tied.’’ The Plea Factual
Statement further states that ‘‘[t]his
deceptive scheme involved efforts by
[DB Group Services] derivatives traders
to manipulate hundreds of IBORs.’’
The Deferred Prosecution Agreement
further notes: ‘‘Although Deutsche
Bank’s cooperation was often helpful,
Deutsche Bank’s cooperation also fell
short in some important respects. First,
Deutsche Bank was slow to cooperate
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fully with the Department’s
investigation. For example, Deutsche
Bank did not timely produce certain
information, including key information
related to Deutsche Bank’s Euro traders.
As another example, in a telephone
conversation, two executive level
managers discussed knowing that the
Department asked for relevant
information and that the information
had been withheld from the Department
and other U.S. authorities while
acknowledging they probably would
have to give the information to the
European Union. Second, Deutsche
Bank was not, by comparison to
previously settling institutions,
proactive in its investigation and
disclosure. For example, Deutsche
Bank’s conduct included interbank
coordination between it and other
institutions, but it was the other
institutions, not Deutsche Bank, that
provided that information to the
Department. Third, Deutsche Bank’s
investigation was hampered by
numerous unintentional but significant
mistakes in the preservation, collection,
and production of documents, audio,
and data. For example, Deutsche Bank
destroyed thousands of hours of
potentially responsive audio recordings
due to the negligent execution of certain
discovery holds. As another example,
Deutsche Bank discovered an important
communications platform more than
two years after receiving the
Department’s initial request for
information, which platform contained
some of the most explicit documents.
Fourth, Deutsche Bank caused the
Department to be misinformed that the
bank was not permitted to provide to
the Department a report by Deutsche
Bank’s primary domestic regulator,
BaFin, that discussed shortcomings in
Deutsche Bank’s internal investigation
of IBOR related misconduct.’’
In developing this exemption, the
Department also considered statements
made by other regulators. The United
Kingdom’s Financial Conduct
Authority’s (FCA) Final Notice states:
‘‘The lack of appropriate systems to
retrieve recorded Trader telephone calls
and to map trading books and trades
constituted a serious failure on the part
of Deutsche Bank to [organize] and
control its affairs responsibly and
effectively, and to manage risks
adequately . . . These failings
demonstrate that there was a lack of
appreciation within Deutsche Bank of
the need to ensure systems are suitable
for risk management and compliance
purposes, enabling appropriate and
timely investigations of potential Trader
misconduct. The shortcomings of these
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particular systems came to light during
the course of the Authority’s
investigation, but these systems issues
would have been equally problematic in
relation to any internal or regulatory
agency enquiries or investigations
concerning the possible misconduct of
individual Traders.’’
The Consent Order of the New York
State Department of Financial Services
states that, ‘‘[the] culture within the
Bank valued increased profits with little
regard to the integrity of the market.’’
The Consent Order of the United
States Commodities Futures Trading
Commission (CFTC) with Deutsche
Bank states that, ‘‘Deutsche Bank
engaged in this wrongful conduct even
after the [CFTC] Division of
Enforcement requested in April 2010
that Deutsche Bank conduct an internal
investigation of its U.S. Dollar LIBOR
submission practices. In fact, Deutsche
Bank did not make meaningful
improvements in its internal controls
until mid-2011 and did not formalize a
policy about conflicts of interest among
traders and submitters relating to
benchmark submissions until February,
2013.’’
The Department also notes the size of
relevant fines imposed by various
regulators: the Seoul Central District
Court imposed a fine of KRW
43,695,371,124 on Deutsche Bank and
KRW 1,183,362,400 on DSK; the
Department of Justice imposed a $150
million fine on DB Group Services and
a $625 million penalty on Deutsche
Bank; the New York State Department of
Financial Services imposed a penalty of
$600 million; and the CFTC and the
FCA imposed fines of $800 million and
£226.8 million, respectively.
After deliberating on all the
considerations above, the Department
decided the appropriate term for this
exemption is three years. This
exemption is not punitive. In the
Department’s view, the 3-year term of
this exemption and its numerous
protective conditions reflect the
Department’s intent to protect Covered
Plans that entrust substantial assets with
a Deutsche Bank asset manager,
following serious misconduct,
supervisory failures, and two criminal
convictions. The limited term of this
exemption gives the Department the
opportunity to review the adherence by
the DB QPAMs to the conditions set out
herein. The Department has decided it
is necessary to limit the term of relief to
facilitate the Department’s ability to
ensure that the circumstances that
allowed the prior bad conduct to occur
have been adequately addressed.
Because two separate convictions
within the Deutsche Bank corporate
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structure create the need for this
exemption, the Department has
concluded that future review of the
relief provided by this exemption
should occur within a shorter
timeframe.
The Applicants may apply for an
additional extension when they believe
appropriate. Before granting an
extension, however, the Department
expects to carefully consider the
efficacy of this exemption and any
public comments on additional
extensions, particularly including
comments on how well the exemption
has or has not worked to safeguard the
interests of Covered Plans. If the
Applicant seeks an extension of this
exemption, the Department will
examine whether the compliance and
oversight changes mandated by various
regulatory authorities are having their
desired effect on Deutsche Bank entities.
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Section I(r)
The Department, in order to avoid
inadvertent violations of the exemption
that are outside the Applicant’s control,
has determined to modify Section I(r)
such that a failure of the auditor to
comply with any of the conditions in
Section I(i) of the exemption, except for
subsection I(i)(11), should not be treated
as a failure by the DB QPAMs to comply
with the conditions of the exemption
provided that such failure was not due
to the actions or inactions of Deutsche
Bank or its affiliates, and Section I(r) is
amended, accordingly.
Comment—Letter From House
Committee on Financial Services
The Department also received a
comment letter from certain members of
Congress (the Members) regarding this
exemption, as well as regarding other
QPAM-related proposed one-year
exemptions. In the letter, the Members
recognized that certain conditions
contained in these proposed exemptions
are crucial in protecting the investments
of workers and retirees. In particular,
they referred to proposed conditions
which require each bank to: (a)
Indemnify and hold harmless ERISAcovered plans and IRAs for any damages
resulting from the future misconduct of
such bank; and (b) disclose to the
Department any Deferred Prosecution
Agreement or a Non-Prosecution
Agreement with the U.S. Department of
Justice. The Members also requested
that the Department hold hearings in
connection with the proposed
exemptions.
The Department acknowledges the
Members’ concerns regarding the need
for public discourse regarding proposed
exemptions. To this end, the
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Department’s procedures regarding
prohibited transaction exemption
requests under ERISA (the Exemption
Procedures) afford interested persons
the opportunity to request a hearing.
Specifically, section 2570.46(a) of the
Exemption Procedures provides that,
‘‘[a]ny interested person who may be
adversely affected by an exemption
which the Department proposes to grant
relief from the restrictions of section
406(b) of ERISA, section 4975(c)(1)(E) or
(F) of the Code, or section 8477(c)(2) of
FERSA may request a hearing before the
Department within the period of time
specified in the Federal Register notice
of the proposed exemption.’’ The
Exemption Procedures provide that
‘‘[t]he Department will grant a request
for a hearing made in accordance with
paragraph (a) of this section where a
hearing is necessary to fully explore
material factual issues identified by the
person requesting the hearing.’’ The
Exemption Procedures also provide that
‘‘[t]he Department may decline to hold
a hearing where: (1) The request for the
hearing does not meet the requirements
of paragraph (a) of this section; (2) the
only issues identified for exploration at
the hearing are matters of law; or (3) the
factual issues identified can be fully
explored through the submission of
evidence in written (including
electronic) form.’’ 28
While the Members’ letter raises
policy issues, it does not appear to raise
specific material factual issues. The
Department previously explored a wide
range of legal and policy issues
regarding Section I(g) of the QPAM
Exemption during a public hearing held
on January 15, 2015 in connection with
the Department’s proposed exemption
involving Credit Suisse AG, and has
determined that an additional hearing
on these issues is not necessary.
Public Comments
The Department received three
comments from two members of the
public.
One commenter, Theo Allen, objects
to the Department’s proposed
exemption on the basis that President
Trump owes ‘‘hundreds of millions of
dollars of debt to Deutsche Bank’’ and
in his view, that debt should be
‘‘divested’’ before the exemption is
granted.
Arthur Lipson of Western Investment
LLC (Western) submitted two comment
letters regarding the proposed
exemption. The first letter states that
Western is a shareholder in two closedend funds managed by Deutsche Bank
28 29 CFR part 2570, published at 76 FR 66653
(October 27, 2011).
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61859
affiliates. He states that these funds are
not subject to ERISA but are subject to
the Investment Company Act of 1940, as
amended. Mr. Lipson objects to a recent
election of the closed-end fund trustees.
Western sued the funds in connection
with that election.
Mr. Lipson’s second letter
additionally states that Deutsche Bank
should not be granted an exemption
unless it ensures ‘‘compliance with the
principle of directorial accountability in
the funds that it manages.’’
Conclusion
After giving full consideration to the
record, the Department has decided to
grant the exemption, as described above.
The complete application file
(Application No. D–11908) is available
for public inspection in the Public
Disclosure Room of the Employee
Benefits Security Administration, Room
N–1515, U.S. Department of Labor, 200
Constitution Avenue NW, Washington,
DC 20210.
For a more complete statement of the
facts and representations supporting the
Department’s decision to grant this
exemption, refer to the notice of
proposed exemption published on
November 21, 2016 at 81 FR 83400.
Exemption
Section I: Covered Transactions
Certain entities with specified
relationships to Deutsche Bank AG
(hereinafter, the DB QPAMs, as defined
in Section II(d)) will not be precluded
from relying on the exemptive relief
provided by Prohibited Transaction
Class Exemption 84–14 (PTE 84–14 or
the QPAM Exemption),
notwithstanding: (1) The ‘‘Korean
Conviction’’ against Deutsche Securities
Korea Co., a South Korean affiliate of
Deutsche Bank AG (hereinafter, DSK, as
defined in Section II(f)), entered on
January 25, 2016; and (2) the ‘‘US
Conviction’’ against DB Group Services
(UK) Limited, an affiliate of Deutsche
Bank based in the United Kingdom
(hereinafter, DB Group Services, as
further defined in Section II(e)), during
the Exemption Period,29 provided that
the following conditions are satisfied:
(a) The DB QPAMs (including their
officers, directors, agents other than
Deutsche Bank, and employees of such
QPAMs) did not know of, have reason
to know of, or participate in the
29 Section I(g) of PTE 84–14 generally provides
relief only if ‘‘[n]either the QPAM nor any affiliate
thereof . . . nor any owner . . . of a 5 percent or
more interest in the QPAM is a person who within
the 10 years immediately preceding the transaction
has been either convicted or released from
imprisonment, whichever is later, as a result of’’
certain felonies including fraud.
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criminal conduct of DSK and DB Group
Services that is the subject of the
Convictions. For purposes of this
paragraph I(a), ‘‘participate in’’ means
the knowing approval of the misconduct
underlying the Convictions;
(b) The DB QPAMs (including their
officers, directors, and agents other than
Deutsche Bank, and employees of such
DB QPAMs) did not receive direct
compensation, or knowingly receive
indirect compensation, in connection
with the criminal conduct that is the
subject of the Convictions;
(c) The DB QPAMs will not employ or
knowingly engage any of the individuals
that participated in the criminal
conduct that is the subject of the
Convictions. For the purposes of this
paragraph (c), ‘‘participated in’’ means
the knowing approval of the misconduct
underlying the Convictions;
(d) At all times during the Exemption
Period, no DB QPAM will use its
authority or influence to direct an
‘‘investment fund’’ (as defined in
Section VI(b) of PTE 84–14), that is
subject to ERISA or the Code and
managed by such DB QPAM with
respect to one or more Covered Plans, to
enter into any transaction with DSK or
DB Group Services, or to engage DSK or
DB Group Services to provide any
service to such investment fund, for a
direct or indirect fee borne by such
investment fund, regardless of whether
such transaction or service may
otherwise be within the scope of relief
provided by an administrative or
statutory exemption;
(e) Any failure of the DB QPAMs to
satisfy Section I(g) of PTE 84–14 arose
solely from the Convictions;
(f) A DB QPAM did not exercise
authority over the assets of any plan
subject to Part 4 of Title I of ERISA (an
ERISA-covered plan) or section 4975 of
the Code (an IRA) in a manner that it
knew or should have known would:
Further the criminal conduct that is the
subject of the Convictions; or cause the
QPAM or their affiliates to directly or
indirectly profit from the criminal
conduct that is the subject of the
Convictions;
(g) Other than with respect to
employee benefit plans maintained or
sponsored for its own employees or the
employees of an affiliate, DSK and DB
Group Services will not act as
fiduciaries within the meaning of
section 3(21)(A)(i) or (iii) of ERISA, or
section 4975(e)(3)(A) and (C) of the
Code, with respect to ERISA-covered
plan and IRA assets; provided, however,
that DSK and DB Group Services will
not be treated as violating the
conditions of this exemption solely
because they acted as investment advice
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fiduciaries within the meaning of
section 3(21)(A)(ii) of ERISA, or section
4975(e)(3)(B) of the Code, or because DB
Group Services employees may be
double-hatted, seconded, supervised or
otherwise subject to the control of a DB
QPAM, including in a discretionary
fiduciary capacity with respect to the
DB QPAM clients;
(h)(1) Each DB QPAM must continue
to maintain or immediately implement
and follow written policies and
procedures (the Policies). The Policies
must require, and must be reasonably
designed to ensure that:
(i) The asset management decisions of
the DB QPAM are conducted
independently of the corporate
management and business activities of
DB Group Services and DSK;
(ii) The DB QPAM fully complies
with ERISA’s fiduciary duties and with
ERISA and the Code’s prohibited
transaction provisions, in each such
case as applicable with respect to each
Covered Plan, and does not knowingly
participate in any violation of these
duties and provisions with respect to
Covered Plans;
(iii) The DB QPAM does not
knowingly participate in any other
person’s violation of ERISA or the Code
with respect to Covered Plans;
(iv) Any filings or statements made by
the DB QPAM to regulators, including,
but not limited to, the Department, the
Department of the Treasury, the
Department of Justice, and the Pension
Benefit Guaranty Corporation, on behalf
of or in relation to Covered Plans, are
materially accurate and complete, to the
best of such QPAM’s knowledge at that
time;
(v) To the best of the DB QPAM’s
knowledge at the time, the DB QPAM
does not make material
misrepresentations or omit material
information in its communications with
such regulators with respect to ERISAcovered plans or IRAs with respect to
Covered Plans;
(vi) The DB QPAM complies with the
terms of this exemption; and
(vii) Any violation of, or failure to
comply with an item in subparagraphs
(ii) through (vi), is corrected as soon as
reasonably possible upon discovery, or
as soon after the QPAM reasonably
should have known of the
noncompliance (whichever is earlier),
and any such violation or compliance
failure not so corrected is reported,
upon the discovery of such failure to so
correct, in writing, to the head of
compliance and the General Counsel (or
their functional equivalent) of the
relevant DB QPAM that engaged in the
violation or failure, and the
independent auditor responsible for
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reviewing compliance with the Policies.
A DB QPAM will not be treated as
having failed to develop, implement,
maintain, or follow the Policies,
provided that it corrects any instance of
noncompliance as soon as reasonably
possible upon discovery, or as soon as
reasonably possible after the QPAM
reasonably should have known of the
noncompliance (whichever is earlier),
and provided that it adheres to the
reporting requirements set forth in this
subparagraph (vii);
(2) Each DB QPAM must develop and
implement a program of training (the
Training), to be conducted at least
annually, for all relevant DB QPAM
asset/portfolio management, trading,
legal, compliance, and internal audit
personnel. The first Training under this
Final Exemption must be completed by
all relevant DB QPAM personnel by
April 18, 2019 (by the end of this 30month period, asset/portfolio
management, trading, legal, compliance,
and internal audit personnel who were
employed from the start to the end of
the period must have been trained
twice: the first time under PTE 2016–13;
and the second time under this
exemption). The Training must:
(i) At a minimum, cover the Policies,
ERISA and Code compliance (including
applicable fiduciary duties and the
prohibited transaction provisions),
ethical conduct, the consequences for
not complying with the conditions of
this exemption (including any loss of
exemptive relief provided herein), and
prompt reporting of wrongdoing; and
(ii) Be conducted by a professional
who has been prudently selected and
who has appropriate technical training
and proficiency with ERISA and the
Code;
(i)(1) Each DB QPAM submits to an
audit conducted annually by an
independent auditor, who has been
prudently selected and who has
appropriate technical training and
proficiency with ERISA and the Code, to
evaluate the adequacy of, and each DB
QPAM’s compliance with, the Policies
and Training described herein. The
audit requirement must be incorporated
in the Policies. Each annual audit must
cover the preceding consecutive twelve
(12) month period. The first audit must
cover the period from April 18, 2018
through April 17, 2019, and must be
completed by October 17, 2019. The
second audit must cover the period from
April 18, 2019 through April 17, 2020,
and must be completed by October 17,
2020. In the event that the Exemption
Period is extended or a new exemption
is granted, the third audit would cover
the period from April 18, 2020 through
April 17, 2021, and would have to be
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completed by October 17, 2021 (unless
the Department chooses to alter the
annual audit requirement in the new or
extended exemption); 30
(2) Within the scope of the audit and
to the extent necessary for the auditor,
in its sole opinion, to complete its audit
and comply with the conditions for
relief described herein, and only to the
extent such disclosure is not prevented
by state or federal statute, or involves
communications subject to attorney
client privilege, each DB QPAM and, if
applicable, Deutsche Bank, will grant
the auditor unconditional access to its
business, including, but not limited to:
its computer systems; business records;
transactional data; workplace locations;
training materials; and personnel. Such
access is limited to information relevant
to the auditor’s objectives as specified
by the terms of this exemption;
(3) The auditor’s engagement must
specifically require the auditor to
determine whether each DB QPAM has
developed, implemented, maintained,
and followed the Policies in accordance
with the conditions of this exemption,
and has developed and implemented
the Training, as required herein;
(4) The auditor’s engagement must
specifically require the auditor to test
each DB QPAM’s operational
compliance with the Policies and
Training. In this regard, the auditor
must test, for each QPAM, a sample of
such QPAM’s transactions involving
Covered Plans, sufficient in size and
nature to afford the auditor a reasonable
basis to determine such QPAM’s
operational compliance with the
Policies and Training;
(5) For each audit, on or before the
end of the relevant period described in
Section I(i)(1) for completing the audit,
the auditor must issue a written report
(the Audit Report) to Deutsche Bank and
the DB QPAM to which the audit
applies that describes the procedures
performed by the auditor during the
course of its examination. The auditor,
at its discretion, may issue a single
consolidated Audit Report that covers
all the DB QPAMs. The Audit Report
must include the auditor’s specific
determinations regarding:
30 The third audit referenced above would not
have to be completed until after the Exemption
Period expires. If the Department ultimately decides
to grant relief for an additional period, it could
decide to alter the terms of the exemption,
including the audit conditions (and the timing of
the audit requirements). Nevertheless, the
Applicant should anticipate that the Department
will insist on strict compliance with the audit terms
and schedule set forth above. As it considers any
new exemption application, the Department may
also contact the auditor for any information relevant
to its determination.
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(i) The adequacy of each DB QPAM’s
Policies and Training; each DB QPAM’s
compliance with the Policies and
Training; the need, if any, to strengthen
such Policies and Training; and any
instance of the respective DB QPAM’s
noncompliance with the written
Policies and Training described in
Section I(h) above. The DB QPAM must
promptly address any noncompliance.
The DB QPAM must promptly address
or prepare a written plan of action to
address any determination of
inadequacy by the auditor regarding the
adequacy of the Policies and Training
and the auditor’s recommendations (if
any) with respect to strengthening the
Policies and Training of the respective
QPAM. Any action taken or the plan of
action to be taken by the respective DB
QPAM must be included in an
addendum to the Audit Report (such
addendum must be completed prior to
the certification described in Section
I(i)(7) below). In the event such a plan
of action to address the auditor’s
recommendation regarding the
adequacy of the Policies and Training is
not completed by the time of
submission of the audit report, the
following period’s audit report, must
state whether the plan was satisfactorily
completed. Any determination by the
auditor that the respective DB QPAM
has implemented, maintained, and
followed sufficient Policies and
Training must not be based solely or in
substantial part on an absence of
evidence indicating noncompliance. In
this last regard, any finding that a DB
QPAM has complied with the
requirements under this subparagraph
must be based on evidence that the
particular DB QPAM has actually
implemented, maintained, and followed
the Policies and Training required by
this exemption. Furthermore, the
auditor must not solely rely on the
Annual Report created by the
compliance officer (the Compliance
Officer), as described in Section I(m)
below as the basis for the auditor’s
conclusions in lieu of independent
determinations and testing performed
by the auditor as required by Section
I(i)(3) and (4) above;
(ii) The adequacy of the most recent
Annual Review described in Section
I(m);
(6) The auditor must notify the
respective DB QPAM of any instance of
noncompliance identified by the auditor
within five (5) business days after such
noncompliance is identified by the
auditor, regardless of whether the audit
has been completed as of that date;
(7) With respect to each Audit Report,
the General Counsel, or one of the three
most senior executive officers of the line
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61861
of business engaged in discretionary
asset management services through the
DB QPAM with respect to which the
Audit Report applies, must certify in
writing, under penalty of perjury, that
the officer has reviewed the Audit
Report and this exemption; that such DB
QPAM has addressed, corrected, or
remedied any noncompliance and
inadequacy or has an appropriate
written plan to address any inadequacy
regarding the Policies and Training
identified in the Audit Report. Such
certification must also include the
signatory’s determination that the
Policies and Training in effect at the
time of signing are adequate to ensure
compliance with the conditions of this
exemption, and with the applicable
provisions of ERISA and the Code;
(8) The Audit Committee of Deutsche
Bank’s Supervisory Board is provided a
copy of each Audit Report; and a senior
executive officer with a direct reporting
line to the highest ranking legal
compliance officer of Deutsche Bank
must review the Audit Report for each
DB QPAM and must certify in writing,
under penalty of perjury, that such
officer has reviewed each Audit Report.
Deutsche Bank must provide notice to
the Department in the event of a switch
in the committee to which the Audit
Report will be provided;
(9) Each DB QPAM provides its
certified Audit Report, by regular mail
to: Office of Exemption Determinations
(OED), 200 Constitution Avenue NW,
Suite 400, Washington, DC 20210; or by
private carrier to: 122 C Street NW,
Suite 400, Washington, DC 20001–2109.
This delivery must take place no later
than thirty (30) days following
completion of the Audit Report. The
Audit Report will be made part of the
public record regarding this exemption.
Furthermore, each DB QPAM must
make its Audit Report unconditionally
available, electronically or otherwise,
for examination upon request by any
duly authorized employee or
representative of the Department, other
relevant regulators, and any fiduciary of
a Covered Plan;
(10) Each DB QPAM and the auditor
must submit to OED any engagement
agreement(s) entered into pursuant to
the engagement of the auditor under this
exemption, no later than two (2) months
after the execution of any such
engagement agreement;
(11) The auditor must provide the
Department, upon request, for
inspection and review, access to all the
workpapers created and utilized in the
course of the audit, provided such
access and inspection is otherwise
permitted by law; and
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(12) Deutsche Bank must notify the
Department of a change in the
independent auditor no later than two
(2) months after the engagement of a
substitute or subsequent auditor and
must provide an explanation for the
substitution or change including a
description of any material disputes
between the terminated auditor and
Deutsche Bank;
(j) As of April 18, 2018 and
throughout the Exemption Period, with
respect to any arrangement, agreement,
or contract between a DB QPAM and a
Covered Plan, the DB QPAM agrees and
warrants:
(1) To comply with ERISA and the
Code, as applicable with respect to such
Covered Plan; to refrain from engaging
in prohibited transactions that are not
otherwise exempt (and to promptly
correct any inadvertent prohibited
transactions); and to comply with the
standards of prudence and loyalty set
forth in section 404 of ERISA, with
respect to each such ERISA-covered
plan and IRA to the extent that section
is applicable;
(2) To indemnify and hold harmless
the Covered Plan for any actual losses
resulting directly from a DB QPAM’s
violation of ERISA’s fiduciary duties, as
applicable, and of the prohibited
transaction provisions of ERISA and the
Code, as applicable; a breach of contract
by the QPAM; or any claim arising out
of the failure of such DB QPAM to
qualify for the exemptive relief provided
by PTE 84–14 as a result of a violation
of Section I(g) of PTE 84–14 other than
the Convictions. This condition applies
only to actual losses caused by the DB
QPAM’s violations.
(3) Not to require (or otherwise cause)
the Covered Plan to waive, limit, or
qualify the liability of the DB QPAM for
violating ERISA or the Code or engaging
in prohibited transactions;
(4) Not to restrict the ability of such
Covered Plan to terminate or withdraw
from its arrangement with the DB
QPAM with respect to any investment
in a separately managed account or
pooled fund subject to ERISA and
managed by such QPAM, with the
exception of reasonable restrictions,
appropriately disclosed in advance, that
are specifically designed to ensure
equitable treatment of all investors in a
pooled fund in the event such
withdrawal or termination may have
adverse consequences for all other
investors. In connection with any such
arrangements involving investments in
pooled funds subject to ERISA entered
into after the effective date of this
exemption, the adverse consequences
must relate to of a lack of liquidity of
the underlying assets, valuation issues,
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or regulatory reasons that prevent the
fund from promptly redeeming an
ERISA-covered plan’s or IRA’s
investment, and such restrictions must
be applicable to all such investors and
effective no longer than reasonably
necessary to avoid the adverse
consequences;
(5) Not to impose any fees, penalties,
or charges for such termination or
withdrawal with the exception of
reasonable fees, appropriately disclosed
in advance, that are specifically
designed to prevent generally
recognized abusive investment practices
or specifically designed to ensure
equitable treatment of all investors in a
pooled fund in the event such
withdrawal or termination may have
adverse consequences for all other
investors, provided that such fees are
applied consistently and in like manner
to all such investors; and
(6) Not to include exculpatory
provisions disclaiming or otherwise
limiting liability of the DB QPAM for a
violation of such agreement’s terms. To
the extent consistent with Section 410
of ERISA, however, this provision does
not prohibit disclaimers for liability
caused by an error, misrepresentation,
or misconduct of a plan fiduciary or
other party hired by the plan fiduciary
who is independent of Deutsche Bank,
and its affiliates, or damages arising
from acts outside the control of the DB
QPAM;
(7) By October 17, 2018, each DB
QPAM must provide a notice of its
obligations under this Section I(j) to
each Covered Plan. For all other
prospective Covered Plans, the DB
QPAM will agree to its obligations
under this Section I(j) in an updated
investment management agreement
between the DB QPAM and such clients
or other written contractual agreement.
This condition will be deemed met for
each Covered Plan that received a notice
pursuant to PTE 2016–13 that meets the
terms of this condition.
Notwithstanding the above, a DB QPAM
will not violate the condition solely
because a Plan or IRA refuses to sign an
updated investment management
agreement;
(k) By June 17, 2018, each DB QPAM
will provide a notice of the exemption,
along with a separate summary
describing the facts that led to the
Convictions (the Summary), which have
been submitted to the Department, and
a prominently displayed statement (the
Statement) that the Convictions result in
a failure to meet a condition in PTE 84–
14, to each sponsor and beneficial
owner of a Covered Plan, or the sponsor
of an investment fund in any case where
a DB QPAM acts as a sub-advisor to the
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investment fund in which such ERISAcovered plan and IRA invests. Any
prospective client for which a DB
QPAM relies on PTE 84–14 or has
expressly represented that the manager
qualifies as a QPAM or relies on the
QPAM class exemption must receive the
proposed and final exemptions with the
Summary and the Statement prior to, or
contemporaneously with, the client’s
receipt of a written asset management
agreement from the DB QPAM.
Disclosures may be delivered
electronically.
(l) The DB QPAMs must comply with
each condition of PTE 84–14, as
amended, with the sole exceptions of
the violations of Section I(g) of PTE 84–
14 that are attributable to the
Convictions;
(m)(1) By October 17, 2018, Deutsche
Bank designates a senior compliance
officer (the Compliance Officer) who
will be responsible for compliance with
the Policies and Training requirements
described herein. The Compliance
Officer must conduct an annual review
for each annual period beginning on
April 18, 2018, (the Annual Review) 31
to determine the adequacy and
effectiveness of the implementation of
the Policies and Training. With respect
to the Compliance Officer, the following
conditions must be met:
(i) The Compliance Officer must be a
legal professional who has extensive
experience with, and knowledge of, the
regulation of financial services and
products, including under ERISA and
the Code; and
(ii) The Compliance Officer must have
a direct reporting line to the highestranking corporate officer in charge of
legal compliance for asset management;
(2) With respect to each Annual
Review, the following conditions must
be met:
(i) The Annual Review includes a
review of: Any compliance matter
related to the Policies or Training that
was identified by, or reported to, the
Compliance Officer or others within the
compliance and risk control function (or
its equivalent) during the previous year;
any material change in the relevant
business activities of the DB QPAMs;
and any change to ERISA, the Code, or
regulations related to fiduciary duties
and the prohibited transaction
provisions that may be applicable to the
activities of the DB QPAMs;
(ii) The Compliance Officer prepares
a written report for each Annual Review
(each, an Annual Report) that (A)
summarizes his or her material activities
31 Such Annual Review must be completed with
respect to the annual periods ending April 17, 2019;
April 17, 2020; and April 17, 2021.
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during the preceding year; (B) sets forth
any instance of noncompliance
discovered during the preceding year,
and any related corrective action; (C)
details any change to the Policies or
Training to guard against any similar
instance of noncompliance occurring
again; and (D) makes recommendations,
as necessary, for additional training,
procedures, monitoring, or additional
and/or changed processes or systems,
and management’s actions on such
recommendations;
(iii) In each Annual Report, the
Compliance Officer must certify in
writing that to his or her knowledge: (A)
The report is accurate; (B) the Policies
and Training are working in a manner
which is reasonably designed to ensure
that the Policies and Training
requirements described herein are met;
(C) any known instance of
noncompliance during the preceding
year and any related correction taken to
date have been identified in the Annual
Report; and (D) the DB QPAMs have
complied with the Policies and
Training, and/or corrected (or is
correcting) any instances of
noncompliance in accordance with
Section I(h) above;
(iv) Each Annual Report must be
provided to appropriate corporate
officers of Deutsche Bank and each DB
QPAM to which such report relates; the
head of compliance and the General
Counsel (or their functional equivalent)
of the relevant DB QPAM; and must be
made unconditionally available to the
independent auditor described in
Section I(i) above;
(v) Each Annual Review, including
the Compliance Officer’s written
Annual Report, must be completed
within three (3) months following the
end of the period to which it relates;
(n) Deutsche Bank disgorged all of its
profits generated by the spot/futureslinked market manipulation activities of
DSK personnel that led to the
Conviction against DSK entered on
January 25, 2016, in Seoul Central
District Court;
(o) Each DB QPAM will maintain
records necessary to demonstrate that
the conditions of this exemption have
been met, for six (6) years following the
date of any transaction for which such
DB QPAM relies upon the relief in the
exemption;
(p) During the Exemption Period,
Deutsche Bank: (1) Immediately
discloses to the Department any
Deferred Prosecution Agreement (a
DPA) or a Non-Prosecution Agreement
(an NPA) with the U.S. Department of
Justice, entered into by Deutsche Bank
or any of its affiliates in connection with
conduct described in Section I(g) of PTE
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84–14 or section 411 of ERISA; and (2)
immediately provides the Department
any information requested by the
Department, as permitted by law,
regarding the agreement and/or conduct
and allegations that led to the
agreement;
(q) By October 17, 2018, each DB
QPAM, in its agreements with, or in
other written disclosures provided to
Covered Plans, will clearly and
prominently inform Covered Plan
clients of their right to obtain a copy of
the Policies or a description (Summary
Policies) which accurately summarizes
key components of the QPAM’s written
Policies developed in connection with
this exemption. If the Policies are
thereafter changed, each Covered Plan
client must receive a new disclosure
within six (6) months following the end
of the calendar year during which the
Policies were changed.32 With respect to
this requirement, the description may be
continuously maintained on a website,
provided that such website link to the
Policies or the Summary Policies is
clearly and prominently disclosed to
each Covered Plan; and
(r) A DB QPAM will not fail to meet
the terms of this exemption, solely
because a different DB QPAM fails to
satisfy a condition for relief described in
Sections I(c), (d), (h), (i), (j), (k), (l), (o),
and (q); or if the independent auditor
described in Section I(i) fails a provision
of the exemption other than the
requirement described in Section
I(i)(11), provided that such failure did
not result from any actions or inactions
of Deutsche Bank or its affiliates.
Section II: Definitions
(a) The term ‘‘Convictions’’ means (1)
the judgment of conviction against DB
Group Services, in case number 3:15–
cr–00062–RNC to be entered in the
United States District Court for the
District of Connecticut to a single count
of wire fraud, in violation of 18 U.S.C.
1343, and (2) the judgment of conviction
against DSK entered on January 25,
2016, in Seoul Central District Court,
relating to charges filed against DSK
under Articles 176, 443, and 448 of
South Korea’s Financial Investment
Services and Capital Markets Act for
spot/futures-linked market price
manipulation. For all purposes under
this exemption, ‘‘conduct’’ of any
person or entity that is the ‘‘subject of
[a] Conviction’’ encompasses the factual
allegations described in Paragraph 13 of
32 In the event the Applicant meets this disclosure
requirement through Summary Policies, changes to
the Policies shall not result in the requirement for
a new disclosure unless, as a result of changes to
the Policies, the Summary Policies are no longer
accurate.
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61863
the Plea Agreement filed in the District
Court in case number 3:15–cr–00062–
RNC, and in the ‘‘Criminal Acts’’ section
pertaining to ‘‘Defendant DSK’’ in the
Decision of the Seoul Central District
Court.
(b) The term ‘‘Covered Plan’’ is a plan
subject to Part 4 of Title 1 of ERISA
(‘‘ERISA-covered plan’’) or a plan
subject to Section 4975 of the Code
(‘‘IRA’’) with respect to which a DB
QPAM relies on PTE 84–14, or with
respect to which a DB QPAM (or any
Deutsche Bank affiliate) has expressly
represented that the manager qualifies
as a QPAM or relies on the QPAM class
exemption (PTE 84–14). A Covered Plan
does not include an ERISA-covered Plan
or IRA to the extent the DB QPAM has
expressly disclaimed reliance on QPAM
status or PTE 84–14 in entering into its
contract, arrangement, or agreement
with the ERISA-covered plan or IRA.
(c) The term ‘‘DB Group Services’’
means DB Group Services (UK) Limited,
an ‘‘affiliate’’ of Deutsche Bank (as
defined in Section VI(c) of PTE 84–14)
based in the United Kingdom.
(d) The term ‘‘DB QPAM’’ means a
‘‘qualified professional asset manager’’
(as defined in Section VI(a) 33 of PTE
84–14) that relies on the relief provided
by PTE 84–14 and with respect to which
DSK or DB Group Services is a current
or future ‘‘affiliate’’ (as defined in
Section VI(d)(1) of PTE 84–14). For
purposes of this exemption, Deutsche
Bank Securities, Inc. (DBSI), including
all entities over which it exercises
control; and Deutsche Bank AG,
including all of its branches, are
excluded from the definition of a DB
QPAM.
(e) The term ‘‘Deutsche Bank’’ means
Deutsche Bank AG but, unless indicated
otherwise, does not include its
subsidiaries or affiliates.
(f) The term ‘‘DSK’’ means Deutsche
Securities Korea Co., a South Korean
‘‘affiliate’’ of Deutsche Bank (as defined
in Section VI(c) of PTE 84–14).
(g) The terms ‘‘ERISA-covered plan’’
and ‘‘IRA’’ mean, respectively, a plan
subject to Part 4 of Title I of ERISA and
a plan subject to section 4975 of the
Code.
(h) The term ‘‘Exemption Period’’
means April 18, 2018, through April 17,
2021.
(i) The term ‘‘Plea Agreement’’ means
the Plea Agreement (including the
33 In general terms, a QPAM is an independent
fiduciary that is a bank, savings and loan
association, insurance company, or investment
adviser that meets certain equity or net worth
requirements and other licensure requirements that
has acknowledged in a written management
agreement that it is a fiduciary with respect to each
plan that has retained the QPAM.
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Agreed Statement of Facts), dated April
23, 2015, between the Antitrust Division
and Fraud Section of the Criminal
Division of the U.S. Department of
Justice (the DOJ) and DB Group Services
resolving the charge brought by the DOJ
in case number 3:15–cr–00062–RNC
against DB Group Services for wire
fraud in violation of Title 18, United
States Code, Section 1343.
Effective Date
The effective date of this exemption is
April 18, and the exemption will be
effective from April 18, 2018, through
April 17, 2021 (the Exemption Period).
Department’s Comment: The
Department cautions that the relief in
this exemption will terminate
immediately if an entity within the
Deutsche Bank corporate structure is
convicted of a crime described in
Section I(g) of PTE 84–14 (other than the
Convictions) during the Exemption
Period. Although Deutsche Bank could
apply for a new exemption in that
circumstance, the Department would
not be obligated to grant the exemption.
The terms of this exemption have been
specifically designed to permit plans to
terminate their relationships in an
orderly and cost effective fashion in the
event of an additional conviction or a
determination that it is otherwise
prudent for a plan to terminate its
relationship with an entity covered by
the exemption.
Further Information
For more information on this
exemption, contact Mr. Scott Ness of the
Department, telephone (202) 693–8561.
(This is not a toll-free number.)
Citigroup Inc. (Citigroup or the
Applicant) Located in New York, New
York
[Prohibited Transaction Exemption 2017–05;
Exemption Application No. D–11909]
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Discussion
On November 21, 2016, the
Department of Labor (the Department)
published a notice of proposed
exemption in the Federal Register at 81
FR 83416, for certain entities with
specified relationships to Citigroup to
continue to rely upon the relief
provided by PTE 84–14 for a period of
five years,34 notwithstanding Citicorp’s
criminal conviction, as described
herein. The Department is granting this
exemption in order to ensure that
34 (49 FR 9494, March 13, 1984), as corrected at
50 FR 41430 (October 10, 1985), as amended at 70
FR 49305 (August 23, 2005) and as amended at 75
FR 38837 (July 6, 2010), hereinafter referred to as
PTE 84–14 or the QPAM Exemption.
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Covered Plans 35 whose assets are
managed by a Citigroup Affiliated
QPAM or Citigroup Related QPAM may
continue to benefit from the relief
provided by PTE 84–14. This exemption
is effective from January 10, 2018
through January 9, 2023 (the Exemption
Period).
No relief from a violation of any other
law is provided by this exemption,
including any criminal conviction
described in the proposed exemption.
Furthermore, the Department cautions
that the relief in this exemption will
terminate immediately if, among other
things, an entity within the Citigroup
corporate structure is convicted of a
crime described in Section I(g) of PTE
84–14 (other than the Conviction)
during the Exemption Period. The terms
of this exemption have been specifically
designed to promote conduct that
adheres to basic fiduciary standards
under ERISA and the Code. The
exemption also aims to ensure that
plans and IRAs can terminate
relationships in an orderly and costeffective fashion in the event a plan or
IRA fiduciary determines it is prudent
for the plan or IRA to sever its
relationship with an entity covered by
the exemption.
Written Comments
The Department invited all interested
persons to submit written comments
and/or requests for a public hearing
with respect to the notice of proposed
exemption, published in the Federal
Register at 81 FR 83416 on November
21, 2016. All comments and requests for
a hearing were due by March 1, 2017.36
The Department received written
comments from the Applicant, members
of the U.S. Congress, and a number of
plan and IRA clients of Citigroup. After
considering these submissions, the
Department has determined to grant the
exemption, with revisions, as described
below.
Term of the Exemption and Conditions
The Applicant requests that the
exemption’s term and underlying
35 ‘‘Covered Plan’’ is a plan subject to Part 4 of
Title 1 of ERISA (‘‘ERISA-covered plan’’) or a plan
subject to Section 4975 of the Code (‘‘IRA’’), with
respect to which a Citigroup Affiliated QPAM relies
on PTE 84–14, or with respect to which a Citigroup
Affiliated QPAM (or any Citigroup affiliate) has
expressly represented that the manager qualifies as
a QPAM or relies on the QPAM class exemption
(PTE 84–14). A Covered Plan does not include an
ERISA-covered Plan or IRA to the extent the
Citigroup Affiliated QPAM has expressly
disclaimed reliance on QPAM status or PTE 84–14
in entering into its contract, arrangement, or
agreement with the ERISA covered plan or IRA.
36 The Department received additional comments
from the Applicant, however, after the close of the
comment period.
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conditions be revised to conform with
certain exemptions issued by the
Department prior to 2014. The
Applicant cites 16 individual
exemptions granted by the Department
prior to 2014 involving financial
institutions that could not satisfy
Section I(g) of PTE 84–14 (the Pre-2014
Exemptions) because of criminal
convictions. The Applicant states that
the conditions included within the Pre2014 Exemptions remained materially
unchanged during this time. The
Applicant additionally cites PTE 2015–
06 and 2015–14 (the 2015 Exemptions)
which, like the Pre-2014 Exemptions,
permitted certain financial institutions
to continue to rely upon the relief
provided by PTE 84–14,
notwithstanding judgments of
conviction against such institutions.
The Applicant states that, with
respect to the 2015 Exemptions, the
Department adopted certain additional
conditions not previously included in
the Pre-2014 Exemptions, including: (1)
Shortening the period of relief from 10
years to 5 years; (2) particularized
requirements relating to policies,
procedures, and annual training; and (3)
an annual audit requirement. The
Applicant states that the public record
underlying the 2015 Exemptions does
not present any demonstrated
deficiency with respect to the Pre-2014
Exemptions that warranted the adoption
of these additional conditions in the
2015 Exemptions. Nor, according to the
Applicant, are the 2015 Exemptions’
additional conditions explained by any
change in relevant laws or guidance, or
any distinction between the conduct
that gave rise to the need for the 2015
Exemptions compared to the conduct
that gave rise to the need for the Pre2014 Exemptions.
The Applicant also cites a
Presidential Memorandum and two
Executive Orders: (1) Presidential
Memorandum on Fiduciary Duty Rule,
dated February 3, 2017; (2) Presidential
Executive Order on Core Principles for
Regulating the United States Financial
System, dated February 3, 2017; and (3)
Presidential Executive Order on
Reducing Regulation and Controlling
Regulatory Costs, dated January 30,
2017 (the Executive Orders). The
Applicant states that these Executive
Orders suggest a compelling reason for
the Department to revert to the approach
reflected in the Pre-2014 Exemptions.
The Applicant further states that the
individual exemptions granted by the
Department in connection with criminal
convictions fall into two different
categories. In one category, the
applicant’s underlying misconduct is
integral to corporate business activity.
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In the other category, according to the
Applicant, the applicant’s underlying
misconduct is non-integral and isolated
to a small number of employees. The
Applicant states that the conduct
underlying this exemption resembles
the facts underlying those exemptions
in which misconduct was non-integral
and isolated to a small number of
employees, as it was ‘‘limited to one
London-based euro/U.S. dollar trader
and the unit he worked in was distant
and separate from the Applicant’s
businesses that rely on PTE 84–14.’’
The Applicant states that, taken
together and considered against the
historical backdrop of the individual
exemptions and Executive Orders
summarized above, there are compelling
reasons for the Department to revert to
the approach reflected in the Pre-2014
Exemptions, including: (1) Extending
the exemption from a 5-year term to a
9-year term, and (2) eliminating the
independent audit and compliance
officer requirements under the
exemption. The Applicant states that
the Department’s past practice for these
types of exemptions has been to provide
for ten-year relief and that the rationale
for abbreviating the term in this
exemption does not appear to be
connected to the nature or severity of
the misconduct at issue.
The Department declines to extend
the term of this exemption to ten years.
Although the Applicant characterizes
the conduct as involving the isolated
actions of one individual, the
Department does not agree with the
apparent suggestion that the Applicant
bears little or no responsibility for the
criminal conduct. In considering the
misconduct, the Department did not
limit its analysis to the acts of the single
trader identified by the Applicant. The
Department also considered the period
of time during which the misconduct
persisted, the compliance and
supervisory mechanisms within
Citigroup that failed to detect and
prevent the misconduct, and certain
other relevant misconduct identified in
Citicorp’s Plea Agreement.
Citicorp’s Plea Agreement identifies
misconduct that extended beyond the
isolated acts of the single London-based
euro/U.S. dollar trader. For example,
Citicorp’s Plea Agreement contains the
following statement under the heading
Other Relevant Conduct: ‘‘the defendant
[Citicorp], through its currency traders
and sales staff, also engaged in other
currency trading and sales practices in
conducting FX Spot Market transactions
with customers via telephone, email,
and/or electronic chat, to wit: (i)
Intentionally working customers’ limit
orders one or more levels, or ‘‘pips,’’
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away from the price confirmed with the
customer; (ii) including sales markup,
through the use of live hand signals or
undisclosed prior internal arrangements
or communications, to prices given to
customers that communicated with
sales staff on open phone lines; (iii)
accepting limit orders from customers
and then informing those customers that
their orders could not be filled, in whole
or in part, when in fact the defendant
was able to fill the order but decided not
to do so because the defendant expected
it would be more profitable not to do so;
and (iv) disclosing non-public
information regarding the identity and
trading activity of the defendant’s
customers to other banks or other
market participants, in order to generate
revenue for the defendant at the expense
of its customers.’’
In developing this exemption, the
Department also considered statements
made by regulators concerning the
compliance and supervisory
mechanisms within Citigroup that failed
to detect and prevent the misconduct.
For example, the Financial Conduct
Authority’s (FCA) Final Notice to
Citibank N.A., states: ‘‘[d]uring the
Relevant Period, Citi did not exercise
adequate and effective control over its
G10 spot FX trading business,’’ and,
‘‘[t]hese failings occurred in
circumstances where certain of those
responsible for managing front office
matters were aware of and/or at times
involved in behaviours described
above.’’ The Notice further states: ‘‘They
also occurred despite the fact that risks
around confidentiality were highlighted
when in August 2011 Citi became aware
that a trader in its FX business outside
London had inappropriately shared
confidential client information in a chat
room with a trader at another firm.’’
By way of further example, the
Consent Order of the Office of the
Comptroller of the Currency (OCC)
states: ‘‘[t]he OCC’s examination
findings established that the Bank had
deficiencies in its internal controls and
had engaged in unsafe or unsound
banking practices with respect to the
oversight and governance of the Bank’s
FX Trading such that the Bank failed to
detect and prevent the conduct. . . .’’
The OCC’s Consent Order also states
that, ‘‘deficiencies and unsafe or
unsound practices include the
following: (a) The Bank’s compliance
risk assessment lacked sufficient
granularity and failed to identify the
risks related to market conduct in FX
Trading with respect to sales, trading
and supervisory employees in that
business; (b) The Bank’s transaction
monitoring and communications
surveillance were inadequate to detect
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61865
potential Employee market misconduct
in FX Trading. . . .’’
With respect to the severity of the
misconduct, the Department notes the
magnitude of the relevant fines imposed
by various regulators, which include:
$925 million by the Department of
Justice; $342 million by the Board of
Governors of the Federal Reserve; $350
million by the OCC; $310 million by the
Commodity Futures Trading
Commission; and £225,575,000 by the
FCA.
The Department also notes that this
exemption’s five-year term and
protective conditions reflect the
Department’s intent to protect Covered
Plans that entrust substantial assets to a
Citigroup Affiliated QPAM, despite the
serious nature of the misconduct and
the compliance and oversight failures
exhibited by Citigroup throughout the
extended period of time during which
the criminal misconduct persisted. The
term of this exemption gives the
Department the opportunity to review
the adherence by the Citigroup
Affiliated QPAMs’ to the conditions set
out herein. If the Applicant seeks to
extend this exemption beyond this five
year term, the Department will examine
whether the compliance and oversight
changes mandated by the various
regulatory authorities are having the
desired effect on the Citigroup entities.
Description of Criminal Conduct—
Sections I and II(e)
The prefatory language to Section I of
the proposed five-year exemption
provides that, ‘‘the Citigroup Affiliated
QPAMs and the Citigroup Related
QPAMs, as defined in Sections II(f) and
II(g), respectively, will not be precluded
from relying on the exemptive relief
provided by Prohibited Transaction
Class Exemption 84–14 (PTE 84–14 or
the QPAM Exemption), notwithstanding
the judgment of conviction against
Citicorp (the Conviction), as defined in
Section II(a)), for engaging in a
conspiracy to: (1) Fix the price of, or (2)
eliminate competition in the purchase
or sale of the euro/U.S. dollar currency
pair exchanged in the Foreign Exchange
(FX) Spot Market, for a period of five
years beginning on the date the
exemption is granted.’’
Section II(e) of the proposed five year
exemption provides that, in relevant
part, ‘‘[t]he term ‘Conviction’ means the
judgment of conviction against
Citigroup for violation of the Sherman
Antitrust Act, 15 U.S.C. 1, which is
scheduled to be entered in the District
Court for the District of Connecticut (the
District Court) (Case Number 3:15–cr–
78–SRU), in connection with Citigroup,
through one of its euro/U.S. dollar
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(EUR/USD) traders, entering into and
engaging in a combination and
conspiracy to fix, stabilize, maintain,
increase or decrease the price of, and rig
bids and offers for, the EUR/USD
currency pair exchanged in the FX spot
market by agreeing to eliminate
competition in the purchase and sale of
the EUR/USD currency pair in the
United States and elsewhere. For all
purposes under this five-year, ‘conduct’
of any person or entity that is the
‘subject of [a] Conviction’ encompasses
any conduct of Citigroup and/or their
personnel, that is described in the Plea
Agreement, (including the Factual
Statement), and other official regulatory
or judicial factual findings that are a
part of this record.’’
The Applicant incorporates by
reference its comment letter submitted
to the Department in connection with
PTE 2016–14 (PTE 2016–14 Comment
Letter),37 in which the Applicant
requested that references to the
Conviction be limited to the actual
judgment of conviction against Citicorp.
The Applicant states that the references
to the Conviction in the prefatory
language of Section I and Section II
would cause confusion for Plans and
counterparties transacting with Plans.
The Applicant also requests that the
Department revise Section II(e) by
replacing ‘‘Citigroup’’ with ‘‘Citicorp,’’
as Citicorp was the entity charged in
connection with the Plea Agreement.
After consideration of the Applicant’s
comment, the Department has revised
the exemption to provide that ‘‘[t]he
term ‘Conviction’ means the judgment
of conviction against Citicorp for
violation of the Sherman Antitrust Act,
15 U.S.C. 1, entered in the District Court
for the District of Connecticut (the
District Court) (case number 3:15–cr–78
–SRU). For all purposes under this
exemption, ‘conduct’ of any person or
entity that is the ‘subject of [a]
Conviction’ encompasses the conduct
described in Paragraph 4(g)–(i) of the
Plea Agreement filed in the District
Court in case number 3:15–cr–78–SRU.’’
The Department has also revised
Section II(e) by replacing ‘‘Citigroup’’
with ‘‘Citicorp.’’ The Department has
also renumbered the definition of
Conviction as Section II(a) in the final
exemption.
Knowing or Tacit Approval—Sections
I(a) and I(c)
Section I(a) of the proposed five-year
exemption provides, ‘‘(a) Other than a
single individual who worked for a nonfiduciary business within Citigroup’s
37 See Citigroup PTE 2016–14 Comment Letter,
dated November 25, 2016.
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Markets and Securities Services
business, and who had no responsibility
for, and exercised no authority in
connection with, the management of
plan assets, the Citigroup Affiliated
QPAMs and the Citigroup Related
QPAMs (including their officers,
directors, agents other than Citicorp,
and employees of such QPAMs who had
responsibility for, or exercised authority
in connection with the management of
plan assets) did not know of, did not
have reason to know of, or participate
in the criminal conduct that is the
subject of the Conviction (for purposes
of this paragraph (a), ‘participate in’
includes the knowing or tacit approval
of the misconduct underlying the
Conviction).’’
With regard to Section I(a), the
Applicant requests the deletion of the
parenthetical, which reads, ‘‘(for
purposes of this paragraph (a),
‘participate in’ includes the knowing or
tacit approval of the misconduct
underlying the Conviction).’’ 38 The
Department declines to delete this
definition of ‘‘participate in,’’ but has
replaced ‘‘knowing or tacit approval,’’
with ‘‘knowing approval.’’
Section I(c) of the proposed
exemption provides, ‘‘(c) The Citigroup
Affiliated QPAMs will not employ or
knowingly engage any of the individuals
that participated in the criminal
conduct that is the subject of the
Conviction (for the purposes of this
paragraph (c), ‘participated in’ includes
the knowing or tacit approval of the
misconduct underlying Conviction).’’
With regard to Section I(c), the
Applicant requests that the definition of
‘‘participated in’’ be changed from, ‘‘the
knowing or tacit approval of the
misconduct underlying the Conviction’’
to, ‘‘approving or condoning the
misconduct underlying the Conviction.’’
After consideration of the Applicant’s
comment, the Department has revised
Section I(c) in a manner that is
consistent with Section I(a), as
described above. Accordingly, the
relevant part of Section I(c) now reads,
‘‘For the purposes of this paragraph (c),
‘participated in’ means the knowing
approval of the misconduct underlying
the Conviction.’’
Receipt of Compensation—Section I(b)
Section I(b) of the proposed five-year
exemption provides, ‘‘(b) Other than a
single individual who worked for a nonfiduciary business within Citigroup’s
Markets and Securities Services
38 Certain of the Applicant’s requested revisions,
including its requested revision with respect to
Section I(a), are reflected in a red-lined draft
attachment which the Applicant provided to the
Department with its comment letter.
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business, and who had no responsibility
for, and exercised no authority in
connection with, the management of
plan assets, the Citigroup Affiliated
QPAMs and the Citigroup Related
QPAMs (including their officers,
directors, and agents other than
Citigroup, and employees of such
Citigroup QPAMs) did not receive direct
compensation, or knowingly receive
indirect compensation in connection
with the criminal conduct that is the
subject of the Conviction.’’
The Applicant requests the
replacement of ‘‘Citigroup’’ with
‘‘Citicorp’’ in the phrase, ‘‘(including
their officers, directors, and agents other
than Citigroup. . . .’’ After considering
the Applicant’s comment, the
Department has revised the exemption
in the manner requested by the
Applicant.
Use of Authority or Influence—Section
I(d)
Section I(d) of the proposed
exemption provides that, ‘‘(d) A
Citigroup Affiliated QPAM will not use
its authority or influence to direct an
‘investment fund’ (as defined in Section
VI(b) of PTE 84–14), that is subject to
ERISA or the Code and managed by
such Citigroup Affiliated QPAM, to
enter into any transaction with Citicorp
or the Markets and Securities Services
business of Citigroup, or to engage
Citicorp or the Markets and Securities
Services business of Citigroup, to
provide any service to such investment
fund, for a direct or indirect fee borne
by such investment fund, regardless of
whether such transaction or service may
otherwise be within the scope of relief
provided by an administrative or
statutory exemption.’’
In the PTE 2014 Comment Letter, the
Applicant represented that a sudden
cessation of services by the Markets and
Securities Services Business of
Citigroup to affected plans, such as
agency securities lending services,
would be disruptive to such plans. In
this regard, the Applicant seeks deletion
of the condition’s reference to ‘‘the
Markets and Securities Services
Business of Citigroup.’’
After considering the Applicant’s
comment, the Department has revised
the exemption in the manner requested
by the Applicant such that the condition
does not apply to the Markets and
Securities Services Business of
Citigroup. The Department has also
revised Section I(d) by clarifying that it
applies to, ‘‘an ‘investment fund’. . . .
managed by such Citigroup Affiliated
QPAM with respect to Covered Plans.’’
This modification to Section I(d) reflects
the Department’s interest in ensuring
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that the conditions included herein
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Provision of Asset Management
Services—Section I(g)
Section I(g) of the proposed
exemption provides that ‘‘(g) Citicorp
and the Markets and Securities Services
Business of Citigroup will not provide
discretionary asset management
services to ERISA-covered plans or
IRAs, or otherwise act as a fiduciary
with respect to ERISA-covered plan or
IRA assets.’’
In the PTE 2016–14 Comment Letter,
the Applicant represented that the
function of the Markets and Securities
Services Business of Citigroup may be
deemed to involve fiduciary conduct
and that requiring those services to be
terminated suddenly would be
disruptive to affected plans. The
Applicant therefore seeks the deletion of
the condition’s reference to the Markets
and Securities Services Business of
Citigroup.
The Applicant also requests that
Section I(g) be revised to read, ‘‘Other
than with respect to employee benefit
plans maintained or sponsored for their
own employees or the employees of an
affiliate, Citicorp will not act as a
fiduciary within the meaning of ERISA
Section 3(21)(A)(i) or (iii), or Code
Section 4975(e)(3)(A) or (C), with
respect to ERISA-covered plan and IRA
assets; in accordance with this
provision, Citicorp will not be treated as
violating the conditions of this
exemption solely because they acted as
investment advice fiduciaries within the
meaning of ERISA Section 3(21)(A)(ii)
or Section 4975(e)(3)(B) of the Code.’’
After considering the Applicant’s
comment regarding disruption and
damages to affected ERISA-covered
plans and IRAs, the Department has
revised the exemption in the manner
requested by the Applicant.
Additionally, the Department has
revised Section I(g) to clarify that
Citigroup will not violate this condition
in the event that it inadvertently
becomes an investment advice fiduciary
or acts as a fiduciary for plans that it
sponsors for its own employees or
employees of an affiliate.
Policies and Procedures Relating to
Compliance with ERISA and the Code—
Section I(h)(1)–(2)
Section I(h) of the proposed five-year
exemption provides that, ‘‘(h)(1) Within
four (4) months of the Conviction, each
Citigroup Affiliated QPAM must
develop, implement, maintain, and
follow written policies and procedures
(the Policies) . . . (2) Within four (4)
months of the date of the Conviction,
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each Citigroup Affiliated QPAM must
develop and implement a program of
training (the Training), conducted at
least annually, for all relevant Citigroup
Affiliated QPAM asset/portfolio
management, trading, legal,
compliance, and internal audit
personnel. . . .’’
The Applicant requests that the
Department increase the development
period associated with the Policies and
Training Requirements (the
Development Period) from four (4)
months to six (6) months from the date
of the Conviction. The Applicant also
requests clarification that a Citigroup
Affiliated QPAM’s obligation to
‘‘develop’’ the Policies and Training
under this section can be satisfied to the
extent that such Citigroup Affiliated
QPAM has developed Policies and
Training independent of this exemption,
including Policies and Training
developed in connection with PTE
2016–14. The Applicant further requests
that the Department clarify that the
Applicant shall have up to twelve (12)
months to train all relevant employees
following the Development Period, and
that such Training will then be
conducted at least annually, in
accordance with Section I(h)(2).
The Department emphasizes that the
Citigroup QPAMs must comply with the
Policies and Training requirements
within both PTE 2016–14 and this
exemption. To this end, the Department
has revised the policies and training
requirements of Section I(h) to conform
with PTE 2016–14. The two exemptions
now follow this timeline: (i) Each
Citigroup Affiliated QPAM must have
developed the Policies and Training
required by PTE 2016–14 by July 9,
2017; (ii) the first annual Training under
PTE 2016–14 must be completed by July
9, 2018; (iii) each Citigroup Affiliated
QPAM must develop the Policies and
Training required by this exemption, as
necessary, by July 9, 2018; and (iv) the
first Training under this exemption
must be completed by July 9, 2019. By
the end of this 30-month period, asset/
portfolio management, trading, legal,
compliance, and internal audit
personnel who were employed from the
start to the end of the period must have
been trained twice.
In addition, Section I(h)(1)(i) of the
proposed five-year exemption provides
that the Policies must be reasonably
designed to ensure that: ‘‘(i) The asset
management decisions of the Citigroup
Affiliated QPAM are conducted
independently of the corporate
management and business activities,
including the corporate management
and business activities of the Markets
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and Securities Services business of
Citigroup.’’
The Applicant requests the deletion of
the condition’s reference to the Markets
and Securities Services Business of
Citigroup. In the PTE 2016–14 Comment
letter, the Applicant stated that such
revision is necessary in order to avoid
disruption to affected plans and IRAs.
The Department concurs with this
comment, and has revised the condition
to state that, ‘‘[t]he Policies must
require, and must be reasonably
designed to ensure that: (i) The asset
management decisions of the Citigroup
Affiliated QPAM are conducted
independently of the corporate,
management, and business activities of
Citigroup.’’
Section I(h)(1)(ii) of the proposed fiveyear exemption provides that the
Policies must be reasonably designed to
ensure that: ‘‘(ii) The Citigroup
Affiliated QPAM fully complies with
ERISA’s fiduciary duties, and with
ERISA and the Code’s prohibited
transaction provisions, and does not
knowingly participate in any violation
of these duties and provisions with
respect to ERISA-covered plans and
IRAs.’’
The Department has determined to
revise Section I(h)(1)(ii) to clarify this
exemption’s expectations regarding the
substance of the Policies. In this regard,
the Department has added the term, ‘‘as
applicable with respect to each Covered
Plan,’’ following the phrase, ‘‘ERISA’s
fiduciary duties, and with ERISA and
the Code’s prohibited transaction
provisions.’’
Section I(h)(1)(iv) of the proposed
five-year exemption provides that the
Policies must be reasonably designed to
ensure that: ‘‘(iv) Any filings or
statements made by the Citigroup
Affiliated QPAM to regulators,
including, but not limited to, the
Department, the Department of the
Treasury, the Department of Justice, and
the Pension Benefit Guaranty
Corporation, on behalf of ERISAcovered plans or IRAs, are materially
accurate and complete, to the best of
such QPAM’s knowledge at that time.’’
The Department has determined to
revise Section I(h)(1)(iv) to better
coordinate with the other conditions of
this exemption. In this regard, the
Department has revised the condition to
read, ‘‘. . . . on behalf of or in relation
to Covered Plans. . . .’’
Section I(h)(1)(v) of the proposed fiveyear exemption provides that the
Policies must be reasonably designed to
ensure that: ‘‘(v) The Citigroup Affiliated
QPAM does not make material
misrepresentations or omit material
information in its communications with
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such regulators with respect to ERISAcovered plans or IRAs, or make material
misrepresentations or omit material
information in its communications with
ERISA-covered plans and IRA clients.’’
The Department has revised Section
I(h)(1)(v) in the same manner as it
revised Section I(h)(1)(iv). The
Department has also revised Section
I(h)(1)(v) by adding the following
language to the beginning of the section:
‘‘To the best of the Citigroup Affiliated
QPAM’s knowledge at the time. . . .’’
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Incorporating the Training into the
Policies—Section I(h)(2)(i)
Section I(h)(2)(i) of the proposed fiveyear exemption provides, ‘‘. . . The
Training must: (i) Be set forth in the
Policies and, at a minimum, cover the
Policies, ERISA and Code compliance
(including applicable fiduciary duties
and the prohibited transaction
provisions), ethical conduct, the
consequences for not complying with
the conditions of this five-year
exemption (including any loss of
exemptive relief provided herein), and
prompt reporting of wrongdoing.’’
The Department has revised Section
I(h)(2)(i) by removing the requirement
that the Training must be set forth in the
Policies. As revised, Section I(h)(2)(i)
provides that the Training must, ‘‘(i) At
a minimum, cover the Policies, ERISA
and Code compliance (including
applicable fiduciary duties and the
prohibited transaction provisions),
ethical conduct, the consequences for
not complying with the conditions of
this exemption (including any loss of
exemptive relief provided herein), and
prompt reporting of wrongdoing.’’
Training by Independent Professional—
Section I(h)(2)(ii)
Section I(h)(2)(ii) of the proposed fiveyear exemption provides that the
Training must, ‘‘(ii) Be conducted by an
independent professional who has been
prudently selected and who has
appropriate technical and training and
proficiency with ERISA and the Code.’’
The Applicant requests that the
requirement that the professional be
‘‘independent’’ be omitted, on the basis
that the ‘‘independence’’ of the trainer
will not enhance the quality or
effectiveness of the training, and may in
fact detract from it. In this regard, the
Applicant states that the training will be
monitored by the Compliance Officer,
subject to annual review by the
Compliance Officer (the Annual
Review), and audited by the
independent auditor. The Applicant
states that a professional trainer who is
familiar with the Applicant’s
operations, culture, and management is
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prevent the sort of compliance failures
that led to the Conviction.
The Department views the audit
requirement as an integral component of
the exemption, without which the
Department would be unable to make its
finding that the exemption is protective
of Covered Plans and their participants,
beneficiaries, and beneficial owners, as
applicable. This exemption’s conditions
are based, in part, on the Department’s
assessment of the seriousness and
duration of the misconduct that resulted
in the violation of Section I(g) of PTE
84–14, as well as the apparent
inadequacy of control and oversight
mechanisms at Citigroup to prevent the
misconduct. The Department, however,
recognizes that, notwithstanding
Citigroup’s oversight failures, only a
small number of individuals at
Citigroup directly engaged in the
misconduct at issue. Thus, the United
States District Court for the District of
Connecticut stated, in connection with
the sentencing of Citicorp, that: ‘‘the
conduct at issue here was engaged in by
a very small number of individuals,’’
Audit Requirement—Section I(i).
and that, ‘‘we do not have banks who
appear to have condoned conduct at any
Section I(i)(1) of the proposed fivehigh-ranking level.’’ 39
year exemption provides that, ‘‘(i)(1)
Accordingly, the Department has
Each Citigroup Affiliated QPAM submits
determined to change the audit interval
to an audit conducted annually by an
under this exemption from annual to
independent auditor, who has been
biennial. Section I(i)(1) of the
prudently selected and who has
exemption, therefore, now requires that
appropriate technical training and
proficiency with ERISA and the Code, to each Citigroup Affiliated QPAM submit
‘‘to an audit conducted every two years
evaluate the adequacy of, and the
Citigroup Affiliated QPAM’s compliance by an independent auditor.’’ Each audit
must cover the preceding consecutive
with, the Policies and Training
twelve (12) month period. The first
described herein.’’
audit must cover the period from July
As stated above, the Applicant
10, 2018 through July 9, 2019, and must
requests that the audit requirement be
be completed by January 9, 2020. The
deleted from the exemption in its
second audit must cover the period from
entirety. In support of its request, the
July 10, 2020 through July 9, 2021, and
Applicant states that the audit
must be completed by January 9, 2022.
requirement is burdensome, costly, and
In the event that the Exemption Period
redundant. The Applicant also states
is extended or a new exemption is
that it has comprehensive compliance
and internal audit departments, and that granted, the third audit would cover the
period from July 10, 2022 through July
these departments should be
9, 2023, and would be completed by
responsible for carrying out the audit
January 9, 2024, unless the Department
requirements under this exemption.
The Department declines to delete the chose to alter the audit requirement in
the new or extended exemption.40
audit requirement in its entirety. A
recurring, independent, and prudently39 See TRANSCRIPT of Proceedings: as to
conducted audit of the Citigroup
Citicorp (January 5, 2017 at pages 29–30).
Affiliated QPAMs is critical to ensuring
40 The third audit referenced above would not
the QPAMs’ compliance with the
have to be completed until after the Exemption
Policies and Training mandated by this
Period expires. If the Department ultimately decides
to grant relief for an additional period, it could
exemption, and the adequacy of the
decide to alter the terms of the exemption,
Policies and Training. The required
including the audit conditions (and the timing of
discipline of regular audits underpins
the audit requirements). Nevertheless, the
the Department’s finding that the
Applicant should anticipate that the Department
will insist on strict compliance with the audit terms
exemption is protective of Covered
and schedule set forth above. As it considers any
Plans, their participants, beneficiaries,
new exemption application, the Department may
and beneficial owners, as applicable.
also contact the auditor for any information relevant
Strong independent audits should help
to its determination.
less likely to be independent, but is
more likely to be effective in its role.
The Applicant also states that the
compliance and audit functions
mandated under this exemption will
provide adequate safeguards that are
sufficient to address any concern arising
from a lack of independence on the part
of the professional trainer. In sum, the
Applicant requests that it be permitted
to implement the required training
within the context of its own existing
training regime.
Although the Department disagrees
with the Applicant’s assertion that
hiring a prudently-selected,
independent professional may in fact
detract from the quality and
effectiveness of the training required
under this exemption, the Department is
persuaded that Citigroup personnel who
are prudently-selected and have
appropriate technical training and
proficiency with ERISA and the Code
may conduct the training. The
Department has revised the condition
accordingly.
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The Departments notes that if the
audit uncovers material deficiencies
with Citigroup’s compliance with this
exemption, then the Applicant should
consider conducting an additional audit
after making corrections to ensure that
it remains in compliance with the
exemption. In any event, the
Department emphasizes that it retains
the right to conduct its own
investigation of compliance based on
any such indicators of problems.
The Department declines to revise
Section I(i) in a manner that would
permit the Applicant’s Internal Audit
Department to carry out this
exemption’s required audit functions.
Permitting the Applicant’s internal
audit department to carry out this
exemption’s required audit functions
would be insufficiently protective of
Covered Plans. Auditor independence is
essential to this exemption, as it allows
for an impartial analysis of the Citigroup
Affiliated QPAMs. The independence of
the auditor is the cornerstone of the
integrity of the audit process and is of
primary importance to avoid conflicts of
interest and any inappropriate influence
on the auditor’s findings.
The fundamental importance of
auditor independence to the integrity of
the audit process is well established.
For example, the United States
Securities and Exchange Commission
(SEC) promulgated regulations at 17
CFR 210.2–01 to ensure that auditors are
independent of their clients, and under
17 CFR 240.10A–2, it is unlawful for an
auditor not to be independent in certain
circumstances. Likewise, the Public
Accounting Oversight Board’s (PCAOB)
Rule 3520 states that a public
accounting firm and its associated
persons must be independent of the
firm’s audit clients. The Association of
Independent Certified Public
Accountants’ (AICPA) Code of
Professional Conduct, Objectivity and
Independence Principle (AICPA,
Professional Standards, ET section
0.300.050.01) requires members working
on an audit or attest engagement to be
independent, in fact and appearance.
Moreover, ERISA section 103(a)(3)(A)
requires an accountant hired by an
employee benefit plan to examine the
plan’s financial statements to be
independent.
Entities Subject to Audit—Section I(i)
Section I(i)(1) of the proposed fiveyear exemption provides, ‘‘(i)(1) Each
Citigroup Affiliated QPAM submits to
an audit conducted annually by an
independent auditor. . . .’’
The Applicant requests that only the
particular Citigroup Affiliated QPAMs
and Citigroup Related QPAMs actually
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relying upon PTE 84–14 and this
exemption when providing services to,
or engaging in transactions as an agent
for, their clients, should be subject to
the audit requirement under this
exemption, and not every entity within
the Citigroup-affiliated group that could
be eligible to be a ‘‘qualified
professional asset manager,’’ as defined
in PTE 84–14. The Applicant also
requests that Section I(i)(1) be revised to
state that the Citigroup entities subject
to the audit requirement are Citigroup
Affiliated QPAM’s, ‘‘which the
Applicant has identified in a certificate
signed by the officer who will review
and certify the Audit Report (as defined
in Section I(i)(5)) pursuant to Section
I(i)(8).’’ In support of its request, the
Applicant states that the purpose of the
independent audit is to ensure that
Citigroup entities relying upon PTE 84–
14 are in compliance with the
conditions of PTE 84–14 and the
conditions of this exemption. The
Applicant also states that it would
identify the relevant entities to the
independent auditor in a certificate
signed by the compliance officer who
will review the Audit Report.
The Department has determined to
revise Section I(i)(1) in the manner
requested by the Applicant. The
Department acknowledges that the
independent auditor will need to be
provided with the identities of the
Citigroup Affiliated QPAMs to be
audited and that the Applicant is best
positioned to provide such information.
The Department notes that Section I(i)
requires the audit of each Citigroup
entity that relies upon QPAM status, or
expressly represents to ERISA-covered
plan or IRA clients that it qualifies as a
QPAM.
Auditor Information Access—Section
I(i)(2)
Section I(i)(2) of the proposed fiveyear exemption provides, ‘‘(i)(2) To the
extent necessary for the auditor, in its
sole opinion, to complete its audit and
comply with the conditions for relief
described herein, and as permitted by
law, each Citigroup Affiliated QPAM
and, if applicable, Citigroup, will grant
the auditor unconditional access to its
business, including, but not limited to:
its computer systems; business records;
transactional data; workplace locations;
training materials; and personnel.’’
The Applicant requests that the
phrase ‘‘as permitted by law’’ be
clarified by the addition of the following
proviso: ‘‘provided, that the auditor
shall not have access to any privileged
information or confidential supervisory
information.’’ The Applicant states that
certain privileged or confidential
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supervisory information which would
be ‘‘permitted by law’’ to be shared with
the auditor could result in the loss of
the attorney-client or other privilege, or
regulatory interest in maintaining
confidentiality. The Applicant states
that the purposes of the independent
audit can be fully accomplished without
requiring the Applicant to bear such
costs. The Applicant also states that
relevant privileges, and in particular,
the attorney-client privilege, are based
on important policy interests that
routinely are thought to outweigh other
critically important legal and social
interests.
In the Department’s view, to ensure a
thorough and robust audit, the
independent auditor must be granted
access to information it deems necessary
to make sound conclusions. The
auditor’s access to such information
must be within the scope of the audit
engagement and denied only to the
extent that such disclosure is not
permitted by state or federal statute.
Designating specific restrictions on
information accessibility may hinder the
auditor’s ability to perform the
procedures necessary to make informed
conclusions, thus undermining the
effectiveness of the audit. The auditor’s
access to such information, however, is
limited to information relevant to the
auditor’s objectives as specified by the
terms of this exemption and to the
extent disclosure is not prevented by
state or federal statute or involves
communications subject to attorney
client privilege. In this regard, the
Department has modified Section I(i)(2)
accordingly.
Audit Transaction Sampling—Section
I(i)(4)
Section I(i)(4) of the proposed fiveyear exemption provides, ‘‘(4) The
auditor’s engagement must specifically
require the auditor to test each
Citigroup Affiliated QPAM’s operational
compliance with the Policies and
Training. In this regard, the auditor
must test a sample of each QPAM’s
transactions involving ERISA-covered
plans and IRAs sufficient in size and
nature to afford the auditor a reasonable
basis to determine the operational
compliance with the Policies and
Training.’’
The Applicant requests that the
Department clarify that audit ‘‘samples’’
pursuant to this condition need only
apply to transactions undertaken in
reliance on PTE 84–14. The Applicant
states that the purpose of the
independent audit is to confirm
compliance with the conditions
required under the exemption and
permit the Applicant to continue to
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utilize PTE 84–14 on behalf of Covered
Plans.
The Department has revised this
condition for consistency with other
conditions of this exemption which are
tailored to the Department’s interest in
protecting Covered Plans. Therefore, the
condition now applies only to Covered
Plans. The Department additionally
notes that Section I(i)(4) does not
specify the number of transactions that
the auditor must test, but rather
requires, for each QPAM, that the
auditor test a sample of each such
QPAM’s transactions involving Covered
Plans, ‘‘sufficient in size and nature to
afford the auditor a reasonable basis to
determine operational compliance with
the Policies and Training.’’
Audit Report—Section I(i)(5)
Section I(i)(5) of the proposed fiveyear exemption provides that, ‘‘[f]or
each audit, on or before the end of the
relevant period described in Section
I(i)(1) for completing the audit, the
auditor must issue a written report (the
Audit Report) to Citigroup and the
Citigroup Affiliated QPAM to which the
audit applies that describes the
procedures performed by the auditor
during the course of its examination.
The Audit Report must include the
auditor’s specific determinations
regarding:
(i) The adequacy of the Citigroup
Affiliated QPAM’s Policies and
Training; the Citigroup Affiliated
QPAM’s compliance with the Policies
and Training; the need, if any, to
strengthen such Policies and Training;
and any instance of the respective
Citigroup Affiliated QPAM’s
noncompliance with the written Policies
and Training described in Section I(h)
above. Any determination by the auditor
regarding the adequacy of the Policies
and Training and the auditor’s
recommendations (if any) with respect
to strengthening the Policies and
Training of the respective Citigroup
Affiliated QPAM must be promptly
addressed by such Citigroup Affiliated
QPAM, and any action taken by such
Citigroup Affiliated QPAM to address
such recommendations must be
included in an addendum to the Audit
Report (which addendum is completed
prior to the certification described in
Section I(i)(7) below). Any
determination by the auditor that the
respective Citigroup Affiliated QPAM
has implemented, maintained, and
followed sufficient Policies and Training
must not be based solely or in
substantial part on an absence of
evidence indicating noncompliance. In
this last regard, any finding that the
Citigroup Affiliated QPAM has
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complied with the requirements under
this subsection must be based on
evidence that demonstrates the
Citigroup Affiliated QPAM has actually
implemented, maintained, and followed
the Policies and Training required by
this five-year exemption. Furthermore,
the auditor must not solely rely on the
Annual Report created by the
compliance officer (the Compliance
Officer) as described in Section I(m)
below as the basis for the auditor’s
conclusions in lieu of independent
determinations and testing performed
by the auditor as required by Section
I(i)(3) and (4) above; and
(ii) The adequacy of the Annual
Review described in Section I(m) and
the resources provided to the
Compliance Officer in connection with
such Annual Review.’’
To improve consistency between the
audit conditions of this exemption, the
Department has modified Section I(i)(5)
to clarify that the auditor may issue one
consolidated Audit Report covering all
the Citigroup QPAMS for the period of
time being audited. The Department
also acknowledges that the Citigroup
Affiliated QPAMs’ efforts to address the
auditor’s recommendations regarding
any inadequacy in the Policies and
Training identified by the auditor may
take longer to implement than the time
limits mandated by the proposed
exemption. Accordingly, the
Department is modifying Section
I(i)(5)(i) to reflect the possibility that the
Citigroup Affiliated QPAMs’ efforts to
address the auditor’s recommendations
regarding any inadequacy in the Policies
and Training may not be completed by
the submission date of the Audit Report
and may involve a written plan to
address such items. However, any
noncompliance identified by the auditor
must be promptly addressed.
The revised Section also requires that
if such a written plan of action to
address the auditor’s recommendation
as to the adequacy of the Polices and
Training is not completed by the
submission of the Audit Report, the
following period’s Audit Report must
state whether the plan was satisfactorily
completed. Additionally, the
Department has modified the final
sentence in Section I(i)(5)(i) to more
clearly express the Department’s intent
that the auditor must not rely solely on
the work of the Compliance Officer and
the Compliance Officer’s Annual Report
in formulating its conclusions or
findings. The auditor must perform its
own independent testing to formulate
its conclusions. This exemption does
not prohibit the auditor from
considering the Compliance Officer’s
Annual Report in carrying out its audit
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function, including its formulation of an
audit plan. This exemption, however,
does prohibit the auditor from reaching
conclusions that are exclusively based
upon the contents of the Compliance
Officer’s Annual Report.
Finally, while an independent
assessment by the auditor of the
adequacy of the Annual Review is
essential to providing the Department
with the assurance that the Applicant
and the Citigroup QPAMs have given
these matters the utmost priority and
have taken the necessary actions to
comply with the exemption, the
Department has determined that the
auditor should not be responsible for
opining on the adequacy of the
resources allocated to the Compliance
Officer and has modified Section
I(i)(5)(ii) accordingly. If, however, the
auditor observes compliance issues
related to the Compliance Officer or
available resources, it would be
appropriate for the auditor to opine on
those problems.
Certification of Audit Report—Section
I(i)(7)–(8)
Section I(i)(7) of the proposed fiveyear exemption provides that, ‘‘(7) With
respect to each Audit Report, the
General Counsel, or one of the three
most senior executive officers of the
Citigroup Affiliated QPAM to which the
Audit Report applies, must certify in
writing, under penalty of perjury, that
the officer has reviewed the Audit
Report and this exemption; addressed,
corrected, or remedied any inadequacy
identified in the Audit Report; and
determined that the Policies and
Training in effect at the time of signing
are adequate to ensure compliance with
the conditions of this proposed five-year
exemption, and with the applicable
provisions of ERISA and the Code.’’
Section I(i)(8) of the proposed fiveyear exemption provides, ‘‘(i)(8) The
Risk Committee of Citigroup’s Board of
Directors is provided a copy of each
Audit Report; and a senior executive
officer with a direct reporting line to the
highest ranking legal compliance officer
of Citigroup must review the Audit
Report for each Citigroup Affiliated
QPAM and must certify in writing,
under penalty of perjury, that such
officer has reviewed each Audit
Report.’’
With respect to Section I(i)(7), the
Applicant requests clarification that the
certifying official who must ‘‘certify in
writing, under penalty of perjury, that
the officer has reviewed the Audit
Report and this exemption. . . .’’
should be the general counsel or one of
the three most senior executive officers
of the Citigroup Affiliated QPAM itself
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(and not of the ultimate parent of the
Citigroup-affiliated corporate group,
Citigroup Inc.).
With respect to Section I(i)(8), the
Applicant requests that, ‘‘a senior
executive officer with a direct reporting
line to the highest ranking legal
compliance officer of Citigroup,’’ be
revised to, ‘‘a senior executive officer of
Citigroup or one of its affiliates who
reports directly to, or reports to another
executive who reports directly to, the
highest ranking compliance officer of
Citigroup. . . .’’
The Department agrees that the
obligation under Section I(i)(7) to
review the Audit Report and identify
and remedy deficiencies may be carried
out by the general counsel or one of the
three most senior executive officers of
the Citigroup Affiliated QPAM itself.
The Department also agrees that the
obligation under Section I(i)(8) to
review the Audit Report may be carried
out by a senior executive officer of
Citigroup or one of its affiliates who
reports directly to, or reports to another
executive who reports directly to, the
highest ranking compliance officer of
Citigroup. The Department has revised
Sections I(i)(7) and (8) accordingly.
Additionally, to coordinate with the
revisions applied to Section I(i)(5), as
discussed above, the Department has
revised Section I(i)(7) to acknowledge
that the Applicant’s efforts to address
the auditor’s recommendations
regarding inadequacies in the Policies
and Training may take longer to
implement than the required timeframe
for submission of the certified Audit
Report. In this regard, the Department
did not intend to limit the Applicant’s
ability to implement corrective
measures by requiring that such efforts
be completed prior to the submission of
the Audit Report. Therefore, the
Department has modified Section I(i)(7)
to reflect that the senior executive
officer may certify that a written plan to
address the inadequacies regarding the
Policies and Training identified in the
auditor’s report is in place.
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Availability of the Audit Report—
Section I(i)(9)
Section I(i)(9) of the proposed
exemption provides in part, ‘‘. . . each
Citigroup Affiliated QPAM must make
its Audit Report unconditionally
available for examination by any duly
authorized employee or representative
of the Department, other relevant
regulators, and any fiduciary of an
ERISA-covered plan or IRA, the assets of
which are managed by such Citigroup
Affiliated QPAM in reliance of PTE 84–
14.’’
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Throughout this exemption, the
Department has discussed its interest in
ensuring that the conditions included
herein broadly protect ERISA-covered
plans and IRAs that enter into an asset
management agreement with a Citigroup
Affiliated QPAM in reliance on such
QPAM’s qualification under PTE 84–14.
However, the Department recognizes
that, under certain circumstances,
extending the Applicant’s disclosure
obligations beyond the plan and IRA
clients that this exemption is designed
to protect does not contribute to this
exemption’s intended purpose. With
regard to Section I(i)(9), the Department
has adopted revisions which require the
Citigroup Affiliated QPAMs to make the
Audit Report available to any fiduciary
of a Covered Plan. Accordingly, the
Department has revised this condition
by replacing the phrase ‘‘an ERISAcovered plan or IRA, the assets of which
are managed by such Citigroup
Affiliated QPAM’’ with the term
‘‘Covered Plan’’ (as defined in Section
II(b)). Lastly, the Department has revised
Section I(i)(9) to require that access to
the Audit Report need only be provided
upon request and such access can be
electronic. The Department notes that
the Audit Report, in any event, will be
incorporated into the public record
attributable to this exemption, under
Exemption Application Number D–
11909, and, therefore, independently
accessible by members of the public.
Engagement Agreements—Section
I(i)(10)
Section I(i)(10) of the proposed
exemption provides that ‘‘[e]ach
Citigroup Affiliated QPAM and the
auditor must submit to OED: (A) any
engagement agreement(s) entered into
pursuant to the engagement of the
auditor under this exemption; and (B)
any engagement agreement entered into
with any other entity retained in
connection with such QPAM’s
compliance with the Training or Policies
conditions of this five-year exemption,
no later than six (6) months after the
Conviction Date (and one month after
the execution of any agreement
thereafter).’’
In coordination with the Department’s
modification of Section I(h)(2)(ii), which
permits prudently-selected Citigroup
personnel to conduct the training, the
Department has determined to remove
the Section I(i)(10)(B) requirement for
Citigroup Affiliated QPAMs and the
auditor to provide the Department with
engagement agreements entered into
with entities retained in connection
with the Training or Policies conditions.
Furthermore, to remove any confusion
and uncertainty regarding the timing of
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the submission of the auditor’s
engagement agreement, the Department
has modified Section I(i)(10) to require
that the auditor’s engagement agreement
be submitted to the Office of Exemption
Determinations no later than two (2)
months after the engagement agreement
is entered into by the Applicant and the
independent auditor.
Audit Workpapers—Section I(i)(11)
Section I(i)(10) of the proposed
exemption requires ‘‘[t]he auditor must
provide OED, upon request, all of the
workpapers created and utilized in the
course of the audit, including, but not
limited to: The audit plan; audit testing;
identification of any instance of
noncompliance by the relevant
Citigroup Affiliated QPAM; and an
explanation of any corrective or
remedial action taken by the applicable
Citigroup Affiliated QPAM.’’
The Department acknowledges that
certain information contained in the
audit workpapers may be confidential
and proprietary, and that the inclusion
of such information in the public file
may create avoidable disclosure issues.
The Department has modified Section
I(i)(11) to remove the requirement that
the auditor provide the workpapers to
OED,41 and instead require that the
auditor provide access to the
workpapers for the Department’s review
and inspection.
Substitution of the Auditor—Section
I(i)(12)
Section I(i)(12) of the proposed
exemption provides ‘‘Citigroup must
notify the Department at least thirty (30)
days prior to any substitution of an
auditor, except that no such
replacement will meet the requirements
of this paragraph unless and until
Citigroup demonstrates to the
Department’s satisfaction that such new
auditor is independent of Citigroup,
experienced in the matters that are the
subject of the exemption, and capable of
making the determinations required of
this exemption.’’
The Department has revised this
condition for consistency with its
interest in protecting Covered Plans. As
revised, Section I(i)(12) now requires
that Citigroup, no later than two (2)
months following the engagement of a
replacement auditor, must notify the
Department of the auditor substitution
and the reason(s) for the substitution,
including any material disputes
between the terminated auditor and
Citigroup. The Department has also
41 OED is the Office of Exemption Determinations
within the Employee Benefits Security
Administration agency of the United States
Department of Labor.
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revised Section I(i)(12) to remove the
requirement for Citigroup to
demonstrate the independence and
qualifications of the auditor. Citigroup’s
fiduciary obligations with respect to the
selection of the auditor, as well as the
significant role a credible selection
plays in reducing the need for more
extensive oversight by the Department,
should be sufficient to safeguard the
selection process.
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Contractual Commitments to Covered
Plans—Section I(j)
Section I(j) of the proposed five-year
exemption provides, ‘‘(j) Effective as of
the effective date of this five-year
exemption, with respect to any
arrangement, agreement, or contract
between a Citigroup Affiliated QPAM
and an ERISA-covered plan or IRA for
which a Citigroup Affiliated QPAM
provides asset management or other
discretionary fiduciary services, each
Citigroup Affiliated QPAM agrees and
warrants:
(1) To comply with ERISA and the
Code, as applicable with respect to such
ERISA-covered plan or IRA; to refrain
from engaging in prohibited
transactions that are not otherwise
exempt (and to promptly correct any
inadvertent prohibited transactions);
and to comply with the standards of
prudence and loyalty set forth in section
404 of ERISA, as applicable, with
respect to each such ERISA-covered
plan and IRA;
(2) To indemnify and hold harmless
the ERISA-covered plan or IRA for any
damages resulting from a Citigroup
Affiliated QPAM’s violation of
applicable laws, a Citigroup Affiliated
QPAM’s breach of contract, or any claim
brought in connection with the failure of
such Citigroup Affiliated QPAM to
qualify for the exemptive relief provided
by PTE 84–14 as a result of a violation
of Section I(g) of PTE 84–14 other than
the Conviction;
(3) Not to require (or otherwise cause)
the ERISA-covered plan or IRA to waive,
limit, or qualify the liability of the
Citigroup Affiliated QPAM for violating
ERISA or the Code or engaging in
prohibited transactions;
(4) Not to require the ERISA-covered
plan or IRA (or sponsor of such ERISAcovered plan or beneficial owner of such
IRA) to indemnify the Citigroup
Affiliated QPAM for violating ERISA or
engaging in prohibited transactions,
except for violations or prohibited
transactions caused by an error,
misrepresentation, or misconduct of a
plan fiduciary or other party hired by
the plan fiduciary who is independent
of Citigroup, and its affiliates;
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(5) Not to restrict the ability of such
ERISA-covered plan or IRA to terminate
or withdraw from its arrangement with
the Citigroup Affiliated QPAM
(including any investment in a
separately managed account or pooled
fund subject to ERISA and managed by
such QPAM), with the exception of
reasonable restrictions, appropriately
disclosed in advance, that are
specifically designed to ensure equitable
treatment of all investors in a pooled
fund in the event such withdrawal or
termination may have adverse
consequences for all other investors as
a result of an actual lack of liquidity of
the underlying assets, provided that
such restrictions are applied
consistently and in like manner to all
such investors;
(6) Not to impose any fees, penalties,
or charges for such termination or
withdrawal with the exception of
reasonable fees, appropriately disclosed
in advance, that are specifically
designed to prevent generally
recognized abusive investment practices
or specifically designed to ensure
equitable treatment of all investors in a
pooled fund in the event such
withdrawal or termination may have
adverse consequences for all other
investors, provided that such fees are
applied consistently and in like manner
to all such investors;
(7) Not to include exculpatory
provisions disclaiming or otherwise
limiting liability of the Citigroup
Affiliated QPAM for a violation of such
agreement’s terms, except for liability
caused by an error, misrepresentation,
or misconduct of a plan fiduciary or
other party hired by the plan fiduciary
which is independent of Citigroup, and
its affiliates; and
(8) Within four (4) months of the date
of the Conviction, each Citigroup
Affiliated QPAM must provide a notice
of its obligations under this Section I(j)
to each ERISA-covered plan and IRA for
which a Citigroup Affiliated QPAM
provides asset management or other
discretionary fiduciary services. For all
other prospective ERISA-covered plan
and IRA clients for which a Citigroup
Affiliated QPAM provides asset
management or other discretionary
services, the Citigroup Affiliated QPAM
will agree in writing to its obligations
under this Section I(j) in an updated
investment management agreement
between the Citigroup Affiliated QPAM
and such clients or other written
contractual agreement.’’
The Applicant states that the creation
of new contractual rights as
contemplated under Section I(j) is
inappropriate and unnecessary for the
protection of ERISA-covered plan and
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IRA clients. The Applicant states that
Section (j) would require the creation of
new contractual commitments in favor
of ERISA-covered Plan and IRA clients
that would be substantially similar to
the contractual commitments
contemplated by the Best Interest
Contract Exemption (the ‘‘BIC
Exemption’’) published in the Federal
Register on April 18, 2016. The
Applicant states that the proposed
extension of these BIC Exemption
provisions to this exemption is
inappropriate, because the BIC
Exemption is intended to address
circumstances in which a fiduciary may
have a conflict of interest, while this
exemption would apply only in contexts
in which no such conflict exists. The
Applicant further states that, under the
circumstances, it is appropriate at a
minimum for Section I(j) of the
exemption to be revised to provide that
in no circumstance shall the contractual
commitments required therein extend
beyond the contractual commitments
required to be made to a fiduciary
seeking to rely on the BIC Exemption, if
any, as the BIC Exemption is in effect
from time to time.
The Applicant also requests that the
requirements of Sect“on I(j) be limited to
services that are rendered to Plan clients
in reliance on PTE 84–14. Accordingly,
the Applicant requests that Sect“on I(j)
should be clarified by adding the
phrase, ‘‘in reliance on PTE 84–14,’’
immediately following the phrase,
‘‘asset management or other
discretionary fiduciary services,’’ in the
leading paragraph and in two other
places in Section I(j)(8). The Applicant
states that the effect of the Exemption is
to permit the Applicant to continue to
use PTE 84–14 and that imposing
conditions relating to conduct that is
not connected to the relief being
provided exceeds the statutory mandate
of Section 408(a).
The Department may grant an
exemption under Section 408(a) of
ERISA or Section 4975(c)(2)(C) of the
Code only to the extent the Secretary
finds, among other things, that the
exemption is protective of the affected
plan(s) or IRA(s). Notwithstanding the
misconduct, which resulted in violation
of Section I(g) of PTE 84–14, the
Department has granted this exemption
based, in significant part, upon the
inclusion of Section I(j), which protects
Covered Plans by, among other things,
requiring the Citigroup Affiliated
QPAMs to make express commitments
to adhere to the requirements of ERISA
and the Code, as applicable.
As previously indicated, the
Department has concluded that a
culture of compliance, centered on
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adherence to basic standards of fair
dealing as set forth in this exemption,
gives the Department a compelling basis
for making the required statutory
findings that the exemption is in the
interests of plan and IRA investors and
protective of their rights. Absent such
findings, the exemption would have
been denied.
The Department has required an
express commitment to comply with the
fiduciary standards and prohibited
transaction rules only to the extent these
provisions are ‘‘applicable’’ under
ERISA and the Code. This section, as
modified, should serve its salutary
purposes of promoting a culture of
compliance and enhancing the ability of
plans and IRA customers to sever their
relationships with minimal injury in the
event of non-compliance. This
conclusion is reinforced, as well, by the
limited nature of the relief granted by
this exemption, which generally does
not extend to transactions that involve
self-dealing.
The Department notes that nothing in
ERISA or the Code prevents the
Department from conditioning relief on
express contractual commitments to
adhere to the requirements set out
herein. The QPAMs remain free to
disclaim reliance on the exemption and
to avoid such express contractual
commitments. To the extent, however,
that they hold themselves out as
fiduciary QPAMs, they should be
prepared to make an express
commitment to their customers to
adhere to the requirements of this
exemption. This commitment
strengthens and reinforces the
likelihood of compliance, and helps
ensure that, in the event of
noncompliance, customers, including
IRA customers, will be insulated from
injuries caused by non-compliance.
These protections also ensure that
customers will be able to extricate
themselves from transactions that
become prohibited as a result of the
QPAMs’ misconduct, without fear of
sustaining additional losses as a result
of the QPAMs’ actions. In this
connection, however, the Department
emphasizes that the only claims
available to the QPAMs’ customers
pursuant to these contractual
commitments are those separately
provided by ERISA or other state and
federal laws that are not preempted by
ERISA. As before, private litigants have
only those causes of action specifically
authorized by laws that exist
independent of this exemption.
As explained above, ERISA-covered
plans and IRAs routinely rely on QPAM
status as a condition of entering into
transactions with financial institutions,
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even with respect to transactions that do
not require adherence to PTE 84–14. In
addition, it may not always be clear
whether a Citigroup Affiliated QPAM
intends to rely upon PTE 84–14 for any
particular transaction. Accordingly, it is
critical to ensure that protective
conditions are in place to safeguard the
interests of ERISA-covered plans and
IRAs that are acting in reliance on the
availability of this exemption,
particularly with respect to plans and
IRAs that may not have entered into a
transaction in the first place, but for the
Department’s grant of this exemption.
The Department has revised this
condition for consistency with its
interest in protecting Covered Plans.
The condition now applies to ERISAcovered plans and IRAs only when the
Citigroup Affiliated QPAM relies on
PTE 84–14 or has expressly represented
that it qualifies as a QPAM or relies on
the QPAM class exemption in its
dealings with the ERISA-covered plan
or IRA (i.e., a Covered Plan). To the
extent a Citigroup QPAM would prefer
not to be subject to these conditions,
however, it may expressly disclaim
reliance on QPAM status or PTE 84–14
in entering into its contract with the
ERISA-covered plan or IRA.
Contractual Commitments—Section
I(j)(1)
Section I(j)(1) of the proposed fiveyear exemption provides that each
Citigroup Affiliated QPAM agrees and
warrants: ‘‘(1) To comply with ERISA
and the Code, as applicable with respect
to such ERISA-covered plan or IRA; to
refrain from engaging in prohibited
transactions that are not otherwise
exempt (and to promptly correct any
inadvertent prohibited transactions);
and to comply with the standards of
prudence and loyalty set forth in section
404 of ERISA, as applicable, with
respect to each such ERISA-covered
plan and IRA.’’
The Applicant requests the phrase,
‘‘as applicable’’ be moved to follow the
phrase, ‘‘. . . .with respect to such
ERISA-covered plan or IRA.’’ The
Department has determined to revise
Section I(j)(1) by adding ‘‘to the extent
that Section is applicable,’’ following
the phrase, ‘‘with respect to each such
ERISA-covered plan and IRA’’ at the
end of the condition. As written, the
text expressly focuses on provisions of
ERISA and the Code only to the extent
those provisions are applicable to the
conduct at issue.
Indemnity Provision—Section I(j)(2)
Section I(j)(2) of the proposed fiveyear exemption provides that each
Citigroup Affiliated QPAM agrees and
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61873
warrants: ‘‘(2) To indemnify and hold
harmless the ERISA-covered plan or IRA
for any damages resulting from a
Citigroup Affiliated QPAM’s violation of
applicable laws, a Citigroup Affiliated
QPAM’s breach of contract, or any claim
brought in connection with the failure of
such Citigroup Affiliated QPAM to
qualify for the exemptive relief provided
by PTE 84–14 as a result of a violation
of Section I(g) of PTE 84–14 other than
the Conviction.’’
The Applicant requests that Section
I(j)(2) be revised to read: ‘‘To indemnify
and hold harmless the ERISA-covered
plan or IRA for any damages resulting
from a violation of ERISA’s fiduciary
duties and of ERISA and the Code’s
prohibited transaction provisions, a
breach of contract, or any claim arising
out of the failure of such Citigroup
Affiliated QPAM to qualify for the
exemptive relief provided by PTE 84–14
as a result of a violation of Section I(g)
of PTE 84–14 other than the
Conviction;’’
As explained above, the intended
purpose of this exemption is to protect
Covered Plans that entrust the Citigroup
Affiliated QPAMs with the management
of their retirement assets. To this end,
the Department believes that the
protective purpose of this exemption is
furthered by Section I(j)(2). This
condition ensures that, when a Covered
Plan enters into an asset management
agreement with a Citigroup Affiliated
QPAM in reliance on the manager’s
qualification as a QPAM, it may expect
adherence to basic fiduciary norms and
standards of fair dealing,
notwithstanding the prior conviction.
This condition also ensures that the
Covered Plan will be able to disengage
from that relationship without undue
injury in the event that the terms of this
exemption are violated.
Accordingly, the Department has
revised the applicability of this
condition to more closely reflect this
interest. In particular, the condition
applies to Covered Plans. As indicated
above, if the asset manager would prefer
not to be subject to these provisions as
exemption conditions, it may expressly
disclaim reliance on QPAM status or
PTE 84–14 in entering into its contract
with an ERISA-covered plan or IRA (in
that case, however, it could not rely on
the exemption for relief). The
Department has made certain further
changes to this condition, which
include: Replacing ‘‘applicable laws’’
with clarifying language that conforms
to PTE 2016–14; and replacing ‘‘any
damages’’ with ‘‘actual losses resulting
directly from’’ certain acts or omissions
of the Citigroup Affiliated QPAMs.
Because I(j)(2) extends only to actual
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losses resulting directly from the actions
of the Citigroup Affiliated QPAMs, it
does not encompass losses solely caused
by other parties, events, or acts of God.
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Contractual Commitments—Section
I(j)(4)
Section I(j)(4) of the proposed fiveyear exemption provides that each
Citigroup Affiliated QPAM agrees and
warrants: ‘‘(4) Not to require the ERISAcovered plan or IRA (or sponsor of such
ERISA-covered plan or beneficial owner
of such IRA) to indemnify the Citigroup
Affiliated QPAM for violating ERISA or
engaging in prohibited transactions,
except for violations or prohibited
transactions caused by an error,
misrepresentation, or misconduct of a
plan fiduciary or other party hired by
the plan fiduciary who is independent
of Citigroup, and its affiliates.’’
The Department has determined that
Section I(j)(4), as proposed, is
duplicative of the exemption’s
prohibition on exculpatory clauses
under Section I(j)(7). The Department
therefore has deleted Section I(j)(4)and
renumbered the subsequent subsections
in Section I(j) accordingly.
Contractual Commitments—Section
I(j)(5) 42
Section I(j)(5) of the proposed fiveyear exemption provides that each
Citigroup Affiliated QPAM agrees and
warrants: ‘‘(5) Not to restrict the ability
of such ERISA-covered plan or IRA to
terminate or withdraw from its
arrangement with the Citigroup
Affiliated QPAM (including any
investment in a separately managed
account or pooled fund subject to ERISA
and managed by such QPAM), with the
exception of reasonable restrictions,
appropriately disclosed in advance, that
are specifically designed to ensure
equitable treatment of all investors in a
pooled fund in the event such
withdrawal or termination may have
adverse consequences for all other
investors as a result of an actual lack of
liquidity of the underlying assets,
provided that such restrictions are
applied consistently and in like manner
to all such investors.’’
The Applicant requests that I(j)(5) be
revised by replacing, ‘‘including’’ with
‘‘with respect to,’’ and replacing, ‘‘as a
result of an actual lack of liquidity of
the underlying assets, provided that
such restrictions are applied
consistently and in like manner to all
such investors;’’ with ‘‘in connection
with any such arrangements involving
investments in pooled funds subject to
42 The Department has renumbered this section as
Section I(j)(4) in this final exemption.
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ERISA entered into after the Conviction
Date, the adverse consequences must
relate to a lack of liquidity of the pooled
fund’s underlying assets, valuation
issues, or regulatory reasons that
prevent the fund from immediately
redeeming an ERISA-covered plan’s or
IRA’s investment, and such restrictions
are applicable to all such investors and
effective no longer than reasonably
necessary to avoid the adverse
consequences.’’
The Department has modified this
condition (renumbered in this
exemption as Section I(j)(4)) to clarify
the circumstances under which
reasonable restrictions are necessary to
protect the remaining investors in a
pooled fund and to also clarify that, in
any such event, the restrictions must be
reasonable and last no longer than
reasonably necessary to remedy the
adverse consequences. The revised and
renumber Section I(j)(4) provides, ’’Not
to restrict the ability of such Covered
Plan to terminate or withdraw from its
arrangement with the Citigroup
Affiliated QPAM with respect to any
investment in a separately managed
account or pooled fund subject to ERISA
and managed by such QPAM, with the
exception of reasonable restrictions,
appropriately disclosed in advance, that
are specifically designed to ensure
equitable treatment of all investors in a
pooled fund in the event such
withdrawal or termination may have
adverse consequences for all other
investors. In connection with any such
arrangements involving investments in
pooled funds subject to ERISA entered
into after the effective date of this
exemption, the adverse consequences
must relate to of a lack of liquidity of
the underlying assets, valuation issues,
or regulatory reasons that prevent the
fund from promptly redeeming an
ERISA-covered plan’s or IRA’s
investment, and such restrictions must
be applicable to all such investors and
effective no longer than reasonably
necessary to avoid the adverse
consequences.’’
Limits on Liability—Section I(j)(7)
Section I(j)(7) of the proposed fiveyear exemption provides that each
Citigroup Affiliated QPAM agrees and
warrants: ‘‘(j)(7) Not to include
exculpatory provisions disclaiming or
otherwise limiting liability of the
Citigroup Affiliated QPAM for a
violation of such agreement’s terms,
except for liability caused by an error,
misrepresentation, or misconduct of a
plan fiduciary or other party hired by
the plan fiduciary which is independent
of Citigroup, and its affiliates.’’
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The Department has modified Section
I(j)(6) (formerly (j)(7)) to clarify that the
prohibition on exculpatory provisions
does not extend to losses that arise from
an act or event not caused by Citigroup,
and that nothing in this section alters
the prohibition on exculpatory
provisions set forth in ERISA Section
410.
Notice and Updated Investment
Management Agreement—Section I(j)(8)
Section I(j)(8) of the proposed fiveyear exemption provides that, ‘‘(j)(8)
Within four (4) months of the date of the
Conviction, each Citigroup Affiliated
QPAM must provide a notice of its
obligations under this Section I(j) to
each ERISA-covered plan and IRA for
which a Citigroup Affiliated QPAM
provides asset management or other
discretionary fiduciary services. For all
other prospective ERISA-covered plan
and IRA clients for which a Citigroup
Affiliated QPAM provides asset
management or other discretionary
services, the Citigroup Affiliated QPAM
will agree in writing to its obligations
under this Section I(j) in an updated
investment management agreement
between the Citigroup Affiliated QPAM
and such clients or other written
contractual agreement.’’
The Applicant requests that Section
I(j)(8) be revised to extend the
applicable notification period from 4
months to 6 months. The Applicant also
requests that I(j)(8) be limited to ERISAcovered plans and IRAs for which a
Citigroup Affiliated QPAM provides
asset management or other discretionary
fiduciary services ‘‘in reliance on PTE
84–14.’’
As noted above, the Department has
an interest in protecting an ERISAcovered plan or IRA that enters into an
asset management agreement with a
Citigroup Affiliated QPAM in reliance
on the manager’s qualification as a
QPAM, regardless of whether the QPAM
relies on the class exemption when
managing such ERISA-covered plan’s or
IRA’s assets. The Department has
revised the applicability of this
condition to more closely reflect this
interest, and the condition now applies
only to Covered Plans. The Department
has also modified the condition so that
a Citigroup Affiliated QPAM will not
violate the condition solely because a
Covered Plan refuses to sign an updated
investment management agreement. In
addition, the Department has revised
Section I(j)(8) to provide that the
Citigroup Affiliated QPAM must
provide notice to each Covered Plan by
July 9, 2018.
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Notice to Covered Plan Clients—Section
I(k)(1) 43
Section I(k)(1) of the proposed fiveyear exemption provides, in relevant
part that, ‘‘Within fifteen (15) days of the
publication of this proposed five-year
exemption in the Federal Register,
each Citigroup Affiliated QPAM will
provide a notice of the proposed fiveyear exemption, along with a separate
summary describing the facts that led to
the Conviction (the Summary), which
have been submitted to the Department,
and a prominently displayed statement
(the Statement) that the Conviction
results in a failure to meet a condition
in PTE 84–14,. . . . In the event that
this proposed five-year exemption is
granted, the Federal Register copy of
the notice of final five-year exemption
must be delivered to such clients within
sixty (60) days of its publication in the
Federal Register’’
The Applicant requests that Section
I(k)(1) be revised to read, in relevant
part, ‘‘Each Citigroup Affiliated QPAM
has provided a notice of the proposed
five-year exemption, along with a
separate summary describing the facts
that led to the Conviction (the
Summary). . . . In addition, the
Federal Register copy of the notice of
final five-year exemption must be
delivered to such clients within sixty
(60) days of its publication in the
Federal Register. . . .’’
The Department notes that the
proposed exemption provides details of
the facts and circumstances underlying
the Conviction not found in the
Summary or the final grant. One of the
purposes of such a complete disclosure
is to ensure that all interested parties are
aware of, and attentive to, the complete
facts and circumstances surrounding
Citigroup’s application for exemption.
Requiring the disclosure of the
Summary, proposal, and grant provides
the opportunity for all parties to have
knowledge of these facts and
circumstance.
Notwithstanding this, the Department
has modified the condition to clarify
that disclosures under this condition
may be provided electronically. Further,
the notice requirement under this
condition has been narrowed to ERISAcovered plans and IRAs that would
benefit from this knowledge (i.e.,
Covered Plans).
Notice to Non-Plan Clients—Section
I(k)(2)
Section I(k)(2) of the proposed fiveyear exemption provides, in relevant
part that, ‘‘Each Citigroup Affiliated
43 The Department has renumbered this section as
Section I(k) in this final exemption.
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QPAM will provide a Federal Register
copy of the proposed five-year
exemption, a Federal Register copy of
the final five-year exemption; the
Summary; and the Statement to each:
(A) Current Non-Plan Client within four
(4) months of the effective date, if any,
of a final five-year exemption; and (B)
Future Non-Plan Client prior to, or
contemporaneously with, the client’s
receipt of a written asset management
agreement from the Citigroup Affiliated
QPAM.’’
Given the breadth of the notice
requirements otherwise mandated by
the exemption, and the decision to
restrict such requirements to
arrangements for which QPAM status
plays an integral role (i.e., the QPAM
represents or relies upon its QPAM
status), the Department has determined
to delete this provision.
Compliance Officer—Section I(m)
Section I(m)(1) of the proposed fiveyear exemption provides, ‘‘(m)(1)
Citigroup designates a senior
compliance officer (the Compliance
Officer) who will be responsible for
compliance with the Policies and
Training requirements described
herein. . . (i) The Compliance Officer
must be a legal professional with
extensive experience with, and
knowledge of, the regulation of financial
services and products, including under
ERISA and the Code; and (ii) The
Compliance Officer must have a direct
reporting line to the highest-ranking
corporate officer in charge of legal
compliance that is independent of
Citigroup’s other business lines.’’
As stated above, the Applicant
requests that the compliance officer
requirement of Section I(m) be deleted
from the exemption in its entirety. In
support of its request, the Applicant
states that this requirement is
burdensome, costly, and redundant. The
Applicant states that it has
comprehensive compliance and internal
audit departments that should be
responsible for developing and
implementing the necessary policies
and procedures under this exemption.
The Department declines to eliminate
the compliance officer requirement
under this exemption. Citigroup
personnel engaged in serious
misconduct that was caused, at least in
part, by compliance and oversight
failure. The Department’s determination
to grant this exemption is based in part
on the view that an internal compliance
officer with responsibility for the
Policies and Training mandated by this
exemption will provide the level of
oversight necessary to ensure that such
Policies and Training are properly
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developed and implemented throughout
the term of this exemption.
The Applicant also requests that
Section I(m)(1) be clarified by deleting
the word ‘‘legal’’ from the phrase ‘‘legal
compliance’’ in clause (ii). In this
regard, the Applicant states that the
Citigroup’s compliance function is
separate from its legal function. The
Applicant also requests that Section
I(m) be revised to clarify that the
Compliance Officer will be a senior
compliance officer of Citigroup Inc. or
one of its affiliates, and that such senior
compliance officer will be an officer
who reports directly to, or reports to
another compliance officer who reports
directly to, Citigroup Inc.’s highest
ranking compliance officer (whose title
is currently Global Chief Compliance
Officer of Citigroup Inc.).
After consideration of the Applicant’s
comment, the Department has revised
Section I(m)(1) in the manner requested
by the Applicant.
Deferred Prosecution/Non-Prosecution
Agreements—Section I(o)
Section I(o) of the proposed five-year
exemption provides, ‘‘(o) During the
effective period of the five-year
exemption, Citigroup: (1) Immediately
discloses to the Department any
Deferred Prosecution Agreement (a
DPA) or a Non-Prosecution Agreement
(an NPA) with the U.S. Department of
Justice, entered into by Citigroup or any
of its affiliates in connection with
conduct described in Section I(g) of PTE
84–14 or section 411 of ERISA; and (2)
Immediately provides the Department
any information requested by the
Department, as permitted by law,
regarding the agreement and/or conduct
and allegations that led to the
agreement. The Department may,
following its review of that information,
require Citigroup or a party specified by
the Department, to submit a new
application for the continued
availability of relief as a condition of
continuing to rely on this exemption. If
the Department denies the relief
requested in that application, or does
not grant such relief within twelve (12)
months of the application, the relief
described herein would be revoked as of
the date of denial or as of the expiration
of the twelve month period, whichever
date is earlier.’’
The Applicant requests that Section
I(o)(2) be revised to read substantially
the same as Section I(l) of PTE–2016–14,
subject to the following additional
changes. The Applicant requests the
replacement of the word ‘‘immediately’’
with ‘‘promptly’’ in subsections (1) and
(2); the insertion of the word
‘‘reasonably’’ before the phrase
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‘‘requested by the Department’’ in
subsection (2); and the deletion of the
final sentence of subsection (2), which
reads ‘‘If the Department denies the
relief requested in that application, or
does not grant such relief within twelve
(12) months of the application, the relief
described herein would be revoked as of
the date of denial or as of the expiration
of the twelve month period, whichever
date is earlier.’’
The Department in no way intended
that this condition be read as providing
for an automatic revocation of this
exemption, and in light of the
Applicant’s comments, has revised the
condition accordingly. As revised, the
condition requires that the Applicant
notify the Department if and when it, or
any of its affiliates enter into a DPA or
NPA with the U.S. Department of Justice
for conduct described in section I(g) of
PTE 84–14 or ERISA section 411; and
immediately provide, upon request by
the Department, any information, as
permitted by law, regarding the
agreement and/or conduct and
allegations that led to the agreement.
The Department, however, retains the
right to propose a withdrawal of the
exemption pursuant to its procedures
contained at 29 CFR 2570.50, should
circumstances warrant such action.
Right to Copies of Policies and
Procedures—Section I(p)
Section I(p) of the proposed five-year
exemption provides that, ‘‘[e]ach
Citigroup Affiliated QPAM, in its
agreements with ERISA-covered plan
and IRA clients, or in other written
disclosures provided to ERISA-covered
plan and IRA clients, within 60 days
prior to the initial transaction upon
which relief hereunder is relied, and
then at least once annually, will clearly
and prominently: Inform the ERISAcovered plan and IRA client that the
client has the right to obtain copies of
the QPAM’s written Policies adopted in
accordance with the exemption.’’
Ensuring that ERISA covered-plan
and IRA clients have a means by which
to review and understand the Policies
implemented in connection with this
exemption is a vital protection that is
fundamental to this exemption’s
purpose. The Department has modified
Section I(p) to provide that the
Citigroup Affiliated QPAMs, at their
election, may provide Covered Plans
with a disclosure that accurately
describes or summarizes key
components of the Policies. As revised,
Section I(p) does not require the
Citigroup Affiliated QPAMs to provide
the Policies in their entirety. The
Department has also determined that
such disclosure may be continuously
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maintained on a website, provided that
a website link to the summary of the
written Policies is clearly and
prominently disclosed to those Covered
Plan clients to whom this section
applies. The Department has also
modified Section I(p) to require that the
Citigroup Affiliated QPAMs provide
notice regarding the information on the
website within 60 days of the effective
date of this exemption, and thereafter to
the extent certain material changes are
made to the Policies.
New Definition of Citcorp
In the PTE 2016–14 Comment Letter,
the Applicant requested that the
Department add a definition for the term
‘‘Citicorp’’ to read as: ‘‘The term
‘Citicorp’ means, a financial services
holding company organized and
existing under the laws of Delaware and
does not include any subsidiaries or
other affiliates.’’ After consideration of
the Applicant’s comment, the
Department has added a new Section
II(e) to this exemption defining Citicorp
in the manner requested by the
Applicant.
Summary of Facts and Representations
The Applicant seeks certain
clarifications to the Summary of Facts
and Representations which the
Department does not view as relevant to
its determination whether to grant this
exemption. Those requested
clarifications may be found as part of
the public record for Application No. D–
11909, in a letter to the Department,
dated February 28, 2017.
Letter From House Committee on
Financial Services
The Department also received a
comment letter from certain members of
Congress (the Members) regarding this
exemption, as well as other QPAMrelated proposed one year exemptions.
In the letter, the Members stated that
certain conditions contained in these
proposed exemptions are crucial to
protecting the investments of our
nation’s workers and retirees, referring
to proposed conditions which require
each bank to: (a) Indemnify and hold
harmless ERISA-covered plans and IRAs
for any damages resulting from the
future misconduct of such bank; and (b)
disclose to the Department any Deferred
Prosecution Agreement or a NonProsecution Agreement with the U.S.
Department of Justice. The Members
also requested that the Department hold
hearings in connection with the
proposed exemptions.
The Department acknowledges the
Members’ concerns regarding the need
for public discourse regarding proposed
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exemptions. To this end, the
Department’s procedures regarding
prohibited transaction exemption
requests under ERISA (the Exemption
Procedures) afford interested persons
the opportunity to request a hearing.
Specifically, section 2570.46(a) of the
Exemption Procedures provides that,
‘‘[a]ny interested person who may be
adversely affected by an exemption
which the Department proposes to grant
from the restrictions of section 406(b) of
ERISA, section 4975(c)(1)(E) or (F) of the
Code, or section 8477(c)(2) of FERSA
may request a hearing before the
Department within the period of time
specified in the Federal Register notice
of the proposed exemption.’’ The
Exemption Procedures provide that
‘‘[t]he Department will grant a request
for a hearing made in accordance with
paragraph (a) of this section where a
hearing is necessary to fully explore
material factual issues identified by the
person requesting the hearing.’’ The
Exemption Procedures also provide that
‘‘[t]he Department may decline to hold
a hearing where: (1) The request for the
hearing does not meet the requirements
of paragraph (a) of this section; (2) the
only issues identified for exploration at
the hearing are matters of law; or (3) the
factual issues identified can be fully
explored through the submission of
evidence in written (including
electronic) form.’’ 44
While the Members’ letter raises
important policy issues, it does not
appear to raise specific material factual
issues. The Department previously
explored a wide range of legal and
policy issues regarding Section I(g) of
the QPAM Exemption during a public
hearing held on January 15, 2015 in
connection with the Department’s
proposed exemption involving Credit
Suisse AG, and has determined that an
additional hearing on these issues is not
necessary.
Comments From Interested Persons
The Department also received
comment letters from certain interested
persons. With respect to each, the
commenter sought a further explanation
regarding the proposed exemption.
After giving full consideration to the
record, the Department has decided to
grant the exemption, as described above.
The complete application file
(Application No. D–11909) is available
for public inspection in the Public
Disclosure Room of the Employee
Benefits Security Administration, Room
N–1515, U.S. Department of Labor, 200
44 29 CFR part 2570, published at 76 FR 66653,
October 27, 2011.
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Constitution Avenue NW, Washington,
DC 20210.
For a more complete statement of the
facts and representations supporting the
Department’s decision to grant this
exemption, refer to the notice of
proposed exemption published on
November 21, 2016 at 81 FR 83416.
Exemption
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Section I: Covered Transactions
Certain entities with specified
relationships to Citigroup (hereinafter,
the Citigroup Affiliated QPAMs and the
Citigroup Related QPAMs, as defined in
Sections II(f) and II(g), respectively) will
not be precluded from relying on the
exemptive relief provided by Prohibited
Transaction Class Exemption 84–14
(PTE 84–14 or the QPAM Exemption),
notwithstanding the Conviction, as
defined in Section II(a), during the
Exemption Period,45 provided that the
following conditions are satisfied:
(a) Other than a single individual who
worked for a non-fiduciary business
within Citigroup’s Markets and
Securities Services business, and who
had no responsibility for, and exercised
no authority in connection with, the
management of plan assets, the
Citigroup Affiliated QPAMs and the
Citigroup Related QPAMs (including
their officers, directors, agents other
than Citicorp, and employees of such
QPAMs who had responsibility for, or
exercised authority in connection with
the management of plan assets) did not
know of, did not have reason to know
of, or participate in the criminal
conduct that is the subject of the
Conviction. For purposes of this
paragraph (a), ‘‘participate in’’ means
the knowing approval of the misconduct
underlying the Conviction;
(b) Other than a single individual who
worked for a non-fiduciary business
within Citigroup’s Markets and
Securities Services Business, and who
had no responsibility for, and exercised
no authority in connection with, the
management of plan assets, the
Citigroup Affiliated QPAMs and the
Citigroup Related QPAMs (including
their officers, directors, and agents other
than Citicorp, and employees of such
Citigroup QPAMs) did not receive direct
compensation, or knowingly receive
indirect compensation in connection
45 Section I(g) of PTE 84–14 generally provides
that ‘‘[n]either the QPAM nor any affiliate thereof
. . . nor any owner . . . of a 5 percent or more
interest in the QPAM is a person who within the
10 years immediately preceding the transaction has
been either convicted or released from
imprisonment, whichever is later, as a result of ’’
certain felonies including violation of the Sherman
Antitrust Act, Title 15 United States Code, Section
1.
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with the criminal conduct that is the
subject of the Conviction;
(c) The Citigroup Affiliated QPAMs
will not employ or knowingly engage
any of the individuals that participated
in the criminal conduct that is the
subject of the Conviction. For the
purposes of this paragraph (c),
‘‘participated in’’ means the knowing
approval of the misconduct underlying
the Conviction;
(d) At all times during the Exemption
Period, no Citigroup Affiliated QPAM
will use its authority or influence to
direct an ‘‘investment fund’’ (as defined
in Section VI(b) of PTE 84–14), that is
subject to ERISA or the Code and
managed by such Citigroup Affiliated
QPAM in reliance on PTE 84–14, or
with respect to which a Citigroup
Affiliated QPAM has expressly
represented to an ERISA-covered plan
or IRA with assets invested in such
‘‘investment fund’’ that it qualifies as a
QPAM or relies on PTE 84–14, to enter
into any transaction with Citicorp, or to
engage Citicorp to provide any service
to such investment fund, for a direct or
indirect fee borne by such investment
fund, regardless of whether such
transaction or service may otherwise be
within the scope of relief provided by
an administrative or statutory
exemption;
(e) Any failure of a Citigroup
Affiliated QPAM or a Citigroup Related
QPAM to satisfy Section I(g) of PTE 84–
14 arose solely from the Conviction;
(f) A Citigroup Affiliated QPAM or a
Citigroup Related QPAM did not
exercise authority over the assets of any
plan subject to Part 4 of Title I of ERISA
(an ERISA-covered plan) or section 4975
of the Code (an IRA) in a manner that
it knew or should have known would:
Further the criminal conduct that is the
subject of the Conviction; or cause the
Citigroup Affiliated QPAM, the
Citigroup Related QPAM, or their
affiliates to directly or indirectly profit
from the criminal conduct that is the
subject of the Conviction;
(g) Other than with respect to
employee benefit plans maintained or
sponsored for its own employees or the
employees of an affiliate, Citicorp will
not act as a fiduciary within the
meaning of section 3(21)(A)(i) or (iii) of
ERISA, or section 4975(e)(3)(A) and (C)
of the Code, with respect to ERISAcovered plan and IRA assets; provided,
however, that Citicorp will not be
treated as violating the conditions of
this exemption solely because it acted as
an investment advice fiduciary within
the meaning of section 3(21)(A)(ii) or
section 4975(e)(3)(B) of the Code;
(h)(1) By July 9, 2018, each Citigroup
Affiliated QPAM must develop,
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implement, maintain, and follow
written policies and procedures (the
Policies). The Policies must require, and
must be reasonably designed to ensure
that:
(i) The asset management decisions of
the Citigroup Affiliated QPAM are
conducted independently of the
corporate management and business
activities of Citigroup;
(ii) The Citigroup Affiliated QPAM
fully complies with ERISA’s fiduciary
duties, and with ERISA and the Code’s
prohibited transaction provisions, as
applicable with respect to each Covered
Plan, and does not knowingly
participate in any violation of these
duties and provisions with respect to
Covered Plans;
(iii) The Citigroup Affiliated QPAM
does not knowingly participate in any
other person’s violation of ERISA or the
Code with respect to Covered Plans;
(iv) Any filings or statements made by
the Citigroup Affiliated QPAM to
regulators, including, but not limited to,
the Department, the Department of the
Treasury, the Department of Justice, and
the Pension Benefit Guaranty
Corporation, on behalf of or in relation
to Covered Plans, are materially
accurate and complete, to the best of
such QPAM’s knowledge at the time;
(v) To the best of the Citigroup
Affiliated QPAM’s knowledge at the
time, the Citigroup Affiliated QPAM
does not make material
misrepresentations or omit material
information in its communications with
such regulators with respect to Covered
Plans;
(vi) The Citigroup Affiliated QPAM
complies with the terms of this
exemption; and
(vii) Any violation of, or failure to
comply with an item in subparagraphs
(ii) through (vi), is corrected as soon as
reasonably possible upon discovery, or
as soon after the QPAM reasonably
should have known of the
noncompliance (whichever is earlier),
and any such violation or compliance
failure not so corrected is reported,
upon the discovery of such failure to so
correct, in writing, to the head of
compliance and the General Counsel (or
their functional equivalent) of the
relevant line of business that engaged in
the violation or failure, and the
independent auditor responsible for
reviewing compliance with the Policies.
A Citigroup Affiliated QPAM will not be
treated as having failed to develop,
implement, maintain, or follow the
Policies, provided that it corrects any
instance of noncompliance as soon as
reasonably possible upon discovery, or
as soon as reasonably possible after the
QPAM reasonably should have known
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of the noncompliance (whichever is
earlier), and provided that it adheres to
the reporting requirements set forth in
this subparagraph (vii);
(2) By July 9, 2018, each Citigroup
Affiliated QPAM must develop a
program of training (the Training), to be
conducted at least annually, for all
relevant Citigroup Affiliated QPAM
asset/portfolio management, trading,
legal, compliance, and internal audit
personnel. The first Training under this
Final Exemption must be completed by
all relevant Citigroup Affiliated QPAM
personnel by July 9, 2019 (by the end of
this 30-month period, asset/portfolio
management, trading, legal, compliance,
and internal audit personnel who were
employed from the start to the end of
the period must have been trained
twice: The first time under PTE 2016–
15; and the second time under this
exemption). The Training must:
(i) At a minimum, cover the Policies,
ERISA and Code compliance (including
applicable fiduciary duties and the
prohibited transaction provisions),
ethical conduct, the consequences for
not complying with the conditions of
this exemption (including any loss of
exemptive relief provided herein), and
prompt reporting of wrongdoing; and
(ii) Be conducted by a professional
who has been prudently selected and
who has appropriate technical training
and proficiency with ERISA and the
Code;
(i)(1) Each Citigroup Affiliated QPAM,
which the Applicant has identified in a
certificate signed by the officer who will
review and certify the Audit Report (as
defined in Section I(i)(5)) pursuant to
Section I(i)(8), submits to an audit
conducted every two years by an
independent auditor who has been
prudently selected and who has
appropriate technical training and
proficiency with ERISA and the Code, to
evaluate the adequacy of, and each
Citigroup Affiliated QPAM’s
compliance with, the Policies and
Training described herein. The audit
requirement must be incorporated in the
Policies. Each audit must cover the
preceding consecutive twelve (12)
month period. The first audit must
cover the period from July 10, 2018
through July 9, 2019, and must be
completed by January 9, 2020. The
second audit must cover the period from
July 10, 2020 through July 9, 2021, and
must be completed by January 9, 2022.
In the event that the Exemption Period
is extended or a new exemption is
granted, the third audit would cover the
period from July 10, 2022 through July
9, 2023, and would have to be
completed by January 9, 2024 (unless
the Department chooses to alter the
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biennial audit requirement in the new
or extended exemption);
(2) Within the scope of the audit and
to the extent necessary for the auditor,
in its sole opinion, to complete its audit
and comply with the conditions for
relief described herein, and only to the
extent such disclosure is not prevented
by state or federal statute, or involves
communications subject to attorney
client privilege, each Citigroup
Affiliated QPAM and, if applicable,
Citigroup, will grant the auditor
unconditional access to its business,
including, but not limited to: Its
computer systems; business records;
transactional data; workplace locations;
training materials; and personnel. Such
access is limited to information relevant
to the auditor’s objectives as specified
by the terms of this exemption;
(3) The auditor’s engagement must
specifically require the auditor to
determine whether each Citigroup
Affiliated QPAM has developed,
implemented, maintained, and followed
the Policies in accordance with the
conditions of this exemption, and has
developed and implemented the
Training, as required herein;
(4) The auditor’s engagement must
specifically require the auditor to test
each Citigroup Affiliated QPAM’s
operational compliance with the
Policies and Training. In this regard, the
auditor must test, for each QPAM, a
sample of such QPAM’s transactions
involving Covered Plans, sufficient in
size and nature to afford the auditor a
reasonable basis to determine such
QPAM’s operational compliance with
the Policies and Training;
(5) For each audit, on or before the
end of the relevant period described in
Section I(i)(1) for completing the audit,
the auditor must issue a written report
(the Audit Report) to Citigroup and the
Citigroup Affiliated QPAM to which the
audit applies that describes the
procedures performed by the auditor
during the course of its examination.
The auditor, at its discretion, may issue
a single consolidated Audit Report that
covers all the Citigroup Affiliated
QPAMs. The Audit Report must include
the auditor’s specific determinations
regarding:
(i) The adequacy of each Citigroup
Affiliated QPAM’s Policies and
Training; each Citigroup Affiliated
QPAM’s compliance with the Policies
and Training; the need, if any, to
strengthen such Policies and Training;
and any instance of the respective
Citigroup Affiliated QPAM’s
noncompliance with the written
Policies and Training described in
Section I(h) above. The Citigroup
Affiliated QPAM must properly address
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any noncompliance. The Citigroup
Affiliate must promptly address or
prepare a written plan of action to
address any determination by the
auditor regarding the adequacy of the
Policies and Training and the auditor’s
recommendations (if any) with respect
to strengthening the Policies and
Training of the respective Citigroup
Affiliated QPAM. Any action taken or
the plan of action to be taken by the
respective Citigroup Affiliated QPAM
must be included in an addendum to
the Audit Report (such addendum must
be completed prior to the certification
described in Section I(i)(7) below). In
the event such a plan of action to
address the auditor’s recommendation
regarding the adequacy of the Policies
and Training is not completed by the
time of submission of the Audit Report,
the following period’s Audit Report
must state whether the plan was
satisfactorily completed. Any
determination by the auditor that the
respective Citigroup Affiliated QPAM
has implemented, maintained, and
followed sufficient Policies and
Training must not be based solely or in
substantial part on an absence of
evidence indicating noncompliance. In
this last regard, any finding that a
Citigroup Affiliated QPAM has
complied with the requirements under
this subsection must be based on
evidence that the particular Citigroup
Affiliated QPAM has actually
implemented, maintained, and followed
the Policies and Training required by
this exemption. Furthermore, the
auditor must not solely rely on the
Annual Report created by the
compliance officer (the Compliance
Officer), as described in Section I(m)
below, as the basis for the auditor’s
conclusions in lieu of independent
determinations and testing performed
by the auditor, as required by Section
I(i)(3) and (4) above; and
(ii) The adequacy of the most recent
Annual Review described in Section
I(m);
(6) The auditor must notify the
respective Citigroup Affiliated QPAM of
any instance of noncompliance
identified by the auditor within five (5)
business days after such noncompliance
is identified by the auditor, regardless of
whether the audit has been completed
as of that date;
(7) With respect to each Audit Report,
the General Counsel, or one of the three
most senior executive officers of the
Citigroup Affiliated QPAM to which the
Audit Report applies, must certify in
writing, under penalty of perjury, that
the officer has reviewed the Audit
Report and this exemption; that such
Citigroup Affiliated QPAM has
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addressed, corrected or remedied any
noncompliance and inadequacy or has
an appropriate written plan to address
any inadequacy regarding the Policies
and Training identified in the Audit
Report. Such certification must also
include the signatory’s determination
that the Policies and Training in effect
at the time of signing are adequate to
ensure compliance with the conditions
of this exemption, and with the
applicable provisions of ERISA and the
Code;
(8) The Risk Management Committee
of Citigroup’s Board of Directors is
provided a copy of each Audit Report;
and a senior executive officer of
Citigroup or one of its affiliates who
reports directly to, or reports to another
executive who reports directly to, the
highest ranking compliance officer of
Citigroup must review the Audit Report
for each Citigroup Affiliated QPAM and
must certify in writing, under penalty of
perjury, that such officer has reviewed
each Audit Report;
(9) Each Citigroup Affiliated QPAM
provides its certified Audit Report, by
regular mail to: Office of Exemption
Determinations (OED), 200 Constitution
Avenue NW, Suite 400, Washington, DC
20210, or by private carrier to: 122 C
Street NW, Suite 400, Washington, DC
20001–2109. This delivery must take
place no later than thirty (30) days
following completion of the Audit
Report. The Audit Report will be made
part of the public record regarding this
exemption. Furthermore, each Citigroup
Affiliated QPAM must make its Audit
Report unconditionally available,
electronically or otherwise, for
examination upon request by any duly
authorized employee or representative
of the Department, other relevant
regulators, and any fiduciary of a
Covered Plan;
(10) Each Citigroup Affiliated QPAM
and the auditor must submit to OED:
Any engagement agreement(s) entered
into pursuant to the engagement of the
auditor under this exemption, no later
than two (2) months after the execution
of any such engagement agreement;
(11) The auditor must provide the
Department, upon request, for
inspection and review, access to all the
workpapers created and utilized in the
course of the audit, provided such
access and inspection is otherwise
permitted by law; and
(12) Citigroup must notify the
Department of a change in the
independent auditor no later than two
(2) months after the engagement of a
substitute or subsequent auditor and
must provide an explanation for the
substitution or change including a
description of any material disputes
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between the terminated auditor and
Citigroup;
(j) As of January 10, 2018, and
throughout the Exemption Period, with
respect to any arrangement, agreement,
or contract between a Citigroup
Affiliated QPAM and a Covered Plan,
the Citigroup Affiliated QPAM agrees
and warrants:
(1) To comply with ERISA and the
Code, as applicable with respect to such
Covered Plan; to refrain from engaging
in prohibited transactions that are not
otherwise exempt (and to promptly
correct any inadvertent prohibited
transactions); and to comply with the
standards of prudence and loyalty set
forth in section 404 of ERISA with
respect to each such ERISA-covered
plan and IRA to the extent that section
is applicable;
(2) To indemnify and hold harmless
the Covered Plan for any actual losses
resulting directly from a Citigroup
Affiliated QPAM’s violation of ERISA’s
fiduciary duties, as applicable, and the
prohibited transaction provisions of
ERISA and the Code, as applicable; a
breach of contract by the QPAM; or any
claim arising out of the failure of such
Citigroup Affiliated QPAM to qualify for
the exemptive relief provided by PTE
84–14 as a result of a violation of
Section I(g) of PTE 84–14 other than the
Conviction. This condition applies only
to actual losses caused by the Citigroup
Affiliated QPAM’s violations;
(3) Not to require (or otherwise cause)
the Covered Plan to waive, limit, or
qualify the liability of the Citigroup
Affiliated QPAM for violating ERISA or
the Code or engaging in prohibited
transactions;
(4) Not to restrict the ability of such
Covered Plan to terminate or withdraw
from its arrangement with the Citigroup
Affiliated QPAM with respect to any
investment in a separately managed
account or pooled fund subject to ERISA
and managed by such QPAM, with the
exception of reasonable restrictions,
appropriately disclosed in advance, that
are specifically designed to ensure
equitable treatment of all investors in a
pooled fund in the event such
withdrawal or termination may have
adverse consequences for all other
investors. In connection with any such
arrangements involving investments in
pooled funds subject to ERISA entered
into after the effective date of this
exemption, the adverse consequences
must relate to of a lack of liquidity of
the underlying assets, valuation issues,
or regulatory reasons that prevent the
fund from promptly redeeming an
ERISA-covered plan’s or IRA’s
investment, and such restrictions must
be applicable to all such investors and
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61879
effective no longer than reasonably
necessary to avoid the adverse
consequences;
(5) Not to impose any fees, penalties,
or charges for such termination or
withdrawal with the exception of
reasonable fees, appropriately disclosed
in advance, that are specifically
designed to prevent generally
recognized abusive investment practices
or specifically designed to ensure
equitable treatment of all investors in a
pooled fund in the event such
withdrawal or termination may have
adverse consequences for all other
investors, provided that such fees are
applied consistently and in like manner
to all such investors;
(6) Not to include exculpatory
provisions disclaiming or otherwise
limiting liability of the Citigroup
Affiliated QPAM for a violation of such
agreement’s terms. To the extent
consistent with Section 410 of ERISA,
however, this provision does not
prohibit disclaimers for liability caused
by an error, misrepresentation, or
misconduct of a plan fiduciary or other
party hired by the plan fiduciary who is
independent of Citigroup, and its
affiliates, or damages arising from acts
outside the control of the Citigroup
Affiliated QPAM;
(7) By July 9, 2018, each Citigroup
Affiliated QPAM must provide a notice
of its obligations under this Section I(j)
to each Covered Plan. For all other
prospective Covered Plans, the
Citigroup Affiliated QPAM will agree to
its obligations under this Section I(j) in
an updated investment management
agreement between the Citigroup
Affiliated QPAM and such clients or
other written contractual agreement.
This condition will be deemed met for
each Covered Plan that received a notice
pursuant to PTE 2016–14 that meets the
terms of this condition.
Notwithstanding the above, a Citigroup
Affiliated QPAM will not violate the
condition solely because a Plan or IRA
refuses to sign an updated investment
management agreement;
(k) By March 10, 2018, each Citigroup
Affiliated QPAM will provide a notice
of the exemption, along with a separate
summary describing the facts that led to
the Conviction (the Summary), which
have been submitted to the Department,
and a prominently displayed statement
(the Statement) that the Conviction
results in a failure to meet a condition
in PTE 84–14, to each sponsor and
beneficial owner of a Covered Plan, or
the sponsor of an investment fund in
any case where a Citigroup Affiliated
QPAM acts as a sub-advisor to the
investment fund in which such ERISAcovered plan and IRA invests. Any
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prospective clients for which a
Citigroup Affiliated QPAM relies on
PTE 84–14 or has expressly represented
that the manager qualifies as a QPAM or
relies on the QPAM class exemption
must receive the proposed and final
exemptions with the Summary and the
Statement prior to, or
contemporaneously with, the client’s
receipt of a written asset management
agreement from the Citigroup Affiliated
QPAM. Disclosures may be delivered
electronically.
(l) The Citigroup Affiliated QPAMs
must comply with each condition of
PTE 84–14, as amended, with the sole
exception of the violation of Section I(g)
of PTE 84–14 that is attributable to the
Conviction;
(m)(1) By July 9, 2018, Citigroup
designates a senior compliance officer
(the Compliance Officer) who will be
responsible for compliance with the
Policies and Training requirements
described herein. The Compliance
Officer must conduct an annual review
for each annual period beginning on
January 10, 2018 (the Annual Review) 46
to determine the adequacy and
effectiveness of the implementation of
the Policies and Training. With respect
to the Compliance Officer, the following
conditions must be met:
(i) The Compliance Officer must be a
professional who has extensive
experience with, and knowledge of, the
regulation of financial services and
products, including under ERISA and
the Code; and
(ii) The Compliance Officer must be a
senior compliance officer of Citigroup
Inc. or one of its affiliates, and such
senior compliance officer will be an
officer who reports directly to, or
reports to another compliance officer
who reports directly to, Citigroup Inc.’s
highest ranking compliance officer
(whose title is currently Global Chief
Compliance Officer of Citigroup Inc.);
(2) With respect to each Annual
Review, the following conditions must
be met:
(i) The Annual Review includes a
review of: Any compliance matter
related to the Policies or Training that
was identified by, or reported to, the
Compliance Officer or others within the
compliance and risk control function (or
its equivalent) during the previous year;
any material change in the relevant
business activities of the Citigroup
Affiliated QPAMs; and any change to
ERISA, the Code, or regulations related
to fiduciary duties and the prohibited
46 Note that such Annual Review must be
completed with respect to the annual periods
ending January 9, 2019; January 9, 2020; January 9,
2021; January 9, 2022; and January 9; 2023.
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transaction provisions that may be
applicable to the activities of the
Citigroup Affiliated QPAMs;
(ii) The Compliance Officer prepares
a written report for each Annual Review
(each, an Annual Report) that (A)
summarizes his or her material activities
during the preceding year; (B) sets forth
any instance of noncompliance
discovered during the preceding year,
and any related corrective action; (C)
details any change to the Policies or
Training to guard against any similar
instance of noncompliance occurring
again; and (D) makes recommendations,
as necessary, for additional training,
procedures, monitoring, or additional
and/or changed processes or systems,
and management’s actions on such
recommendations;
(iii) In each Annual Report, the
Compliance Officer must certify in
writing that to his or her knowledge: (A)
The report is accurate; (B) the Policies
and Training are working in a manner
which is reasonably designed to ensure
that the Policies and Training
requirements described herein are met;
(C) any known instance of
noncompliance during the preceding
year and any related correction taken to
date have been identified in the Annual
Report; and (D) the Citigroup Affiliated
QPAMs have complied with the Policies
and Training and/or corrected (or is
correcting) any instances of
noncompliance in accordance with
Section I(h) above;
(iv) Each Annual Report must be
provided to appropriate corporate
officers of Citigroup and each Citigroup
Affiliated QPAM to which such report
relates; the head of compliance and the
General Counsel (or their functional
equivalent) of the relevant Citigroup
Affiliated QPAM; and must be made
unconditionally available to the
independent auditor described in
Section I(i) above;
(v) Each Annual Review, including
the Compliance Officer’s written
Annual Report, must be completed
within three (3) months following the
end of the period to which it relates;
(n) Each Citigroup Affiliated QPAM
will maintain records necessary to
demonstrate that the conditions of this
exemption have been met, for six (6)
years following the date of any
transaction for which such Citigroup
Affiliated QPAM relies upon the relief
in the exemption;
(o) During the Exemption Period,
Citigroup: (1) Immediately discloses to
the Department any Deferred
Prosecution Agreement (a DPA) or a
Non-Prosecution Agreement (an NPA)
with the U.S. Department of Justice,
entered into by Citigroup or any of its
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affiliates in connection with conduct
described in Section I(g) of PTE 84–14
or section 411 of ERISA; and (2)
immediately provides the Department
any information requested by the
Department, as permitted by law,
regarding the agreement and/or conduct
and allegations that led to the
agreement;
(p) By July 9, 2018, each Citigroup
Affiliated QPAM, in its agreements
with, or in other written disclosures
provided to Covered Plans, will clearly
and prominently inform Covered Plan
clients of their right to obtain a copy of
the Policies or a description (‘‘Summary
Policies’’) which accurately summarizes
key components of the QPAM’s written
Policies developed in connection with
this exemption. If the Policies are
thereafter changed, each Covered Plan
client must receive a new disclosure
within six (6) months following the end
of the calendar year during which the
Policies were changed.47 With respect to
this requirement, the description may be
continuously maintained on a website,
provided that such website link to the
Policies or the Summary Policies is
clearly and prominently disclosed to
each Covered Plan; and
(q) A Citigroup Affiliated QPAM or a
Citigroup Related QPAM will not fail to
meet the terms of this exemption, solely
because a different Citigroup Affiliated
QPAM or Citigroup Related QPAM fails
to satisfy a condition for relief described
in Sections I(c), (d), (h), (i), (j), (k), (l),
(n) and (p); or if the independent
auditor described in Section I(i) fails a
provision of the exemption other than
the requirement described in Section
I(i)(11), provided that such failure did
not result from any actions or inactions
of Citigroup or its affiliates.
Section II: Definitions
(a) The term ‘‘Conviction’’ means the
judgment of conviction against Citicorp
for violation of the Sherman Antitrust
Act, 15 U.S.C. 1, entered in the District
Court for the District of Connecticut (the
District Court) (Case Number 3:15-cr78–SRU). For all purposes under this
exemption, ‘‘conduct’’ of any person or
entity that is the ‘‘subject of [a]
Conviction’’ encompasses the conduct
described in Paragraph 4(g)-(i) of the
Plea Agreement filed in the District
Court in Case Number 3:15-cr-78–SRU;
(b) The term ‘‘Covered Plan’’ is a plan
subject to Part 4 of Title 1 of ERISA
(‘‘ERISA-covered plan’’) or a plan
47 In the event Applicant meets this disclosure
requirement through Summary Policies, changes to
the Policies shall not result in the requirement for
a new disclosure unless, as a result of changes to
the Policies, the Summary Policies are no longer
accurate.
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subject to Section 4975 of the Code
(‘‘IRA’’) with respect to which a
Citigroup Affiliated QPAM relies on
PTE 84–14, or with respect to which a
Citigroup Affiliated QPAM (or any
Citigroup affiliate) has expressly
represented that the manager qualifies
as a QPAM or relies on the QPAM class
exemption (PTE 84–14). A Covered Plan
does not include an ERISA-covered Plan
or IRA to the extent the Citigroup
Affiliated QPAM has expressly
disclaimed reliance on QPAM status or
PTE 84–14 in entering into its contract,
arrangement, or agreement with the
ERISA-covered plan or IRA.
(c) The terms ‘‘ERISA-covered plan’’
and ‘‘IRA’’ mean, respectively, a plan
subject to Part 4 of Title I of ERISA and
a plan subject to section 4975 of the
Code.
(d) The term ‘‘Exemption Period’’
means January 10, 2018, through
January 9, 2023.
(e) The term ‘‘Citicorp’’ means
Citicorp, a financial services holding
company organized and existing under
the laws of Delaware and does not
include any subsidiaries or other
affiliates.
(f) The term ‘‘Citigroup Affiliated
QPAM’’ means a ‘‘qualified professional
asset manager’’ (as defined in Section
VI(a) of PTE 84–14) that relies on the
relief provided by PTE 84–14 and with
respect to which Citigroup is a current
or future ‘‘affiliate’’ (as defined in
Section VI(d)(1) of PTE 84–14). The
term ‘‘Citigroup Affiliated QPAM’’
excludes Citicorp, the entity implicated
in the criminal conduct that is the
subject of the Conviction.
(g) The term ‘‘Citigroup Related
QPAM’’ means any current or future
‘‘qualified professional asset manager’’
(as defined in section VI(a) of PTE 84–
14) that relies on the relief provided by
PTE 84–14, and with respect to which
Citigroup owns a direct or indirect five
percent or more interest, but with
respect to which Citigroup is not an
‘‘affiliate’’ (as defined in Section
VI(d)(1) of PTE 84–14).
Effective Date
This exemption is effective on January
10, 2018. The term of the exemption is
from January 10, 2018, through January
9, 2023 (the Exemption Period).
Department’s Comment: The
Department cautions that the relief in
this exemption would terminate
immediately if an entity within the
Citigroup corporate structure is
convicted of a crime described in
Section I(g) of PTE 84–14 (other than the
Conviction) during the effective period
of the exemption. While such an entity
could apply for a new exemption in that
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circumstance, the Department would
not be obligated to grant the exemption.
The terms of this exemption have been
specifically designed to permit plans to
terminate their relationships in an
orderly and cost effective fashion in the
event of an additional conviction or a
determination that it is otherwise
prudent for a plan to terminate its
relationship with an entity covered by
the proposed exemption.
Further Information
For more information on this
exemption, contact Mr. Joseph Brennan
of the Department, telephone (202) 693–
8456. (This is not a toll-free number.)
Barclays Capital Inc. (BCI or the
Applicant) Located in New York, New
York
[Prohibited Transaction Exemption 2017–06;
Exemption Application No. D–11910]
Discussion
On November 21, 2016, the
Department of Labor (the Department)
published a notice of proposed
exemption in the Federal Register at 81
FR 83427, for certain entities with
specified relationships to Barclays PLC
(BPLC) to continue to rely upon the
relief provided by PTE 84–14 for a
period of five years,48 notwithstanding
BPLC’s criminal conviction, as
described herein. The Department is
granting this exemption in order to
ensure that Covered Plans 49 whose
assets are managed by a Barclays
Affiliated QPAM or Barclays Related
QPAM may continue to benefit from the
relief provided by PTE 84–14. This
exemption is effective from January 10,
2018 through January 9, 2023 (the
Exemption Period).
No relief from a violation of any other
law is provided by this exemption,
including any criminal conviction
described in the proposed exemption.
48 (49
FR 9494, March 13, 1984), as corrected at
50 FR 41430 (October 10, 1985), as amended at 70
FR 49305 (August 23, 2005) and as amended at 75
FR 38837 (July 6, 2010), hereinafter referred to as
PTE 84–14 or the QPAM Exemption.
49 ‘‘Covered Plan’’ is a plan subject to Part 4 of
Title 1 of ERISA (‘‘ERISA-covered plan’’) or a plan
subject to section 4975 of the Code (‘‘IRA’’) with
respect to which a Barclays Affiliated QPAM relies
on PTE 84–14, or with respect to which a Barclays
Affiliated QPAM (or any BPLC affiliate) has
expressly represented that the manager qualifies as
a QPAM or relies on the QPAM class exemption
(PTE 84–14). A Covered Plan does not include an
ERISA-covered Plan or IRA to the extent the
Barclays Affiliated QPAM has expressly disclaimed
reliance on QPAM status or PTE 84–14 in entering
into its contract, arrangement or agreement with the
ERISA-covered plan or IRA. See further discussion
in this Preamble under the heading Comments 9, 10
& 11—Policies and Procedures Relating to
Compliance with ERISA and the Code—Section
(I)(ii)–(v).
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Furthermore, the Department cautions
that the relief in this exemption will
terminate immediately if, among other
things, an entity within the BPLC
corporate structure is convicted of a
crime described in Section I(g) of PTE
84–14 (other than the Conviction)
during the Exemption Period. The terms
of this exemption have been specifically
designed to promote conduct that
adheres to basic fiduciary standards
under ERISA and the Code. The
exemption also aims to ensure that
plans and IRAs can terminate
relationships in an orderly and cost
effective fashion in the event a plan or
IRA fiduciary determines it is prudent
for the plan or IRA to sever its
relationship with an entity covered by
the exemption.
Written Comments
The Department invited all interested
persons to submit written comments
and/or requests for a public hearing
with respect to the notice of proposed
exemption, published in the Federal
Register at 81 FR 83427 on November
21, 2016.50 All comments and requests
for a hearing were due by January 5,
2017. The Department received written
comments from the Applicant and
members of the U.S. Congress. After
considering these submissions, the
Department has determined to grant the
exemption, with revisions, as described
below.
Comment 1—Confirmation of the
Comment Period Deadline
The Applicant requests that the
Department confirm that the reference
in the preamble to the proposed
exemption to comments being due
within 30 days was unintentional and
the deadline for comments was January
5, 2017. The Department so confirms.
Comment 2—Term of the Exemption
The Applicant requests that the
Department extend the term of the
exemption from five years to ten years
from the Conviction Date, as defined in
Section II(e). The Applicant states that
the five-year term is inconsistent with
precedent and that the ‘‘conduct that is
the subject of BPLC’s conviction was
described by the Department of Justice
(DOJ) as ‘limited to a small part of
[BPLC’s] operations;’ it involved only
two traders; and it did not involve any
of BPLC’s asset management units.’’ The
Applicant further states that the
limitation to five years is especially
problematic given that the DOJ plea
50 The Department received additional comments
from Applicant, however, after the close of the
comment period.
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agreement with BPLC marked the first
time that DOJ awarded a sentencing
credit for a company’s compliance and
remediation efforts and that DOJ singled
out BPLC for recognition and credit for
its significant improvements to its
compliance program and its ‘‘dramatic
steps to change its corporate culture.’’ In
addition, the Applicant states that DOJ
called BPLC ‘‘a leader in its efforts
toward remediation’’ and highlighted its
‘‘extraordinary dedication’’ to timely
reporting of potential misconduct before
it was under any reporting obligation,
and that DOJ also lauded BPLC’s
cooperation during the investigative
phase, which it characterized as
‘‘uniquely helpful’’ and ‘‘of critical
importance.’’
Although the Applicant characterizes
the conduct as involving the isolated
actions of two individuals, the
Department does not agree with the
apparent suggestion that the Applicant
bears little or no responsibility for the
criminal conduct. For example, the
Department considered BPLC’s Plea
Agreement, which includes the
following statement, under the heading
Other Relevant Conduct: ‘‘The
defendant, through its currency traders
and sales staff, also engaged in other
currency trading and sales practices in
conducting FX Spot Market transactions
with customers via telephone, email,
and/or electronic chat, to wit: (i)
Intentionally working customers’ limit
orders one or more levels, or ‘pips,’
away from the price confirmed with the
customer; (ii) including sales markup,
through the use of live hand signals or
undisclosed prior internal arrangements
or communications, to prices given to
customers that communicated with
sales staff on open phone lines; (iii)
accepting limit orders from customers
and then informing those customers that
their orders could not be filled, in whole
or in part, when in fact the defendant
was able to fill the order but decided not
to do so because the defendant expected
it would be more profitable not to do so;
and (iv) disclosing non-public
information regarding the identity and
trading activity of the defendant’s
customers to other banks or other
market participants, in order to generate
revenue for the defendant at the expense
of its customers.’’
In developing this exemption, the
Department also considered relevant
statements from regulators. For
example, the Financial Conduct
Authority’s (FCA) Final Notice states
that, ‘‘[d]uring the Relevant Period,
Barclays did not exercise adequate and
effective control over its FX business.
. . . The front office failed adequately to
discharge these responsibilities with
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regard to obvious risks associated with
confidentiality, conflicts of interest and
trading conduct.’’ The Notice further
states: ‘‘These failings occurred in
circumstances where certain of those
responsible for managing front office
matters were aware of and/or at times
involved in behaviours described
above.’’
By way of further example, the Order
of the Commodities Futures Trading
Commission (CFTC) states: ‘‘Barclays
failed to adequately assess the risks
associated with its FX traders
participating in the fixing of certain FX
benchmark rates. Barclays also lacked
adequate internal controls in order to
prevent its FX traders from engaging in
improper communications with certain
FX traders at other banks. Barclays
lacked sufficient policies, procedures
and training specifically governing
participation in the trading around the
FX benchmark rates and had inadequate
policies pertaining to, or insufficient
oversight of, its FX traders’ use of chat
rooms or other electronic messaging.’’
The Department also notes the size of
relevant fines imposed by various
regulators: The Department of Justice
imposed a $710 million fine; the Board
of Governors of the Federal Reserve
Board imposed a $342 million fine; and
the Department of Financial Services,
the Commodity Futures Trading
Commission, and the FCA imposed
fines of $485 million, $400 million, and
£284,432,000, respectively.
This exemption is not punitive.
Instead, its five-year term and protective
conditions reflect the Department’s
intent to protect Covered Plans that
entrust substantial assets to a Barclays
Affiliated QPAM, despite the serious
misconduct and supervisory failures
described above. The limited term of
this exemption gives the Department the
opportunity to review the adherence by
the Barclays Affiliated QPAMs to the
conditions set out herein. If the
Applicant seeks an extension of this
exemption, the Department will
examine whether the compliance and
oversight changes mandated by various
regulatory authorities are having their
desired effect on BPLC entities.
Comment 3—Conditions Unrelated to
PTE 84–14 and Imposition of Onerous
Requirements
The Department addresses this
general comment more fully below in
response to certain specific issues that
are related to this general comment.
Comment 4—Description of Criminal
Conduct—Section I
The prefatory language to Section I of
the proposed exemption provides, ‘‘If
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the proposed five-year exemption is
granted, certain asset managers with
specified relationships to BPLC (the
Barclays Affiliated QPAMs and the
Barclays Related QPAMs, as defined
further in Sections II(a) and II(b),
respectively) will not be precluded from
relying on the exemptive relief provided
by Prohibited Transaction Class
Exemption 84–14 (PTE 84–14 or the
QPAM Exemption),51 notwithstanding
the judgment of conviction against BPLC
(the Conviction), as defined in Section
II(c)),52 for engaging in a conspiracy to:
(1) Fix the price of, or (2) eliminate
competition in the purchase or sale of
the euro/U.S. dollar currency pair
exchanged in the Foreign Exchange (FX)
Spot Market, for a period of five years
beginning on the date the exemption is
granted.’’
The Applicant requests that the
description of the charged conduct—the
clause beginning ‘‘for engaging in a
conspiracy’’—be omitted. The Applicant
states that this description is inaccurate
and incomplete, will lead to disputes
with counterparties to the detriment of
plans, and will make it unlikely that
plans will benefit from or be protected
by this exemption.
After consideration of the Applicant’s
comment, the Department has clarified
the exemption’s description of BPLC’s
criminal conduct.
Comment 5—Knowing or Tacit
Approval—Sections I(a) and I(c)
Section I(a) of the proposed five-year
exemption provides, ‘‘(a) Other than
certain individuals who: Worked for a
non-fiduciary business within BCI; had
no responsibility for, and exercised no
authority in connection with, the
management of plan assets; and are no
longer employed by BPLC, the Barclays
Affiliated QPAMs and the Barclays
Related QPAMs (including their officers,
directors, agents other than BPLC, and
employees of such QPAMs who had
responsibility for, or exercised authority
in connection with the management of
plan assets) did not know of, did not
have reason to know of, or participate
in the criminal conduct that is the
subject of the Conviction (for purposes
51 49 FR 9494 (March 13, 1984), as corrected at
50 FR 41430 (October 10, 1985), as amended at 70
FR 49305 (August 23, 2005), and as amended at 75
FR 38837 (July 6, 2010).
52 Section I(g) of PTE 84–14 generally provides
that ‘‘[n]either the QPAM nor any affiliate thereof
. . . nor any owner . . . of a 5 percent or more
interest in the QPAM is a person who within the
10 years immediately preceding the transaction has
been either convicted or released from
imprisonment, whichever is later, as a result of’’
certain felonies including violation of the Sherman
Antitrust Act, Title 15 United States Code, Section
1.
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of this paragraph (a), ‘‘participate in’’
includes the knowing or tacit approval
of the misconduct underlying the
Conviction).’’
Section I(c) of the proposed
exemption provides, ‘‘(c) A Barclays
Affiliated QPAM will not employ or
knowingly engage any of the individuals
that participated in the criminal
conduct that is the subject of the
Conviction (for purposes of this
paragraph (c), ‘‘participated in’’
includes the knowing or tacit approval
of the misconduct underlying the
Conviction).’’
The Applicant requests that the words
‘‘or tacit’’ in the phrase ‘‘knowing or
tacit approval’’ be deleted in Sections
I(a) and I(c). The Applicant states that
the term ‘‘tacit approval’’ ‘‘is undefined
and ambiguous, and potentially
encompasses a broad range of conduct
that could become the subject of
disputes with counterparties.’’ In
addition, the Applicant states that the
reference to the individuals being ‘‘no
longer employed by BPLC’’ in Section
I(a) implies that the individuals
referenced in this condition were
employed directly by BPLC. However,
the Applicant states that, as outlined in
Applicant’s December 6, 2016 letter to
the Department, the two individuals
referenced in Paragraph 4(g) of the Plea
Agreement were employed by a service
company subsidiary of a BPLC
subsidiary. The Applicant suggests that
Section I(a) be revised to read, ’’Other
than certain individuals who: Worked
for a nonfiduciary business of a BPLC
subsidiary; had no responsibility for,
and exercised no authority in
connection with, the management of
plan assets; and are no longer employed
by the BPLC subsidiary, the Barclays
Affiliated QPAMs (including their
officers, directors, agents other than
BPLC, and employees of such QPAMs
who had responsibility for, or exercised
authority in connection with the
management of plan assets) did not
know of, have reason to know of, or
participate in the criminal conduct that
is the subject of the Conviction (for
purposes of this paragraph (a),
‘‘participate in’’ includes the knowing
approval of the misconduct underlying
the Conviction).’’
With respect to Condition I(a), after
consideration of the Applicant’s
comment, the Department has removed
‘‘or tacit’’ in the phrase ‘‘knowing or
tacit approval’’ and removed the phrase
‘‘no longer employed by BPLC,’’ and
accepted the Applicant’s suggested
revision to replace ‘‘BCI’’ with ‘‘BPLC
subsidiary’’ where remaining in the
condition. However, the Department has
not accepted the Applicant’s suggestion
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to remove ‘‘Barclays Related QPAMs’’
from the condition. The Department
intends to preclude relief to the extent
a Barclays Related QPAM violates this
condition. With respect to Condition
I(c), the Department has revised the
exemption in the manner requested by
the Applicant.
Comment 6—Inclusion of BCI—Sections
I(d), I(g), and I(h)(1)(i)
Section I(d) of the proposed five-year
exemption provides, ‘‘A Barclays
Affiliated QPAM will not use its
authority or influence to direct an
‘‘investment fund,’’ (as defined in
Section VI(b) of PTE 84–14) that is
subject to ERISA or the Code and
managed by such Barclays Affiliated
QPAM to enter into any transaction with
BPLC or BCI, or engage BPLC to provide
any service to such investment fund, for
a direct or indirect fee borne by such
investment fund, regardless of whether
such transaction or service may
otherwise be within the scope of relief
provided by an administrative or
statutory exemption.’’
Section I(g) of the proposed five-year
exemption provides, ‘‘(g) BPLC and BCI
will not provide discretionary asset
management services to ERISA-covered
plans or IRAs, nor will otherwise act as
a fiduciary with respect to ERISAcovered plan or IRA assets.’’
Section I(h)(1)(i) of the proposed fiveyear exemption provides, ‘‘(h)(1)(i) The
asset management decisions of the
Barclays Affiliated QPAM are
conducted independently of the
corporate management and business
activities of BPLC and BCI.’’
The Applicant requests removal of the
reference to ‘‘BCI’’ in this Section I(d),
Section I(g), and Section I(h)(1)(i).
Among other things, the Applicant
states that as BCI is not the party to the
Conviction, and therefore, the inclusion
of BCI in this condition goes beyond the
underlying Conviction. In addition, the
Applicant states that, as noted in its
December 6, 2016 letter to the
Department, the two individuals
referenced in Paragraph 4(g) of the Plea
Agreement were employed by a service
company subsidiary of a different BPLC
subsidiary and were not ‘‘dual-hatted’’
to BCI. Further, the Applicant states that
BCI was, and in the future is likely to
be, the primary U.S. registered
investment adviser of the Barclays
Group, and any future investment
management mandates would likely be
undertaken by BCI. Thus, the Applicant
states that not permitting an Affiliated
QPAM to enter into a transaction with
BCI is tantamount to a denial of the
exemption. The Applicant also states
that this condition would prevent BCI or
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61883
its parent entity from purchasing an
asset manager and merging the asset
manager into BCI, and would also
prevent BCI from developing new lines
of business providing asset management
or securities lending businesses to
plans.
In response, the Department notes
that the condition was developed based
on a representation from the Applicant
in a letter dated November 2, 2015. In
that letter the Applicant stated that, ‘‘the
Investment Bank division, where such
conduct arose, and the Wealth and
Investment Management division both
operated through BCI, one of the
QPAMs, at the time of the criminal
conduct; however, as also noted above
and discussed in the Application, the
Wealth and Investment Management
activities of BCI were operated
separately from the Investment Bank
division and the activities of the
Investment Bank division that gave rise
to the criminal conduct, and as such, it
is important to distinguish the Wealth
and Investment Management employees
from the other BCI employees. The
‘Wealth and Investment Management
employees’ were specifically mentioned
because there were Investment Bank
division employees of BCI who were
involved in the criminal conduct that is
the subject of the Plea Agreement.’’
Notwithstanding this, given the
conditions required herein as discussed
below, the Department has determined
to revise the exemption in the manner
requested by the Applicant, and has also
clarified that paragraph (d) applies to an
‘‘investment fund’’ that is subject to
ERISA or the Code and managed by
such Barclays Affiliated QPAM with
respect to Covered Plans.
Comment 7—Exercising Authority Over
Plan Assets—Section I(f)
Section I(f) of the proposed five-year
exemption provides, ‘‘(f) A Barclays
Affiliated QPAM or a Barclays Related
QPAM did not exercise authority over
the assets of any plan subject to Part 4
of Title I of ERISA (an ERISA-covered
plan) or section 4975 of the Code (an
IRA) in a manner that it knew or should
have known would: Further the criminal
conduct that is the subject of the
Conviction; or cause the Barclays
Affiliated QPAM or the Barclays Related
QPAM or its affiliates or related parties
to directly or indirectly profit from the
criminal conduct that is the subject of
the Conviction.’’
The Applicant requests that the words
‘‘related parties’’ in the phrase ‘‘Barclays
Affiliated QPAM or the Barclays Related
QPAM, or its affiliates or related
parties’’ be deleted, stating that the term
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‘‘related parties’’ is undefined and could
lead to confusion.
For clarity, the Department has
deleted the term ‘‘related parties.’’
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Comment 8—See Comment 6 Re:
Section I(g)
Section I(g) of the proposed five-year
exemption provides, ‘‘(g) BPLC and BCI
will not provide discretionary asset
management services to ERISA-covered
plans or IRAs, nor will otherwise act as
a fiduciary with respect to ERISAcovered plan or IRA assets.’’
The Applicant requests removal of the
reference to ‘‘BCI’’ in this Section I(g),
and for the reasons discussed above, the
Department has determined to revise the
exemption in the manner requested by
the Applicant. Additionally, the
Department modified this condition to
clarify that BPLC will not violate this
condition in the event that it
inadvertently becomes an investment
advice fiduciary and that BPLC can act
as a fiduciary for plans that it sponsors
for its own employees or employees of
an affiliate.
Comments 9, 10 & 11—Policies and
Procedures Relating to Compliance With
ERISA and the Code—Section
I(h)(1)(ii)–(v)
Section I(h)(1)(ii)–(iii) of the proposed
five-year exemption provides, ’’(h)(1)
Prior to a Barclays Affiliated QPAM’s
engagement by any ERISA-covered plan
or IRA for discretionary asset
management services, where the QPAM
represents that it qualifies as a QPAM,
the Barclays Affiliated QPAM must
develop, implement, maintain, and
follow written policies and procedures
(the Policies) requiring and reasonably
designed to ensure that: . . . .
(ii) The Barclays Affiliated QPAM
fully complies with ERISA’s fiduciary
duties and with ERISA and the Code’s
prohibited transaction provisions, and
does not knowingly participate in any
violation of these duties and provisions
with respect to ERISA-covered plans
and IRAs; and
(iii) The Barclays Affiliated QPAM
does not knowingly participate in any
other person’s violation of ERISA or the
Code with respect to ERISA-covered
plans and IRAs;’’
(iv) Any filings or statements made by
the Barclays Affiliated QPAM to
regulators including, but not limited to,
the Department, the Department of the
Treasury, the Department of Justice, and
the Pension Benefit Guaranty
Corporation, on behalf of ERISAcovered plans or IRAs, are materially
accurate and complete, to the best of
such QPAM’s knowledge at that time;
[and]
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(v) The Barclays Affiliated QPAM
does not make material
misrepresentations or omit material
information in its communications with
such regulators with respect to ERISAcovered plans or IRAs, or make material
misrepresentations or omit material
information in its communications with
ERISA-covered plans and IRA clients.’’
The Applicant requests that these
subparagraphs be stricken as duplicative
and already mandated by statute. The
Applicant states that these conditions
should apply only with regard to filings
or statements made on behalf of ERISAcovered plans or IRAs in connection
with accounts for which the Barclays
Affiliated QPAM relies on the relief
provided by PTE 84–14. The Applicant
states that the conditions should be
tailored to PTE 84–14 in all instances.
Subsection (iii): The Applicant
requests that Section I(h)(1)(iii) be
stricken. The Applicant states that, to
the extent that Subsection I(h)(1)(iii) is
intended to capture violations of ERISA
or the Code that are not described in the
preceding Subsection (such as ERISA
disclosure requirements), such
violations would not be within the
scope of relief provided by the proposed
exemption.
Subsection (iv): The Applicant
suggests that the condition be revised to
read, ‘‘(iv) Any filings or statements
made by the Barclays Affiliated QPAM
to regulators, including, but not limited
to, the Department, the Department of
the Treasury, the Department of Justice,
and the Pension Benefit Guaranty
Corporation, on behalf of ERISAcovered plans or IRAs for which the
Barclays Affiliated QPAM provides asset
management or other discretionary
fiduciary services in reliance on PTE
84–14, are materially accurate and
complete, to the best of such QPAM’s
knowledge at that time.’’
Subsection (v): The Applicant
requests that the condition in Section
I(h)(1)(v) incorporate language similar to
Section I(h)(1)(iv), which provides that
the condition extends ‘‘to the best of
such QPAM’s knowledge at that time.’’
The requirement of Section I(h) that
the policies and procedures developed
by the Barclays Affiliated QPAM reflect
basic fiduciary norms is a protective
measure that is amply justified by the
substantial compliance and oversight
failures that resulted in the Conviction
and fines, and in the need for this
exemption, as detailed above.
Accordingly, the Department has
substantially retained the condition. It
has, however, revised the condition’s
scope to better match the Department’s
protective intent. In particular,
subsection (v) has been revised to
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contain the ‘‘to the best of such QPAM’s
knowledge at that time’’ concept found
in Subsection (iv); and the applicability
of Subsections (iv) and (v) has been
limited to Covered Plans. This revision
is consistent with the Department’s
intent to protect ERISA-covered Plans
and IRAs that may hire a Barclays
Affiliated QPAM based on the
manager’s express representation that it
relies on or qualifies under PTE 84–14.
As noted in more detail below, the
Department will not strike a condition
merely because the condition is also a
statutory requirement. It is the express
intent of the Department to preclude
relief for a Barclays Affiliated QPAM
that fails to meet the requirements of
this exemption, including those derived
from basic standards codified in statute,
as applicable.
The Department does not view
subparagraph (iii) of Section I(h)(1),
which relates to compliance with ERISA
or the Code, as duplicative of
subparagraph (ii), which relates to
compliance with, and knowing
violations of, certain provisions of
ERISA or the Code. However, the
Department has modified the Policies’
requirement of adherence to the
fiduciary and prohibited transaction
provisions of ERISA and the Code so
that the Policies expressly focus on the
provisions only to the extent those
provisions are ‘‘applicable’’ under
ERISA and the Code.
Comment 12—Correction of Violations
and Failures to Comply—Section
I(h)(1)(vii)
Section I(h)(1)(vii) of the proposed
five-year exemption provides that,
‘‘(h)(1) Prior to a Barclays Affiliated
QPAM’s engagement by any ERISAcovered plan or IRA for discretionary
asset management services, where the
QPAM represents that it qualifies as a
QPAM, the Barclays Affiliated QPAM
must develop, implement, maintain,
and follow written policies and
procedures (the Policies) requiring and
reasonably designed to ensure that: . . .
(vii) Any violation of, or failure to
comply with, an item in subparagraphs
(ii) through (vi), is corrected promptly
upon discovery, and any such violation
or compliance failure not promptly
corrected is reported, upon the
discovery of such failure to promptly
correct, in writing, to appropriate
corporate officers, the head of
compliance, and the General Counsel
(or their functional equivalent) of the
relevant Barclays Affiliated QPAM, the
independent auditor responsible for
reviewing compliance with the Policies,
and an appropriate fiduciary of any
affected ERISA-covered plan or IRA that
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is independent of BPLC; however, with
respect to any ERISA-covered plan or
IRA sponsored by an ‘affiliate’ (as
defined in Section VI(d) of PTE 84–14)
of BPLC or beneficially owned by an
employee of BPLC or its affiliates, such
fiduciary does not need to be
independent of BPLC. A Barclays
Affiliated QPAM will not be treated as
having failed to develop, implement,
maintain, or follow the Policies,
provided that it corrects any instance of
noncompliance promptly when
discovered, or when it reasonably
should have known of the
noncompliance (whichever is earlier),
and provided that it adheres to the
reporting requirements set forth in this
subparagraph (vii).’’
The Applicant cites this condition as
an example of how the Department
made the proposed exemption
‘‘inexplicably’’ and ‘‘arbitrarily’’ more
burdensome and onerous than other
such exemptions it has granted
previously. More specifically, the
Applicant seeks several revisions to
Section I(h)(vii), stating that its
notification requirements are overbroad
and that the terms such as ‘‘promptly,’’
‘‘appropriate corporate officers’’ and
‘‘appropriate fiduciary’’ are either vague
or undefined. The Applicant requests
that the ‘‘subparagraphs (ii) through
(vi)’’ reference be revised to
‘‘subparagraphs (i) through (vi),’’ and
that the language be revised to provide
that this condition is satisfied where the
issue is reported to the corporate
officers specifically identified in the
condition and, if the plan reporting
provision is not removed, to a plan
fiduciary that satisfies the requirement
that it be independent of BPLC, other
than with respect to the Applicant’s
own plans. The Applicant requests also
that the last sentence of the
subparagraph be revised since it ‘‘does
not meaningfully provide relief in
instances where a violation or
compliance failure is corrected.’’
The Applicant suggests the condition
in Section I(h)(1)(vii) be revised to read,
‘‘(vii) Any violation of, or failure to
comply with, an item in subparagraphs
(i) through (vi), is corrected (or plans to
correct are initiated) upon discovery,
and any such violation or compliance
failure not corrected (or a correction
process initiated) is reported, upon the
discovery of such failure to initiate
correction efforts, in writing, to the head
of compliance and the General Counsel
(or their functional equivalent) of the
relevant Barclays Affiliated QPAM. A
Barclays Affiliated QPAM will not be
treated as having failed to develop,
implement, maintain, or follow the
Policies, provided that it takes
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corrective action as to any instance of
noncompliance when discovered, or
when it reasonably should have known
of the noncompliance (whichever is
earlier), and provided that it adheres to
the reporting requirements set forth in
this subparagraph (vii).’’
In response to the Applicant’s general
comment, the Department has based the
conditions of this exemption on both
the particular facts of this case and its
experience over time with previous
exemptions. For the reasons set out
herein, the Department has concluded
that the specific conditions of this
exemption are appropriate and give the
Department a reasonable basis for
concluding that the conditions are
appropriately protective of affected
plans and IRAs. As noted above, a
central aim of the exemption is to
ensure that those relying upon the
exemption for relief from the prohibited
transaction rules will consistently act to
promote a culture of fiduciary
compliance, notwithstanding the
conduct that violated Section I(g) of PTE
84–14.
After considering the Applicant’s
specific requests for revisions, however,
the Department has replaced
‘‘appropriate corporate officers’’ with
‘‘the head of compliance and the
General Counsel (or their functional
equivalent) of the relevant line of
business that engaged in the violation or
failure.’’ The Department also will not
condition the exemption on a
requirement for notification of
violations to an appropriate fiduciary of
any affected Covered Plan that is
independent of BPLC.
However, the Department is not
revising the ‘‘subparagraphs (ii) through
(vi)’’ reference to include ‘‘subparagraph
(i)’’ because the Department intends to
preclude relief to the extent a Barclays
Affiliated QPAM fails to develop,
implement, maintain, and follow
written policies and procedures.
Clearly, it is not enough merely to
develop policies and procedures,
without also implementing,
maintaining, and following the terms of
those policies and procedures. Covered
Plans do not benefit from the creation of
strong policies and procedures, unless
they are actually followed.
The Department has revised the term
‘‘promptly’’ for consistency with the
Department’s intent that violations or
compliance failures be corrected ‘‘as
soon as reasonably possible upon
discovery or as soon after the QPAM
reasonably should have known of the
noncompliance (whichever is earlier).’’
However, contrary to the Applicant’s
suggestion, the Department intends to
preclude relief to the extent violations
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or failures are not corrected as required
by the exemption. Therefore, the
Department has not adopted the
Applicant’s proposed subparagraph
(vii), which requires little more than a
plan for corrective action, without any
corresponding obligation to actually
implement the action.
Comment 13—Training Incorporated in
Policies—Section I(h)(2)(i)
Section I(h)(2)(i) of the proposed fiveyear exemption provides, ‘‘. . . The
Training must: (i) Be set forth in the
Policies and, at a minimum, cover the
Policies, ERISA and Code compliance
(including applicable fiduciary duties
and the prohibited transaction
provisions), ethical conduct, the
consequences for not complying with
the conditions of this five-year
exemption (including any loss of
exemptive relief provided herein), and
prompt reporting of wrongdoing.’’
The Applicant requests that the
requirement in Section I(h)(2)(i) that the
Training must ‘‘[b]e set forth in the
Policies’’ be deleted. The Applicant
states that the requirement could
present logistical challenges as a
Barclays Affiliated QPAM may update
its Training and its Policies at different
points in time. The Applicant further
states that requiring that the former be
incorporated into the latter merely
increases the logistical burden and
serves no useful purpose.
After considering this comment, the
Department has determined to revise the
condition to address the Applicant’s
concerns that it could present logistical
challenges.
Accordingly, the Department has
revised the subsection to read that the
Training must: ‘‘At a minimum, cover
the Policies, ERISA and Code
compliance (including applicable
fiduciary duties and the prohibited
transaction provisions), ethical conduct,
the consequences for not complying
with the conditions of this exemption
(including any loss of exemptive relief
provided herein), and prompt reporting
of wrongdoing.’’
Comment 14—Training by Independent
Professional—Section I(h)(2)(ii)
Section I(h)(2)(ii) of the proposed fiveyear exemption provides, ‘‘The Training
must: . . . (ii) Be conducted by an
independent professional who has been
prudently selected and who has
appropriate technical training and
proficiency with ERISA and the Code.’’
The Applicant requests that Section
I(h)(2)(i) be deleted, stating that
requiring an ‘‘independent
professional’’ to conduct the training is
likely to be ‘‘counterproductive, as the
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most effective trainer may be someone
with detailed knowledge of the Barclays
Affiliated QPAM’s business and
compliance practices that an
‘independent’ trainer may lack.’’
Moreover, the Applicant states that the
term ‘‘independent professional’’ is
undefined, leading to potential
confusion and disputes. Further, the
Applicant states that the term ‘‘technical
training’’ is duplicative of ‘‘proficiency’’
and is undefined. Therefore, the
Applicant suggests eliminating that
term, and requests that Section I(h)(2)(ii)
be revised to read, ‘‘Be conducted by an
individual with significant
understanding and familiarity with
asset management and trading practices
and who has appropriate proficiency
with ERISA and the Code.’’
The Department has partially
accepted the Applicant’s request as to
the suggested revision so that
‘‘independent professional’’ has been
replaced with ‘‘individual with
significant understanding and
familiarity with asset management and
trading practices’’ but has not removed
the requirement that such person be
prudently selected. Additionally, the
Department disagrees with the
Applicant’s assertion that the phrase
‘‘technical training and proficiency’’ is
duplicative. In the Department’s view,
the two terms are not synonymous, as a
person may have taken technical
training in a given subject matter but
may not be proficient in that subject
matter.
Further, while the Department does
not agree with the Applicant’s
characterization that hiring an
appropriate independent professional,
prudently selected, would be
‘‘counterproductive,’’ the Department is
persuaded that appropriate Barclays
personnel, who are prudently selected,
should be allowed to conduct the
training, and has revised the condition
accordingly.
Comment 15—Audit—Section I(i)(1)
Section I(i)(1) of the proposed fiveyear exemption requires that each
‘‘Barclays Affiliated QPAM submits to
an audit conducted annually by an
independent auditor, who has been
prudently selected and who has
appropriate technical training and
proficiency with ERISA and the Code, to
evaluate the adequacy of, and the
Barclays Affiliated QPAM’s compliance
with, the Policies and Training
described herein. The audit requirement
must be incorporated in the Policies.
Each annual audit must cover a
consecutive twelve (12) month period
starting with the twelve (12) month
period that begins on the date that a
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Barclays Affiliated QPAM is first
engaged by any ERISA-covered plan or
IRA for discretionary asset management
services reliant on PTE 84–14, and each
annual audit must be completed no
later than six (6) months after the period
to which the audit applies.’’
The Applicant requests that the
requirement that the audit requirement
be incorporated in the Policies be
deleted because it is already a condition
of exemptive relief and incorporation
into the Policies is, therefore,
‘‘duplicative’’ and appears to serve no
useful purpose. In addition, the
Applicant represents that the timing of
the audit should factor into the timing
of the proposed one-year exemption.
The Applicant states that it is possible
that the ‘‘date that a Barclays Affiliated
QPAM is first engaged’’ could come
before the effective date of the
permanent exemption, rendering the
timing unclear, and that the condition
should clarify that the audit period will
commence only after the effective date
of this exemption. Further, the
Applicant requests the elimination of
the phrase ‘‘technical training,’’ because
the term ‘‘technical training’’ is
duplicative of ‘‘proficiency’’ and is
undefined.
The Department declines to make
certain of the Applicant’s requested
revisions. The Department views the
audit requirement as an integral
component of the exemption, without
which the Department would be unable
to make its finding that the exemption
is protective of Covered Plans and their
participants, beneficiaries, and
beneficial owners, as applicable. A
recurring, independent audit of the
Barclays Affiliated QPAMs is a critical
means by which to verify the adequacy
of, and compliance with the Policies
and Training mandated by this
exemption.
The Department disagrees with the
Applicant’s assertion that the phrase
‘‘technical training and proficiency’’ is
duplicative. In the Department’s view,
the two terms are not synonymous, as a
person may have taken technical
training in a given subject matter but
may not be proficient in that subject
matter. The exemption requires that the
auditor be both technically trained and
proficient in ERISA as well as the Code.
Accordingly, the Department declines to
change the phrase ‘‘technical training
and proficiency’’ as used in Section
I(i)(1).
The Department also declines to
delete the requirement that the audit
conditions be incorporated in the
Policies. The audit requirement
provides a critical independent check
on compliance with this exemption’s
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conditions, and helps ensure that the
basic protections set forth in the Policies
are taken seriously. Accordingly, the
specifics of the audit requirement are
important components of the Policies.
Their inclusion in the Policies promotes
compliance and sends an important
message to the institutions’ employees
and agents, as well as to Covered Plan
clients, that compliance with the
policies and procedures will be subject
to careful independent review.
After consideration of the Applicant’s
concerns regarding the annual audit, the
Department is revising the audit
condition to require an audit on a
biennial basis. The Department notes
that if the audit uncovers material
deficiencies with the Applicant’s
compliance with this exemption, then
the Applicant should consider
conducting an additional audit after
making corrections to ensure that it
remains in compliance with the
exemption. In any event, the
Department emphasizes that it retains
the right to conduct its own
investigation of compliance based on
any indicators of problems. Finally, the
Department has clarified the audit
timing requirements.
Comment 16—Access to Business—
Section I(i)(2)
Section I(i)(2) of the proposed fiveyear exemption requires that ‘‘as
permitted by law, each Barclays
Affiliated QPAM and, if applicable,
BPLC, will grant the auditor
unconditional access to its business.
. . .’’
The Applicant requests that the access
granted by Section I(i)(2) be limited to
non-privileged materials that do not
contain trade secrets. The Applicant
represents that the existing limitations
can be read not to exclude such
materials and, given the breadth of the
‘‘unconditional access’’ described, the
absence of a specific limitation could
lead to confusion, disputes, and
infringement on a Barclays Affiliated
QPAM’s rights to protect its privileged
communications and trade secrets. The
Applicant suggests that the language
read, ‘‘as permitted by law, each
Barclays Affiliated QPAM and, if
applicable and solely to determine if the
provisions of the exemption involving
BPLC are met, BPLC will grant the
auditor unconditional access to its
business. . . .’’
In the Department’s view, to ensure a
thorough and robust audit, the auditor
must be granted access to information
the auditor deems necessary for the
auditor to make sound conclusions.
Access to such information must be
within the scope of the audit
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engagement and denied only to the
extent any disclosure is not permitted
by state or federal statute. Enumerating
specific restrictions on the accessibility
of certain information may have a
dampening effect on the auditor’s ability
to perform the procedures necessary to
make valid conclusions and would
therefore undermine the effectiveness of
the audit. The auditor’s access to such
information, however, is limited to
information relevant to the auditor’s
objectives as specified by the terms of
the exemption and to the extent
disclosure is not prevented by state or
federal statute or involves
communications subject to attorney
client privilege. In this regard, the
Department has modified Section I(i)(2)
accordingly.
The Department has modified Section
I(i)(2) so that it begins with the phrase
‘‘Within the scope of the audit.’’
Comment 17—Engagement Letter—
Section I(i)(3)
Section I(i)(3) of the proposed fiveyear exemption requires the auditor’s
engagement to ‘‘specifically require the
auditor to determine whether each
Barclays Affiliated QPAM has
developed, implemented, maintained,
and followed the Policies in accordance
with the conditions of this five-year
exemption, if granted, and has
developed and implemented the
Training, as required herein.’’
The Applicant requests that Section
I(i)(3) be deleted in its entirety, stating
that it is duplicative of the requirements
in Section I(i)(1) of the exemption,
which also sets forth requirements as to
the auditor’s skill and the prudence of
the selection process. Further, the
Applicant suggests that it serves no
useful purpose to mandate that the
engagement letter repeat the
requirements of the exemption and that
such level of detail in the engagement
is unnecessary in light of the detailed
requirements of the exemption.
The Department does not concur with
the Applicant’s request. By including a
statement of the audit’s intended
purpose and required determinations in
the auditor’s agreement, the Applicant
ensures that both the auditor and the
Barclays Affiliated QPAMs have a clear
understanding of the purpose and
expectations of the audit process.
Therefore, the Department declines to
omit Section I(i)(3) from the exemption.
Comment 18—Auditor’s Test of
Operational Compliance—Section I(i)(4)
Section I(i)(4) of the proposed fiveyear exemption provides that, ‘‘[t]he
auditor’s engagement must specifically
require the auditor to test each Barclays
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Affiliated QPAM’s operational
compliance with the Policies and
Training. In this regard, the auditor
must test a sample of each QPAM’s
transactions involving ERISA-covered
plans and IRAs sufficient in size and
nature to afford the auditor a reasonable
basis to determine the operational
compliance with the Policies and
Training.’’
The Applicant requests that Section
I(i)(4) be deleted in its entirety or, in the
alternative, that the second sentence of
the condition be deleted. As noted
above, the Applicant states that Section
I(i)(1) sets forth the scope of the audit
and contains requirements as to the
auditor’s technical skill and the
prudence of the selection process. The
Applicant suggests that, in light of these
requirements, a condition mandating
how the auditor must perform the audit
is unnecessary. The Applicant states
that there are only two firms that hold
themselves out as having the capacity to
handle these audits, and neither is a
regular audit firm that can test
significant data in the very short time
frames provided in these exemptions.
The Applicant represents that the
Department should leave to the
independent judgment of the auditor
whether and when to sample
transactions. The Applicant suggests
that, if the subsection is not deleted, the
condition in this subsection should
read, ‘‘(4) The auditor’s engagement
must specifically require the auditor to
test each Barclays Affiliated QPAM’s
operational compliance with the
Policies and Training.’’
The Department declines to make the
Applicant’s requested deletion or
revision with respect to Section I(i)(4).
The inclusion of written audit
parameters in the auditor’s engagement
letter is necessary both to document
expectations regarding the audit work
and to ensure that the auditor can
responsibly perform its important work.
As stated above, clearly defined audit
parameters will minimize any potential
for dispute between the Applicant and
the auditor. It is appropriate and
necessary for the exemption to require
a certain amount, and type, of audit
work to be performed. Similarly, given
the scope and number of relevant
transactions, proper sampling is critical
to ensuring the auditor’s ability to reach
reasonable conclusions.
The Department notes that Section
I(i)(4) does not specify the number of
transactions that the auditor must test,
but rather requires, for each QPAM, that
the auditor test a sample of each
QPAM’s transactions involving Covered
Plans, ‘‘sufficient in size and nature to
afford the auditor a reasonable basis to
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determine operational compliance with
the Policies and Training.’’ The
Department has revised this provision,
however, by limiting its applicability to
Covered Plans.
Comment 19—Auditor’s Determination
of Compliance—I(i)(5)(i)
Section I(i)(5)(i) of the proposed fiveyear exemption provides: ‘‘I(i)(5): For
each audit, on or before the end of the
relevant period described in Section
I(i)(1) for completing the audit, the
auditor must issue a written report (the
Audit Report) to BPLC and the Barclays
Affiliated QPAM to which the audit
applies that describes the procedures
performed by the auditor during the
course of its examination. The Audit
Report must include the auditor’s
specific determinations regarding:
(i) The adequacy of the Barclays
Affiliated QPAM’s Policies and
Training; the Barclays Affiliated
QPAM’s compliance with the Policies
and Training; the need, if any, to
strengthen such Policies and Training;
and any instance of the respective
Barclays Affiliated QPAM’s
noncompliance with the written Policies
and Training described in Section I(h)
above. Any determination by the auditor
regarding the adequacy of the Policies
and Training and the auditor’s
recommendations (if any) with respect
to strengthening the Policies and
Training of the respective Barclays
Affiliated QPAM must be promptly
addressed by such Barclays Affiliated
QPAM, and any action taken by such
Barclays Affiliated QPAM to address
such recommendations must be
included in an addendum to the Audit
Report (which addendum is completed
prior to the certification described in
Section I(i)(7) below). Any
determination by the auditor that the
respective Barclays Affiliated QPAM has
implemented, maintained, and followed
sufficient Policies and Training must
not be based solely or in substantial part
on an absence of evidence indicating
noncompliance. In this last regard, any
finding that the Barclays Affiliated
QPAM has complied with the
requirements under this Subsection
must be based on evidence that
demonstrates the Barclays Affiliated
QPAM has actually implemented,
maintained, and followed the Policies
and Training required by this five-year
exemption. Furthermore, the auditor
must not rely on the Annual Report
created by the compliance officer (the
Compliance Officer) as described in
Section I(m) below in lieu of
independent determinations and testing
performed by the auditor as required by
Section I(i)(3) and (4) above.’’
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The Applicant states that compliance
with this provision and other provisions
involving the auditor are within the
control of the auditor rather than the
Applicant, and that a violation of this
provision should therefore not result in
Applicant losing the exemption. The
Applicant requests that, if the condition
is not deleted or reworded as suggested,
the Department should add the
following proviso to the end of
subparagraphs I(i)(4), I(i)(6) and I(i)(11):
‘‘Any failure of the auditor to meet the
conditions associated with the Audit
Report shall not be deemed a violation
of the exemption.’’
In addition, the Applicant requests
that the requirement that an auditor’s
recommendations be ‘‘promptly’’
addressed be deleted. The Applicant
states that the term ‘‘promptly’’ is
undefined and that the ambiguity is
particularly problematic in this context
as addressing an auditor’s
recommendation could be a lengthy
process (updating computerized trading
systems, for example, could take
months).
Moreover, the Applicant states that
the requirement that the auditor address
the adequacy of the Annual Review
required in Section I(m) is
counterproductive and requests that this
provision of Section I(i)(5) be deleted
because ‘‘the DOJ has singled out
Barclays’ extensive efforts to strengthen
its already extensive internal controls.’’
The Applicant further states that the
Department should not mandate how
the auditor performs its work in light of
the conditions in the proposed
exemption relating to the auditor’s
selection and qualifications. (See
Subsection I(i)(1)). The Applicant states
there is no reason to treat BPLC or the
Barclays Affiliated QPAMs as
recalcitrant entities and to impose
conditions that the Department has not
imposed in past cases as to applicants
with extensive crimes or faulty internal
processes. Moreover, the Applicant
states that the language of this condition
will interfere with the workability of the
exemption and its use by plans. To that
end, the Applicant states that if
counterparties cannot understand the
requirement or test whether it has been
complied with, the exemption will not
be used, to the detriment of plans and
in violation of the statutory standard in
section 408(a) of ERISA and Code
section 4975. Therefore, the Applicant
requests that the condition instead read:
‘‘I(i)(5): For each audit, on or before
the end of the relevant period described
in Section I(i)(1) for completing the
audit, the auditor must issue a written
report (the Audit Report) to BPLC and
the Barclays Affiliated QPAM to which
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the audit applies that describes the
procedures performed by the auditor
during the course of its examination.
Any failure of the auditor to meet the
conditions associated with the Audit
Report shall not be deemed a violation
of the exemption. The Audit Report
must include the auditor’s specific
determinations regarding:
(i) The adequacy of the Barclays
Affiliated QPAM’s Policies and
Training; the Barclays Affiliated
QPAM’s compliance with the Policies
and Training; the need, if any, to
strengthen such Policies and Training;
and any instance of the respective
Barclays Affiliated QPAM’s
noncompliance with the written Policies
and Training described in Section I(h)
above. Any determination by the auditor
regarding the adequacy of the Policies
and Training and the auditor’s
recommendations (if any) with respect
to strengthening the Policies and
Training of the respective Barclays
Affiliated QPAM must be addressed by
such Barclays Affiliated QPAM, and any
action taken by such Barclays Affiliated
QPAM to address such
recommendations must be included in
an addendum to the Audit Report
(which addendum is completed prior to
the certification described in Section
I(i)(7) below). Any determination by the
auditor that the respective Barclays
Affiliated QPAM has implemented,
maintained, and followed sufficient
Policies and Training should be based
on evidence that demonstrates the
Barclays Affiliated QPAM has actually
implemented, maintained, and followed
the Policies and Training required by
this permanent exemption.’’
The Department acknowledges that
the Applicant’s efforts to address the
auditor recommendations regarding any
inadequacy in the Policies and Training
identified by the auditor, may take
longer to implement than the time limits
mandated by the proposed exemption.
Accordingly, the Department is
modifying Section I(i)(5)(i) to reflect the
possibility that the Barclays Affiliated
QPAMs’ efforts to address the auditor’s
recommendations regarding
inadequacies in the Policies and
Training identified by the auditor, may
not be completed by the submission
date of the Audit Report and may
require a written plan to address such
items. However, any noncompliance
identified by the auditor must be
promptly addressed. The Department
does not agree that the word ‘‘promptly’’
creates ambiguity in the condition and
declines to remove the word. However,
the Department has revised the
exemption such that, with the exception
of Section I(i)(11), the failure of the
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auditor to meet the conditions
associated with the Audit Report shall
not be deemed a violation of the
exemption.
The final sentence of Section I(i)(5)(i)
expresses the Department’s intent that
the auditor must not rely solely on the
work of the Compliance Officer and the
Annual Report in formulating its
conclusions or findings. The auditor
must perform its own independent
testing to formulate its conclusions.
This exemption does not prohibit the
auditor from considering the
Compliance Officer’s Annual Report in
carrying out its audit function,
including its formulation of an audit
plan. This exemption, however, does
prohibit the auditor from reaching
conclusions that are exclusively based
upon the contents of the Compliance
Officer’s Annual Report.
The Department emphasizes that it is
not mandating how the auditor performs
its work. By the express terms of this
exemption, the Auditor retains
discretion as to how to perform an audit
that complies with this exemption. The
audit conditions are critical to the
Department’s determination to grant this
exemption. As noted above, the
Department believes the audit
conditions are amply justified by the
substantial compliance and oversight
failures that resulted in the Conviction
and fines, and in the need for this
exemption as detailed above.
The Department has modified Section
I(i)(5)(i) to more clearly reflect these
views.
Comment 20—Adequacy of the Annual
Review—Section I(i)(5)(ii)
Section I(i)(5)(ii) of the proposed fiveyear exemption provides that ‘‘[t]he
Audit Report must include the auditor’s
specific determinations regarding: . . .
(ii) The adequacy of the Annual Review
described in Section I(m) and the
resources provided to the Compliance
Officer in connection with such Annual
Review.’’
The Applicant requests deletion of
this condition. The Applicant states that
the requirement that the auditor
investigate the details of resources
provided to the Compliance Officer is
intrusive on the operation of the
business. The Applicant further states
that, assuming the Annual Report
required by Subsection I(m)(2)(ii)
remains part of the exemption, the
auditor can assess the adequacy of the
report itself. In addition, the Applicant
states that the proposed exemption
contains multiple conditions relating to
the auditor’s selection and
qualifications, and that, in light of these
conditions, the auditor should be
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trusted to exercise appropriate
judgment.
As discussed in detail below, the
Department views the Compliance
officer and the Annual Review as
integral to ensuring compliance with the
exemption. An independent assessment
by the auditor of the adequacy of the
Annual Review is essential to providing
the Department with the assurance that
the Applicant and the Barclays
Affiliated QPAMs have given these
matters the utmost priority and have
taken the actions necessary to comply
with the exemption. However, the
Department agrees that the QPAMs need
not require the auditor to opine on the
adequacy of the resources allocated to
the Compliance Officer and has
modified Section I(i)(5)(ii) accordingly.
If, however, the auditor observes
compliance issues related to the
Compliance Officer or available
resources, it would be appropriate to
opine on these problems.
Comment 21—Auditor Notification to
QPAM of Noncompliance—Section
I(i)(6)
Section I(i)(6) provides that ‘‘[t]he
auditor must notify the respective
Barclays Affiliated QPAM of any
instance of noncompliance identified by
the auditor within five (5) business days
after such noncompliance is identified
by the auditor, regardless of whether the
audit has been completed as of that
date.’’
The Applicant requests that this
condition be deleted. The Applicant
states that there is no reason why the
QPAM needs this information within
five business days and no indication is
given as to what it is to do with the
information once it has it. The
Applicant also states that the auditor
should be trusted to exercise discretion
as to the timing of notification regarding
instances of noncompliance, and asserts
that requiring identification of every
such instance, however technical the
misstep, could be counter-productive,
consume significant amounts of the
auditor’s time, and in light of the very
limited number of available auditors,
cause many financial institutions
needing audits to fail to meet the
deadlines imposed by these exemptions
simply because a qualified auditor is not
available. Further, the Applicant states
that compliance with this provision is
within the control of the auditor rather
than the Applicant. If the condition is
not deleted, the Applicant suggests that
the condition read:
‘‘The auditor must notify the
respective Barclays Affiliated QPAM of
any instance of noncompliance
identified by the auditor within five (5)
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business days after such noncompliance
is identified by the auditor, regardless of
whether the audit has been completed
as of that date. Any failure of the auditor
to meet this condition shall not be
deemed a violation of the exemption.’’
In the Department’s view, it is
important that notice of noncompliance
be forthcoming and prompt.
Accordingly, the Department declines to
delete the condition. The Department
also declines to include a statement in
Section I(i)(6) that a failure on behalf of
the auditor to meet this condition will
not violate the exemption. However, the
Department, as discussed below, has
modified Section I(q) to address this
issue.
Comment 22—Certification of the
Audit—Section I(i)(7)
Section I(i)(7) of the proposed fiveyear exemption provides, ‘‘[w]ith
respect to each Audit Report, the
General Counsel or one of the three
most senior executive officers of the
Barclays Affiliated QPAM to which the
Audit Report applies, must certify in
writing, under penalty of perjury, that
the officer has: Reviewed the Audit
Report and this exemption, if granted;
addressed, corrected, or remedied any
inadequacy identified in the Audit
Report; and determined that the Policies
and Training in effect at the time of
signing are adequate to ensure
compliance with the conditions of this
proposed five-year exemption, if
granted, and with the applicable
provisions of ERISA and the Code.’’
The Applicant requests that the
timing of Section I(i)(7) be clarified. In
this regard, the Applicant states that the
certification must be completed within
thirty days (see Subsection I(i)(9)), but
that it may take longer to remedy
identified issues. The Applicant states
that this condition should clarify that
‘‘addressing’’ an inadequacy means, not
only accepting the auditor’s
recommendations, but can include
pointing out alternative action, or even
no action, is a preferable means of
protecting ERISA plan clients and IRAs.
In addition, the Applicant represents
that the condition should reflect that the
individual providing the certification
may not be responsible for addressing,
correcting, or remedying any
inadequacy, and should clarify that the
certification need only state that ‘‘the
officer has caused the process for such
addressing, correcting, or remedying to
commence.’’
While the Department does not view
Section I(i)(7) as ambiguous, the
Department acknowledges that the
Applicant’s efforts to address the
auditor’s recommendations regarding
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inadequacies in the Policies and
Training identified by the auditor, may
take longer to implement than the
timeframe to submit the certified Audit
Report. The Department did not intend
to limit corrective actions to those that
could only be completed prior to the
submission of the Audit Report.
Therefore, the Department has modified
Section I(i)(7) to reflect that the senior
officer may certify that a written plan to
address the inadequacies regarding the
Policies and Training identified in the
auditor’s Report is in place.
Further, the conditions of this
exemption do not prohibit the
Applicant from disagreeing with the
auditor with respect to whether certain
practices rise to the level of
noncompliance with the terms of this
exemption. However, in those
circumstances where the auditor is not
persuaded to change its position on a
matter the auditor considers
noncompliant, the Applicant will be
responsible to correct such matters. Nor
do the conditions of this exemption
prohibit the Applicant from disagreeing
with the auditor with respect to the
appropriate method for correcting or
addressing issues of noncompliance.
The Department expects the Applicant
and the auditor to have meaningful
communications on any such
differences of opinion. In the event the
Applicant chooses to apply a corrective
method that differs from that
recommended by the auditor, the Audit
Report and the Addendum attached
thereto should explain in detail the
noncompliance, the auditor’s
recommended action, the corrective
method chosen, and, if applicable, why
the Applicant chose a corrective method
different from that recommended by the
auditor. Finally, while the individual
providing the certification may not be
responsible for directly addressing,
correcting, or remedying any
inadequacy, such individual is
responsible for ensuring that such
process has indeed addressed, corrected
or remedied the identified inadequacy.
Comment 23—Review and Certification
of Audit Report—Section I(i)(8)
Section I(i)(8) the proposed five-year
exemption provides that ‘‘[t]he Risk
Committee of BPLC’s Board of Directors
is provided a copy of each Audit Report;
and a senior executive officer with a
direct reporting line to the highest
ranking legal compliance officer of
BPLC must review the Audit Report for
each Barclays Affiliated QPAM and
must certify in writing, under penalty of
perjury, that such officer has reviewed
each Audit Report.’’
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The Applicant requests that the
requirement to provide the Audit Report
to the Risk Committee of BPLC’s Board
of Directors be deleted. The Applicant
states that mandating the internal
process by which information is
handled within the financial institution
is beyond the scope of exemptive relief
and is an unwarranted intrusion into the
corporate governance processes of BPLC
and the Barclays Affiliated QPAMs that
does not advance the statutory goals set
forth in ERISA section 408 and Code
section 4975.
In addition, the Applicant states that
the reference to the ‘‘highest ranking
legal compliance officer’’ is unclear
because BPLC does not have an officer
that appears to satisfy the description.
The Applicant assumes that the
reference is either to the highest ranking
legal officer or the highest ranking
compliance officer.
The Department notes that in its
application and related materials, the
Applicant has represented that it has
established, or is in the process of
establishing, comprehensive changes to
processes and procedures that are, in
part, intended to change the culture at
BPLC from the top down. As also
represented by the Applicant, these
changes are focused on enhancements
in: (1) Supervision, controls, and
governance; (2) risk management
compliance assessment; (3) transaction
monitoring and communications
surveillance; (4) compliance testing; and
(5) internal audit.53
The Department has developed this
exemption to ensure that the highest
levels of management are aware of
ongoing matters concerning BPLC, the
Barclays Affiliated QPAMs, and
compliance with this exemption.
Requiring the provision of the Audit
Report to the Board of Directors and
certification by a senior executive
officer in the reporting line of the
highest compliance officer provides
assurance that the highest levels of
management within BPLC stay informed
about BPLC’s and the Barclays Affiliated
QPAMs’ compliance with the terms of
this exemption. In the Department’s
view, such officials are in the best
position to ensure that any inadequacy
identified by the auditor is
appropriately addressed and that
necessary changes to corporate policy
are effectuated where necessary.
Requiring certification under penalty of
perjury is consistent with the
Department’s longstanding view that
basic requirements of compliance and
integrity are fundamental to an entity’s
53 See BCI Exemption Application (May 20, 2015)
from pages 7 to 15.
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ability to qualify as a QPAM. However,
in accordance with the Applicant’s
request, the Department has clarified the
condition to refer to the ‘‘highest
ranking compliance officer.’’
Comment 24—Availability of the Audit
Report—Section I(i)(9)
Section I(i)(9) of the proposed fiveyear exemption provides that, ‘‘Each
Barclays Affiliated QPAM provides its
certified Audit Report by regular mail
to: The Department’s Office of
Exemption Determinations (OED), 200
Constitution Avenue NW, Suite 400,
Washington, DC 20210, or by private
carrier to: 122 C Street NW, Suite 400,
Washington, DC 20001–2109, no later
than 30 days following its completion.
The Audit Report will be part of the
public record regarding this five-year
exemption, if granted. Furthermore,
each Barclays Affiliated QPAM must
make its Audit Report unconditionally
available for examination by any duly
authorized employee or representative
of the Department, other relevant
regulators, and any fiduciary of an
ERISA-covered plan or IRA, the assets of
which are managed by such Barclays
Affiliated QPAM.’’
The Applicant states that the scope of
exemption should be limited to PTE 84–
14 in all instances and requests that this
condition require that the Audit Report
be available to plans managed by a
QPAM in reliance on PTE 84–14. The
Applicant states that this condition can
be read to require that the Audit Report
be available to asset management plan
clients, regardless of whether the
Barclays Affiliated QPAM relies on PTE
84–14 for such clients’ accounts. The
Applicant suggests that the condition
read: ‘‘Each Barclays Affiliated QPAM
provides its certified Audit Report by
regular mail to: The Department’s Office
of Exemption Determinations (OED),
200 Constitution Avenue NW, Suite
400, Washington, DC 20210, or by
private carrier to: 122 C Street NW,
Suite 400, Washington, DC 20001–2109,
no later than 30 days following its
completion. The Audit Report will be
part of the public record regarding this
exemption. Furthermore, each Barclays
Affiliated QPAM must make its Audit
Report unconditionally available for
examination by any duly authorized
employee or representative of the
Department, other relevant regulators,
and any fiduciary of an ERISA-covered
plan or IRA, the assets of which are
managed by such Barclays Affiliated
QPAM in reliance on PTE 84–14.’’
ERISA-covered plans and IRAs,
routinely rely on QPAM status before
entering into agreements with financial
institutions, even if those institutions do
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not rely on PTE 84–14 when managing
plan and IRA assets. Accordingly, the
Department has an interest in ensuring
that the conditions of this exemption
broadly protect ERISA-covered plans
and IRAs that have relied on QPAM
status in deciding to enter into an
agreement with the Applicant or the
Barclays Affiliated QPAMs.
Nevertheless, the Department has
revised Section I(i)(9) to clarify that the
Barclays Affiliated QPAMs are required
to make the documents available to any
fiduciary of a Covered Plan. The Audit
Report, in any event, will be
incorporated into the public record
attributable to this exemption, under
Exemption Application Number D–
11910, and, therefore, independently
accessible by interested members of the
public. Accordingly, the Department has
determined to revise the condition by
replacing the phrase ‘‘an ERISA-covered
plan or IRA, the assets of which are
managed by such Barclays Affiliated
QPAM’’ with the term ‘‘Covered Plan’’
(as defined in Section II(f)). Lastly, the
Department agrees that access to the
Audit Report need only be upon request
and such access or delivery can be made
electronically, and it has revised the
exemption accordingly.
Comment 25—Engagement
Agreements—Section I(i)(10)
Section I(i)(10) of the proposed fiveyear exemption provides that, ‘‘Each
Barclays Affiliated QPAM and the
auditor must submit to OED: (A) Any
engagement agreement(s) entered into
pursuant to the engagement of the
auditor under this five-year exemption,
if granted; and (B) any engagement
agreement entered into with any other
entity retained in connection with such
QPAM’s compliance with the Training
or Policies conditions of this five-year
exemption, if granted, no later than six
(6) months after the Conviction Date
(and one month after the execution of
any agreement thereafter).’’
The Applicant requests deletion of the
requirement under Section I(i)(10)(B)
which provides, ‘‘[e]ach Barclays
Affiliated QPAM and the auditor must
submit to OED . . . (B) any engagement
agreement entered into with any other
entity retained in connection with such
QPAM’s compliance with the Training
or Policies conditions of this five-year
exemption, no later than six (6) months
after the Conviction Date (and one
month after the execution of any
agreement thereafter);’’.
The Applicant states that the
proposed exemption includes multiple
conditions for the qualifications of the
trainer (Subsection I(h)(2)(ii)), the
contents of the Policies (Subsection
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I(h)(1)) and for the auditor’s review of
the adequacy of the Training and
Policies (Subsection I(i)(5)(i)). The
Applicant represents that there is no
reason for the Department to see and
review, and make available to the
public, every service provider contract
that could cover policies, procedures or
training. The Applicant states that no
reason is given for the Department’s
review of engagement letters for all legal
and consulting services applicable to
the policies, procedures and training.
Additionally, the Applicant states that it
should be permitted to delete or redact
commercial terms from any engagement
agreement submitted to the Department.
Further, the Applicant requests that the
timeframe for provision of the auditor’s
engagement be modified to no later than
six (6) months after the Barclays
Affiliated QPAM’s engagement with an
ERISA-covered plan or IRA for the
provision of asset management or other
discretionary fiduciary services (and
one month after the execution of any
agreement thereafter). Therefore, the
Applicant suggests that the condition
read: ‘‘Each Barclays Affiliated QPAM
and the auditor must submit to OED:
Any engagement agreement(s) entered
into pursuant to the engagement of the
auditor under this exemption no later
than six (6) months after the Barclays
Affiliated QPAM’s engagement with an
ERISA-covered plan or IRA for the
provision of asset management or other
discretionary fiduciary services (and one
month after the execution of any
agreement thereafter). Commercial
terms may be removed or redacted from
the auditor engagement.’’
In coordination with the Department’s
modification of Section I(h)(2)(ii) to
remove the requirement that the
Training must be conducted by an
independent professional, the
Department has determined to remove
the requirement in Section I(i)(10)(B) to
provide to the Department the
engagement agreements entered into
with entities retained in connection
with compliance with the Training or
Policies conditions. Furthermore, to
remove any confusion or uncertainty
regarding the timing of the submission
of the auditor’s engagement agreement,
the Department has modified Section
I(i)(10) to require that the auditor’s
engagement agreement be submitted to
the Office of Exemption Determinations
no later than two (2) months after the
engagement agreement is entered into
by the Applicant and the independent
auditor.
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Comment 26—Auditor’s Workpapers—
Section I(i)(11)
Section I(i)(11) of the proposed fiveyear exemption provides that the
‘‘auditor must provide OED, upon
request, all of the workpapers created
and utilized in the course of the audit,
including, but not limited to: The audit
plan; audit testing; identification of any
instance of noncompliance by the
relevant Barclays Affiliated QPAM; and
an explanation of any corrective or
remedial action taken by the applicable
Barclays Affiliated QPAM.’’
The Applicant states that, as noted
above in connection with Section I(i)(5),
compliance with this provision is
within the control of the auditor rather
than the Applicant. The Applicant
states that a violation of this provision
should therefore not result in loss of the
exemption. The Applicant also
represents that this condition is
unnecessary and duplicative. In
addition, the Applicant requests that
this condition be appropriately limited
to ensure that any confidential or
otherwise sensitive information is
redacted prior to any disclosure of the
workpapers in a public file. The
Applicant states that the proposed
exemption, as worded, requires that the
auditor enjoy broad access to a Barclays
Affiliated QPAM’s records. The
Applicant further states that, while such
access should be appropriately cabined,
the auditor will still have access to
sensitive information, such as client
information, marketing data, personal
information of the QPAM’s employees,
and other details.
Therefore, the Applicant requests that
access be limited to allow the auditor,
and OED,54 to inspect such information
without its being disclosed in the public
record. The Applicant suggests that this
condition read: ‘‘The auditor must
provide OED, upon request, all of the
workpapers created and utilized in the
course of the audit, provided that any
confidential business or personal
information of the Barclays Affiliated
QPAMs, BPLC, and their clients (or the
officers, directors, employees or agents
thereof) reflected in the workpapers,
including, without limitation, client
communications, shall be redacted, and
provided further that nothing herein
shall be deemed to limit any authority
the Department may otherwise have to
inspect such information without
making it part of the public file. Any
failure of the auditor to meet this
54 OED is the Office of Exemption Determinations
within the Employee Benefits Security
Administration agency of the United States
Department of Labor.
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61891
condition shall not be deemed a
violation of the exemption.’’
The Department acknowledges that
certain information contained in the
workpapers may be confidential and
proprietary, and having that information
in a public file may create needless or
avoidable disclosure issues. The
Department has determined to modify
Section I(i)(11) to remove the
requirement that the auditor provide the
workpapers to OED, and instead require
that the auditor provide access to the
workpapers for the Department’s review
and inspection. However, given the
importance of the workpapers to the
Department’s own review and the
Applicant’s contractual relationship
with the auditor, the Department
declines to include a statement in
Section I(i)(11) that a failure on behalf
of the auditor to meet this condition
will not violate the exemption.
Comment 27—Replacement of
Auditor—Section I(i)(12)
Section I(i)(12) of the proposed fiveyear exemption provides that, ‘‘BPLC
must notify the Department at least
thirty (30) days prior to any substitution
of an auditor, except that no such
replacement will meet the requirements
of this paragraph unless and until BPLC
demonstrates to the Department’s
satisfaction that such new auditor is
independent of BPLC, experienced in
the matters that are the subject of the
exemption, if granted, and capable of
making the determinations required of
this exemption, if granted.’’
The Applicant requests that this
Section I(i)(12) be deleted, stating that
the proposed exemption contains
conditions requiring the auditor to
satisfy multiple conditions and it serves
no useful purpose to impose an
additional requirement to demonstrate
to the Department’s satisfaction that the
auditor satisfies such standards before
substitution, particularly given the
timeline required for the audit process.
The Applicant requests that if the
condition is not deleted, the condition
be modified to read: ‘‘BPLC must notify
the Department at least thirty (30) days
after terminating the engagement of the
auditor, the reason for the termination,
and provide the Department with the
contract of the substitute auditor, the
selection of which must satisfy the
requirements of subparagraph (i)(1).’’
The Department notes that this
exemption is not unique in requiring the
Department be notified of changes to
service providers (see, e.g., the
requirement of Schedule C of the Form
5500 Annual Return/Report for the Plan
Administrator of certain plans to report
to the Department a termination of the
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should make clear that it supersedes the
analogous condition in the Temporary
Exemption to avoid imposing
duplicative requirements. The
Applicant suggests that this condition
read: ‘‘This Subsection supersedes the
analogous section of PTE 2016–16, as of
the date of this exemption’s publication
in the Federal Register. Effective as of
the publication date, with respect to any
arrangement, agreement, or contract
between a Barclays Affiliated QPAM
and an ERISA-covered plan or IRA
under which a Barclays Affiliated
QPAM provides asset management or
other discretionary fiduciary services in
reliance on PTE 84–14, each Barclays
Affiliated QPAM agrees and warrants
. . . .’’
ERISA-covered plans and IRAs
routinely rely on QPAM status as a
condition of entering into transactions
with financial institutions, even with
respect to transactions that do not
necessarily require adherence to PTE
84–14. In addition, it may not always be
clear whether or not the Barclays
Affiliated QPAM intends to rely upon
PTE 84–14 for any particular
transaction. Accordingly, it is critical to
ensure that protective conditions are in
place to safeguard the interests of
ERISA-covered plans and IRAs that are
acting in reliance on the availability of
this exemption and QPAM status,
Comments 28–29—Contracts With Plans particularly those which may not have
and IRAs—Section I(j)(1)
entered into the transaction in the first
Section I(j)(1) of the proposed fiveplace, but for the Department’s grant of
year exemption provides: ‘‘Effective as
this exemption.
of the effective date of this five-year
The Department has a clear interest in
exemption, if granted, with respect to
protecting such ERISA-covered plans
any arrangement, agreement, or contract and IRAs that enter into an asset
between a Barclays Affiliated QPAM
management agreement with a Barclays
and an ERISA-covered plan or IRA for
Affiliated QPAM in reliance on the
which a Barclays Affiliated QPAM
manager’s qualification as a QPAM.
provides asset management or other
Moreover, when an ERISA-covered plan
discretionary fiduciary services, each
or IRA terminates its relationship with
Barclays Affiliated QPAM agrees and
an asset manager, it may incur
warrants: (1) To comply with ERISA and significant costs and expenses as its
the Code, as applicable with respect to
investments are unwound and as it
such ERISA- covered plan or IRA, to
searches for and hires a new asset
refrain from engaging in prohibited
manager.
The Department has revised this
transactions that are not otherwise
condition for consistency with its
exempt (and to promptly correct any
interest in protecting ERISA-covered
inadvertent prohibited transactions);
plans and IRAs that rely upon QPAM
and to comply with the standards of
prudence and loyalty set forth in section status. The condition now applies only
to Covered Plans.
404 of ERISA with respect to each such
The Department rejects the view that
ERISA-covered plan and IRA.’’
it acts outside its authority by protecting
The Applicant requests that
Subsection I(j) provide that the contract ERISA-covered plans and IRAs that rely
on Barclay’s Affiliated QPAMs’
requirements apply only to agreements
eligibility for this exemption, and
where a QPAM provides services in
reemphasizes the seriousness of the
reliance on PTE 84–14. The Applicant
asserts, as noted above, that the scope of criminal misconduct that caused the
Applicant to need this exemption. The
exemptive relief in the proposed
Department may grant an exemption
exemption should in all instances be
under section 408(a)(3) of ERISA or
limited in this manner. In addition, the
section 4975(c)(2)(C) of the Code only to
Applicant states that the condition
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plan’s auditor and/or enrolled actuary
and to provide an explanation of the
reasons for the termination, including a
description of any material disputes or
matters of disagreement concerning the
termination). Furthermore, requiring the
Applicant to notify the Department of
the substitution of an auditor serves to
ensure that the Barclays Affiliated
QPAMs are attentive to the audit
process and the protections it provides;
and that the Department has the
information it needs to review
compliance. The Department has
decided, however, to modify Section
I(i)(12) to remove the requirement for
the Applicant to demonstrate the
independence and qualifications of the
auditor, however, and requires instead
that the Applicant, no later than two
months from the engagement of the
replacement auditor, notify the
Department of a change in auditor and
of the reason(s) for the substitution
including any material disputes
between the terminated auditor and the
Applicant. The Applicant’s fiduciary
obligations with respect to the selection
of the auditor, as well as the significant
role a credible selection plays in
reducing the need for more extensive
oversight by the Department, should be
sufficient to safeguard the selection
process.
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the extent the Secretary finds, among
other things, that the exemption is
protective of the affected plan or IRA.
As noted above, BPLC personnel
engaged in serious misconduct over an
extended period and at the expense of
their own clients. This misconduct
appears to have stemmed, in part, from
deficiencies in control and oversight.
Notwithstanding the misconduct,
which resulted in violation of Section
I(g) of PTE 84–14, the Department has
granted this exemption based, in
significant part, upon the inclusion of
Section I(j)(1) in the exemption, which
protects Covered Plans by, among other
things, requiring Barclays Affiliated
QPAMs to make an express commitment
to their customers to adhere to the
requirements of ERISA and the Code, as
applicable. As previously indicated, the
Department has concluded that a
culture of compliance, centered on
adherence to basic standards of fair
dealing as set forth in this exemption,
gives the Department a compelling basis
for making the required statutory
findings that the exemption is in the
interests of plan and IRA investors and
protective of their rights. Absent such
findings, the exemption would have
been denied.
In response to the Applicant’s
comments, however, the Department
has required an express commitment to
comply with the fiduciary standards
and prohibited transaction rules only to
the extent these provisions are
‘‘applicable’’ under ERISA and the
Code. This section, as modified, should
serve its salutary purposes of promoting
a culture of compliance and enhancing
the ability of plans and IRA customers
to sever their relationships with
minimal injury in the event of
noncompliance. This conclusion is
reinforced, as well, by the limited
nature of the relief granted by this
exemption, which generally does not
extend to transactions that involve selfdealing.
In response to the Applicant’s
comments, the Department also notes
that nothing in ERISA or the Code
prevents the Department from
conditioning relief on express
contractual commitments to adhere to
the requirements set out herein. The
QPAMs always remain free to disclaim
reliance on the exemption and to avoid
such express contractual commitments.
To the extent, however, that they hold
themselves out as fiduciary QPAMs,
they should be prepared to make an
express commitment to their customers
to adhere to the requirements of this
exemption. This commitment
strengthens and reinforces the
likelihood of compliance, and helps
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ensure that, in the event of
noncompliance, customers will be
insulated from injuries caused by
noncompliance. These protections also
ensure that customers will be able to
extricate themselves from transactions
that become prohibited as a result of the
QPAMs’ misconduct, without fear of
sustaining additional losses as a result
of the QPAMs’ actions. In this
connection, however, the Department
emphasizes that the only claims
available to the QPAMs’ customers
pursuant to these contractual
commitments are those separately
provided by ERISA or other state and
federal laws that are not preempted by
ERISA. As before, private litigants have
only those causes of action specifically
authorized by laws that exist
independent of this exemption.
Comment 30—Indemnity Provision—
Section I(j)(2)
Section I(j)(2) requires each Barclays
Affiliated QPAM to agree and warrant
‘‘[t]o indemnify and hold harmless the
ERISA-covered plan or IRA for any
damages resulting from a Barclays
Affiliated QPAM’s violation of
applicable laws, a Barclays Affiliated
QPAM’s breach of contract, or any claim
brought in connection with the failure of
such Barclays Affiliated QPAM to
qualify for the exemptive relief provided
by PTE 84–14 as a result of a violation
of Section I (g) of PTE 84–14 other than
the Conviction.’’
The Applicant asserts that the
provision is unfair because it is not
limited to clients who are harmed
through a direct, causal link to the loss
of the exemptive relief provided by PTE
84–14 and the Applicant requests that
the condition be deleted. In addition,
the Applicant represents that the
condition appears to allow plans and
IRAs to seek to recover damages (i) that
arise from violations and breaches by
third parties, (ii) that arise only
tenuously from the manager’s conduct,
(iii) that may be grossly unreasonable in
amount, (iv) for claims without merit
and (v) for claims in connection with
accounts that do not rely on the relief
provided by PTE 84–14. If the
Department declines to delete this
condition, the Applicant requests, in the
alternative, that the Department
expressly tie the requirement to
damages with a proximate causal
connection to relevant conduct of the
manager by rewording the condition as
follows: ‘‘To indemnify and hold
harmless the ERISA-covered plan or IRA
for any reasonable damages involving
such arrangement, agreement or
contract and resulting directly from a
violation of ERISA by such Barclays
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Affiliated QPAM, or, to the extent the
Barclays Affiliated QPAM relies on the
exemptive relief provided by PTE 84–14
under the arrangement, agreement or
contract, the failure of such Barclays
Affiliated QPAM to qualify for the
exemptive relief provided by PTE 84–14
as a result of a violation of Section I(g)
of PTE 84–14 other than as a result of
the Conviction. This condition does not
require indemnification of indirect,
special, consequential or punitive
damages.’’
As explained above, the intended
purpose of this exemption is to protect
ERISA-covered plans and IRAs that
entrust the Barclays Affiliated QPAMs
with the management of their retirement
assets. To this end, it is the
Department’s view that the protective
purpose of this exemption is furthered
by Section I(j)(2). The Department
emphasizes that this condition is not
punitive, but rather ensures that, when
an ERISA-covered plan or IRA enters
into an asset management agreement
with a Barclays Affiliated QPAM in
reliance on the manager’s qualification
as a QPAM, it may expect adherence to
basic fiduciary norms and standards of
fair dealing, notwithstanding the prior
conviction. The condition also ensures
that the plan or IRA will be able to
disengage from that relationship in the
event that the terms of this exemption
are violated without undue injury.
However, the Department has revised
the applicability of this condition to
more closely reflect these interests. In
particular, the condition applies only
when the Barclays Affiliated QPAM
relies on PTE 84–14 or has expressly
represented that it qualifies as a QPAM
or relies on the QPAM class exemption
in its dealings with the plan or IRA. As
indicated above, if the asset manager
would prefer not to be subject to these
provisions as exemption conditions, it
may expressly disclaim reliance on
QPAM status or PTE 84–14 in entering
into its contract with the plan or IRA (in
that case, however, it could not rely on
the exemption for relief).
The Department has also made certain
further changes to this condition in
consideration of the Applicant’s
comment. These changes include:
Renumbering the condition for clarity;
replacing ‘‘applicable laws’’ with
clarifying language that conforms to the
one-year exemption; replacing ‘‘any
damages’’ with ‘‘actual losses resulting
directly from’’ certain acts or omissions
of the Barclays Affiliated QPAMs; and
adding language which affirms that the
obligations under this condition do not
extend to damages caused by acts that
are beyond the control of the Barclays
Affiliated QPAMS.
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Comment 31—Limits on Liability—
Section I(j)(2), I(j)(3) and I(j)(7) 55
Sections I(j)(2), I(j)(3) and I(j)(7)
require that each Barclays Affiliated
QPAM agree and warrant:
. . . (2) To indemnify and hold
harmless the ERISA-covered plan or IRA
for any damages resulting from a
Barclays Affiliated QPAM’s violation of
applicable laws, a Barclays Affiliated
QPAM’s breach of contract, or any claim
brought in connection with the failure of
such Barclays Affiliated QPAM to
qualify for the exemptive relief provided
by PTE 84–14 as a result of a violation
of Section I(g) of PTE 84–14 other than
the Conviction; (3) Not to require (or
otherwise cause) the ERISA-covered
plan or IRA to waive, limit, or qualify
the liability of the Barclays Affiliated
QPAM for violating ERISA or the Code
or engaging in prohibited transactions;
[and] . . . (7) Not to include
exculpatory provisions disclaiming or
otherwise limiting liability of the
Barclays Affiliated QPAM for a violation
of such agreement’s terms, except for
liability caused by an error,
misrepresentation, or misconduct of a
plan fiduciary or other party hired by
the plan fiduciary who is independent
of BPLC, and its affiliates.’’
The Applicant requests that these
conditions be deleted because they
contain duplicative requirements,
which extend beyond the scope of relief.
The Applicant states that the
indemnification provision should be
limited to ensure that it operates in a
manner that is fair to the Applicant and
its affiliates and that, with that change,
the condition provides ample protection
to clients. The Applicant states that
Section I(j)(3) and Section I(j)(7) do not
provide any additional protection.
The Department declines to delete
Section I(j)(3) from the final exemption.
The Department notes that ERISA
already precludes ERISA fiduciaries
from disclaiming obligations under
ERISA. See ERISA section 410
(prohibiting exculpatory clauses as void
as against public policy). To the extent
the exemption condition prevents the
Barclays Affiliated QPAMs from
including contractual provisions that
are void as against public policy there
is no legitimate basis for objection. Such
exculpatory language should not be in
the governing documents in the first
place and is potentially misleading
because it suggests disclaimer of
obligations that may not be disclaimed.
55 The Department has determined that
Subsection (4) is duplicative of the exemption’s
prohibition on exculpatory clauses, described
below. Thus, the subsection has been deleted.
Section I(j) has been renumbered for clarity.
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Outside the context of ERISA section
410, the provision’s requirement that
the Barclays Affiliated QPAMs retain
accountability for their adherence to the
basic obligations set forth in this
exemption is more than justified by the
misconduct that led to the fines and
Conviction as discussed above, and by
the need to ensure that Plan and IRA
customers may readily obtain redress
and exit contracts with Barclays
Affiliated QPAMs without harm in the
event of violations.
The Department has modified Section
I(j)(6) (formerly, Subsection (j)(7)) to
clarify that the prohibition on
exculpatory provisions does not extend
to losses that arise from an act or event
not caused by the Applicant. Also,
nothing in this section alters the
prohibition on exculpatory provisions
set forth in ERISA section 410.
Comment 32—Termination and
Withdrawal Restriction—Section I(j)(5)
and I(j)(6)
Under Sections I(j)(5) and I(j)(6) of the
proposed five-year exemption, the
Barclays Affiliated QPAMs agree: ‘‘(5)
Not to restrict the ability of such ERISAcovered plan or IRA to terminate or
withdraw from its arrangement with the
Barclays Affiliated QPAM (including
any investment in a separately managed
account or pooled fund subject to ERISA
and managed by such QPAM), with the
exception of reasonable restrictions,
appropriately disclosed in advance, that
are specifically designed to ensure
equitable treatment of all investors in a
pooled fund in the event such
withdrawal or termination may have
adverse consequences for all other
investors as a result of an actual lack of
liquidity of the underlying assets,
provided that such restrictions are
applied consistently and in like manner
to all such investors;
[and] . . . (6) Not to impose any fees,
penalties, or charges for such
termination or withdrawal with the
exception of reasonable fees,
appropriately disclosed in advance, that
are specifically designed to prevent
generally recognized abusive investment
practices or specifically designed to
ensure equitable treatment of all
investors in a pooled fund in the event
such withdrawal or termination may
have adverse consequences for all other
investors, provided that such fees are
applied consistently and in like manner
to all such investors.’’
The Applicant represents that these
conditions should be deleted because
they are unnecessary. The Applicant
notes that lockup conditions are
commonly used, designed to protect all
investors in a pooled fund, and applied
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evenhandedly to all investors. Further,
the Applicant states that the conditions,
as worded, could provide ERISA plan
clients and IRAs a privileged position,
to the detriment of other investors.
The Applicant requests that, should
these conditions be retained, they be
modified as follows: Under renumbered
Sections I(j)(4) and (j)(5), the Barclays
Affiliated QPAMs agree: ‘‘(4) Not to
restrict the ability of such ERISAcovered plan or IRA to terminate or
withdraw from its arrangement with the
Barclays Affiliated QPAM with respect
to any investment in a separately
managed account or pooled fund subject
to ERISA and managed by such QPAM,
with the exception of reasonable
restrictions, appropriately disclosed in
advance, that are specifically designed
to ensure equitable treatment of all
investors in a pooled fund in the event
such withdrawal or termination may
have adverse consequences for all other
investors. In connection with any such
arrangements involving investments in
pooled funds subject to ERISA entered
into after the Conviction Date, the
adverse consequences must relate to a
lack of liquidity of the pooled fund’s
underlying assets, valuation issues, or
regulatory reasons that prevent the fund
from immediately redeeming an ERISAcovered plan’s or IRA’s investment, and
such restrictions are applicable to all
such investors and effective no longer
than reasonably necessary to avoid the
adverse consequences; [and] . . . (5)
Not to impose any fees, penalties, or
charges for such termination or
withdrawal with the exception of
reasonable fees, appropriately disclosed
in advance, that are specifically
designed to ensure equitable treatment
of all investors in a pooled fund in the
event such withdrawal or termination
may have adverse consequences for all
other investors, provided that such fees
are applied consistently and in like
manner to all such investors.’’
The Department has revised
renumbered Section I(j)(4) and has
revised the condition to allow
exceptions for a lack of liquidity of the
pooled fund’s underlying assets,
valuation issues, or regulatory reasons
that prevent the fund from immediately
redeeming an ERISA-covered plan’s or
IRA’s investment in partial satisfaction
of the Applicant’s request, but has
retained the parenthetical that the
restriction is not limited to a separatelymanaged account that is subject to
ERISA or a pooled fund that is subject
to ERISA. The Department has decided
to retain Section I(i)5 as proposed.
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Comment 33—Updated Investment
Management Agreement—Section I(j)(7)
Section I(j)(8) of the proposed fiveyear exemption provides that each
Barclays Affiliated QPAM agrees and
warrants: ‘‘[w]ithin four (4) months of
the date of the Conviction, each
Barclays Affiliated QPAM must provide
a notice of its obligations under this
Section I(j) to each ERISA-covered plan
and IRA for which a Barclays Affiliated
QPAM provides asset management or
other discretionary fiduciary services.
For all other prospective ERISA-covered
plan and IRA clients for which a
Barclays Affiliated QPAM provides asset
management or other discretionary
services, the Barclays Affiliated QPAM
will agree in writing to its obligations
under this Section I(j) in an updated
investment management agreement
between the Barclays Affiliated QPAM
and such clients or other written
contractual agreement.’’
The Applicant represents that it and
its affiliates do not currently provide
asset management or other discretionary
fiduciary services to ERISA-covered
plans or IRAs. The Applicant states that,
for that reason, the four-month notice
has no purpose. The Applicant requests
that this provision be modified to reflect
that Barclays Affiliated QPAMs would
in the future be required to provide
notice prior to an engagement with an
ERISA-covered plan or IRA subject to
this exemption, consistent with
Subsections (h)(1) and (h)(2). The
Applicant notes that the timing of the
notice was correct in the analogous
provision of the Temporary Exemption.
Moreover, the Applicant submits that
the condition should be limited to plans
for which the QPAM relies on PTE 84–
14. Finally, the Applicant submits that
a contractual agreement is an improper
vehicle as a client may attempt to
modify proposed contractual terms.
The Applicant suggests that the
condition in renumbered Subsection
(j)(7) read as follows: ‘‘Prior to a
Barclays Affiliated QPAM’s engagement
with an ERISA-covered plan or IRA for
the provision of asset management or
other discretionary fiduciary services,
such Barclays Affiliated QPAM must
provide a notice of its obligations under
this Section I(j) to such ERISA-covered
plan or IRA.’’
The Department has modified the
condition to require that Barclays
Affiliated QPAMs provide notice prior
to an engagement with an ERISAcovered plan or IRA. Further, as noted
above, the Department has an interest in
protecting a plan or IRA that enters into
an asset management agreement with a
Barclays Affiliated QPAM in reliance on
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the manager’s qualification as a QPAM,
regardless of whether the QPAM relies
on the class exemption when managing
the plan’s or IRA’s assets. The
Department has revised the applicability
of this condition to more closely reflect
this interest, and the condition now
applies to Covered Plans.
Comment 34—Notice to Plan Clients—
Section I(k)
Section I(k) of the proposed five-year
exemption provides that ‘‘[e]ach BPLC
affiliated asset manager provides each
Future Covered Client with a Federal
Register copy of the proposed five-year
exemption, along with a separate
summary describing the facts that led to
the Conviction (the Summary), which
have been submitted to the Department,
and a prominently displayed statement
that the Conviction resulted in a failure
to meet a condition of PTE 84–14. The
provision of these documents must
occur prior to, or contemporaneously
with, the client’s receipt of a written
asset management agreement from the
BPLC affiliated asset manager. For
purposes of this paragraph, a ‘‘Future
Covered Client’’ means a client of the
BPLC affiliated asset manager that,
beginning after the date, if any, that a
final exemption is published in the
Federal Register, has assets managed
by such asset manager, and has received
a representation from the asset manager
that the asset manager is a QPAM, or
qualifies for the relief provided by PTE
84–14.’’
The Applicant asserts that the
condition is overbroad and should be
deleted. The Applicant states, by its
terms, it extends to clients for which the
QPAM does not rely on PTE 84–14 and
clients who are neither covered by
ERISA or the prohibited transaction
provisions of the Internal Revenue
Code. Further, the Applicant states that,
to the extent the condition is meant to
extend to clients for which the QPAM
relies on PTE 84–14, it duplicates the
requirements of Subsection I(j)(8)).
The Department declines to delete the
condition. The Department notes that
ERISA-covered plans and IRAs often
rely on QPAM status as a condition of
entering into transactions with financial
institutions, even with respect to
transactions that do not strictly require
adherence to PTE 84–14. In addition, it
may not always be clear whether the
Barclays Affiliated QPAM intends to
rely upon PTE 84–14 for any particular
transaction. Accordingly, it is critical to
ensure that protective conditions are in
place to safeguard the interests of plans
and IRAs that are acting in reliance on
QPAM status or the availability of this
exemption, particularly those who may
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not have entered into the transaction in
the first place, but for the Department’s
grant of this exemption. Further, the
Department has an interest in protecting
plans and IRAs that enter into an asset
management agreement with a Barclays
Affiliated QPAM in reliance on the
manager’s qualification as a QPAM. If a
plan or IRA terminates its relationship
with an asset manager, it may incur
significant costs and expenses as its
investments are unwound and as it
searches for and hires a new asset
manager.
The Applicant also requests deletion
of the requirement that a separate
summary of facts be provided, as the
facts are set out in the Federal Register
notice. The Applicant suggests that the
condition read as follows: ‘‘Notice to
Future Covered Clients. Each Barclays
Affiliated QPAM provides each Future
Covered Client with a Federal Register
copy of the final permanent exemption.
The provision of this document must
occur prior to, or contemporaneously
with, the client’s receipt of a written
asset management agreement from the
Barclays Affiliated QPAM. For purposes
of this paragraph, a ‘‘Future Covered
Client’’ means an ERISA-covered Plan
client or IRA client of the Barclays
Affiliated QPAM that, beginning after
the date, if any, that a final exemption
is published in the Federal Register,
for which a Barclays Affiliated QPAM
will provide asset management or other
discretionary fiduciary services in
reliance on PTE 84–14.’’
The Department declines to make the
requested changes. The exemption seeks
to ensure that all interested parties are
aware of and attentive to the complete
facts and circumstances surrounding
this application for exemption. The
required disclosure of the proposal and
grant ensures full disclosure of the
relevant facts and circumstances, and
the Summary highlights the important
facts that led to the Conviction.
Requiring the disclosure of the
Summary, proposal, and grant provides
the opportunity for all parties to have
knowledge of these facts and
circumstance. Notwithstanding this, the
Department has modified the condition
to clarify that disclosures may be
provided electronically. Further, the
notice requirement has been narrowed
to ERISA-covered plans and IRAs that
would benefit from this knowledge (i.e.,
Covered Plans). Notice does not need to
be given to a client with respect to
which a Barclays Affiliated QPAM has
expressly disclaimed reliance on QPAM
status or reliance on PTE 84–14.
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Comment 35—QPAM Compliance with
PTE 84–14 Conditions Except Section
I(g); Section I(l)
Section I(l) of the proposed five-year
exemption provides that ‘‘[t]he Barclays
QPAMs must comply with each
condition of PTE 84–14, as amended,
with the sole exception of the violation
of Section I(g) of PTE 84–14 that is
attributable to the Conviction.’’
The Applicant represents this
condition contains an unintended error
as ‘‘Barclays QPAM’’ is undefined. The
Applicant suggests that the condition
read: ‘‘The Barclays Affiliated QPAMs
must comply with each condition of
PTE 84–14, as amended, with the sole
exception of the violation of Section I(g)
of PTE 84–14 that is attributable to the
Conviction.’’
The Department has revised the
exemption in the manner requested by
the Applicant.
Comment 36—Compliance Officer
Appointment and Reporting Line—
Section I(m)(1)(ii)
Section I(m)(1)(ii) of the proposed
five-year exemption provides, ‘‘BPLC
designates a senior compliance officer
(the Compliance Officer) who will be
responsible for compliance with the
Policies and Training requirements
described herein. The Compliance
Officer must conduct an annual review
(the Annual Review) to determine the
adequacy and effectiveness of the
implementation of the Policies and
Training. With respect to the
Compliance Officer, the following
conditions must be met: . . .
(ii) The Compliance Officer must have
a direct reporting line to the highestranking corporate officer in charge of
legal compliance that is independent of
BPLC’s other business lines.’’
The Applicant requests the deletion of
conditions regarding appointment of the
Compliance Officer and the Annual
Review. The Applicant states that BPLC
pleaded guilty to a single crime, based
on the conduct of two individuals in
London who had no responsibility for
asset management. The Applicant
claims that BPLC and its Affiliated
QPAMs have very robust compliance
departments and that BPLC’s
compliance and remediation efforts
were singled out for praise by DOJ and
resulted in BPLC becoming the first
corporate entity to receive sentencing
credit for such efforts. The Applicant
asserts that the Department’s imposition
of additional compliance requirements
is, under these circumstances,
unwarranted and seemingly arbitrary.
The Applicant states that the
Department has not imposed a
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requirement like that in Subsection I(m)
in granting past exemptions, and claims
that there is no basis for imposing the
requirement herein. The Applicant
represents that Barclays should be
trusted to determine how to comply
with the exemption and its Policies and
Training conditions, which are
separately the subject of the audit
requirement. In addition, the Applicant
states that the reference to the ‘‘highest
ranking corporate officer in charge of
legal compliance’’ is unclear. The
Applicant requests that if the condition
is not deleted, that the condition read:
‘‘(m)(1) BPLC designates a compliance
officer (the Compliance Officer) who
will be responsible for compliance with
the Policies and Training requirements
described herein: . . .
(ii) The Compliance Officer must have
a direct reporting line to the highestranking corporate officer in charge of
legal or compliance that is independent
of BPLC’s other business lines.’’
The Department proposed the
requirement of an internal compliance
officer because of serious concerns
regarding the Applicant’s compliance
regime, as discussed above. The
Department’s determination to grant this
exemption is based in part on the
Department’s view that an internal
compliance officer with responsibility
over the policies and procedures
mandated by this exemption will
provide a new level of oversight
necessary to ensure that such Policies
and Training are properly implemented.
In response to the Applicant’s comment
that the reference to the ‘‘highest
ranking corporate officer in charge of
legal compliance’’ is unclear, as noted
above in Section I(i)(8), the Department
has modified ‘‘highest ranking corporate
officer in charge of legal compliance’’ to
‘‘highest ranking corporate officer in
charge of compliance for asset
management.’’
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Comment 37—Distribution of
Compliance Officer’s Annual Report—
Section I(m)(2)(iv)
Section I(m)(2)(iv) of the proposed
five-year exemption provides, ‘‘[w]ith
respect to each Annual Review, the
following conditions must be met: . . .
(iv) Each Annual Report must be
provided to appropriate corporate
officers of BPLC and each Barclays
Affiliated QPAM to which such report
relates; the head of compliance and the
General Counsel (or their functional
equivalent) of the relevant Barclays
Affiliated QPAM; and must be made
unconditionally available to the
independent auditor described in
Section I(i) above.’’
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To the extent the Annual Review and
Annual Report conditions are not
deleted, the Applicant requests deletion
of the requirement that the Annual
Report be provided to ‘‘appropriate
corporate officers.’’ The Applicant states
that this term is undefined and unclear.
The Applicant states that the purpose of
this condition is satisfied by providing
the Report to the General Counsel (or
their functional equivalent) who can
determine what further internal
distribution is necessary. If the
condition is not deleted, the Applicant
suggests that the condition read: ‘‘Each
Annual Report must be provided to the
head of compliance and the General
Counsel (or their functional equivalent)
of the relevant Barclays Affiliated
QPAM and the General Counsel (or their
functional equivalent) of BPLC; and
must be made unconditionally available
to the independent auditor described in
Section I(i) above.’’
While the Department declines to
delete the Annual Review and Annual
Report conditions, after consideration of
the Applicant’s comment, the
Department has revised the exemption
in the manner requested by the
Applicant.
Comment 38—Compliance Annual
Review and Timing—Section I(m)(2)(v)
Section I(m)(2)(v) of the proposed
five-year exemption provides, ‘‘[w]ith
respect to each Annual Review, the
following conditions must be met: . . .
(v) Each Annual Review, including the
Compliance Officer’s written Annual
Report, must be completed at least three
(3) months in advance of the date on
which each audit described in Section
I(i) is scheduled to be completed.’’
To the extent the Annual Review and
Annual Report requirements are not
deleted, the Applicant requests that this
condition be deleted or, at minimum,
that the timing requirement be removed.
The Applicant states that the
compliance review process outlined in
the proposed exemption is an extensive
undertaking, and the proposed
exemption envisions an iterative
process in which the auditor
communicates with the relevant QPAM
upon discovery of issues. The Applicant
states that the Department should not
mandate each aspect of the Annual
Review, to the extent the Annual
Review requirement remains, and, in
any case, the Annual Review should not
be mandated to conclude well before the
audit is completed. If the condition is
not deleted, the Applicant suggests that
the condition read: ‘‘(v) The first Annual
Review, including the Compliance
Officer’s written Annual Report, must be
completed within twelve (12) months of
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the Effective Date and each successive
Annual Review must be completed
within twelve (12) months of the prior
Annual Review.’’
The Department declines to delete the
Annual Review and Annual Report
conditions. The Department notes that
the Annual Review and the Annual
Report are integral to the auditor’s
assessment of the Applicant’s
compliance with the terms of the
exemption. An independent assessment
by the auditor of the adequacy of the
Annual Review and the Annual Report
is essential to providing appropriate
assurances that the Applicant and the
Barclays Affiliated QPAMs have taken
their obligations under this exemption
very seriously and have complied with
those obligations. The Department has
modified the time by which the Annual
Review, including the Annual Report, is
due, to three months following the
period to which it relates.
Comment 39—Deferred Prosecution
Agreement/Non-Prosecution
Agreement—Section I(o)(2)
Section I(o)(2) of the proposed fiveyear exemption provides, with respect
to any Deferred Prosecution Agreement
or Non-Prosecution Agreement: ‘‘During
the effective period of this five-year
exemption, if granted, BPLC: (2)
Immediately provides the Department
any information requested by the
Department, as permitted by law,
regarding the agreement and/or conduct
and allegations that led to the
agreement. After review of the
information, the Department may
require BPLC, its affiliates, or related
parties, as specified by the Department,
to submit a new application for the
continued availability of relief as a
condition of continuing to rely on this
exemption. If the Department denies the
relief requested in the new application,
or does not grant such relief within
twelve (12) months of application, the
relief described herein is revoked as of
the date of denial or as of the expiration
of the twelve (12) month period,
whichever date is earlier.’’
The Applicant requests that the
Department delete this condition. The
Applicant states that the condition does
not meet the requirements of either the
Administrative Procedure Act (the APA)
or the Department’s own regulations.
The Applicant states that if the
Department wishes to withdraw an
exemption, it must publish its intent to
withdraw for notice and comment in the
Federal Register. See 5 U.S.C. 553 and
29 CFR 2570.50. The Applicant states
that the proposed rule provides that the
Department, at its option, can require
the Applicant to ‘‘reapply’’ for an
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exemption, and if the Department
denies it or simply lets a year go by, the
current exemption is terminated.
However, the Applicant states that the
APA and the Department’s own
regulation require that an exemption
may not be terminated unless the
Department publishes the termination
for notice and comment.
The Applicant also objects that the
condition could create risk and
uncertainty for multiple loans, leases,
swaps, forwards and other investments.
In addition, the Applicant states that the
timing of NPAs/DPAs is uncertain. If the
condition is not deleted, the Applicant
requests that the condition read as
follows: ‘‘During the effective period of
the permanent exemption BPLC: (1)
Immediately discloses to the
Department any Deferred Prosecution
Agreement (a DPA) or a NonProsecution Agreement (an NPA) with
the U.S. Department of Justice, entered
into by Barclays or any of its affiliates
in connection with conduct described in
Section I(g) of PTE 84–14 or section 411
of ERISA; and (2) Immediately provides
the Department any information
requested by the Department, as
permitted by law, regarding the
agreement and/or conduct and
allegations that led to the agreement.’’
The Department in no way intended
that this condition to be read as
providing for an automatic revocation of
the exemption and has revised this
condition accordingly. As revised, the
condition simply requires that the
Applicant notify the Department if and
when it or any of its affiliates enter into
a DPA or NPA with the U.S. Department
of Justice for conduct described in
section I(g) of PTE 84–14 or ERISA
section 411 and immediately provide
the Department with any information
requested by the Department, as
permitted by law, regarding the
agreement and/or conduct and
allegations that led to the agreement.
The Department retains the right to
propose a withdrawal of the exemption
pursuant to its procedures contained at
29 CFR 2570.50, should the
circumstances warrant such action.
Comment 40—Right to Copies of
Policies and Procedures—Section I(p)
Section I(p) of the proposed five-year
exemption provides that, ‘‘[e]ach
Barclays Affiliated QPAM, in its
agreements with ERISA-covered plan
and IRA clients, or in other written
disclosures provided to ERISA-covered
plan and IRA clients, within 60 days
prior to the initial transaction upon
which relief hereunder is relied, and
then at least once annually, will clearly
and prominently: inform the ERISA-
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covered plan and IRA client that the
client has the right to obtain copies of
the QPAM’s written Policies adopted in
accordance with this exemption, if
granted.’’
The Applicant requests that this
condition be revised to permit clients to
seek and obtain copies of the policies
and procedures upon request. The
Applicant states that this condition adds
to the number of duplicative and
overlapping notice requirements to
clients, which is burdensome and may
lead to confusion and clients ignoring
these mailings. The Applicant also
states that annual re-notification is
excessive and only adds to these risks.
Further, the Applicant states that the
exemption, which the client will
already have received, can make clear
that clients can request and receive the
policies and procedures upon request,
removing any need for additional
mailings. The Applicant suggests that
the condition read: ‘‘ERISA-covered
plan and IRA clients whose accounts are
managed in reliance on PTE 84–14 shall
be provided a copy of the QPAM’s
written Policies adopted in accordance
with the exemption upon request.’’
The Department disagrees, in part,
with the Applicant’s comment.
Affording ERISA-covered plan and IRA
clients a means by which to review and
understand the Policies is a vital
protection that is fundamental to this
exemption’s purpose. However, the
Department has modified the condition
so that the QPAMs, at their election,
may instead provide Covered Plans a
disclosure that accurately describes or
summarizes key components of the
Policies, rather than provide the Policies
in their entirety. The Department has
also determined that such disclosure
may be continuously maintained on a
website, provided that the website link
to the summary of the written Policies
is clearly and prominently disclosed to
those ERISA-covered plan and IRA
clients to whom this section applies.
The Department also agrees with the
Applicant that the timing requirement
for notice should be revised and,
accordingly, has modified the condition
of Section I(p) to require notice
regarding the information on the
website be provided prior to or
contemporaneously with a Barclays
Affiliated QPAM’s engagement by any
Covered Plan. The notice shall be
provided in its agreements with, or in
other written disclosures provided to
any such Covered Plan. If the Policies
are thereafter changed, each Covered
Plan client must receive a new notice
within six (6) months following the end
of the calendar year during which the
Policies were changed.
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Comment 41—No-Fault Provision—
Section I(q)
Section I(q) the proposed five-year
exemption provides that, ‘‘[a] Barclays
Affiliated QPAM or a Barclays Related
QPAM will not fail to meet the terms of
this exemption, if granted, solely
because a different Barclays Affiliated
QPAM or a Barclays Related QPAM fails
to satisfy a condition for relief described
in Sections I(c), (d), (h), (i), (j), (k), (n)
and (p).’’
The Applicant requests that this
provision include references to the
conditions described in Subsections I(e),
(f), (g), and (m). The Applicant
represents that it is important to
advance the principle that a QPAM
should not lose exemptive relief simply
because a separate QPAM within the
same corporate family has failed to
satisfy a condition. Adding the
Subsections listed above will ensure
that the relief is meaningful here.
Moreover, the Applicant represents that
the failure of the auditor to meet a
requirement of the exemption should
not disqualify the QPAMs from using
the exemption. The Applicant suggests
that the condition read: ‘‘A Barclays
Affiliated QPAM or a Barclays Related
QPAM will not fail to meet the terms of
this exemption solely because a
different Barclays Affiliated QPAM or a
Barclays Related QPAM fails to satisfy
a condition for relief described in
Sections I(c), (d), (e), (f), (g), (h), (i), (j),
(k), (m), (n) and (p), or because the
Auditor failed to meet a requirement of
this exemption.’’
The Department declines to extend
the relief provided under Section I(q) to
Sections I(e), (f), (g), and (m).
Section I(e) provides that any failure
of a Barclays Affiliated QPAM or
Barclays Related QPAM to comply with
Section I(g) of PTE 84–14 arose solely
from the Conviction. As set forth in the
Applicant’s materials, the Conviction is
the sole reason a new exemption is
necessary for the Barclays Affiliated
QPAMs. If there were a new or
additional conviction of crime described
in Section I(g) of PTE 84–14, the
Department would need to assess the
misconduct, its scope, and its
significance. Without such an
assessment, the Department could not
be confident of the adequacy of the
conditions set forth herein with respect
to the Barclays Affiliated QPAMs and
Related QPAMs. Indeed, depending on
the particular facts, a subsequent
conviction could be strong evidence of
the inadequacy of this exemption’s
conditions to protect Covered Plans.
Further, as stated above, the Department
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is not obligated to grant further relief to
the extent such a conviction occurs.
Section I(f) provides that no Barclays
Affiliated QPAM or Barclays Related
QPAM exercised authority over the
assets of any ERISA-covered plan or IRA
in a manner that it knew or should have
known would: Further the criminal
conduct that is the subject of the
Conviction; or cause the Barclays
Affiliated QPAM or Barclays Related
QPAM or its affiliates or related parties
to directly or indirectly profit from the
criminal conduct that is the subject of
the Conviction. The Applicant has
represented that the conduct that is the
subject of the BPLC’s conviction ‘‘did
not involve any of BLPC’s asset
management units.’’ The Department is
not persuaded that it should include
relief from Section I(f) in Section I(q).
Section I(g) requires BPLC to refrain
from providing investment management
services to plans, and Section I(m)
requires a Compliance Officer to
undertake various compliance and
reporting obligations. Consequently, if
the relief under I(q) were extended to
Sections I(g) and I(m), it would render
them virtually meaningless. There
would be little or no effective penalty
for the failure to comply with the
conditions, as the Affiliated and Related
QPAMs would remain free to rely on the
exemption’s terms. The Department also
is of the view that the potential for
disqualification of all Barclays Affiliated
QPAMs under this agreement will serve
as additional incentive for these entities
to comply in good-faith with the
provisions of Sections I(g) and (m).
However, the Department has
determined to extend the relief in
condition (l), which requires Barclays
Affiliated QPAMs to comply with each
condition of PTE 84–14, as amended,
with the sole exception of the violation
of Section I(g) of PTE 84–14 that is
attributable to the Conviction. Finally,
except as noted above, the Department
accepts the Applicant’s comment that
the failure of the auditor to comply with
any of the conditions of the exemption
should not be treated as a failure by the
Barclays Affiliated QPAMs to comply
with the conditions of the exemption,
provided that such failure was not due
to the actions or inactions of the
Applicant or its affiliates, and Section
I(q) is amended, accordingly, except as
described above.
Comment 42—Definition of Affiliated
QPAM—Section II(a)
Section II(a) of the proposed five-year
exemption provides: ‘‘[T]he term
‘Barclays Affiliated QPAM’ means a
‘qualified professional asset manager’
(as defined in Section VI(a) of PTE 84–
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14) that relies on the relief provided by
PTE 84–14 and with respect to which
BPLC is a current or future ‘affiliate’ (as
defined in Section VI(d)(1) of PTE 84–
14). The term ‘Barclays Affiliated
QPAM’ excludes the parent entity, BPLC
and BCI’s Investment Bank division.’’
The Applicant states that BCI was not
the subject of the Conviction, nor was
its Investment Bank division the subject
of the Conviction. The Applicant also
represents that the division should not
be excluded from the exemption,
because BCI is an Affiliated QPAM in
the BPLC Group, and excluding a BCI
division from the benefits of PTE 84–14
would not only deter ordinary corporate
transactions, such as the purchase of an
asset management entity and its merging
into BCI, it would prevent the
development by BCI of new asset
management lines of business.
Moreover, the Applicant states that the
Justice Department did not charge BCI,
and thus did not determine that as a
corporate entity, it was culpable of a
crime. By excluding BCI’s Investment
Bank division from the benefits of PTE
84–14, the Applicant represents that the
Department is making that judgment in
the place of the Justice Department and
effectively debarring the entity from
providing any fiduciary services at all.
According to the Applicant, such a
result is arbitrary and punitive.
Therefore, the Applicant requests that
the provision read as follows: ‘‘The term
‘Barclays Affiliated QPAM’ means a
‘qualified professional asset manager’’
(as defined in Section VI(a) of PTE 84–
14) that relies on the relief provided by
PTE 84–14 and with respect to which
BPLC is a current or future ‘affiliate’ (as
defined in Section VI(d)(1) of PTE 84–
14). The term ‘Barclays Affiliated
QPAM’ excludes BPLC.’’
The Department agrees with this
comment and has modified Section II(a)
accordingly.
Comment 43—Definition of
Conviction—Section II(e)
Section II(e) of the proposed five-year
exemption provides: ‘‘The term
‘Conviction’ means the judgment of
conviction against BPLC in the United
States District Court for the District of
Connecticut (the Court), Case No. 3:15
–cr–00077–SRU–1, for participating in a
combination and conspiracy to fix,
stabilize, maintain, increase or decrease
the price of, and rig bids and offers for,
euro/U.S. dollar currency pairs
exchanged in the foreign currency
exchange spot market by agreeing to
eliminate competition in the purchase
and sale of such currency pairs in the
United States and elsewhere, in
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violation of the Sherman Antitrust Act,
15 U.S.C. 1.’’
The Applicant states that the language
in this definition paraphrases the Plea
Agreement and expands the use of the
term Conviction far beyond the conduct
that is the subject of the Plea
Agreement. The Applicant states that
exemptions are narrowly construed and
it is critical that both the asset managers
using the exemption and plan
counterparties understand precisely
what the conditions mean. The
Applicant states that, without that
precision, it is difficult to know whether
conditions regarding compensation,
participation, and future hiring are met.
The Applicant represents that this
overly-broad language goes far beyond
the Part I(g) disqualification and will
cause the Applicant and counterparties
to conclude that it is unusable. Finally,
the Applicant states that the definition
of ‘‘Conviction’’ in Subsection II(e) was
accurate in the Temporary Exemption.
Therefore, the Applicant requests that
this definition read as follows: ‘‘The
term ‘‘Conviction’’ means the judgment
of conviction against BPLC for violation
of the Sherman Antitrust Act, 15 U.S.C.
1, which is scheduled to be entered in
the District Court for the District of
Connecticut (the District Court), Case
Number 3:15–cr–00077–SRU–1.’’
After considering this comment, the
Department has revised the definition
accordingly. The Department notes that
Section II of the five-year exemption has
been reordered to list the defined terms
alphabetically; therefore, the term
‘‘Conviction’’ is now listed as
Subsection II(d).
Comments 44–46—Paragraph 2 of the
Summary of Facts and Representations
The Applicant seeks certain
clarifications to the Summary of Facts
and Representations that the
Department does not view as relevant to
its determination whether to grant this
exemption. Those requested
clarifications may be found as part of
the public record for Application No. D–
11910, in a letter to the Department,
dated January 5, 2017.
Comment—Letter from House
Committee on Financial Services
The Department also received a
comment letter from certain members of
Congress (the Members) regarding this
exemption, as well as the other QPAMrelated exemptions published in the
Federal Register today. In the letter, the
Members recognized that certain
conditions contained in these proposed
exemptions are crucial to protecting the
investments of our nation’s workers and
retirees, referring to proposed
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conditions which require each bank to:
(a) Indemnify and hold harmless ERISAcovered plans and IRAs for any damages
resulting from the future misconduct of
such bank; and (b) disclose to the
Department any Deferred Prosecution
Agreement or a Non-Prosecution
Agreement with the U.S. Department of
Justice. The Members also requested
that the Department hold hearings in
connection with the proposed
exemptions.
The Department acknowledges the
Members’ concerns regarding the need
for public discourse regarding proposed
exemptions. To this end, the
Department’s procedures regarding
prohibited transaction exemption
requests under ERISA (the Exemption
Procedures) afford interested persons
the opportunity to request a hearing.
Specifically, section 2570.46(a) of the
Exemption Procedures provides that,
‘‘[a]ny interested person who may be
adversely affected by an exemption
which the Department proposes to grant
from the restrictions of section 406(b) of
ERISA, section 4975(c)(1)(E) or (F) of the
Code, or section 8477(c)(2) of FERSA
may request a hearing before the
Department within the period of time
specified in the Federal Register notice
of the proposed exemption.’’ The
Exemption Procedures provide that
‘‘[t]he Department will grant a request
for a hearing made in accordance with
paragraph (a) of this section where a
hearing is necessary to fully explore
material factual issues identified by the
person requesting the hearing.’’ The
Exemption Procedures also provide that
‘‘[t]he Department may decline to hold
a hearing where: (1) The request for the
hearing does not meet the requirements
of paragraph (a) of this section; (2) the
only issues identified for exploration at
the hearing are matters of law; or (3) the
factual issues identified can be fully
explored through the submission of
evidence in written (including
electronic) form.’’ 56
The Department notes that while the
Members’ letter raises policy issues, it
does not appear to raise specific
material factual issues. The Department
previously explored a wide range of
legal and policy issues regarding
Section I(g) of the QPAM Exemption
during a public hearing held on January
15, 2015 in connection with the
Department’s proposed exemption
involving Credit Suisse AG, and has
determined that an additional hearing
on these issues is not necessary.
After giving full consideration to the
record, the Department has decided to
56 29 CFR part 2570, published at 76 FR 66653,
October 27, 2011.
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grant the exemption, as described above.
The complete application file
(Application No. D–11910) is available
for public inspection in the Public
Disclosure Room of the Employee
Benefits Security Administration, Room
N–1515, U.S. Department of Labor, 200
Constitution Avenue NW, Washington,
DC 20210.
For a more complete statement of the
facts and representations supporting the
Department’s decision to grant this
exemption, refer to the notice of
proposed exemption published on
November 21, 2016 at 81 FR 83427.
Exemption
Section I: Covered Transactions
Certain entities with specified
relationships to Barclays PLC (BPLC)
(the Barclays Affiliated QPAMs and the
Barclays Related QPAMs, as defined
further in Sections II(a) and II(b),
respectively) will not be precluded from
relying on the exemptive relief provided
by Prohibited Transaction Class
Exemption 84–14 (PTE 84–14 or the
QPAM Exemption), notwithstanding the
Conviction, as defined in Section II(d),
during the Exemption Period,57
provided that the following conditions
are satisfied:
(a) Other than certain individuals
who: Worked for a non-fiduciary
business of a BPLC subsidiary; had no
responsibility for, and exercised no
authority in connection with, the
management of plan assets; and are no
longer employed by the BPLC
subsidiary, the Barclays Affiliated
QPAMs and the Barclays Related
QPAMs (including their officers,
directors, agents other than BPLC, and
employees of such QPAMs who had
responsibility for, or exercised authority
in connection with the management of
plan assets) did not know of, did not
have reason to know of, or participate in
the criminal conduct that is the subject
of the Conviction. For the purposes of
this paragraph (a), ‘‘participate in’’
means the knowing approval of the
misconduct underlying the Conviction;
(b) Apart from a non-fiduciary line of
business within BCI, the Barclays
Affiliated QPAMs and the Barclays
Related QPAMs (including their
officers, directors, and agents other than
BPLC, and employees of such Barclays
57 Section I(g) of PTE 84–14 generally provides
that ‘‘[n]either the QPAM nor any affiliate thereof
. . . nor any owner . . . of a 5 percent or more
interest in the QPAM is a person who within the
10 years immediately preceding the transaction has
been either convicted or released from
imprisonment, whichever is later, as a result of’’
certain felonies including violation of the Sherman
Antitrust Act, Title 15 United States Code, Section
1.
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61899
Affiliated QPAMs) did not receive direct
compensation, or knowingly receive
indirect compensation, in connection
with the criminal conduct that is the
subject of the Conviction;
(c) The Barclays Affiliated QPAM will
not employ or knowingly engage any of
the individuals that participated in the
criminal conduct that is the subject of
the Conviction. For the purposes of this
paragraph (c), ‘‘participated in’’ means
the knowing approval of the misconduct
underlying the Conviction;
(d) At all times during the Exemption
Period, no Barclays Affiliated QPAM
will use its authority or influence to
direct an ‘‘investment fund’’ (as defined
in Section VI(b) of PTE 84–14), that is
subject to ERISA or the Code and
managed by such Barclays Affiliated
QPAM in reliance on PTE 84–14, or
with respect to which a Barclays
Affiliated QPAM has expressly
represented to an ERISA-covered plan
or IRA with assets invested in such
‘‘investment fund’’ that it qualifies as a
QPAM or relies on the QPAM class
exemption, to enter into any transaction
with BPLC, or to engage BPLC to
provide any service to such investment
fund, for a direct or indirect fee borne
by such investment fund, regardless of
whether such transaction or service may
otherwise be within the scope of relief
provided by an administrative or
statutory exemption;
(e) Any failure of a Barclays Affiliated
QPAM or a Barclays Related QPAM to
satisfy Section I(g) of PTE 84–14 arose
solely from the Conviction;
(f) A Barclays Affiliated QPAM or a
Barclays Related QPAM did not exercise
authority over the assets of any plan
subject to Part 4 of Title I of ERISA (an
ERISA-covered plan) or section 4975 of
the Code (an IRA) in a manner that it
knew or should have known would:
Further the criminal conduct that is the
subject of the Conviction; or cause the
Barclays Affiliated QPAM, the Barclays
Related QPAM or their affiliates to
directly or indirectly profit from the
criminal conduct that is the subject of
the Conviction;
(g) Other than with respect to
employee benefit plans maintained or
sponsored for its own employees or the
employees of an affiliate, BPLC will not
act as a fiduciary within the meaning of
section 3(21)(A)(i) or (iii) of ERISA, or
section 4975(e)(3)(A) and (C) of the
Code, with respect to ERISA-covered
plan and IRA assets; provided, however,
that BPLC will not be treated as
violating the conditions of this
exemption solely because it acted as an
investment advice fiduciary within the
meaning of section 3(21)(A)(ii) or
section 4975(e)(3)(B) of the Code;
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(h)(1) Prior to a Barclays Affiliated
QPAM’s engagement by an ERISAcovered plan or IRA for discretionary
asset management services, where the
QPAM relies upon PTE 84–14 or the
QPAM represents that it qualifies as a
QPAM, the Barclays Affiliated QPAM
must develop, implement, maintain,
and follow written policies and
procedures (the Policies). The Policies
must require and must be reasonably
designed to ensure that:
(i) The asset management decisions of
the Barclays Affiliated QPAM are
conducted independently of the
corporate management and business
activities of BPLC;
(ii) The Barclays Affiliated QPAM
fully complies with ERISA’s fiduciary
duties, and with ERISA and the Code’s
prohibited transaction provisions, as
applicable with respect to each Covered
Plan, and does not knowingly
participate in any violation of these
duties and provisions with respect to
Covered Plans;
(iii) The Barclays Affiliated QPAM
does not knowingly participate in any
other person’s violation of ERISA or the
Code with respect to Covered Plans;
(iv) Any filings or statements made by
the Barclays Affiliated QPAM to
regulators, including, but not limited to,
the Department, the Department of the
Treasury, the Department of Justice, and
the Pension Benefit Guaranty
Corporation, on behalf of or in relation
to Covered Plans, are materially
accurate and complete, to the best of
such QPAM’s knowledge at that time;
(v) To the best of the Barclays
Affiliated QPAM’s knowledge at the
time, the Barclays Affiliated QPAM does
not make material misrepresentations or
omit material information in its
communications with such regulators
with respect to Covered Plans;
(vi) The Barclays Affiliated QPAM
complies with the terms of this
exemption; and
(vii) Any violation of, or failure to
comply with an item in subparagraphs
(ii) through (vi), is corrected as soon as
reasonably possible upon discovery, or
as soon after the QPAM reasonably
should have known of the
noncompliance (whichever is earlier),
and any such violation or compliance
failure not so corrected is reported,
upon the discovery of such failure to so
correct, in writing, to the head of
compliance and the General Counsel (or
their functional equivalent) of the
relevant line of business that engaged in
the violation or failure, and the
independent auditor responsible for
reviewing compliance with the Policies.
A Barclays Affiliated QPAM will not be
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implement, maintain, or follow the
Policies, provided that it corrects any
instance of noncompliance as soon as
reasonably possible upon discovery, or
as soon as reasonably possible after the
QPAM reasonably should have known
of the noncompliance (whichever is
earlier), and provided that it adheres to
the reporting requirements set forth in
this subparagraph (vii);
(2) Prior to a Barclays Affiliated
QPAM’s engagement by a Covered Plan,
each Barclays Affiliated QPAM must
develop a program of training (the
Training), to be conducted at least
annually, for all relevant Barclays
Affiliated QPAM asset/portfolio
management, trading, legal, compliance,
and internal audit personnel. The First
Training under this exemption must be
completed by all relevant Barclays
personnel within eighteen months of the
Barclay’s Affiliated QPAM’s engagement
or representation, as described in this
provision. The Training must:
(i) At a minimum, cover the Policies,
ERISA and Code compliance (including
applicable fiduciary duties and the
prohibited transaction provisions),
ethical conduct, the consequences for
not complying with the conditions of
this exemption (including any loss of
exemptive relief provided herein), and
prompt reporting of wrongdoing; and
(ii) Be conducted by an individual
with significant understanding and
familiarity with asset management and
trading practices who has been
prudently selected and who has
appropriate technical training and
proficiency with ERISA and the Code;
(i)(1) Each Barclays Affiliated QPAM
submits to an audit conducted every
two years by an independent auditor,
who has been prudently selected and
who has appropriate technical training
and proficiency with ERISA and the
Code, to evaluate the adequacy of, and
each Barclays Affiliated QPAM’s
compliance with, the Policies and
Training described herein. The audit
requirement must be incorporated in the
Policies. Each audit must cover a
consecutive twelve (12) month period
starting with the twelve (12) month
period that begins on the date that a
Barclays Affiliated QPAM is first
engaged on or after January 10, 2018, by
any Covered Plan. The second audit
must cover a consecutive twelve month
period that begins on the date that is
twelve months after the date the first
audit period ends. The third audit
period must cover a consecutive twelve
month period that begins on the date
that is twelve months after the date the
second audit period ends. Each biennial
audit must be completed no later than
six (6) months after the period to which
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the audit applies. No audit period is
required to extend past July 9, 2023, and
each biennial audit must be completed
no later than six (6) months after the
period to which the audit applies;
(2) Within the scope of the audit and
to the extent necessary for the auditor,
in its sole opinion, to complete its audit
and comply with the conditions for
relief described herein, and only to the
extent such disclosure is not prevented
by state or federal statute, or involves
communications subject to attorney
client privilege, each Barclays Affiliated
QPAM and, if applicable, BPLC, will
grant the auditor unconditional access
to its business, including, but not
limited to: its computer systems;
business records; transactional data;
workplace locations; training materials;
and personnel. Such access is limited to
information relevant to the auditor’s
objectives as specified by the terms of
this exemption;
(3) The auditor’s engagement must
specifically require the auditor to
determine whether each Barclays
Affiliated QPAM has developed,
implemented, maintained, and followed
the Policies in accordance with the
conditions of this exemption, and has
developed and implemented the
Training, as required herein;
(4) The auditor’s engagement must
specifically require the auditor to test
each Barclays Affiliated QPAM’s
operational compliance with the
Policies and Training. In this regard, the
auditor must test for each QPAM, a
sample of such QPAM’s transactions
involving Covered Plans, sufficient in
size and nature to afford the auditor a
reasonable basis to determine such
QPAM’s operational compliance with
the Policies and Training;
(5) For each audit, on or before the
end of the relevant period described in
Section I(i)(1) for completing the audit,
the auditor must issue a written report
(the Audit Report) to BPLC and the
Barclays Affiliated QPAM to which the
audit applies that describes the
procedures performed by the auditor
during the course of its examination.
The auditor, at their discretion, may
issue a single consolidated Audit Report
which covers all the Barclays Affiliated
QPAMs. The Audit Report must include
the auditor’s specific determinations
regarding:
(i) The adequacy of each Barclays
Affiliated QPAM’s Policies and
Training; each Barclays Affiliated
QPAM’s compliance with the Policies
and Training; the need, if any, to
strengthen such Policies and Training;
and any instance of the respective
Barclays Affiliated QPAM’s
noncompliance with the written
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Policies and Training described in
Section I(h) above. The Barclays
Affiliated QPAM must promptly address
any noncompliance. The Barclays
Affiliated QPAM must promptly address
or prepare a written plan of action to
address any determination by the
auditor regarding the Policies and
Training and the auditor’s
recommendations (if any) with respect
to strengthening the Policies and
Training of the respective Barclays
QPAM. Any action taken or the plan of
action to be taken by the respective
Barclays Affiliated QPAM must be
included in an addendum to the Audit
Report (which addendum must be
completed prior to the certification
described in Section I(i)(7) below). In
the event such a plan of action to
address the auditor’s recommendation
regarding the adequacy of the Policies
and Training is not completed by the
time of submission of the Audit Report,
the following period’s Audit Report
must state whether the plan was
satisfactorily completed. Any
determination by the auditor that the
respective Barclays Affiliated QPAM
has implemented, maintained, and
followed sufficient Policies and
Training must not be based solely or in
substantial part on an absence of
evidence indicating noncompliance. In
this last regard, any finding that a
Barclays Affiliated QPAM has complied
with the requirements under this
subparagraph must be based on
evidence that the particular Barclays
Affiliated QPAM has actually
implemented, maintained, and followed
the Policies and Training required by
this exemption. Furthermore, the
auditor must not solely rely on the
Annual Report created by the
compliance officer (the Compliance
Officer) as described in Section I(m)
below as the basis for the auditor’s
conclusions in lieu of independent
determinations and testing performed
by the auditor as required by Section
I(i)(3) and (4) above; and
(ii) the adequacy of the most recent
Annual Review described in Section
I(m);
(6) The auditor must notify the
respective Barclays Affiliated QPAM of
any instance of noncompliance
identified by the auditor within five (5)
business days after such noncompliance
is identified by the auditor, regardless of
whether the audit has been completed
as of that date.;
(7) With respect to each Audit Report,
the General Counsel, or one of the three
most senior executive officers of the
Barclays Affiliated QPAM to which the
Audit Report applies, must certify in
writing, under penalty of perjury, that
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the officer has reviewed the Audit
Report and this exemption; that such
Barclays Affiliated QPAM has
addressed, corrected or remedied, any
noncompliance and inadequacy, or has
an appropriate written plan to address
any inadequacy regarding the Policies
and Training identified in the Audit
Report. Such certification must also
include the signatory’s determination
that the Policies and Training in effect
at the time of signing are adequate to
ensure compliance with the conditions
of this exemption, and with the
applicable provisions of ERISA and the
Code;
(8) The Risk Committee of BPLC’s
Board of Directors is provided a copy of
each Audit Report; and a senior
executive officer with a direct reporting
line to the highest ranking compliance
officer of BPLC must review the Audit
Report for each Barclays Affiliated
QPAM and must certify in writing,
under penalty of perjury, that such
officer has reviewed each Audit Report;
(9) Each Barclays Affiliated QPAM
provides its certified Audit Report, by
regular mail to: Office of Exemption
Determinations (OED), 200 Constitution
Avenue NW, Suite 400, Washington, DC
20210, or by private carrier to: 122 C
Street NW, Suite 400, Washington, DC
20001–2109, no later than 30 days
following its completion of the Audit
Report. The Audit Report will be part of
the public record regarding this
exemption. Furthermore, each Barclays
Affiliated QPAM must make its Audit
Report unconditionally available,
electronically or otherwise, for
examination upon request by any duly
authorized employee or representative
of the Department, other relevant
regulators, and any fiduciary of a
Covered Plan;
(10) Each Barclays Affiliated QPAM
and the auditor must submit to OED:
Any engagement agreement(s) entered
into pursuant to the engagement of the
auditor under this exemption, no later
than two (2) months after the execution
of any such engagement agreement;
(11) The auditor must provide the
Department, upon request, for
inspection and review, access to all the
workpapers created and utilized in the
course of the audit provided such access
and inspection is otherwise permitted
by law; and
(12) BPLC must notify the Department
of a change in the independent auditor
no later than two (2) months after the
engagement of a substitute or
subsequent auditor and must provide an
explanation for the substitution or
change including a description of any
material disputes between the
terminated auditor and BPLC;
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61901
(j) As of January 10, 2018 and
throughout the Exemption Period, with
respect to any arrangement, agreement,
or contract between a Barclays Affiliated
QPAM and a Covered Plan, the Barclays
Affiliated QPAM agrees and warrants:
(1) To comply with ERISA and the
Code, as applicable, with respect to
such Covered Plan; to refrain from
engaging in prohibited transactions that
are not otherwise exempt (and to
promptly correct any inadvertent
prohibited transactions); and to comply
with the standards of prudence and
loyalty set forth in section 404 of ERISA
with respect to each such ERISAcovered plan and IRA to the extent that
section is applicable;
(2) To indemnify and hold harmless
the Covered Plan for any actual losses
resulting directly from a Barclays
Affiliated QPAM’s violation of ERISA’s
fiduciary duties, as applicable, and of
the prohibited transaction provisions of
ERISA and the Code, as applicable; a
breach of contract by the QPAM; or any
claim arising out of the failure of such
Barclays Affiliated QPAM to qualify for
the exemptive relief provided by PTE
84–14 as a result of a violation of
Section I(g) of PTE 84–14 other than the
Conviction. This condition applies only
to actual losses caused by the Barclays
Affiliated QPAM’s violations;
(3) Not to require (or otherwise cause)
the Covered Plan to waive, limit, or
qualify the liability of the Barclays
Affiliated QPAM for violating ERISA or
the Code or engaging in prohibited
transactions;
(4) Not to restrict the ability of such
Covered Plan to terminate or withdraw
from its arrangement with the Barclays
Affiliated QPAM with respect to any
investment in a separately managed
account or pooled fund subject to ERISA
and managed by such QPAM, with the
exception of reasonable restrictions,
appropriately disclosed in advance, that
are specifically designed to ensure
equitable treatment of all investors in a
pooled fund in the event such
withdrawal or termination may have
adverse consequences for all other
investors. In connection with any such
arrangements involving investments in
pooled funds subject to ERISA entered
into after the effective date of this
exemption, the adverse consequences
must relate to of a lack of liquidity of
the underlying assets, valuation issues,
or regulatory reasons that prevent the
fund from promptly redeeming an
ERISA-covered plan’s or IRA’s
investment, and such restrictions must
be applicable to all such investors and
effective no longer than reasonably
necessary to avoid the adverse
consequences;
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(5) Not to impose any fees, penalties,
or charges for such termination or
withdrawal with the exception of
reasonable fees, appropriately disclosed
in advance, that are specifically
designed to prevent generally
recognized abusive investment practices
or specifically designed to ensure
equitable treatment of all investors in a
pooled fund in the event such
withdrawal or termination may have
adverse consequences for all other
investors, provided that such fees are
applied consistently and in like manner
to all such investors; and
(6) Not to include exculpatory
provisions disclaiming or otherwise
limiting liability of the Barclays
Affiliated QPAM for a violation of such
agreement’s terms. To the extent
consistent with Section 410 of ERISA,
however, this provision does not
prohibit disclaimers for liability caused
by an error, misrepresentation, or
misconduct of a plan fiduciary or other
party hired by the plan fiduciary who is
independent of BPLC, and its affiliates,
or damages from acts outside the control
of the Barclays Affiliated QPAM;
(7) Prior to a Barclays Affiliated
QPAM’s engagement with an ERISAcovered plan or IRA for the provision of
asset management or other discretionary
fiduciary services, such Barclays
Affiliated QPAM must provide a notice
of its obligations under this Section I(j)
to each Covered Plan;
(k) Any client for which a Barclays
Affiliated QPAM relies on PTE 84–14 or
has expressly represented that the
manager qualifies as a QPAM or relies
on the QPAM class exemption must
receive the proposed and final
exemptions, along with a separate
summary describing the facts that led to
the Conviction (the Summary), which
have been submitted to the Department,
and a prominently displayed statement
(the Statement) that the Conviction
results in a failure to meet a condition
in PTE 84–14, prior to, or
contemporaneously with, the client’s
receipt of a written asset management
agreement from the Barclays Affiliated
QPAM. Disclosures may be delivered
electronically;
(l) The Barclays Affiliated QPAMs
must comply with each condition of
PTE 84–14, as amended, with the sole
exception of the violation of Section I(g)
of PTE 84–14 that is attributable to the
Conviction;
(m)(1) Within six months following
the date of a Barclays Affiliated QPAM’s
engagement by an ERISA-covered plan
or IRA for discretionary asset
management services, with respect to
which the QPAM has represented that it
qualifies as a QPAM or will rely on PTE
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84–14, BPLC designates a senior
compliance officer (the Compliance
Officer) who will be responsible for
compliance with the Policies and
Training requirements described herein.
The Compliance Officer must conduct
an annual review for each annual period
beginning with the date of such
engagement and the anniversary of such
date (the Annual Review) to determine
the adequacy and effectiveness of the
implementation of the Policies and
Training. With respect to the
Compliance Officer, the following
conditions must be met:
(i) The Compliance Officer must be a
professional who has extensive
experience with, and knowledge of, the
regulation of financial services and
products, including under ERISA and
the Code; and
(ii) The Compliance Officer must have
a direct reporting line to the highestranking corporate officer in charge of
compliance for asset management;
(2) With respect to each Annual
Review, the following conditions must
be met:
(i) The Annual Review includes a
review of: Any compliance matter
related to the Policies or Training that
was identified by, or reported to, the
Compliance Officer or others within the
compliance and risk control function (or
its equivalent) during the previous year;
any material change in the relevant
business activities of the Barclays
Affiliated QPAMs; and any change to
ERISA, the Code, or regulations related
to fiduciary duties and the prohibited
transaction provisions that may be
applicable to the activities of the
Barclays Affiliated QPAMs;
(ii) The Compliance Officer prepares
a written report for each Annual Review
(each, an Annual Report) that: (A)
Summarizes his or her material
activities during the preceding year; (B)
sets forth any instance of
noncompliance discovered during the
preceding year, and any related
corrective action; (C) details any change
to the Policies or Training to guard
against any similar instance of
noncompliance occurring again; and (D)
makes recommendations, as necessary,
for additional training, procedures,
monitoring, or additional and/or
changed processes or systems, and
management’s actions on such
recommendations;
(iii) In each Annual Report, the
Compliance Officer must certify in
writing that to his or her knowledge: (A)
The report is accurate; (B) the Policies
and Training are working in a manner
which is reasonably designed to ensure
that the Policies and Training
requirements described herein are met;
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(C) any known instance of
noncompliance during the preceding
year and any related correction taken to
date have been identified in the Annual
Report; and (D) the Barclays Affiliated
QPAMs have complied with the Policies
and Training, and/or corrected (or is
correcting) any instances of
noncompliance in accordance with
Section I(h) above;
(iv) Each Annual Report must be
provided to the appropriate corporate
officers of BPLC and each Barclays
Affiliated QPAM to which such report
relates; the head of compliance and the
General Counsel (or their functional
equivalent) of the relevant Barclays
Affiliated QPAM and the General
Counsel (or their functional equivalent)
of BPLC; and must be made
unconditionally available to the
independent auditor described in
Section I(i) above;
(v) Each Annual Review, including
the Compliance Officer’s written
Annual Report, must be completed no
more than three (3) months following
the end of the period to which it relates;
(n) Each Barclays Affiliated QPAM
will maintain records necessary to
demonstrate that the conditions of this
exemption have been met, for six (6)
years following the date of any
transaction for which such Barclays
Affiliated QPAM relies upon the relief
in the exemption;
(o) During the Exemption Period,
BPLC: (1) Immediately discloses to the
Department any Deferred Prosecution
Agreement (a DPA) or a NonProsecution Agreement (an NPA) with
the U.S. Department of Justice, entered
into by BPLC or any of its affiliates in
connection with conduct described in
Section I(g) of PTE 84–14 or section 411
of ERISA; and (2) immediately provides
the Department any information
requested by the Department, as
permitted by law, regarding the
agreement and/or conduct and
allegations that led to the agreement;
(p) Prior to or contemporaneously
with a Barclays Affiliated QPAM’s
engagement by any Covered Plan, each
Barclays Affiliated QPAM will, in its
agreements with, or in other written
disclosures provided to any such
Covered Plan, clearly and prominently
inform such Covered Plan client of the
right to obtain a copy of the Policies or
a description (‘‘Summary Policies’’)
which accurately summarizes key
components of the QPAM’s written
Policies developed in connection with
this exemption. If the Policies are
thereafter changed, each Covered Plan
client must receive a new disclosure
within six (6) months following the end
of the calendar year during which the
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Policies were changed.58 With respect to
this requirement, the description may be
continuously maintained on a website,
provided that such website link to the
Policies or the Summary Policies is
clearly and prominently disclosed to
each Covered Plan; and
(q) A Barclays Affiliated QPAM or a
Barclays Related QPAM will not fail to
meet the terms of this exemption solely
because a different Barclays Affiliated
QPAM or Barclays Related QPAM fails
to satisfy a condition for relief described
in Sections I(c), (d), (h), (i), (j), (k), (l),
(n) and (p); or the independent auditor
described in Section I(i) fails a provision
of the exemption other than the
requirement described in Section
I(i)(11), provided that such failure did
not result from any actions or inactions
of BPLC or its affiliates.
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Section II: Definitions
(a) The term ‘‘BPLC’’ means, Barclays
PLC, the parent entity, but does not
include any subsidiaries or other
affiliates.
(b) The term ‘‘Barclays Affiliated
QPAM’’ means a ‘‘qualified professional
asset manager’’ (as defined in Section
VI(a) of PTE 84–14) that relies on the
relief provided by PTE 84–14 and with
respect to which Barclays is a current or
future ‘‘affiliate’’ (as defined in Section
VI(d)(1) of PTE 84–14). The term
‘‘Barclays Affiliated QPAM’’ excludes
the parent entity, BPLC;
(c) The term ‘‘Barclays Related
QPAM’’ means any current or future
‘‘qualified professional asset manager’’
(as defined in section VI(a) of PTE 84–
14) that relies on the relief provided by
PTE 84–14, and with respect to which
BPLC owns a direct or indirect five
percent or more interest, but with
respect to which BPLC is not an
‘‘affiliate’’ (as defined in Section
VI(d)(1) of PTE 84–14).
(d) The term ‘‘Conviction’’ means the
judgment of conviction against BPLC for
violation of the Sherman Antitrust Act,
15 U.S.C. 1, which is scheduled to be
entered in the District Court for the
District of Connecticut (the District
Court), Case Number 3:15–cr–00077–
SRU–1;
(e) The term ‘‘Conviction Date’’ means
the date of the judgment of the trial
court. For avoidance of confusion, the
Conviction Date is January 10, 2017, as
set forth in Case Number 3:15-cr-00077–
SRU;
58 In the event Applicant meets this disclosure
requirement through Summary Policies, changes to
the Policies shall not result in the requirement for
a new disclosure unless, as a result of changes to
the Policies, the Summary Policies are no longer
accurate.
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(f) The term ‘‘Covered Plan’’ means a
plan subject to Part 4 of Title 1 of ERISA
(‘‘ERISA-covered plan’’) or a plan
subject to Section 4975 of the Code
(‘‘IRA’’) with respect to which a
Barclays Affiliated QPAM relies on PTE
84–14, or with respect to which a
Barclays Affiliated QPAM (or any BPLC
affiliate) has expressly represented that
the manager qualifies as a QPAM or
relies on the QPAM class exemption
(PTE 84–14). A Covered Plan does not
include an ERISA-covered Plan or IRA
to the extent the Barclays Affiliated
QPAM has expressly disclaimed
reliance on QPAM status or PTE 84–14
in entering into its contract,
arrangement or agreement with the
ERISA-covered plan or IRA;
(g) The terms ‘‘ERISA-covered plan’’
and ‘‘IRA’’ mean, respectively, a plan
subject to Part 4 of Title I of ERISA and
a plan subject to section 4975 of the
Code; and
(h) The term ‘‘Exemption Period’’
means January 10, 2018, through
January 9, 2023.
Effective Date
This exemption is effective on January
10, 2018. The term of the exemption is
from January 10, 2018, through January
9, 2023 (the Exemption Period).
Department’s Comment: The
Department cautions that the relief in
this exemption will terminate
immediately if, among other things, an
entity within the BPLC corporate
structure is convicted of a crime
described in Section I(g) of PTE 84–14
(other than the Conviction) during the
Exemption Period. Although the
Applicant could apply for a new
exemption in that circumstance, the
Department would not be obligated to
grant the exemption. The terms of this
exemption have been specifically
designed to permit plans to terminate
their relationships in an orderly and
cost effective fashion in the event of an
additional conviction or a determination
that it is otherwise prudent for a plan to
terminate its relationship with an entity
covered by the exemption.
Further Information
For more information on this
exemption, contact Ms. Anna Vaughan
of the Department, telephone (202) 693–
8565. (This is not a toll-free number.)
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61903
UBS Assets Management (Americas)
Inc.; UBS Realty Investors LLC; UBS
Hedge Fund Solutions LLC; UBS
O’Connor LLC; and Certain Future
Affiliates in UBS’s Asset Management
and Wealth Management Americas
Divisions (collectively, the Applicants
or the UBS QPAMs) Located in Chicago,
Illinois; Hartford, Connecticut; New
York, New York; and Chicago, Illinois,
Respectively
[Prohibited Transaction Exemption 2017–07;
Exemption Application No. D–11907]
Discussion
On November 21, 2016, the
Department of Labor (the Department)
published a notice of proposed
exemption in the Federal Register at 81
FR 83385, for certain entities with
specified relationships to UBS AG
(hereinafter, the UBS QPAMs) to
continue to rely on the relief provided
by PTE 84–14 for a period of five
years,59 notwithstanding the ‘‘2013
Conviction’’ of UBS Securities Japan
Co., Ltd. and the ‘‘2017 Conviction’’ of
UBS, AG (UBS) (collectively, the
Convictions), as described herein.
The Department is granting this
exemption to ensure that Covered
Plans 60 with assets managed by a UBS
QPAM may continue to benefit from the
relief provided by PTE 84–14. The
effective date is January 10, 2018, and
the exemption is effective from January
10, 2018 through January 9, 2021 (the
Exemption Period).
No relief from a violation of any other
law is provided by this exemption,
including any criminal conviction
described in the proposed exemption.
Furthermore, the Department cautions
that the relief in this exemption will
terminate immediately if, among other
things, an entity within the UBS
corporate structure is convicted of a
crime described in Section I(g) of PTE
84–14 (other than the Convictions)
during the Exemption Period. The terms
59 49 FR 9494 (March 13, 1984), as corrected at
50 FR 41430 (October 10, 1985), as amended at 70
FR 49305 (August 23, 2005) and as amended at 75
FR 38837 (July 6, 2010), hereinafter referred to as
PTE 84–14 or the QPAM exemption.
60 ‘‘Covered Plan’’ is a plan subject to Part 4 of
Title 1 of ERISA (‘‘ERISA-covered plan’’) or a plan
subject to section 4975 of the Code (‘‘IRA’’) with
respect to which a UBS QPAM relies on PTE 84–
14, or with respect to which a UBS QPAM (or any
UBS affiliate) has expressly represented that the
manager qualifies as a QPAM or relies on the
QPAM class exemption (PTE 84–14). A Covered
Plan does not include an ERISA-covered plan or
IRA to the extent the UBS QPAM has expressly
disclaimed reliance on the QPAM status or PTE 84–
14 in entering into its contract, arrangement, or
agreement with the ERISA-covered plan or IRA. See
further discussion in this Preamble under the
heading Comment III A & B—Scope of Section I(j)
& Covenants Regarding Compliance with ERISA—
Section I(j)(1).
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of this exemption have been specifically
designed to promote conduct that
adheres to basic fiduciary standards
under ERISA and the Code. The
exemption also aims to ensure that
Covered Plans can terminate
relationships in an orderly and cost
effective fashion in the event a Covered
Plan fiduciary determines it is prudent
to sever the relationship with a UBS
QPAM.
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Written Comments
The Department invited all interested
persons to submit written comments
and/or requests for a public hearing
with respect to the notice of proposed
exemption, published in the Federal
Register at 81 FR 83385 on November
21, 2016. All comments and requests for
hearing were due by January 5, 2016.61
The Department received written
comments from UBS and members of
the U.S. Congress. After considering
these submissions, the Department has
determined to grant the exemption, with
revisions, as described below.
Comment I—The Term of the
Exemption
The Applicant requests that the
Department extend the term of the
exemption from five years to nine years.
UBS states that an exemption for less
than nine years results in a
reapplication requirement without
additional meaningful protections. UBS
states that if at any time the UBS
QPAMs do not comply with all of the
conditions under a nine year exemption,
the relief provided will be lost. Hence,
according to UBS, a nine year
exemption is protective of affected
ERISA-covered plans and IRAs. UBS
also states that a five-year exemption
period is not in the interest of the UBS
QPAMs’ clients or participants and
beneficiaries. UBS states that a five-year
exemption period creates uncertainty
for fiduciaries with the result that such
fiduciaries may spend time and money
to prepare for a change in investment
managers in the event that UBS does not
receive another exemption. UBS claims
the record does not support a
conclusion that a nine year exemption
period is inconsistent with ERISA
Section 408(a) and neither has the
Department conveyed a basis for
findings that warrant an exemption for
less than nine years. UBS points to
precedent established by previous
61 UBS
requested and the Department granted an
extension until January 23, 2017 to provide the
Notice to Interested Persons. The comment period
was therefore extended until February 27, 2017.
The Department received additional comments
from Applicant, however, after the close of the
comment period.
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individual QPAM exemptions in which
the Department placed ‘‘particular
importance’’ on the ‘‘degree to which
the investment and compliance
operations of the QPAM can be
sufficiently isolated from the influence
of ‘bad actors’.’’ (80 FR 20262, April 15,
2015). UBS states that ‘‘UBS QPAMs
were not involved in the FX Misconduct
or the misconduct that is subject of the
Convictions.’’ UBS requests that, if the
five-year exemption period is retained,
the Department clarify the timing for an
application to extend the relief, and for
the Department to act on that
application taking into account the
notice-and-comment period. UBS also
requests that the Department modify the
exemption to allow for the continued
reliance on the relief provided by a final
exemption while any application to
extend that relief beyond the initial 5year period is pending.
In developing this exemption, the
Department considered the NonProsecution Agreement between UBS
and the U.S. Department of Justice (DOJ)
dated December 18, 2012 (LIBOR NPA)
and the Plea Agreement. When UBS
entered into the LIBOR NPA, it agreed,
among other things, not to commit any
crime in violation of U.S. laws for a
period of two years from the date of the
LIBOR NPA in exchange for the DOJ
agreeing not to prosecute UBS for any
crimes related to the submission
benchmark interest rates between 2001
and 2010. UBS also agreed to pay a
monetary penalty of $500,000,000 and
to take steps to further strengthen its
internal controls, as required by certain
other U.S. and non-U.S. regulatory
agencies that had addressed the
misconduct described in the LIBOR
NPA.
While UBS entered into the LIBOR
NPA avoiding prosecution, UBS
Securities Japan, a wholly owned
subsidiary of UBS, pled guilty and was
convicted (2013 Conviction) of one
count of wire fraud in violation of Title
18, U.S. Code, sections 1343 and 2 62
arising out of UBS Security Japan’s
fraudulent submission of Yen LIBOR
rates between 2006 and 2009, and its
participation in a scheme to defraud
counterparties to interest rate
derivatives trades executed on its behalf
by secretly manipulating certain
benchmark interest rates to which the
62 Section 1343 generally imposes criminal
liability for fraud, including fines and/or
imprisonment, when a person uses wire, radio, or
television communication in interstate or foreign
commerce. Section 2 generally imposes criminal
liability on a person as a principal if that person
aids, counsels, commands, induces, or willfully
causes another person to engage in criminal
activity.
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profitability of those trades was tied. As
a result of the 2013 Conviction, QPAMs
with certain corporate relationships to
UBS and UBS Securities Japan were no
longer able to rely on PTE 84–14.
Following the publication of a notice of
proposed exemption in the Federal
Register and after a period of notice and
comment, the Department published a
final exemption on September 13, 2013
(PTE 2013–09).63 PTE 2013–09 among
other conditions, required UBS to
comply with each condition of PTE 84–
14, as amended.64
Both the LIBOR NPA and the Plea
Agreement contain a Statement of Facts
(SOF) that describes the circumstances
of UBS’s scheme to defraud
counterparties to interest rate
derivatives transactions by secretly
manipulating benchmark interest rates
to which the profitability of those
transactions was tied. The SOF
describes the wide-ranging and
systematic efforts, practiced nearly on a
daily basis, by several UBS employees
(a) to manipulate the YEN LIBOR in
order to benefit UBS’s trading positions;
(b) to use cash brokers to influence other
Contributor Panel banks’ Yen LIBOR
submissions; and (c) to collude directly
with employees at other Contributor
Panel banks to influence those banks’
Yen LIBOR submissions.
DOJ determined UBS subsequently
breached the LIBOR NPA when certain
employees engaged in fraudulent and
deceptive trading and sales practices in
certain foreign exchange (FX) market
transactions via telephone, email and/or
electronic chat, to the detriment of UBS
customers.65 These employees also
colluded with other actors in certain FX
markets in order to manipulate those
markets.
The Department considered the
Factual Basis for Breach attached to the
Plea Agreement which details that
conduct (the FX Misconduct as defined
in Section II(e)). That conduct included
the following actions: Sales staff
misrepresented to customers that
markups were not added, when in fact
they were; UBS personnel used a price
level to ‘‘track’’ certain limit orders that
was different from customer specified
prices; UBS traders and salespeople
used hand signals to fraudulently
conceal markups from certain customers
on ‘‘open-line’’ phone calls; and a UBS
FX trader conspired with other financial
63 78
FR 56740 (September 13, 2013).
I(h) of PTE 2013–09, at 78 FR 56741
(September 18, 2013).
65 The circumstances of UBS’s violation of the
terms of the LIBOR NPA are described in detail in
Exhibit 1 to the Plea Agreement, entitled ‘‘The
Factual Basis for Breach of the Non-Prosecution
Agreement’’ (the Factual Basis for Breach).
64 Section
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services firms acting as dealers in the
FX spot market by agreeing to restrain
competition in the purchase and sale of
the Euro/U.S. dollar currency pair. The
Factual Basis for Breach takes into
account UBS’s three recent prior
criminal resolutions: The 2012 LIBOR
NPA; a February 2009 DOJ Tax Division
deferred prosecution agreement for
conspiracy to defraud the U.S. of tax
revenue through secret Swiss bank
accounts for U.S. taxpayers (in
connection therewith, UBS agreed to
pay a penalty of $780 million); a May
2011 DOJ non-prosecution agreement
with the DOJ Antitrust Division to
resolve allegations of bid-rigging in the
municipal bond derivatives market (in
connection therewith, UBS agreed to
pay a penalty of $160 million). DOJ also
noted that UBS’s compliance programs
and remedial efforts following the
LIBOR NPA failed to detect the
collusive and deceptive conduct in the
FX markets until a published article in
the news media called attention to the
matter. As a result of its breach of the
LIBOR NPA and the resulting 2017
Conviction, UBS lost exemptive relief
under both PTE 84–14 and its
individual exemption, PTE 2013–09.
In developing this exemption, the
Department also considered statements
from a number of regulators about the
FX Misconduct. The Financial Conduct
Authority’s (FCA) Final Notice dated
November 11, 2014 states: ‘‘During the
Relevant Period, UBS did not exercise
adequate and effective control over its
G10 spot FX trading business. . . . The
front office failed adequately to
discharge these responsibilities with
regard to obvious risks associated with
confidentiality, conflicts of interest and
trading conduct.’’ That notice also
states: ‘‘These failings occurred in
circumstances where certain of those
responsible for managing front office
matters were aware of and/or at times
involved in behaviors described above.’’
The Unites States Commodity and
Futures Trading Commission’s (CFTC)
Order dated November 11, 2014 states:
‘‘During the Relevant Period, UBS failed
to adequately address the risks
associated with its FX traders
participating in the fixing of certain FX
benchmark rates. UBS also lacked
adequate internal controls in order to
prevent its FX traders from engaging in
improper communications with certain
FX traders at other banks. UBS lacked
sufficient policies, procedures and
training specifically governing
participation in trading around the FX
benchmark rates. . . .’’
The Department also considered the
size of relevant fines imposed: The
Department of Justice imposed $500
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million and $203 million fines; the
Board of Governors of the Federal
Reserve Board imposed a $324 million
fine; and the CFTC and the FCA
imposed fines of $290 million and
£223,814,000, respectively.
In light of the severity of the
misconduct, the repeated criminal
violations, and the breach of a previous
exemption, which was itself
necessitated by criminal conduct, the
Department has concluded that it is
appropriate to grant a more limited term
of relief than the five-year period it
originally proposed. As a result, the
Department has concluded that a threeyear term is appropriate for this
exemption. A three-year term and the
exemption’s protective conditions
reflect the Department’s intent to protect
Covered Plans that entrust substantial
assets with a UBS QPAM, following
serious misconduct, supervisory
failures, repeated criminal convictions,
and a violation of a previous exemption
granted under similar circumstances
(PTE 2013–09). The Department intends
that the three-year term will give the
Department the opportunity to review
the adherence by the UBS QPAMs to the
conditions set out herein. The shortened
three-year period reflects the
fundamental importance of the
Applicants’ prompt efforts to adopt
supervisory mechanisms, policies, and
procedures that safeguard plans and
IRAs, and guard against the risk of
further misconduct. The Applicants
may apply for an additional extension at
such time as they believe appropriate.
Before granting an extension, however,
the Department expects to consider
carefully the efficacy of this exemption
and any public comments on additional
extensions, particularly including
comments on how well the exemption
has or has not worked to safeguard the
interests of Covered Plans.
Comment II—Non-Prosecution and
Deferred-Prosecution Agreements—
Section I(q)
Section I(q) of the proposed
exemption provides that ‘‘[d]uring the
effective period of this five-year
exemption UBS: (1) Immediately
discloses to the Department any
Deferred Prosecution Agreement (a
DPA) or Non-Prosecution Agreement (an
NPA) that UBS or any of its affiliates
enters into with the U.S. Department of
Justice, to the extent such DPA or NPA
involves conduct described in Section
I(g) of PTE 84–14 or section 411 of
ERISA; and (2) immediately provides
the Department any information
requested by the Department, as
permitted by law, regarding the
agreement and/or the conduct and
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allegations that led to the agreement.
After review of the information, the
Department may require UBS, its
affiliates, or related parties, as specified
by the Department, to submit a new
application for the continued
availability of relief as a condition of
continuing to rely on this exemption. If
the Department denies the relief
requested in the new application, or
does not grant such relief within twelve
months of application, the relief
described herein is revoked as of the
date of denial or as of the expiration of
the twelve month period, whichever
date is earlier.’’
UBS requests that section I(q) be
deleted or revised to omit the paragraph
regarding possible revocation of the
exemption due to a new NPA or DPA.
UBS states that this condition is
unprecedented, highly problematic, and
inappropriate for several reasons. The
first reason is that the condition treats
an NPA or a DPA as equivalent to a
criminal conviction under PTE 84–14,
Section I(g) in contradiction of guidance
in Advisory Opinion Number 2013–
05A, which confirms that the ‘‘sole
judicial action’’ that triggers the
disqualification under Section I(g) is a
‘‘criminal conviction.’’ UBS notes that
Section I(g) of this exemption provides
that the Department may require UBS to
submit a new application for relief
following an NPA or a DPA and the
condition provides for the automatic
revocation of the exemption if the
Department fails to grant the new
application within twelve months of its
submission. According to UBS, this
creates the situation where exemptive
relief could be lost irrespective of the
merits of the new application solely as
a result of the Department’s failure to
timely act. UBS states this outcome
would be arbitrary and could cause the
UBS QPAMs’ plan clients to make
substantial expenditures to immediately
replace the UBS QPAMs if the
Department fails to timely act on a new
application. UBS asserts that this result
is not reconcilable with the statement in
the Proposed Exemption that the
Department designed certain conditions
that would ‘‘permit plans to terminate
their relationships in an orderly and
cost effective fashion.’’
Additionally, according to UBS, such
a revocation of a previously-granted
exemption would be in direct violation
of the Department’s exemption
regulations at 29 CFR 2570.50(b). Those
regulations provide that before revoking
or modifying an exemption the
Department must: (1) Publish a notice of
proposed action in the Federal Register;
(2) provide interested persons with an
opportunity to comment on the
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proposed revocation or modification; (3)
notify the applicant of the proposed
action and the reasons therefore before
publishing such notice; and (4) provide
the applicant the opportunity to
comment on the proposed revocation or
modification subsequent to the
publication of the notice. UBS argues
that these procedural protections would
not be available to the UBS QPAMs as
a result of a revocation due to the
Department’s failure to act on the ‘‘new’’
application.
Finally, UBS states that the
Department failed to identify any
substantive standard that would apply
to the evaluation of such a new
application. UBS suggests that the
revocation of the exemption therefore
could be based on a UBS QPAM
affiliate’s NPA or DPA that does not
relate to conduct involving the UBS
QPAMs or their personnel or does not
raise concerns regarding the QPAMs’
independence from such affiliate. UBS
is concerned this condition authorizes
revocation of the exemption regardless
of whether the underlying conduct or
circumstances surrounding such an
NPA or DPA calls into question the
Department’s original findings made
under Section 408 of ERISA. Finally,
UBS states that this condition is
unnecessary because the Department
already has the authority to modify or
revoke the exemption if its original
findings were called into question due
to a UBS QPAM affiliate’s DPA or NPA.
UBS requests that if the condition is
not omitted from the exemption, that
word ‘‘immediately’’ be deleted and
replaced with the insertion of the phrase
‘‘as soon as reasonably practicable, the
entry into’’ before the term ‘‘any
Deferred Prosecution Agreement (a
DPA).’’ UBS also requests that the
parenthetical ‘‘(as defined in Section
VI(d) of PTE 84–14)’’ be added after the
word ‘‘affiliate.’’ Additionally, UBS
requests that the term ‘‘non-privileged’’
be placed before the word
‘‘information’’ and the phrase as soon
‘‘as reasonably practicable’’ be inserted
before ‘‘as permitted by law.’’ Lastly,
UBS requests that the phrase ‘‘and
allegations that led to’’ be deleted and
replaced by inserting the word
‘‘underlying’’ before the phrase ‘‘the
agreement’’ at the end of the Section.
The Department in no way intended
to provide for an automatic revocation
of this exemption and, in light of UBS’s
comments, has revised the condition
accordingly. As revised, the condition
simply requires UBS to notify the
Department if and when it or any of its
affiliates enter into a DPA or a NPA with
the U.S. Department of Justice for
conduct described in section I(g) of PTE
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84–14 or ERISA section 411 and
immediately provide the Department
with any information requested by the
Department, as permitted by law,
regarding the agreement and/or conduct
and allegations that led to the
agreement. The Department retains the
right to propose a withdrawal of this
exemption pursuant to its procedures
contained at 29 CFR 2570.50, should the
circumstances warrant such action.
Additionally, as requested by the
applicant, the Department has added the
parenthetical ‘‘(as defined in Section
VI(d) of PTE 84–14)’’ to clarify the term
‘‘affiliate.’’
Comment III A & B—Scope of Section
I(j) & Covenants Regarding Compliance
with ERISA—Section I(j)(1)
Section I(j) of the proposed exemption
provides that: ‘‘Effective as of the
effective date of this five-year
exemption, with respect to any
arrangement, agreement, or contract
between a UBS QPAM and an ERISAcovered plan or IRA for which such UBS
QPAM provides asset management or
other discretionary fiduciary services,
each UBS QPAM agrees and warrants:
(1) [t]o comply with ERISA and the
Code, as applicable with respect to such
ERISA-covered plan or IRA; to refrain
from engaging in prohibited
transactions that are not otherwise
exempt (and to promptly correct any
inadvertent prohibited transactions);
and to comply with the standards of
prudence and loyalty set forth in section
404 of ERISA, as applicable;
(2) Not to require (or otherwise cause)
the ERISA-covered plan or IRA to waive,
limit, or qualify the liability of the UBS
QPAM for violating ERISA or the Code
or engaging in prohibited transactions;
(3) Not to require the ERISA-covered
plan or IRA (or sponsor of such ERISAcovered plan or beneficial owner of such
IRA) to indemnify the UBS QPAM for
violating ERISA or engaging in
prohibited transactions, except for
violations or prohibited transactions
caused by an error, misrepresentation,
or misconduct of a plan fiduciary or
other party hired by the plan fiduciary
who is independent of UBS;
(4) Not to restrict the ability of such
ERISA-covered plan or IRA to terminate
or withdraw from its arrangement with
the UBS QPAM (including any
investment in a separately managed
account or pooled fund subject to ERISA
and managed by such QPAM), with the
exception of reasonable restrictions,
appropriately disclosed in advance, that
are specifically designed to ensure
equitable treatment of all investors in a
pooled fund in the event such
withdrawal or termination may have
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adverse consequences for all other
investors as a result of an actual lack of
liquidity of the underlying assets,
provided that such restrictions are
applied consistently and in like manner
to all such investors;
(5) Not to impose any fees, penalties,
or charges for such termination or
withdrawal with the exception of
reasonable fees, appropriately disclosed
in advance, that are specifically
designed to prevent generally
recognized abusive investment practices
or specifically designed to ensure
equitable treatment of all investors in a
pooled fund in the event such
withdrawal or termination may have
adverse consequences for all other
investors, provided that such fees are
applied consistently and in like manner
to all such investors;
(6) Not to include exculpatory
provisions disclaiming or otherwise
limiting liability of the UBS QPAM for
a violation of such agreement’s terms,
except for liability caused by an error,
misrepresentation, or misconduct of a
plan fiduciary or other party hired by
the plan fiduciary who is independent
of UBS and its affiliates; and
(7) To indemnify and hold harmless
the ERISA-covered plan and IRA for any
damages resulting from a violation of
applicable laws, a UBS QPAM’s breach
of contract, or any claim arising out of
the failure of such UBS QPAM to qualify
for the exemptive relief provided by PTE
84–14 as a result of a violation of
Section I(g) of PTE 84–14 other than the
Convictions;
(8) Within four (4) months of the
effective date of this proposed five-year
exemption, each UBS QPAM must
provide a notice of its obligations under
this Section I(j) to each ERISA-covered
plan and IRA for which the UBS QPAM
provides asset management or other
discretionary fiduciary services. For all
other prospective ERISA-covered plan
and IRA clients for which a UBS QPAM
provides asset management or other
discretionary fiduciary services, the UBS
QPAM will agree in writing to its
obligations under this Section I(j) in an
updated investment management
agreement or advisory agreement
between the UBS QPAM and such
clients or other written contractual
agreement.’’
According to UBS, extending Section
I(j) and other conditions to
circumstances in which the QPAMs do
not rely on PTE 84–14 would exceed the
proper scope of Section 408 of ERISA
and the Department’s exemption
regulations, which are properly limited
to protecting plans or IRAs involved in
transactions that require use of PTE 84–
14. Accordingly, UBS requests that
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Section I(j) be revised to include the
phrases ‘‘pursuant to’’ and ‘‘in reliance
on PTE 84–14.’’
UBS also states that it interprets the
clause ‘‘to comply with the standards of
prudence and loyalty set forth in section
404 of ERISA, as applicable’’ to have the
same meaning as the same condition in
PTE 2016–17,66 which was previously
granted to the UBS QPAMs. UBS
interprets the language of Section I(j)(1)
as ‘‘requiring the UBS QPAMs to agree
to comply with Section 404 of ERISA
only to the extent that Section 404 is
otherwise ‘‘applicable’’ to the ERISAcovered plan or IRA, such that most
IRAs would not be subject to this
provision because they are not subject to
Title I of ERISA.’’ UBS also states that
if the Department contemplates that this
clause would require the UBS QPAMs
to contractually agree to comply with
the duties set forth in Section 404 of
ERISA with respect to all IRAs, such a
requirement would be inappropriate.
UBS represents that ‘‘including such a
requirement in a final exemption would
introduce significant uncertainty as to
what standards should apply to IRAs
not subject to Title I of ERISA.’’ UBS
argues that ‘‘requiring the UBS QPAMs
to contractually agree to treat IRAs as
possessing rights that do not apply to
them under ERISA would also be
inconsistent with the requirements for
exemptions under ERISA Section 408.’’
According to UBS, section 408 of ERISA
requires that the Department make a
determination that an exemption is
protective of the ‘‘existing’’ rights of
participants and beneficiaries.
Additionally, UBS claims that the last
clause of Section I(j)(1) of PTE 2016–17
which states ‘‘with respect to each such
ERISA-covered plan and IRA’’ is
redundant of the first clause of Section
I(j)(1) of PTE 2016–17 and has,
accordingly, requested deletion of the
clause.
ERISA-covered plans and IRAs
routinely rely on QPAM status as a
condition of entering into transactions
with financial institutions, even with
respect to transactions which do not
strictly require adherence to PTE 84–14.
According to the Applicant’s own
application, ‘‘[e]ven where the QPAM
exemption is not strictly required (e.g.,
for most purchases of publicly-traded
stocks), many ERISA plan fiduciaries
take great comfort in their managers
qualifying for QPAM status and will not
use managers that do not so qualify.’’
66 81 FR 94049 (December 22, 2016). PTE 2016–
17 is a temporary exemption in respect of
Exemption Application No. D–11863 for UBS
QPAMs to rely on the exemptive relief provided by
PTE 84–14, notwithstanding the Convictions, for up
to twelve months from January 5, 2017.
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Furthermore, in the report dated August
26, 2015 prepared by John Minahan,
Ph.D. and provided to the Department
by UBS in support of UBS QPAMs’
application for exemption, Dr. Minahan
states that ‘‘[b]ecause of the importance
of the QPAM designation, if the UBS
QPAMs are denied an exemption and
can longer act as QPAMs, plan
fiduciaries are likely to conclude that
they have no choice but to change
managers. This is also true for plan
clients with investment strategies that
do not depend on the QPAM exemption.
Fiduciaries of either category of plans
are likely to view a denial of an
exemption as reflective of the
Department’s view that the UBS
QPAMS should not be trusted to act as
an investment manager for benefit plan
assets, regardless of whether other
prohibited transaction exemptions may
be available.’’
The Department notes that it may not
always be clear whether or not a UBS
QPAM intends to rely upon PTE 84–14
for any particular transaction.
Accordingly, it is critical to ensure that
protective conditions are in place to
safeguard the interests of ERISA-covered
plans and IRAs that are acting in
reliance on the availability of this
exemption, particularly those who may
not have entered into the transaction in
the first place, but for the Department’s
grant of this exemption.
The Department has a clear interest in
protecting ERISA-covered plans and
IRAs that enter into an asset
management agreement with a UBS
QPAM in reliance of the manager’s
qualification as a QPAM. Moreover,
when an ERISA-covered plan or IRA
terminates its relationship with an asset
manager, it may incur significant costs
and expenses as its investments are
unwound and as it works to place
investments with a new asset manager.
After considering UBS’s comments,
the Department has revised this
condition. The condition now applies to
ERISA-covered plans and IRAs only
when the UBS asset manager relies on
PTE 84–14 or has expressly represented
that it qualifies as a QPAM or relies on
the QPAM class exemption in its
dealings with the ERISA-covered plan
or IRA (hereinafter, a Covered Plan). To
the extent a UBS QPAM would prefer
not to be subject to these conditions,
however, it may expressly disclaim
reliance on QPAM status or PTE 84–14
in entering into its contract with an
ERISA-covered plan or IRA. In that case,
the plan or IRA is not a Covered Plan.67
67 Of course, the UBS QPAM could not claim
exemptive relief under PTE 84–14 or this
exemption with respect to any ERISA-covered plan
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61907
The Department rejects the view that
it acts outside the scope of its authority
by protecting ERISA-covered plans and
IRAs that rely on UBS QPAMs’
eligibility for this exemption, and
reemphasizes the seriousness of the
criminal misconduct that caused the
UBS QPAMs to need this exemption as
well as the FX Misconduct. The
Department may grant an exemption
under Section 408(a) of ERISA or Code
section 4975(c)(2)(C) only to the extent
the Secretary finds, among other things,
that the exemption is protective of the
affected plan(s) or IRA(s). As noted by
regulators, personnel at UBS engaged in
serious misconduct over an extended
period of time at the expense of their
own clients. This misconduct appears to
have stemmed, in part, from
deficiencies in control and oversight.
Notwithstanding the misconduct,
which resulted in violation of Section
I(g) of PTE 84–14, the Department has
determined that this exemption is
protective of Covered Plans and in the
interest of participants, beneficiaries,
and beneficial owners of such Covered
Plans. The Department made this
determination based, in significant part,
upon the protections of Section I(j) that
require UBS QPAMs to make an express
commitment to Covered Plans to adhere
to the requirements of ERISA and the
Code, as applicable. As previously
indicated, the Department has
concluded that a culture of compliance,
centered on adherence to basic
standards of fair dealing as set forth in
this exemption, gives the Department a
compelling basis for making the
required statutory findings that the
exemption is in the interest of, and
protects the rights of participants,
beneficiaries, and beneficial owners of
Covered Plans. Absent such a
compelling basis, the exemption would
have been denied.
In response to UBS’s comments,
however, the Department required an
express commitment to comply with the
fiduciary standards and prohibited
transaction rules only to the extent these
provisions are ‘‘applicable’’ under
ERISA and the Code. The revised terms,
together with this exemption’s limited
relief (e.g., this exemption generally
does not extend to transactions that
involve self-dealing) should serve to
promote a culture of compliance and
protect Covered Plans and their
participants, beneficiaries, and
beneficial owners.
In response to UBS’s comments, the
Department also notes that nothing in
ERISA or the Code prevents the
or IRA for which it so expressly disclaims reliance
on QPAM status or PTE 84–14.
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Department from conditioning relief on
express contractual commitments to
adhere to the requirements set out
herein. The QPAMs remain free to
disclaim reliance on the exemption and
to avoid such express contractual
commitments. To the extent, however,
that they hold themselves out as
fiduciary QPAMs, they should be
prepared to make an express
commitment to their customers to
adhere to the requirements of this
exemption. This commitment
strengthens and reinforces the
likelihood of compliance, and helps
ensure that, in the event of
noncompliance, Covered Plans are
insulated from injuries caused by
noncompliance. These protections also
ensure that Covered Plans are able to
extricate themselves from transactions
that become prohibited as a result of the
QPAMs’ misconduct, without fear of
sustaining additional losses as a result
of the QPAMs’ actions. In this
connection, however, the Department
emphasizes that the only claims
available to the QPAMs’ Covered Plan
customers pursuant to these contractual
commitments are those separately
provided by ERISA or other state and
federal laws that are not preempted by
ERISA.
Comment III C—Indemnification
Requirements—Section I(j)(6) and
Revision to Sections I(j)(5) and (3)
Section I(j)(7) of the proposed
exemption provides that: ‘‘Effective as
of the effective date of this five-year
exemption, with respect to any
arrangement, agreement, or contract
between a UBS QPAM and an ERISAcovered plan or IRA for which such UBS
QPAM provides asset management or
other discretionary fiduciary services,
each UBS QPAM agrees and warrants:
. . . (7)[t]o indemnify and hold
harmless the ERISA-covered plan and
IRA for any damages resulting from a
violation of applicable laws, a UBS
QPAM’s breach of contract, or any claim
arising out of the failure of such UBS
QPAM to qualify for the exemptive relief
provided by PTE 84–14 as a result of a
violation of Section I(g) of PTE 84–14
other than the Convictions.’’
UBS states that Section I(j)(7) of the
proposed exemption is overbroad
because it could be interpreted to
require the UBS QPAMs to indemnify
plans for types of damages, such as
punitive or consequential damages, that
are impermissible under ERISA and/or
that are not attributable to any act or
omission of UBS or the QPAMs. Thus,
UBS requests clarification that any such
damages must be reasonable; related to
the arrangement, agreement or contract;
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exclude indirect, special, consequential,
or punitive damages; and result directly
from the failure of the UBS QPAM.
Additionally, UBS has requested that
the phrase ‘‘applicable laws’’ in Section
I(j)(7) of the proposed exemption be
replaced with ‘‘ERISA’s fiduciary duties
and of ERISA and Code’s prohibited
transaction provisions.’’
As explained above, the purpose of
this exemption is to protect Covered
Plans. Section I(j)(6) (this Section has
been renumbered so that Section I(j)(7)
of the proposed exemption is now
Section I(j)(6) in this exemption) is
essential to achieving that purpose.
Section I(j)(6) ensures that a Covered
Plan may expect a UBS QPAM to adhere
to basic fiduciary norms and standards
of fair dealing, notwithstanding the
Conviction. The condition also ensures
that Covered Plans have the ability to
disengage from a relationship with a
UBS QPAM without undue injury if
UBS violates the terms of this
exemption. Accordingly, the
Department has revised the applicability
of this condition to more closely reflect
this interest. In particular, the condition
applies only to Covered Plans. As
indicated above, if the asset manager
would prefer not to be subject to these
provisions as exemption conditions, it
may expressly disclaim reliance on
QPAM status or PTE 84–14 in entering
into its contract with the Plan or IRA (in
that case, however, it could not rely on
the exemption for relief).
The Department made further changes
upon consideration of UBS’s comments,
however. These changes include:
Renumbering the condition for clarity;
replacing ‘‘applicable laws’’ with
clarifying language that conforms to the
one-year exemption, PTE 2016–17; and
replacing ‘‘any damages’’ with ‘‘actual
losses resulting directly from’’ certain
acts or omissions of the UBS QPAMs.
Because Section I(j)(6) extends only to
actual losses resulting directly from the
actions of the UBS QPAMs, it does not
encompass losses solely caused by other
parties, events, or acts of God.
Section I(j)(6) of the proposed
exemption provides ‘‘Effective as of the
effective date of this five-year
exemption, with respect to any
arrangement, agreement, or contract
between a UBS QPAM and an ERISAcovered plan or IRA for which such UBS
QPAM provides asset management or
other discretionary fiduciary services,
each UBS QPAM agrees and warrants:
. . . Not to include exculpatory
provisions disclaiming or otherwise
limiting liability of the UBS QPAM for
a violation of such agreement’s terms,
except for liability caused by an error,
misrepresentation, or misconduct of a
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plan fiduciary or other party hired by
the plan fiduciary who is independent
of UBS, and its affiliates.’’
In coordination with the
modifications to Section I(j)(6) (formerly
Section I(j)(7)) discussed above, the
Department modified Section I(j)(5)
(formerly I(j)(6) in the proposed
exemption) to clarify that the
prohibition on exculpatory provisions
does not extend to losses that arise from
an act or event not caused by UBS and
that nothing in this section alters the
prohibition on exculpatory provisions
set forth in ERISA Section 410.
Section I(j)(3) of the proposed
exemption provides that ‘‘Effective as of
the effective date of this five-year
exemption, with respect to any
arrangement, agreement, or contract
between a UBS QPAM and an ERISAcovered plan or IRA for which such UBS
QPAM provides asset management or
other discretionary fiduciary services,
each UBS QPAM agrees and warrants:
. . . (3) [n]ot to require the ERISAcovered plan or IRA (or sponsor of such
ERISA-covered plan or beneficial owner
of such IRA) to indemnify the UBS
QPAM for violating ERISA or engaging
in prohibited transactions, except for
violations or prohibited transactions
caused by an error, misrepresentation,
or misconduct of a plan fiduciary or
other party hired by the plan fiduciary
who is independent of UBS.’’
The Department determined that
Section I(j)(3), as proposed, is
duplicative of the exemption’s
prohibition on exculpatory clauses in
Section I(j)(5) (previously Section I(j)(6)
in the proposed exemption) and,
accordingly, has deleted the condition.
Therefore, as previously stated, Section
I(j) has been renumbered accordingly.
Comment IV—Definition of FX
Misconduct—Section II(e)
Section I(e) of the proposed
exemption provides: ‘‘The term ‘‘FX
Misconduct’’ means the conduct
engaged in by UBS personnel described
in Exhibit 1 of the Plea Agreement
(Factual Basis for Breach) entered into
between UBS AG and the Department of
Justice Criminal Division, on May 20,
2015 in connection with Case Number
3:15–cr–00076–RNC filed in the US
District Court for the District of
Connecticut.’’ UBS represents that the
proposed exemption’s definition of FX
Misconduct should be limited to the
collusive conduct described in
Paragraph 15 of Exhibit 1 to the May 20,
2015 Plea Agreement. The Applicant
argues that ‘‘UBS was not charged with
the other conduct described in Exhibit
1—referred to as the ‘unilateral’ or
‘sales’ conduct and was not required to
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admit this conduct was criminal in
nature.’’ UBS claims that an individual
QPAM exemption applicant has never
been required to make representations
regarding this type of conduct. UBS
further argues that in excluding the
‘‘unilateral’’ conduct from the
temporary exemptions granted to each
of the other banks which were charged
with FX-related crimes, unlike UBS, the
Department determined that including
such conduct would improperly expand
the definition ‘‘beyond that which is
described as criminal in the Plea
Agreement.’’ Therefore, UBS argues that
references to the ‘‘unilateral’’ conduct
should be deleted from the UBS final
exemption and from the definition of FX
Misconduct.
The Department declines to make the
requested change to the definition of FX
Misconduct. As stated in the Factual
Basis for Breach (Exhibit 1 to the May
20, 2015 Plea Agreement), DOJ
determined that UBS violated the 2012
Non-Prosecution Agreement (the LIBOR
NPA) relating to UBS’s fraudulent
submission of LIBOR rates and declared
a breach of the LIBOR NPA due to a
finding that certain UBS employees
engaged in fraudulent and deceptive
currency trading and sales practices, as
well as collusive conduct in certain FX
markets. Limiting the definition of the
FX Misconduct to include only the
collusive behavior specifically
described in paragraph 15 of Exhibit 1
of the Plea Agreement would not
appropriately reflect the misconduct of
UBS employees in regard to the FX
markets that DOJ considered in
determining there was a breach of the
LIBOR NPA which led to the Plea
Agreement and the 2017 Conviction.
Just as important, the Department
believes the FX Misconduct, along with
the criminal conduct that is the subject
of the Convictions, is relevant to a
determination of the protections
necessary to assure that the interests of
Covered Plans (and their participants,
beneficiaries, and beneficial owners) are
protected. This exemption is designed
to protect Covered Plans and is based on
the entirety of the record that describes
in detail the FX misconduct, not just
part.
Comment V—Deadlines for Completion
of the Annual Audits and Annual
Reviews—Section I(i)(1) and I(m)(v)
Section I(i)(1) of the proposed
exemption provides in part that ‘‘[e]ach
annual audit must cover a consecutive
twelve month period starting with the
twelve month period that begins on the
date of the Conviction Date (the Initial
Audit Period)’’ and that ‘‘[e]ach annual
audit must be completed no later than
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six (6) months after the period to which
the audit applies.’’ Section I(m)(v) of the
Proposed Exemption provides that
‘‘[e]ach annual review, including the
Compliance Officer’s written Annual
Report, must be completed at least three
(3) months in advance of the date on
which each audit described in Section
I(i) is scheduled to be completed.’’
UBS represents that while it supports
the notion of providing sufficient time
in between the completion of the
Annual Review and the Annual Audit to
allow for the auditor to review the
report on the Annual Review, the timing
for the Audit and Annual Review would
require UBS to conduct the Annual
Reviews on a different time schedule
than the UBS QPAMs currently follow
for the completion of a similar internal
review required by the Investment
Advisors Act. UBS states that review for
the Investment Advisors Act is generally
completed on or around the beginning
of June of each year. UBS contends that
conducting both annual reviews on the
same schedule would improve the
effectiveness of the Annual Review and
achieve substantial efficiencies.
Therefore, UBS requests that Section
I(i)(1) be revised to provide that (a) the
Initial Audit Period cover the fourteenmonth period from January 10, 2017
through March 9, 2018, with the audit
to be completed six months later (i.e., by
September 9, 2018), and (b) the first
Annual Review is to be completed three
months before the completion of that
audit (i.e., by June 9, 2018). UBS states
that, thereafter, the annual audits
should cover consecutive twelve-month
periods (e.g., March 10, 2018 through
March 9, 2019), with the same deadlines
for completion of the audits and Annual
Reviews (i.e., by September 9th and
June 9th, respectively, of each year).
The Department agrees that it would
be beneficial and efficient for the time
frame for the Annual Review to
coordinate with the time frame for the
compliance review conducted by the
UBS QPAMs for other regulators.
Therefore, the Department has modified
Section I(i)(1) to provide that the Initial
Audit Period is the consecutive
fourteen-month period beginning on
January 10, 2017. Each subsequent audit
must cover consecutive twelve-month
periods beginning at the end of the
Initial Audit Period. Section I(i)(1) has
also been modified, as requested, to
confirm that for the time period from
September 18, 2016 until the January
10, 2017 conviction date, the audit
requirements in Section (g) of PTE
2013–09 remained in effect.
Accordingly, the audit of such final time
period under PTE 2013–09 had to have
been completed and submitted within
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six (6) months of January 10, 2017 (that
is, by July 9, 2017). This final audit
required under PTE 2013–09 has been
completed and the corresponding Audit
Report has been submitted to the
Department.
Comment VI—Deadline for
Implementation of the Required Policies
and Training—Sections: I(h)(1) and (2)
Section I(h)(1) of the proposed
exemption provides that: ‘‘[E]ach UBS
QPAM must immediately develop,
implement, maintain, and follow written
policies and procedures (the Policies)
requiring and reasonably designed to
ensure that: . . .’’ Section I(h)(2)
provides: ‘‘[E]ach UBS QPAM must
immediately develop and implement a
program of training (the Training),
conducted at least annually, for all
relevant UBS QPAM asset/portfolio
management, trading, legal,
compliance, and internal audit
personnel. The Training must:’’
UBS represents that PTE 2016–17
requires the UBS QPAMs to develop
and implement the required policies,
procedures, and training program
within 6 months of the date of
conviction while the proposed
exemption requires the UBS QPAMs to
‘‘immediately’’ comply with these
conditions which are substantially
similar to those in the PTE 2016–17.
UBS requests that Sections I(h)(1) and
(2) in a final exemption be revised to
require compliance by the dates set
forth in Sections I(h)(1) and (2) of PTE
2016–17 in order to avoid any conflict
between the conditions in PTE 2016–17
and the final exemption in the event a
final exemption is granted before the
occurrence of the 6-month deadline
provided for in the PTE 2016–17.
The Department emphasizes that the
UBS QPAMs must comply with the
Policies and Training requirements
within both PTE 2016–17 and this
exemption. The Department has
determined not to revise Section I(h)(1)
and I(h)(2) as requested by UBS.
However, the Department has made
minor revisions to reflect the fact that
UBS QPAMs may already have Policies
and Training under the previous
exemption, in which case, they are
required to ‘‘maintain’’ such Policies or
Training.
Comment VII A—Notices to Plan Clients
and Notices to Interested Persons—
Section I(k)(1)
Section I(k)(1) of the proposed
exemption provides that: ‘‘Notice to
ERISA-covered plan and IRA clients.
Within fifteen (15) days of the
publication of this proposed five-year
exemption in the Federal Register,
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each UBS QPAM will provide a notice
of the proposed five-year exemption,
along with a separate summary
describing the facts that led to the
Convictions (the Summary), which have
been submitted to the Department, and
a prominently displayed statement (the
Statement) that each Conviction
separately results in a failure to meet a
condition in PTE 84–14, to each sponsor
of an ERISA-covered plan and each
beneficial owner of an IRA for which a
UBS QPAM provides asset management
or other discretionary fiduciary services,
or the sponsor of an investment fund in
any case where a UBS QPAM acts only
as a sub-advisor to the investment fund
in which such ERISA-covered plan and
IRA invests. In the event that this
proposed five-year exemption is
granted, the Federal Register copy of
the notice of final five-year exemption
must be delivered to such clients within
sixty (60) days of its publication in the
Federal Register, and may be
delivered electronically (including by an
email that has a link to the five-year
exemption). Any prospective clients for
which a UBS QPAM provides asset
management or other discretionary
fiduciary services must receive the
proposed and final five-year exemptions
with the Summary and the Statement
prior to, or contemporaneously with, the
client’s receipt of a written asset
management agreement from the UBS
QPAM.’’
UBS requests that Section I(k)(1) be
revised to require the notice only be
provided to each sponsor of an ERISAcovered plan and each beneficial owner
of an IRA for which the UBS QPAMS
provides asset management or
discretionary fiduciary services in
reliance on PTE 84–14. UBS also
requests that Section I(k)(1) of the
Exemption be revised to reflect the later
date by which a certain number of plans
and IRAs were provided with notice of
the Proposed Exemption, as agreed to by
the Department. Lastly, UBS requests
that the Department confirm that the
declaration required by 29 CFR
2570.43(c) will reflect that later date.
The Department has narrowed the
notice requirement to include only
ERISA-covered plans and IRAs that
would benefit from this knowledge (i.e.
Covered Plans). The Department
confirms that the UBS QPAMs had 63
days after the proposed exemption was
published in the Federal Register to
notify interested persons and the
declaration required by 29 CFR
2570.43(c) should reflect the January 23,
2017 date.
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Comment VII B—Notices to ‘‘Non-Plan
Clients’’—Section I(k)(2)
Section I(k)(2) of the proposed
exemption provides that: ‘‘Each UBS
QPAM will provide a Federal Register
copy of the proposed five-year
exemption, a Federal Register copy of
the final five-year exemption; the
Summary; and the Statement to each:
(A) Current Non-Plan Client within four
(4) months of the effective date, if any,
of a final five-year exemption; and (B)
Future Non-Plan Client prior to, or
contemporaneously with, the client’s
receipt of a written asset management
agreement, or other written contractual
agreement, from the UBS QPAM. For
purposes of this subparagraph (2), a
Current Non-Plan Client means a client
of a UBS QPAM that: Is neither an
ERISA-covered plan nor an IRA; has
assets managed by the UBS QPAM as of
the effective date, if any, of a final fiveyear exemption; and has received a
written representation (qualified or
otherwise) from the UBS QPAM that
such UBS QPAM qualifies as a QPAM
or qualifies for the relief provided by
PTE 84–14. . . .’’
UBS requests that the Department
omit this requirement. UBS represents
that the scope of exemptive relief, as
contemplated by Section 408 of ERISA
and the Department’s regulations, is
limited to plans and IRAs that are
affected by the exemption. Therefore, it
argues, a condition requiring notice be
provided to UBS QPAM clients that are
not ERISA-covered plans or IRAs and do
not utilize PTE 84–14 would be outside
the scope of Section 408 of ERISA.
Given the breadth of the notice
requirement otherwise mandated by the
exemption, and its decision to restrict
the requirement to those arrangements
for which QPAM status plays an integral
role (i.e., the QPAM represents or relies
upon its QPAM status), the Department
has decided to delete this provision.
Comment VIII—Distribution of Audit
Reports to Board Committees—Section
I(i)(8)
Section I(i)(8) of the proposed
exemption provides that: ‘‘The Risk
Committee, the Audit Committee, and
the Corporate Culture and
Responsibility Committee of UBS’s
Board of Directors are provided a copy
of each Audit Report; and a senior
executive officer of UBS’s Compliance
and Operational Risk Control function
must review the Audit Report for each
UBS QPAM and must certify in writing,
under penalty of perjury, that such
officer has reviewed each Audit
Report;’’
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UBS requests that the Department
revise this condition to allow UBS’s
Board of Directors to select which
committee (or committees) is provided a
copy of each Audit Report. UBS agrees
that the results of the annual audit
should be communicated to the highest
level of UBS’s governance structure, but
which committee receives the Audit
Report is a matter of internal governance
best determined by the UBS Board of
Directors. UBS claims that this
condition could become unworkable if
the Board’s committee structure and/or
the responsibilities of the Board’s
committees were to change.
Alternatively, UBS requests that Section
I(i)(8) be modified to limit the
requirement to provide a copy of the
Audit Report to the Risk Committee of
UBS’s Board of Directors.
In light of the importance of ensuring
proper review of the Audit Report, the
Department declines to alter this
provision to permit UBS’s Board of
Directors to decide, in its discretion,
which committee receives the Audit
Report. However, after review of the
record, the Department has revised
Section I(i)(8) to reflect that only the
Risk Committee of the UBS Board
Directors must be provided a copy of the
Audit Report.
Section I(i)(4)—Auditor Testing
Operational Compliance
Section I(i)(4) of the proposed
exemption requires the auditor to ‘‘test
each UBS QPAM’s operational
compliance with the Policies and
Training. In this regard, the auditor
must test a sample of each QPAM’s
transactions involving ERISA-covered
plans and IRAs sufficient in size and
nature to afford the auditor a reasonable
basis to determine the operational
compliance with the Policies and
Training.’’ UBS has requested that this
Section be modified to include the
phrase ‘‘in reliance on PTE 84–14’’
following the phrase ‘‘involving ERISAcovered plans and IRAs.’’
The Department revised this
condition for consistency with other
conditions of this exemption that are
tailored to the Department’s interest in
protecting Covered Plans.
Additional Audit Requirement
Revisions—Sections I(i)(2), I(i)(5), I(i)(7),
I(i)(9), I(i)(11), I(i)(12)
In addition to the revisions to the
audit requirement for Section I(i)(1),
I(i)(4), and i(i)(8) described above, the
Department, on its own motion,
determined to make revisions to the
following Sections to enhance the
workability of the audit and the
exemption:
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Section I(i)(2) of the proposed
exemption provides that ‘‘[t]o the extent
necessary for the auditor, in its sole
opinion, to complete its audit and
comply with the conditions for relief
described herein, and as permitted by
law, each UBS QPAM and, if applicable,
UBS, will grant the auditor
unconditional access to its business,
including, but not limited to: Its
computer systems; business records;
transactional data; workplace locations;
training materials; and personnel.’’ In
the Department’s view, to ensure a
thorough and robust audit, the
independent auditor must be granted
access to information it deems necessary
to make sound conclusions. However,
access to such information must be
within the scope of the audit
engagement and limited to information
relevant to the auditor’s objectives as
specified by the terms of this exemption
and denied only to the extent any
disclosure is not permitted by state or
federal statute or involves
communications subject to attorney
client privilege. The Department has
modified Section I(i)(2)accordingly.
Section I(i)(5) of the proposed
exemption provides that ‘‘[f]or each
audit, on or before the end of the
relevant period described in Section
I(i)(1) for completing the audit, the
auditor must issue a written report (the
Audit Report) to UBS and the UBS
QPAM to which the audit applies that
describes the procedures performed by
the auditor during the course of its
examination. The Audit Report must
include the auditor’s specific
determinations regarding:
(i) The adequacy of the UBS QPAM’s
Policies and Training; the UBS QPAM’s
compliance with the Policies and
Training; the need, if any, to strengthen
such Policies and Training; and any
instance of the respective UBS QPAM’s
noncompliance with the written Policies
and Training described in Section I(h)
above. Any determination by the auditor
regarding the adequacy of the Policies
and Training and the auditor’s
recommendations (if any) with respect
to strengthening the Policies and
Training of the respective UBS QPAM
must be promptly addressed by such
UBS QPAM, and any action taken by
such UBS QPAM to address such
recommendations must be included in
an addendum to the Audit Report
(which addendum is completed prior to
the certification described in Section
I(i)(7) below). Any determination by the
auditor that the respective UBS QPAM
has implemented, maintained, and
followed sufficient Policies and Training
must not be based solely or in
substantial part on an absence of
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evidence indicating noncompliance. In
this last regard, any finding that the
UBS QPAM has complied with the
requirements under this subsection
must be based on evidence that
demonstrates the UBS QPAM has
actually implemented, maintained, and
followed the Policies and Training
required by this five-year exemption.
Furthermore, the auditor must not rely
on the Annual Report created by the
Compliance Officer as described in
Section I(m) below in lieu of
independent determinations and testing
performed by the auditor as required by
Section I(i)(3) and (4) above; and
(ii) The adequacy of the Annual
Review described in Section I(m) and
the resources provided to the
Compliance officer in connection with
such Annual Review;
The Department modified Section
I(i)(5) to clarify that the auditor may
issue one consolidated Audit Report
covering all the UBS QPAMS for the
period of time being audited.
The Department acknowledges that
the UBS QPAMs’ efforts to address the
auditor’s recommendations regarding
any inadequacy in the Policies and
Training identified by the auditor may
take longer to implement than the time
limits mandated by the proposed
exemption. Accordingly, the
Department is modifying Section
I(i)(5)(i) to reflect the possibility that the
UBS QPAMs’ efforts to address the
auditor’s recommendations regarding
any inadequacy in the Policies and
Training may not be completed by the
submission date of the Audit Report and
may involve a written plan to address
such items. However, any
noncompliance identified by the auditor
must be promptly addressed. The
revised Section also requires that if such
a plan of action to address the auditor’s
recommendation as to the adequacy of
the Policies and Training is not
completed by the submission of the
Audit Report, the following period’s
Audit Report, must state whether the
plan was satisfactorily completed.
Additionally, the Department has
modified the final sentence in Section
I(i)(5)(i) to more clearly express the
Department’s intent that the auditor
must not rely solely on the work of the
Compliance Officer and the Annual
Report in formulating its conclusions or
findings. The Auditor must perform its
own independent testing to formulate
its conclusions. This exemption does
not prohibit the auditor from
considering the Compliance Officer’s
Annual Report in carrying out its audit
function, including its formulation of an
audit plan. This exemption, however,
does prohibit the auditor from reaching
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conclusions that are exclusively based
upon the contents of the Compliance
Officer’s Annual Report.
While an independent assessment by
the auditor of the adequacy of the
Annual Review is essential to providing
the Department with the assurance that
the Applicant and the UBS QPAMs have
given these matters the utmost priority
and have taken the necessary actions to
comply with the exemption, the
Department has determined that the
auditor should not be responsible for
opining on the adequacy of the
resources allocated to the Compliance
Officer and on its own motion, has
modified Section I(i)(5)(ii) accordingly.
Section I(i)(7) of the proposed
exemption provides that ‘‘[w]ith respect
to each Audit Report, the General
Counsel, or one of the three most senior
executive officers of the UBS QPAM to
which the Audit Report applies, must
certify in writing, under penalty of
perjury, that the officer has reviewed the
Audit Report and this five-year
exemption; addressed, corrected, or
remedied any inadequacy identified in
the Audit Report; and determined that
the Policies and Training in effect at the
time of signing are adequate to ensure
compliance with the conditions of this
proposed five-year exemption and with
the applicable provisions of ERISA and
the Code.’’ UBS requested that the
Department add the phrase ‘‘to the best
of such officer’s knowledge at the time’’
to this condition. The Department has
revised Section I(i)(7) as requested by
clarifying that the certification be made
to the best of such officer’s knowledge
at the time.
Furthermore, in coordination with the
changes to Section I(i)(5)(i) discussed
above, the Department revised Section
I(i)(7) to acknowledge that the
Applicant’s efforts to address the
auditor’s recommendations regarding
inadequacies in the Policies and
Training identified by the auditor, may
take longer to implement than the
timeframe to submit the certified Audit
Report. With respect to this issue, the
Department did not intend to limit
corrective actions to those that could
only be completed prior to the
submission of the Audit Report.
Therefore, the Department has modified
Section I(i)(7) to reflect that the senior
officer may certify that a written plan to
address the inadequacies regarding the
Policies and Training identified in the
Audit Report is in place.
Section I(i)(9) of the proposed
exemption provides that ‘‘[e]ach UBS
QPAM must provide its certified Audit
Report, by regular mail to: the
Department’s Office of Exemption
Determinations (OED), 200 Constitution
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Avenue NW, Suite 400, Washington DC
20210, or by private carrier to: 122 C
Street NW, Suite 400, Washington, DC
20001–2109, no later than 45 days
following its completion. The Audit
Report will be part of the public record
regarding this five-year exemption.
Furthermore, each UBS QPAM must
make its Audit Report unconditionally
available for examination by any duly
authorized employee or representative
of the Department, other relevant
regulators, and any fiduciary of an
ERISA-covered plan or IRA, the assets of
which are managed by such UBS
QPAM.’’ While the Department has an
interest in ensuring that the conditions
of this exemption broadly protect
ERISA-covered plans and IRAs that
have relied on QPAM status in deciding
to enter into an agreement with the UBS
QPAMs, the Department has revised
Section I(i)(9) to clarify that the UBS
QPAMs are required to make the
documents available to any fiduciary of
a Covered Plan. Additionally, the
Department decided to require that the
Audit Report be provided to the
Department within 30 days following its
completion. The Audit Report, in any
event, will be incorporated into the
public record attributable to this
exemption, under Exemption
Application Number D–11907, and,
therefore, independently accessible by
members of the public. Accordingly, the
Department has decided to revise the
condition by replacing the phrase ‘‘an
ERISA-covered plan or IRA, the assets of
which are managed by such UBS
QPAM’’ with the term ‘‘Covered Plan’’
(as defined in Section II(b)). Lastly, the
Department agrees that access to the
Audit Report need only be upon request
and such access can be electronic, and
has revised the exemption accordingly.
Section I(i)(10) of the proposed
exemption provides that ‘‘[e]ach UBS
QPAM and the auditor must submit to
OED: (A) any engagement agreement
entered into pursuant to the engagement
of the auditor under this five-year
exemption; and (B) any engagement
agreement entered into with any other
entity retained in connection with such
QPAM’s compliance with the Training
or Policies conditions of this proposed
five-year exemption, no later than six (6)
months after the effective date of this
five-year exemption (and one month
after the execution of any agreement
thereafter).’’ To remove any confusion
and uncertainty regarding the timing of
the submission of the auditor’s and
other entity’s engagement agreements,
the Department has modified Section
I(i)(10) to require that the auditor’s
engagement agreement and the
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engagement agreements with other
entities retained in connection with
such UBS QPAM’s compliance with the
Training or Policies be submitted to the
OED no later than two (2) months after
the engagement agreement is entered
into by the Applicant and the
independent auditor or other entity.
Section I(i)(11) of the proposed
exemption requires that, ‘‘[t]he auditor
must provide OED, upon request, all of
the workpapers created and utilized in
the course of the audit, including, but
not limited to: The audit plan; audit
testing; identification of any instance of
noncompliance by the relevant UBS
QPAM; and an explanation of any
corrective or remedial action taken by
the applicable UBS QPAM.’’ The
Department acknowledges that certain
information contained in the audit
workpapers may be confidential and
proprietary, and having that information
in the public file may create needless or
avoidable disclosure issues. Therefore,
the Department has determined to
modify Section I(i)(11) to remove the
requirement that the auditor provide the
workpapers to OED, and instead require
that the auditor provide access to the
workpapers for the Department’s review
and inspection.
Section I(i)(12) of the proposed fiveyear exemption requires that ‘‘UBS must
notify the Department at least 30 days
prior to any substitution of an auditor,
except that no such replacement will
meet the requirements of this paragraph
unless and until UBS demonstrates to
the Department’s satisfaction that such
new auditor is independent of UBS,
experienced in the matters that are the
subject of the five-year exemption and
capable of making the determinations
required of this five-year exemption.’’
The Department decided to remove
the requirement for UBS to demonstrate
the independence and qualifications of
the auditor to the Department. The
exemption requires instead that UBS, no
later than two (2) months from the
engagement of the replacement auditor,
notify the Department of a change in
auditor and of the reason(s) for the
substitution including any material
disputes between the terminated auditor
and UBS. UBS’s fiduciary obligations
with respect to the selection of the
auditor, as well as the significant role a
credible selection plays in reducing the
need for more extensive oversight by the
Department, should be sufficient to
safeguard the selection process.
No-Fault Provision—Failure of
Auditor—Section I(s)
Section I(s) of the proposed
exemption provides that ‘‘[a] UBS
QPAM will not fail to meet the terms of
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this five-year exemption, solely because
a different UBS QPAM fails to satisfy a
condition for relief under this five-year
exemption described in Sections I(c),
(d), (h), (i), (j), (k), (l), (p), and (r).’’ The
Department modified this condition so
the failure of the auditor to comply with
any of the conditions of the exemption,
with the exception of Section I(i)(11)
regarding access to the auditor’s
workpapers, will not be treated as a
failure by the UBS QPAMs to comply
with the conditions of the exemption
provided that such failure was not due
to the actions or inactions of UBS or its
affiliates.
Comment IX—Additional Requested
Revisions
In granting PTE 2016–17, the
Department made several modifications
to the proposed temporary exemption
both at the request of UBS and on the
Department’s own initiative. UBS
requested that the Department make the
revisions that were made in PTE 2016–
17 to the corresponding conditions in
this exemption and additional revisions
to certain of these Sections. The
Department has addressed these
requests as follows:
Knowing or Tacit Approval—Section
I(a) and I(c)
Section I(a) of the proposed
exemption provides, ‘‘[t]he UBS QPAMs
(including their officers, directors,
agents other than UBS, and employees
of such UBS QPAMs) did not know of,
have reason to know of, or participate
in: (1) the FX Misconduct; or (2) the
criminal conduct that is the subject of
the Convictions (for the purposes of this
Section I(a), ‘‘participate in’’ includes
the knowing or tacit approval of the FX
Misconduct or the misconduct that is
the subject of the Convictions).’’
Section I(c) of the proposed
exemption provides, ‘‘[t]he UBS QPAMs
will not employ or knowingly engage
any of the individuals that participated
in: (1) the FX Misconduct or (2) the
criminal conduct that is the subject of
the Convictions (for the purposes of this
Section I(c), ‘‘participated in’’ includes
the knowing or tacit approval of the FX
Misconduct or the misconduct that is
the subject of the Convictions).’’
UBS requests that the words ‘‘or tacit’’
in the phrase ‘‘knowing or tacit
approval’’ be deleted in Sections I(a)
and I(c) and be replaced with ‘‘knowing
approval’’ in a final exemption, to avoid
any ambiguity or confusion as to the
definition of ‘‘participate in.’’
After consideration of UBS’s
comments, the Department revised the
condition in the manner requested by
the Applicant.
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Receipt of Compensation—Section I(b)
Section I(b) of the proposed
exemption provides, ‘‘[t]he UBS QPAMs
(including their officers, directors,
agents other than UBS, and employees
of such UBS QPAMs) did not receive
direct compensation, or knowingly
receive indirect compensation, in
connection with: (1) the FX Misconduct;
or (2) the criminal conduct that is the
subject of the Convictions.’’
UBS requests that the Department
replace ‘‘receive direct compensation, or
knowingly receive indirect
compensation’’ with ‘‘knowingly receive
compensation.’’ UBS claims this change
is consistent with the underlying
purpose of the condition and avoids any
ambiguity or confusion regarding the
meaning of ‘‘direct’’ and ‘‘indirect
compensation.’’
The Department does not agree that
the terms ‘‘direct and ‘‘indirect’’ create
ambiguity or confusion and has not
made the requested revision. It is the
Department’s intent to preclude relief
herein if any asset management
personnel of the UBS QPAMs received
direct compensation, or knowingly
received indirect compensation, in
connection with the FX Misconduct or
the criminal conduct that is the subject
of the Convictions and therefore has not
revised Section I(b).
UBS QPAM Will Not Use Its Authority
or Influence—Section I(d)
Section I(d) of the proposed
exemption provides that ‘‘[a] UBS
QPAM will not use its authority or
influence to direct an ‘‘investment
fund’’ (as defined in Section VI(b) of
PTE 84–14), that is subject to ERISA or
the Code and managed by such UBS
QPAM to enter into any transaction with
UBS or UBS Securities Japan or engage
UBS or UBS Securities Japan to provide
any service to such investment fund, for
a direct or indirect fee borne by such
investment fund, regardless of whether
such transaction or service may
otherwise be within the scope of relief
provided by an administrative or
statutory exemption.’’ UBS has
requested that the phrase ‘‘in reliance
on PTE 84–14’’ be added to this
condition following the phrase
‘‘managed by such UBS QPAM.’’
After considering the Applicant’s
comment, the Department has revised
the exemption to clarify that Section I(d)
applies to ‘‘investment funds’’ managed
by the UBS QPAM with respect to
Covered Plans.
Provision of Asset Management
Services—Section I(g)
Section I(g) provides that ‘‘UBS and
UBS Securities Japan will not provide
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discretionary asset management
services to ERISA-covered plans or
IRAs, nor will otherwise act as a
fiduciary with respect to ERISA-covered
plan or IRA assets.’’ UBS requested that
the Department modify Section I(g) in
conformity with PTE 2016–17 to clarify
that UBS and UBS Securities Japan will
not violate this condition in the event
that they inadvertently become
investment advice fiduciaries and that
UBS can act as a fiduciary for plans that
it sponsors for its own employees or
employees of an affiliate. The
Department has modified Section I(g)
accordingly.
Termination and Withdrawal
Restrictions—Section I(j)(3)
Under Section I(j)(4) of the proposed
exemption, the UBS QPAMs agree:
‘‘[n]ot to restrict the ability of such
ERISA-covered plan or IRA to terminate
or withdraw from its arrangement with
the UBS QPAM (including any
investment in a separately managed
account or pooled fund subject to ERISA
and managed by such QPAM), with the
exception of reasonable restrictions,
appropriately disclosed in advance, that
are specifically designed to ensure
equitable treatment of all investors in a
pooled fund in the event such
withdrawal or termination may have
adverse consequences for all other
investors as a result of an actual lack of
liquidity of the underlying assets,
provided that such restrictions are
applied consistently and in like manner
to all such investors.’’
UBS requested that the Department
revise Section I(j)(3) (formerly Section
I(j)(4) in the proposed exemption) to be
consistent with the language used for
this condition in PTE 2016–17.
Consistent with PTE 2016–17, the
Department has revised Section I(j)(4)
clarifying the circumstances under
which reasonable restrictions are
necessary to protect the remaining
investors in a pooled fund and to also
clarify that in any such event the
restrictions must be reasonable and last
no longer than reasonably necessary to
remedy the adverse consequences.
Notice of Obligations—Section I(j)(7)
Section I(j)(8) of the proposed
exemption provides that ‘‘[w]ithin four
(4) months of the effective date of this
proposed five-year exemption, each
UBS QPAM must provide a notice of its
obligations under this Section I(j) to
each ERISA-covered plan and IRA for
which the UBS QPAM provides asset
management or other discretionary
fiduciary services. For all other
prospective ERISA-covered plan and
IRA clients for which a UBS QPAM
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provides asset management or other
discretionary fiduciary services, the UBS
QPAM will agree in writing to its
obligations under this Section I(j) in an
updated investment management
agreement or advisory agreement
between the UBS QPAM and such
clients or other written contractual
agreement.’’ In addition to requesting
that Section I(j)(8) of the proposed
exemption be revised to reflect the
changes made in PTE 2016–17, UBS
requests that that the requirement in
Section I(j)(8) be limited to ERISAcovered plans and IRAs for which the
UBS QPAM provides asset management
or other discretionary fiduciary services
in reliance on PTE 84–14 and that the
phrase ‘‘all other prospective’’ be
replaced with the word ‘‘new.’’
As previously noted, this Section has
been renumbered so that Section I(j)(8)
of the proposed exemption is now
Section I(j)(7) in this exemption.
As noted above, the Department has
an interest in protecting an ERISAcovered plan or IRA that enters into an
asset management agreement with a
UBS QPAM in reliance on the manager’s
qualification as a QPAM, regardless of
whether the QPAM relies on the class
exemption when managing the assets of
the ERISA-covered plan or IRA. The
Department has revised the applicability
of this condition to more closely reflect
this interest, and the condition now
applies to Covered Plans. The
Department has also modified the
condition so that a UBS QPAM will not
violate the condition solely because a
Covered Plan refuses to sign an updated
investment management agreement.
Furthermore, the condition has been
modified to coordinate with PTE 2016–
17, so that a notice that satisfies Section
I(j)(8) of that exemption will satisfy
renumbered Section I(j)(7) of this
exemption, unless the notice contains
any language that limits, or is
inconsistent with, the scope of this
exemption. The Department declines to
replace the phrase ‘‘all other
prospective’’ with the word ‘‘new.’’ The
Department’s intention for the sentence
beginning ‘‘[f]or all other prospective’’
in Section I(j)(8) of the proposed
exemption was to ensure that
prospective clients for which a UBS
QPAM does not yet provide asset
management of other fiduciary services
are informed of the UBS QPAM’s
obligations under Section I(j).
Consistent with the request by UBS, the
condition has been modified so that the
notice must be provided July 9, 2018.
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Policies and Procedures Relating to
Compliance With ERISA and the Code—
Sections I(h)(I)(1)(ii)–(v)
Section I(h)(1)(ii)–(v) of the proposed
exemption provide, ‘‘(h)(1) [e]ach UBS
QPAM must immediately develop,
implement, maintain, and follow written
policies and procedures (the Policies)
requiring and reasonably designed to
ensure that: . . .
(ii) The UBS QPAM fully complies
with ERISA’s fiduciary duties, and with
ERISA and the Code’s prohibited
transaction provisions, and does not
knowingly participate in any violation
of these duties and provisions with
respect to ERISA-covered plans and
IRAs;
(iii) The UBS QPAM does not
knowingly participate in any other
person’s violation of ERISA or the Code
with respect to ERISA-covered plans
and IRAs;
(iv) Any filings or statements made by
the UBS QPAM to regulators, including
but not limited to, the Department of
Labor, the Department of the Treasury,
the Department of Justice, and the
Pension Benefit Guaranty Corporation,
on behalf of ERISA-covered plans or
IRAs are materially accurate and
complete, to the best of such QPAM’s
knowledge at that time;
(v)[t]he UBS QPAM does not make
material misrepresentations or omit
material information in its
communications with such regulators
with respect to ERISA-covered plans or
IRAs, or make material
misrepresentations or omit material
information in its communications with
ERISA-covered plan and IRA clients.’’
UBS requests that Section I(h)(1)(v) be
revised to add language similar to that
found in Section I(h)(1)(iv), indicating
that the UBS QPAMs must implement
policies designed to avoid any such
misrepresentations ‘‘to the best of such
QPAM’s knowledge at the time.’’
The Department has modified the
Policies’ requirement of adherence to
the fiduciary and prohibited transaction
provisions of ERISA and the Code so
that the Policies expressly focus on the
provisions only to the extent
‘‘applicable’’ under ERISA and the
Code. In general, however, the
Department has otherwise retained the
stringency and breadth of the Policies
requirement, which is more than
justified by the repeated compliance
and oversight failures exhibited by UBS
throughout the period of time during
which the criminal misconduct
persisted.
The specific elements of the Policies
requirement as set forth in this
exemption are essential to its protective
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purposes. In approving this exemption,
the Department significantly relies upon
conditions designed to ensure that those
relying upon its term for prohibited
transaction relief will adopt a culture of
compliance centered on the basic
principles and obligations set forth in
the Policies requirement. These
standards are core protections of this
exemption.
The Department has made some
additional changes, however, which
should not detract from the Policies’
protective purpose. Thus, as requested
by UBS, subsection (v) has been revised
to contain the ‘‘to the best of QPAM’s
knowledge at the time’’ concept found
in subsection (iv). Additionally, the
applicability of subsections (iv) and (v)
has been narrowed to Covered Plans. To
the extent a UBS QPAM would prefer
not to be subject to this provision,
however, it may expressly disclaim
reliance on QPAM status or PTE 84–14
in entering into its contract with the
Covered Plan. This revision is
consistent with the Department’s intent
to protect ERISA-covered plans and
IRAs that have hired a UBS QPAM in
reliance on PTE 84–14 or based on the
manager’s express representation that it
relies on or qualifies under PTE 84–14.
Correction of Violations and Failures To
Comply—Section I(h)(vii)
Section I(h)(1)(vii) of the proposed
exemption provides that ‘‘[a]ny
violation of, or failure to comply with,
an item in subparagraphs (ii) through
(vi), is corrected promptly upon
discovery, and any such violation or
compliance failure not promptly
corrected is reported, upon discovery of
such failure to promptly correct, in
writing, to appropriate corporate
officers, the head of compliance and the
General Counsel (or their functional
equivalent) of the relevant UBS QPAM,
the independent auditor responsible for
reviewing compliance with the Policies,
and an appropriate fiduciary of any
affected ERISA-covered plan or IRA that
is independent of UBS; however, with
respect to any ERISA-covered plan or
IRA sponsored by an ‘‘affiliate’’ (as
defined in Section VI(d) of PTE 84–14)
of UBS or beneficially owned by an
employee of UBS or its affiliates, such
fiduciary does not need to be
independent of UBS. A UBS QPAM will
not be treated as having failed to
develop, implement, maintain, or follow
the Policies, provided that it corrects
any instance of noncompliance
promptly when discovered, or when it
reasonably should have known of the
noncompliance (whichever is earlier),
and provided that it adheres to the
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reporting requirements set forth in this
subparagraph (vii).’’
UBS requests that this section be
revised to clarify that any compliance
failures that are discovered must be
promptly corrected ‘‘to the extent
possible’’ and to limit the second clause
of the last sentence to any ‘‘material’’
‘‘instance of non-compliance’’ that the
UBS QPAM ‘‘reasonably should have
known about.’’
The Department has based the
conditions of this exemption on both
the particular facts of the UBS cases and
its experience over time with previous
exemptions. For the reasons set out
herein, the Department has concluded
that the specific conditions of this
exemption are appropriate and give the
Department a reasonable basis for
concluding that the exemptions are
appropriately protective of affected
plans and IRAs. As noted above, a
central aim of the exemption is to
ensure that those relying upon the
exemption for relief from the prohibited
transaction rules will consistently act to
promote a culture of fiduciary
compliance, notwithstanding the
conduct that violated Section I(g) of PTE
84–14.
While the Department declines to
narrow and qualify this subparagraph
(vii) with the specific language revision
requested by UBS, after consideration,
the Department will not condition the
exemption on a requirement for
notification of violations to an
appropriate fiduciary of any affected
ERISA-covered plan or IRA that is
independent of UBS. Additionally, the
Department has revised the term
‘‘corrected promptly’’ for consistency
with the Department’s intent that
violations or compliance failures be
corrected ‘‘as soon as reasonably
possible upon discovery or as soon after
the QPAM reasonably should have
known of the noncompliance
(whichever is earlier).’’ However, the
Department intends to preclude relief to
the extent violations or failures are not
corrected as required by the exemption.
Compliance Officer Certification—
Section I(m)(2)(iii)
Section I(m)(2)(iii) of the proposes
exemption provides: ‘‘In each Annual
Report, the Compliance Officer must
certify in writing that to his or her
knowledge: (A) The report is accurate;
(B) the Policies and Training are
working in a manner which is
reasonably designed to ensure that the
Policies and Training requirements
described herein are met; (C) any known
instance of noncompliance during the
preceding year and any related
correction taken to date have been
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transaction that is conducted in reliance
on the exemption. UBS represents that
the 60 advance notice would effectively
place a ‘‘freeze’’ on the management of
new clients accounts and therefore
could deprive ERISA-covered Plans and
IRA clients the opportunity to enter into
beneficial transactions during the 60day period, such as time-sensitive
transactions to transition new clients’
existing investments to new investments
or transactions designed to reduce
clients’ risk exposure. UBS also claims
that complying with a 60-day advance
notice requirement would be impossible
with regard to existing UBS QPAM
clients who may have committed to or
entered into transactions in reliance on
this exemption. For example, UBS
represents that some clients may have
entered into transactions which are
scheduled to occur simultaneously with
the granting of this exemption,
rendering it impossible for a QPAM to
give sixty (60) days prior notice.
Additionally, UBS requests that the
phrase ‘‘to which such UBS QPAM
intends to provide services in reliance
upon this exemption’’ be added to this
condition.
Affording Covered Plans a means by
which to review and understand the
Policies implemented in connection
with this exemption is a vital protection
that is fundamental to this exemption’s
purpose. However, the Department has
modified the condition so that the UBS
QPAMs, at their election, may instead
provide Covered Plans a disclosure that
accurately describes or summarizes key
components of the Policies, rather than
provide the Policies in their entirety.
Notice of Right To Obtain Copy of
The Department has also determined
Policies—Section I(r)
that such disclosure may be
Section I(r) of the proposed
continuously maintained on a website,
exemption provides that, ‘‘[e]ach UBS
provided that the website link to the
QPAM, in its agreements with ERISAsummary of the written Policies is
covered plan and IRA clients, or in other clearly and prominently disclosed to
written disclosures provided to ERISAthose Covered Plan clients to whom this
covered plan and IRA clients, within 60 section applies. The Department also
days prior to the initial transaction
agrees with the Applicant that the
upon which relief hereunder is relied,
timing requirement for disclosure
and then at least once annually, will
should be revised and, accordingly, has
clearly and prominently: inform the
modified the condition of Section I(p) to
ERISA-covered plan or IRA client that
require notice regarding the information
the client has the right to obtain copies
on the website within 60 days of the
of the QPAM’s written Policies adopted
effective date of this exemption, and
in accordance with this five-year
thereafter to the extent certain material
exemption.’’
changes are made to the Policies.
UBS argues that the requirement to
Definition of ‘‘Convictions’’ and
provide the disclosure in Section I(r)
‘‘Conviction Date’’—Section II(a) and
sixty (60) days prior to a transaction
II(d)
entered into in reliance on this
Section II(a) of the proposed
exemption is not in the interest of UBS’s
exemption provides that ‘‘The term
current or future ERISA-covered plan
‘Convictions’ means the 2013
and IRA clients. UBS therefore requests
that Section I(r) be revised to remove the Conviction and the 2016 Conviction.
The term ‘‘2013 Conviction’’ means the
requirement that the notification be
judgment of conviction against UBS
made 60 days prior to the initial
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identified in the Annual Report; (D) the
UBS QPAMs have complied with the
Policies and Training in all respects,
and/or corrected any instances of
noncompliance in accordance with
Section I(h) above; and (E) UBS has
provided the Compliance Officer with
adequate resources, including, but not
limited to, adequate staffing.’’ UBS
seeks to have Section I(m)(2)(iii) revised
to clarify that the certifications must be
made to the best of the Compliance
Officer’s knowledge at the time based on
the Annual Review. UBS also requests
that Section I(m)(2)(iii)(D) be revised to
require the Compliance Officer certify
that the UBS QPAM has corrected ‘‘to
the extent possible’’ any ‘‘known’’
instances of noncompliance.
The Department has accepted UBS’s
request in part and has revised this
condition accordingly. Accordingly,
Section I(m)(iii) has been modified to
require the Compliance Officer to certify
in writing ‘‘to the best of his or her
knowledge at the time’’ and Section
I(m)(2)(iii)(D) has be modified to add the
word ‘‘known’’ before the word
‘‘instances.’’ However, the Department
has declined to narrow Section
I(m)(iii)(D) by adding the phrase ‘‘to the
extent’’ possible. The Department notes
this subparagraph requires that the
noncompliance is corrected in
accordance with Section I(h) and
Section I(h) has been revised to allow
for such correction to occur ‘‘as soon as
reasonably possible upon discovery or
as soon after the QPAM reasonably
should have known of the
noncompliance (whichever is earlier).’’
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Securities Japan Co. Ltd. in Case
Number 3:12–cr–00268–RNC in the U.S.
District Court for the District of
Connecticut for one count of wire fraud
in violation of Title 18, United Sates
Code, sections 1343 and 2 in connection
with submission of YEN London
Interbank Offered Rates and other
benchmark interest rates. The term
‘2016 Conviction’ means the anticipated
judgment of conviction against UBS AG
in Case Number 3:15–cr–00076–RNC in
the U.S. District Court for the District of
Connecticut for one count of wire fraud
in violation of Title 18, United States
Code, Sections 1343 and 2 in
connection with UBS’s submission of
Yen London Interbank Offered Rates
and other benchmark interest rates
between 2001 and 2010. For all
purposes under this proposed five-year
exemption, ‘conduct’ of any person or
entity that is the ‘subject of [a]
Conviction’ encompasses any conduct
of UBS and/or their personnel, that is
described in the Plea Agreement,
(including Exhibits 1 and 3 attached
thereto), and other official regulatory or
judicial factual findings that are a part
of this record.’’ UBS has requested the
definition of ‘‘convictions’’ in Section
II(a) be revised to reflect the
corresponding changes made in PTE
2016–17 and to reflect that the ‘‘2016
Conviction’’ occurred in 2017 and
should therefore be referred to as the
‘‘2017 Conviction.’’ UBS also requested
that the definition of ‘‘Conviction Date’’
in Section II(d) be revised to ‘‘January 5,
2017.’’
The Department concurs with UBS
and has revised the definition of the
term ‘‘Convictions’’ in Section II(a) to be
consistent with the definition provided
in Section II(a) of PTE 2016–17 and has
revised Sections II(a) and II(d) to replace
the phrase ‘‘2016 Conviction’’ with
‘‘2017 Conviction.’’ Additionally, the
Department has deleted the references
to ‘‘Conviction Date’’ within the
exemption. The Department notes that
PTE 84–14 references the ‘‘the date of
the judgment of the trial court.’’ Because
that date is January 10, 2017, the
compliance dates in this exemption are
determined with reference to January
10, 2017.
Definition of ‘‘UBS QPAM’’—Section
II(b)
Section II(b) of the proposed
exemption provides in part that ‘‘[t]he
term ‘UBS QPAM’ excludes the parent
entity, UBS AG and UBS Securities
Japan.’’ UBS has requested that the term
‘‘the parent entity’’ be deleted from this
Section. The Department has made the
requested revision and removed the
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term ‘‘the parent entity’’ from Section
II(B).
Comment—Letter from House
Committee on Financial Services
The Department also received a
comment letter from certain members of
Congress (the Members) regarding this
exemption, as well as regarding other
QPAM-related proposed one year
exemptions. In the letter, the Members
stated that certain conditions contained
in these proposed exemptions are
crucial to protecting the investments of
our nation’s workers and retirees,
referring to proposed conditions which
require each bank to: (a) Indemnify and
hold harmless ERISA-covered plans and
IRAs for any damages resulting from the
future misconduct of such bank; and (b)
disclose to the Department any Deferred
Prosecution Agreement or a NonProsecution Agreement with the U.S.
Department of Justice. The Members
also requested that the Department hold
hearings in connection with the
proposed exemptions.
The Department acknowledges the
Members’ concerns regarding the need
for public discourse regarding proposed
exemptions. To this end, the
Department’s procedures regarding
prohibited transaction exemption
requests under ERISA (the Exemption
Procedures) afford interested persons
the opportunity to request a hearing.
Specifically, section 2570.46(a) of the
Exemption Procedures provides that,
‘‘[a]ny interested person who may be
adversely affected by an exemption
which the Department proposes to grant
from the restrictions of section 406(b) of
ERISA, section 4975(c)(1)(E) or (F) of the
Code, or section 8477(c)(2) of FERSA
may request a hearing before the
Department within the period of time
specified in the Federal Register notice
of the proposed exemption.’’ The
Exemption Procedures provide that
‘‘[t]he Department will grant a request
for a hearing made in accordance with
paragraph (a) of this section where a
hearing is necessary to fully explore
material factual issues identified by the
person requesting the hearing.’’ The
Exemption Procedures also provide that
‘‘[t]he Department may decline to hold
a hearing where: (1) The request for the
hearing does not meet the requirements
of paragraph (a) of this section; (2) the
only issues identified for exploration at
the hearing are matters of law; or (3) the
factual issues identified can be fully
explored through the submission of
evidence in written (including
electronic) form.’’ 68
68 29 CFR part 2570, published at 76 FR 66653
(October 27, 2011).
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While the Members’ letter raises
important policy issues, it does not
appear to raise specific material factual
issues. The Department previously
explored a wide range of legal and
policy issues regarding Section I(g) of
the QPAM Exemption during a public
hearing held on January 15, 2015 in
connection with the Department’s
proposed exemption involving Credit
Suisse AG, and has determined that an
additional hearing on these issues is not
necessary.
After giving full consideration to the
record, the Department has decided to
grant the exemption, as described above.
The complete application file
(Application No. D–11907) is available
for public inspection in the Public
Disclosure Room of the Employee
Benefits Security Administration, Room
N–1515, U.S. Department of Labor, 200
Constitution Avenue NW, Washington,
DC 20210.
For a more complete statement of the
facts and representations supporting the
Department’s decision to grant this
exemption, refer to the notice of
proposed exemption published on
November 21, 2016 at 81 FR 83385.
Exemption
Section I: Covered Transactions
Certain entities with specified
relationships to UBS, AG (hereinafter,
the UBS QPAMs as defined in Section
II(h)) will not be precluded from relying
on the exemptive relief provided by
Prohibited Transaction Class Exemption
84–14 (PTE 84–14 or the QPAM
Exemption),69 notwithstanding the 2013
Conviction against UBS Securities Japan
Co., Ltd. and the 2017 Conviction
against UBS, AG (collectively the
Convictions, as defined in Section
II(a)),70 during the Exemption Period,
provided that the following conditions
are satisfied:
(a) The UBS QPAMs (including their
officers, directors, agents other than
UBS, and employees of such UBS
QPAMs) did not know of, did not have
reason to know of, or participate in: (1)
The FX Misconduct; or (2) the criminal
conduct that is the subject of the
Convictions (for the purposes of this
Section I(a), ‘‘participate in’’ includes
69 49 FR 9494 (March 13, 1984), as corrected at
50 FR 41430 (October 10, 1985), as amended at 70
FR 49305 (August 23, 2005), and as amended at 75
FR 38837 (July 6, 2010).
70 Section I(g) of PTE 84–14 generally provides
that ‘‘[n]either the QPAM nor any affiliate thereof
. . . nor any owner . . . of a 5 percent or more
interest in the QPAM is a person who within the
10 years immediately preceding the transaction has
been either convicted or released from
imprisonment, whichever is later, as a result of’’
certain criminal activity therein described.
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the knowing approval of the FX
Misconduct or the misconduct that is
the subject of the Convictions);
(b) The UBS QPAMs (including their
officers, directors, agents other than
UBS, and employees of such UBS
QPAMs) did not receive direct
compensation, or knowingly receive
indirect compensation, in connection
with: (1) The FX Misconduct; or (2) the
criminal conduct that is the subject of
the Convictions;
(c) The UBS QPAMs will not employ
or knowingly engage any of the
individuals that participated in: (1) The
FX Misconduct or (2) the criminal
conduct that is the subject of the
Convictions (for the purposes of this
Section I(c), ‘‘participated in’’ includes
the knowing approval of the FX
Misconduct or the misconduct that is
the subject of the Convictions);
(d) At all times during the Exemption
Period, no UBS QPAM will use its
authority or influence to direct an
‘‘investment fund’’ (as defined in
Section VI(b) of PTE 84–14) that is
subject to ERISA or the Code and
managed by such UBS QPAM with
respect to one of more Covered Plans, to
enter into any transaction with UBS or
UBS Securities Japan or engage UBS or
UBS Securities Japan to provide any
service to such investment fund, for a
direct or indirect fee borne by such
investment fund, regardless of whether
such transaction or service may
otherwise be within the scope of relief
provided by an administrative or
statutory exemption;
(e) Any failure of the UBS QPAMs to
satisfy Section I(g) of PTE 84–14 arose
solely from the Convictions;
(f) A UBS QPAM did not exercise
authority over the assets of any plan
subject to Part 4 of Title I of ERISA (an
ERISA-covered plan) or section 4975 of
the Code (an IRA) in a manner that it
knew or should have known would:
Further the FX Misconduct or the
criminal conduct that is the subject of
the Convictions; or cause the UBS
QPAM, its affiliates or related parties to
directly or indirectly profit from the FX
Misconduct or the criminal conduct that
is the subject of the Convictions;
(g) Other than with respect to
employee benefit plans maintained or
sponsored for its own employees or the
employees of an affiliate, UBS and UBS
Securities Japan will not act as a
fiduciary within the meaning of section
3(21)(A)(i) or (iii) of ERISA, or section
4975(e)(3)(A) and (C) of the Code, with
respect to ERISA-covered plan and IRA
assets; provided, however, that UBS and
UBS Securities Japan will not be treated
as violating the conditions of this
exemption solely because it acted as an
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investment advice fiduciary within the
meaning of section 3(21)(A)(ii) or
section 4975(e)(3)(B) of the Code;
(h)(1) Each UBS QPAM must continue
to maintain or immediately implement
and follow written policies and
procedures (the Policies). The Policies
must require, and must be reasonably
designed to ensure that:
(i) The asset management decisions of
the UBS QPAM are conducted
independently of UBS’s corporate
management and business activities,
including the corporate management
and business activities of the Investment
Bank division and UBS Securities Japan;
(ii) The UBS QPAM fully complies
with ERISA’s fiduciary duties, and with
ERISA and the Code’s prohibited
transaction provisions, in such case as
applicable, and does not knowingly
participate in any violation of these
duties and provisions with respect to
Covered Plans;
(iii) The UBS QPAM does not
knowingly participate in any other
person’s violation of ERISA or the Code
with respect to Covered Plans;
(iv) Any filings or statements made by
the UBS QPAM to regulators, including,
but not limited to, the Department of
Labor, the Department of the Treasury,
the Department of Justice, and the
Pension Benefit Guaranty Corporation,
on behalf of or in relation to Covered
Plans, are materially accurate and
complete, to the best of such QPAM’s
knowledge at that time;
(v) To the best of the UBS QPAM’s
knowledge at that time, the UBS QPAM
does not make material
misrepresentations or omit material
information in its communications with
such regulators with respect to Covered
Plans;
(vi) The UBS QPAM complies with
the terms of this exemption; and
(vii) Any violation of, or failure to
comply with an item in subparagraphs
(ii) through (vi), is corrected as soon as
reasonably possible upon discovery, or
as soon after the QPAM reasonably
should have known of the
noncompliance (whichever is earlier),
and any such violation or compliance
failure not so corrected is reported,
upon the discovery of such failure to so
correct, in writing, to appropriate
corporate officers, the head of
compliance and the General Counsel (or
their functional equivalent) of the
relevant UBS QPAM, and the
independent auditor responsible for
reviewing compliance with the Policies.
A UBS QPAM will not be treated as
having failed to develop, implement,
maintain, or follow the Policies,
provided that it corrects any instance of
noncompliance as soon as reasonably
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possible upon discovery, or as soon as
reasonably possible after the QPAM
reasonably should have known of the
noncompliance (whichever is earlier),
and provided that it adheres to the
reporting requirements set forth in this
subparagraph (vii);
(2) Each UBS QPAM must develop
and implement a program of training
(the Training), conducted at least
annually, for all relevant UBS QPAM
asset/portfolio management, trading,
legal, compliance, and internal audit
personnel. The Training must:
(i) At a minimum, cover the Policies,
ERISA and Code compliance (including
applicable fiduciary duties and the
prohibited transaction provisions),
ethical conduct, the consequences for
not complying with the conditions of
this exemption (including any loss of
exemptive relief provided herein), and
prompt reporting of wrongdoing; and
(ii) Be conducted by an independent
professional who has been prudently
selected and who has appropriate
technical training and proficiency with
ERISA and the Code;
(i)(1) Each UBS QPAM submits to an
audit conducted annually by an
independent auditor, who has been
prudently selected and who has
appropriate technical training and
proficiency with ERISA and the Code, to
evaluate the adequacy of, and each UBS
QPAM’s compliance with, the Policies
and Training described herein. The
audit requirement must be incorporated
in the Policies. The first annual audit
must cover a fourteen-month period that
begins on January 10, 2017 (the Initial
Audit Period) and all subsequent audits
must cover consecutive twelve month
periods commencing upon the end of
the Initial Audit Period.71 The Initial
Audit Period shall cover the period of
time during which PTE 2016–17 72 is
effective and a portion of the time
during which this exemption is effective
and the audit terms contained in this
Section I(i) will supersede the terms of
71 The final audit under this exemption would not
have to be completed until after the Exemption
Period expires. If the Department ultimately decides
to grant relief for an additional period, it could
decide to alter the terms of the exemption,
including the audit conditions (and the timing of
the audit requirements). Nevertheless, the
Applicant should anticipate that the Department
will insist on strict compliance with the audit terms
and schedule set forth above. As it considers any
new exemption application, the Department may
also contact the auditor for any information relevant
to its determination.
72 81 FR 94049 (December 22, 2016). PTE 2016–
17 is a temporary exemption in respect of
Exemption Application No. D–11863 that permits
UBS QPAMs to rely on the exemptive relief
provided by PTE 84–14, notwithstanding the
Convictions, for up to twelve months from
Conviction Date.
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61917
Section I(i) of PTE 2016–17 except as
otherwise provided in this exemption.
In determining compliance with the
conditions for relief in PTE 2016–17 and
this exemption, including the Policies
and Training requirements, for purposes
of conducting the audit, the auditor will
rely on the conditions for exemptive
relief as then applicable to the
respective periods under audit.
Additionally, the Department confirms
that, for the final audit under PTE 2013–
9 covering the time period from
September 18, 2016 until the January
10, 2017 conviction date, the audit
requirements in Section(g) of PTE 2013–
09 remained in effect. Accordingly, the
audit of such final time period under
PTE 2013–09 had to have been
completed and submitted within six (6)
months of January 10, 2017, and it has,
in fact, been submitted to the
Department;
(2) Within the scope of the audit and
to the extent necessary for the auditor,
in its sole opinion, to complete its audit
and comply with the conditions for
relief described herein, and only to the
extent such disclosure is not prevented
by state or federal statute, or involves
communications subject to attorney
client privilege, each UBS QPAM and,
if applicable, UBS, will grant the auditor
unconditional access to its business,
including, but not limited to: Its
computer systems; business records;
transactional data; workplace locations;
training materials; and personnel. Such
access is limited to information relevant
to the auditor’s objectives as specified
by the terms of this exemption;
(3) The auditor’s engagement must
specifically require the auditor to
determine whether each UBS QPAM has
developed, implemented, maintained,
and followed the Policies in accordance
with the conditions of this exemption,
and has developed and implemented
the Training, as required herein;
(4) The auditor’s engagement must
specifically require the auditor to test
each UBS QPAM’s operational
compliance with the Policies and
Training. In this regard, the auditor
must test, for each UBS QPAM, a
sample of such QPAM’s transactions
involving Covered Plans, sufficient in
size and nature to afford the auditor a
reasonable basis to determine such
QPAM’s operational compliance with
the Policies and Training;
(5) For each audit, on or before the
end of the relevant period described in
Section I(i)(1) for completing the audit,
the auditor must issue a written report
(the Audit Report) to UBS and the UBS
QPAM to which the audit applies that
describes the procedures performed by
the auditor during the course of its
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examination. The auditor, at its
discretion, may issue a single
consolidated Audit Report that covers
all the UBS QPAMs. The Audit Report
must include the auditor’s specific
determinations regarding:
(i) The adequacy of each UBS QPAM’s
Policies and Training; each UBS
QPAM’s compliance with the Policies
and Training; the need, if any, to
strengthen such Policies and Training;
and any instance of the respective UBS
QPAM’s noncompliance with the
written Policies and Training described
in Section I(h) above. The UBS QPAM
must promptly address any
noncompliance. The UBS QPAM must
promptly address or prepare a written
plan of action to address any
determination of inadequacy by the
auditor regarding the adequacy of the
Policies and Training and the auditor’s
recommendations (if any) with respect
to strengthening the Policies and
Training of the respective UBS QPAM.
Any action taken or the plan of action
to be taken by the respective UBS
QPAM must be included in an
addendum to the Audit Report (such
addendum must be completed prior to
the certification described in Section
I(i)(7) below). In the event such a plan
of action to address the auditor’s
recommendation regarding the
adequacy of the Policies and Training is
not completed by the time of
submission of the Audit Report, the
following period’s Audit Report must
state whether the plan was satisfactorily
completed. Any determination by the
auditor that the respective UBS QPAM
has implemented, maintained, and
followed sufficient Policies and
Training must not be based solely or in
substantial part on an absence of
evidence indicating noncompliance. In
this last regard, any finding that a UBS
QPAM has complied with the
requirements under this subparagraph
must be based on evidence that the
particular UBS QPAM has actually
implemented, maintained, and followed
the Policies and Training required by
this exemption. Furthermore, the
auditor must not solely rely on the
Annual Report created by the
compliance officer (the Compliance
Officer), as described in Section I(m)
below, as the basis for the auditor’s
conclusions in lieu of independent
determinations and testing performed
by the auditor as required by Section
I(i)(3) and (4) above; and
(ii) The adequacy of the Annual
Review described in Section I(m);
(6) The auditor must notify the
respective UBS QPAM of any instance
of noncompliance identified by the
auditor within five (5) business days
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18:59 Dec 28, 2017
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after such noncompliance is identified
by the auditor, regardless of whether the
audit has been completed as of that
date;
(7) With respect to each Audit Report,
the General Counsel, or one of the three
most senior executive officers of the
UBS QPAM to which the Audit Report
applies, must certify in writing, under
penalty of perjury, that the officer has
reviewed the Audit Report and this
exemption; that, such UBS QPAM has
addressed, corrected, remedied any
noncompliance and inadequacy or has
an appropriate written plan to address
any inadequacy regarding the Policies
and Training identified in the Audit
Report. Such certification must also
include the signatory’s determination,
that the Policies and Training in effect
at the time of signing are adequate to
ensure compliance with the conditions
of this exemption and with the
applicable provisions of ERISA and the
Code;
(8) The Risk Committee of UBS’s
Board of Directors is provided a copy of
each Audit Report; and a senior
executive officer of UBS’s Compliance
and Operational Risk Control function
must review the Audit Report for each
UBS QPAM and must certify in writing,
under penalty of perjury, that such
officer has reviewed each Audit Report;
(9) Each UBS QPAM provides its
certified Audit Report, by regular mail
to: Office of Exemption Determinations
(OED), 200 Constitution Avenue NW,
Suite 400, Washington, DC 20210; or by
private carrier to: 122 C Street NW,
Suite 400, Washington, DC 20001–2109.
This delivery must take place no later
than 30 days following completion of
the Audit Report. The Audit Report will
be made part of the public record
regarding this exemption. Furthermore,
each UBS QPAM must make its Audit
Report unconditionally available,
electronically or otherwise, for
examination upon request by any duly
authorized employee or representative
of the Department, other relevant
regulators, and any fiduciary of a
Covered Plan;
(10) Each UBS QPAM and the auditor
must submit to OED any engagement
agreement(s) entered into pursuant to
the engagement of the auditor under this
exemption. Further, each UBS QPAM
must submit to OED any engagement
entered into with any other person or
entity retained in connection with such
QPAM’s compliance with the Training
or Policies conditions of this exemption
no later than two (2) months after the
execution of any such engagement
agreement;
(11) The auditor must provide the
Department, upon request, for
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inspection and review, access to all the
workpapers created and utilized in the
course of the audit, provided such
access and inspection is otherwise
permitted by law; and
(12) UBS must notify the Department
of a change in the independent auditor
no later than two (2) months after the
engagement of a substitute or
subsequent auditor and must provide an
explanation for the substitution or
change including a description of any
material disputes between the
terminated auditor and UBS;
(j) As of January 10, 2018 and
throughout the Exemption Period, with
respect to any arrangement, agreement,
or contract between a UBS QPAM and
a Covered Plan, the UBS QPAM agrees
and warrants:
(1) To comply with ERISA and the
Code, as applicable with respect to such
Covered Plan; to refrain from engaging
in prohibited transactions that are not
otherwise exempt (and to promptly
correct any inadvertent prohibited
transactions); and to comply with the
standards of prudence and loyalty set
forth in section 404 of ERISA with
respect to each such ERISA-covered
plan and IRA to the extent that section
404 is applicable;
(2) Not to require (or otherwise cause)
the Covered Plan to waive, limit, or
qualify the liability of the UBS QPAM
for violating ERISA or the Code or
engaging in prohibited transactions;
(3) Not to restrict the ability of such
Covered Plan to terminate or withdraw
from its arrangement with the UBS
QPAM with respect to any investment
in a separately managed account or
pooled fund subject to ERISA and
managed by such QPAM, with the
exception of reasonable restrictions,
appropriately disclosed in advance, that
are specifically designed to ensure
equitable treatment of all investors in a
pooled fund in the event such
withdrawal or termination may have
adverse consequences for all other
investors. In connection with any such
arrangements involving investments in
pooled funds subject to ERISA entered
into after the effective date of this
exemption, the adverse consequences
must relate to of a lack of liquidity of
the underlying assets, valuation issues,
or regulatory reasons that prevent the
fund from promptly redeeming an
ERISA-covered plan’s or IRA’s
investment, and such restrictions must
be applicable to all such investors and
effective no longer than reasonably
necessary to avoid the adverse
consequences;
(4) Not to impose any fees, penalties,
or charges for such termination or
withdrawal with the exception of
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reasonable fees, appropriately disclosed
in advance, that are specifically
designed to prevent generally
recognized abusive investment practices
or specifically designed to ensure
equitable treatment of all investors in a
pooled fund in the event such
withdrawal or termination may have
adverse consequences for all other
investors, provided that such fees are
applied consistently and in like manner
to all such investors;
(5) Not to include exculpatory
provisions disclaiming or otherwise
limiting liability of the UBS QPAM for
a violation of such agreement’s terms.
To the extent consistent with Section
410 of ERISA, however, this provision
does not prohibit disclaimers for
liability caused by an error,
misrepresentation, or misconduct of a
plan fiduciary or other party hired by
the plan fiduciary who is independent
of UBS, and its affiliates, or damages
arising from acts outside the control of
the UBS QPAM; and
(6) To indemnify and hold harmless
the Covered Plan for any actual losses
resulting directly from a UBS QPAM’s
violation of ERISA’s fiduciary duties, as
applicable, and of the prohibited
transaction provisions of ERISA and the
Code, as applicable; a breach of contract
by the QPAM, or any claim arising out
of the failure of such UBS QPAM to
qualify for the exemptive relief provided
by PTE 84–14 as a result of a violation
of Section I(g) of PTE 84–14 other than
the Conviction. This condition applies
only to actual losses caused by the UBS
QPAM’s violations;
(7) By July 9, 2018, each UBS QPAM
must provide a notice of its obligations
under this Section I(j) to each Covered
Plan. For all other prospective Covered
Plans, the UBS QPAM will agree to its
obligations under this Section I(j) in an
updated investment management
agreement between the UBS QPAM and
such clients or other written contractual
agreement. This condition will be
deemed met for each Covered Plan that
received a notice pursuant to PTE 2016–
17 that meets the terms of this
condition. Notwithstanding the above, a
UBS QPAM will not violate the
condition solely because a Plan or IRA
refuses to sign an updated investment
management agreement.
(k) By March 10, 2018, each UBS
QPAM will provide a notice of the
exemption, along with a separate
summary describing the facts that led to
the Convictions (the Summary), which
have been submitted to the Department,
and a prominently displayed statement
(the Statement) that each Conviction
separately results in a failure to meet a
condition in PTE 84–14, to each sponsor
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and beneficial owner of a Covered Plan,
or the sponsor of an investment fund in
any case where a UBS QPAM acts as a
sub-advisor to the investment fund in
which such ERISA-covered plan and
IRA invests. Any prospective client for
which a UBS QPAM relies on PTE 84–
14 or has expressly represented that the
manager qualifies as a QPAM or relies
on the QPAM class exemption must
receive the proposed and final
exemptions with the Summary and the
Statement prior to, or
contemporaneously with, the client’s
receipt of a written asset management
agreement from the UBS QPAM.
Disclosures may be delivered
electronically;
(l) The UBS QPAMs must comply
with each condition of PTE 84–14, as
amended, with the sole exceptions of
the violations of Section I(g) of PTE 84–
14 that are attributable to the
Convictions;
(m)(1) By July 9, 2018, UBS designates
a senior compliance officer (the
Compliance Officer) who will be
responsible for compliance with the
Policies and Training requirements
described herein. The Compliance
Officer must conduct an annual review
for each period corresponding to the
audit periods set forth in Section I(i)(1)
(including the Initial Audit Period) (the
Annual Review) 73 to determine the
adequacy and effectiveness of the
implementation of the Policies and
Training. With respect to the
Compliance Officer, the following
conditions must be met:
(i) The Compliance Officer must be a
legal professional who has extensive
experience with, and knowledge of, the
regulation of financial services and
products, including under ERISA and
the Code; and
(ii) The Compliance Officer has a
dual-reporting line within UBS’s
Compliance and Operational Risk
Control (C&ORC) function: (A) A
divisional reporting line to the Head of
Compliance and Operational Risk
Control, Asset Management, and (B) a
regional reporting line to the Head of
Americas Compliance and Operational
Risk Control. The C&ORC function will
be organizationally independent of
UBS’s business divisions—including
Asset Management and the Investment
Bank—and is led by the Global Head of
C&ORC, who will report directly to
UBS’s Chief Risk Officer;
(2) With respect to each Annual
Review, the following conditions must
be met:
73 Note that such Annual Review must be
completed with respect to the annual periods
ending January 9, 2019; January 9, 2020; and
January 9, 2021.
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(i) The Annual Review includes a
review of: Any compliance matter
related to the Policies or Training that
was identified by, or reported to, the
Compliance Officer or others within the
C&ORC function during the previous
year; any material change in the relevant
business activities of the UBS QPAMs;
and any change to ERISA, the Code, or
regulations related to fiduciary duties
and the prohibited transaction
provisions that may be applicable to the
activities of the UBS QPAMs;
(ii) The Compliance Officer prepares
a written report for each Annual Review
(each, an Annual Report) that (A)
summarizes his or her material activities
during the preceding year; (B) sets forth
any instance of noncompliance
discovered during the preceding year,
and any related corrective action; (C)
details any change to the Policies or
Training to guard against any similar
instance of noncompliance occurring
again; and (D) makes recommendations,
as necessary, for additional training,
procedures, monitoring, or additional
and/or changed processes or systems,
and management’s actions on such
recommendations;
(iii) In each Annual Report, the
Compliance Officer must certify in
writing that to the best of his or her
knowledge at the time: (A) The report is
accurate; (B) the Policies and Training
are working in a manner which is
reasonably designed to ensure that the
Policies and Training requirements
described herein are met; (C) any known
instance of noncompliance during the
preceding year and any related
correction taken to date have been
identified in the Annual Report; and (D)
the UBS QPAMs have complied with
the Policies and Training, and/or
corrected (or are correcting) any known
instances of noncompliance in
accordance with Section I(h) above;
(iv) Each Annual Report must be
provided to appropriate corporate
officers of UBS and each UBS QPAM to
which such report relates; the head of
Compliance and the General Counsel (or
their functional equivalent) of the
relevant UBS QPAM; and must be made
unconditionally available to the
independent auditor described in
Section I(i) above;
(v) Each Annual Review, including
the Compliance Officer’s written
Annual Report, must be completed
within at least three (3) months
following the end of the period to which
it relates;
(n) UBS imposes its internal
procedures, controls, and protocols on
UBS Securities Japan to: (1) Reduce the
likelihood of any recurrence of conduct
that that is the subject of the 2013
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Conviction, and (2) comply in all
material respects with the Business
Improvement Order, dated December
16, 2011, issued by the Japanese
Financial Services Authority;
(o) UBS complies in all material
respects with the audit and monitoring
procedures imposed on UBS by the U.S.
Commodity Futures Trading
Commission Order, dated December 19,
2012;
(p) Each UBS QPAM will maintain
records necessary to demonstrate that
the conditions of this exemption have
been met, for six (6) years following the
date of any transaction for which such
UBS QPAM relies upon the relief in the
exemption;
(q) During the Exemption Period,
UBS: (1) Immediately discloses to the
Department any Deferred Prosecution
Agreement (a DPA) or Non-Prosecution
Agreement (an NPA) with the U.S.
Department of Justice, entered into by
UBS or any of its affiliates (as defined
in Section VI(d) of PTE 84–14) in
connection with conduct described in
Section I(g) of PTE 84–14 or section 411
of ERISA; and (2) immediately provides
the Department any information
requested by the Department, as
permitted by law, regarding the
agreement and/or conduct and
allegations that led to the agreement;
(r) By July 09, 2018, each UBS QPAM,
in its agreements with, or in other
written disclosures provided to Covered
Plans, will clearly and prominently
inform Covered Plan clients of their
right to obtain a copy of the Policies or
a description (Summary Policies) which
accurately summarizes key components
of the UBS QPAM’s written Policies
developed in connection with this
exemption. If the Policies are thereafter
changed, each Covered Plan client must
receive a new disclosure within six (6)
months following the end of the
calendar year during which the Policies
were changed.74 With respect to this
requirement, the description may be
continuously maintained on a website,
provided that such website link to the
Policies or Summary Policies is clearly
and prominently disclosed to each
Covered Plan; and
(s) A UBS QPAM will not fail to meet
the terms of this exemption, solely
because a different UBS QPAM fails to
satisfy a condition for relief described in
Sections I(c), (d), (h), (i), (j), (k), (l), (p),
and (r); or if the independent auditor
described in Section I(i) fails a provision
74 In the event Applicant meets this disclosure
requirement through Summary Policies, changes to
the Policies shall not result in the requirement for
a new disclosure unless, as a result of changes to
the Policies, the Summary Policies are no longer
accurate.
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18:59 Dec 28, 2017
Jkt 244001
of the exemption other than the
requirement described in Section
I(i)(11), provided that such failure did
not result from any actions or inactions
of UBS or its affiliates.
Section II: Definitions
(a) The term ‘‘Convictions’’ means the
2013 Conviction and the 2017
Conviction. The term ‘‘2013
Conviction’’ means the judgment of
conviction against UBS Securities Japan
Co. Ltd. in case number 3:12–cr–00268–
RNC in the U.S. District Court for the
District of Connecticut for one count of
wire fraud in violation of Title 18,
United States Code, sections 1343 and 2
in connection with submission of YEN
London Interbank Offered Rates and
other benchmark interest rates. The term
‘‘2017 Conviction’’ means the judgment
of conviction against UBS, AG in case
number 3:15–cr–00076–RNC in the U.S.
District Court for the District of
Connecticut for one count of wire fraud
in violation of Title 18, United States
Code, Sections 1343 and 2 in
connection with UBS’s submission of
Yen London Interbank Offered Rates
and other benchmark interest rates
between 2001 and 2010. For all
purposes under this exemption,
‘‘conduct’’ of any person or entity that
is the ‘‘subject of the Convictions’’
encompasses any conduct of UBS and/
or their personnel, that is described in
(i) Exhibit 3 to the Plea Agreement
entered into between UBS, AG and the
Department of Justice Criminal Division,
on May 20, 2015, in connection with
case number 3:15–cr–00076–RNC, and
(ii) Exhibits 3 and 4 to the Plea
Agreement entered into between UBS
Securities Japan and the Department of
Justice Criminal Division, on December
19, 2012, in connection with case
number 3:12–cr–00268–RNC;
(b) The term ‘‘Covered Plan’’ means
an ERISA-covered plan or an IRA with
respect to which a UBS QPAM relies on
PTE 84–14, or with respect to which a
UBS QPAM (or any UBS affiliate) has
expressly represented that the manager
qualifies as a QPAM or relies on the
QPAM class exemption, but not with
respect to any arrangement, agreement,
or contract between a UBS QPAM and
an ERISA-covered plan or IRA with
respect to which the UBS QPAM has
expressly disclaimed reliance on the
QPAM status or PTE 84–14 in entering
into its contract with the ERISA covered
plan or IRA.
(c) The terms ‘‘ERISA-covered plan’’
and ‘‘IRA’’ mean, respectively, a plan
subject to Part 4 of Title I of ERISA and
a plan subject to section 4975 of the
Code.
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Frm 00106
Fmt 4701
Sfmt 4703
(d) The term ‘‘Exemption Period’’
means January 10, 2018, through
January 9, 2021;
(e) The term ‘‘FX Misconduct’’ means
the conduct engaged in by UBS
personnel described in Exhibit 1 of the
Plea Agreement (Factual Basis for
Breach) entered into between UBS, AG
and the Department of Justice Criminal
Division, on May 20, 2015 in connection
with Case Number 3:15–cr–00076–RNC
filed in the US District Court for the
District of Connecticut.
(f) The term ‘‘Plea Agreement’’ means
the Plea Agreement (including Exhibits
1 and 3 attached thereto) entered into
between UBS, AG and the Department
of Justice Criminal Division, on May 20,
2015 in connection with Case Number
3:15-cr-00076–RNC filed in the US
District Court for the District of
Connecticut.
(g) The term ‘‘UBS’’ means UBS, AG.
(h) The term ‘‘UBS QPAM’’ means
UBS Asset Management (Americas) Inc.,
UBS Realty Investors LLC, UBS Hedge
Fund Solutions LLC, UBS O’Connor
LLC, and any future entity within the
Asset Management or the Wealth
Management Americas divisions of
UBS, AG that qualifies as a ‘‘qualified
professional asset manager’’ (as defined
in Section VI(a) 75 of PTE 84–14) and
that relies on the relief provided by PTE
84–14 or represents to ERISA-covered
plans and IRAs that it qualifies as a
QPAM and with respect to which UBS,
AG is an ‘‘affiliate’’ (as defined in Part
VI(d) of PTE 84–14). The term ‘‘UBS
QPAM’’ excludes UBS, AG and UBS
Securities Japan.
(i) The term ‘‘UBS Securities Japan’’
means UBS Securities Japan Co. Ltd, a
wholly-owned subsidiary of UBS
incorporated under the laws of Japan.
Effective Date
This exemption is effective January
10, 2018, and the term of the exemption
is from January 10, 2018, through
January 9, 2021 (the Exemption Period).
Department’s Comment: The
Department cautions that the relief in
this exemption will terminate
immediately if, among other things, an
entity within the UBS corporate
structure is convicted of a crime
described in Section I(g) of PTE 84–14
(other than the Convictions) during the
Exemption Period. Although UBS could
apply for a new exemption in that
75 In general terms, a QPAM is an independent
fiduciary that is a bank, savings and loan
association, insurance company, or investment
adviser that meets certain equity or net worth
requirements and other licensure requirements and
that has acknowledged in a written management
agreement that it is a fiduciary with respect to each
plan that has retained the QPAM.
E:\FR\FM\29DEN2.SGM
29DEN2
Federal Register / Vol. 82, No. 249 / Friday, December 29, 2017 / Notices
circumstance, the Department would
not be obligated to grant the exemption.
The terms of this exemption have been
specifically designed to permit plans to
terminate their relationships in an
orderly and cost effective fashion in the
event of an additional conviction or a
determination that it is otherwise
prudent for a plan to terminate its
relationship with an entity covered by
the exemption.
Further Information
For more information on this
exemption, contact Brian Mica,
telephone (202) 693–8402, Office of
Exemption Determinations, Employee
Benefits Security Administration, U.S.
Department of Labor (this is not a tollfree number).
General Information
ethrower on DSK3G9T082PROD with NOTICES
The attention of interested persons is
directed to the following:
VerDate Sep<11>2014
18:59 Dec 28, 2017
Jkt 244001
(1) The fact that a transaction is the
subject of an exemption under section
408(a) of the Act and/or section
4975(c)(2) of the Code does not relieve
a fiduciary or other party in interest or
disqualified person from certain other
provisions to which the exemption does
not apply and the general fiduciary
responsibility provisions of section 404
of the Act, which among other things
require a fiduciary to discharge his
duties respecting the plan solely in the
interest of the participants and
beneficiaries of the plan and in a
prudent fashion in accordance with
section 404(a)(1)(B) of the Act; nor does
it affect the requirement of section
401(a) of the Code that the plan must
operate for the exclusive benefit of the
employees of the employer maintaining
the plan and their beneficiaries;
(2) These exemptions are
supplemental to and not in derogation
of, any other provisions of the Act and/
PO 00000
Frm 00107
Fmt 4701
Sfmt 9990
61921
or the Code, including statutory or
administrative exemptions and
transactional rules. Furthermore, the
fact that a transaction is subject to an
administrative or statutory exemption is
not dispositive of whether the
transaction is in fact a prohibited
transaction; and
(3) The availability of these
exemptions is subject to the express
condition that the material facts and
representations contained in the
application accurately describes all
material terms of the transaction which
is the subject of the exemption.
Signed at Washington, DC, this 21st day of
December, 2017.
Lyssa E. Hall,
Director of Exemption Determinations,
Employee Benefits Security Administration,
U.S. Department of Labor.
[FR Doc. 2017–27977 Filed 12–28–17; 8:45 am]
BILLING CODE 4510–29–P
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Agencies
[Federal Register Volume 82, Number 249 (Friday, December 29, 2017)]
[Notices]
[Pages 61816-61921]
From the Federal Register Online via the Government Publishing Office [www.gpo.gov]
[FR Doc No: 2017-27977]
[[Page 61815]]
Vol. 82
Friday,
No. 249
December 29, 2017
Part II
Department of Labor
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Employee Benefits Security Administration
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Exemptions from Certain Prohibited Transaction Restrictions; Notice
Federal Register / Vol. 82 , No. 249 / Friday, December 29, 2017 /
Notices
[[Page 61816]]
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DEPARTMENT OF LABOR
Employee Benefits Security Administration
Exemptions from Certain Prohibited Transaction Restrictions
AGENCY: Employee Benefits Security Administration, Labor.
ACTION: Grant of individual exemptions.
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SUMMARY: This document contains exemptions issued by the Department of
Labor (the Department) from certain of the prohibited transaction
restrictions of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974
(ERISA or the Act) and/or the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 (the Code).
This notice includes the following: 2017-03, JPMorgan Chase & Co., D-
11906; 2017-04, Deutsche Investment Management Americas Inc. (DIMA) and
Certain Current and Future Asset Management Affiliates of Deutsche Bank
AG, D-11908; 2017-05, Citigroup Inc., D-11909; 2017-06, Barclays
Capital Inc., D-11910; 2017-07, UBS Assets Management (Americas) Inc.;
UBS Realty Investors LLC; UBS Hedge Fund Solutions LLC; UBS O'Connor
LLC; and Certain Future Affiliates in UBS's Asset Management and Wealth
Management Americas Divisions, D-11907.
SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION: A notice was published in the Federal
Register of the pendency before the Department of a proposal to grant
such exemption. The notice set forth a summary of facts and
representations contained in the application for exemption and referred
interested persons to the application for a complete statement of the
facts and representations. The application has been available for
public inspection at the Department in Washington, DC. The notice also
invited interested persons to submit comments on the requested
exemption to the Department. In addition the notice stated that any
interested person might submit a written request that a public hearing
be held (where appropriate). The applicant has represented that it has
complied with the requirements of the notification to interested
persons. One request for a hearing was received by the Department.
Public comments were received by the Department as described in the
granted exemption.
The notice of proposed exemption was issued and the exemption is
being granted solely by the Department because, effective December 31,
1978, section 102 of Reorganization Plan No. 4 of 1978, 5 U.S.C. App. 1
(1996), transferred the authority of the Secretary of the Treasury to
issue exemptions of the type proposed to the Secretary of Labor.
Statutory Findings
In accordance with section 408(a) of the Act and/or section
4975(c)(2) of the Code and the procedures set forth in 29 CFR part
2570, subpart B (76 FR 66637, 66644, October 27, 2011) \1\ and based
upon the entire record, the Department makes the following findings:
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\1\ The Department has considered exemption applications
received prior to December 27, 2011 under the exemption procedures
set forth in 29 CFR part 2570, subpart B (55 FR 32836, 32847, August
10, 1990).
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
(a) The exemption is administratively feasible;
(b) The exemption is in the interests of the plan and its
participants and beneficiaries; and
(c) The exemption is protective of the rights of the participants
and beneficiaries of the plan.
JPMorgan Chase Co. (JPMC or the Applicant) Located in New York, New
York
[Prohibited Transaction Exemption 2017-03; Exemption Application No. D-
11906]
Discussion
On November 21, 2016, the Department of Labor (the Department)
published a notice of proposed exemption in the Federal Register at 81
FR 83372, for certain entities with specified relationships to JPMC to
continue to rely upon the relief provided by PTE 84-14 for a period of
five years,\2\ notwithstanding JPMC's criminal conviction, as described
herein. The Department is granting this exemption in order to ensure
that Covered Plans \3\ whose assets are managed by a JPMC Affiliated
QPAM or JPMC Related QPAM may continue to benefit from the relief
provided by PTE 84-14. The exemption is effective from January 10, 2018
through January 9, 2023 (the Exemption Period).
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\2\ 49 FR 9494 (March 13, 1984), as corrected at 50 FR 41430
(October 10, 1985), as amended at 70 FR 49305 (August 23, 2005) and
as amended at 75 FR 38837 (July 6, 2010), hereinafter referred to as
PTE 84-14 or the QPAM exemption.
\3\ The term ``Covered Plan'' is a plan subject to Part 4 of
Title 1 of ERISA (``ERISA-covered plan'') or a plan subject to
Section 4975 of the Code (``IRA'') with respect to which a JPMC
Affiliated QPAM relies on PTE 84-14, or with respect to which a JPMC
Affiliated QPAM (or any JPMC affiliate) has expressly represented
that the manager qualifies as a QPAM or relies on the QPAM class
exemption (PTE 84-14). A Covered Plan does not include an ERISA-
covered Plan or IRA to the extent the JPMC Affiliated QPAM has
expressly disclaimed reliance on QPAM status or PTE 84-14 in
entering into its contract, arrangement, or agreement with the
ERISA-covered plan or IRA. See further discussion in this Preamble
under the heading Comment 8--Policies and Procedures Relating to
Compliance with ERISA and the Code--Section I(h)(1)(ii)-(v).
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No relief from a violation of any other law is provided by this
exemption, including any criminal conviction described in the proposed
exemption. Furthermore, the Department cautions that the relief in this
exemption will terminate immediately if, among other things, an entity
within the JPMC corporate structure is convicted of a crime described
in Section I(g) of PTE 84-14 (other than the Conviction) during the
Exemption Period. The terms of this exemption have been specifically
designed to promote conduct that adheres to basic fiduciary standards
under ERISA and the Code. The exemption also aims to ensure that plans
and IRAs can terminate relationships in an orderly and cost effective
fashion in the event a plan or IRA fiduciary determines it is prudent
for the plan or IRA to sever its relationship with an entity covered by
the exemption.
Written Comments
The Department invited all interested persons to submit written
comments and/or requests for a public hearing with respect to the
notice of proposed exemption, published in the Federal Register at 81
FR 83372 on November 21, 2016. All comments and requests for a hearing
were due by January 20, 2017.\4\ The Department received written
comments from the Applicant, members of the U.S. Congress, and a number
of plan and IRA clients of JPMC. After considering these submissions,
the Department has determined to grant the exemption, with revisions,
as described below.
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
\4\ The Department received additional comments from Applicant
after the close of the comment period.
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
Comment 1--Term of the Exemption
The Applicant requests that the Department extend the term of the
exemption from five years to nine years from the Conviction Date. The
Applicant states that the five year term is inconsistent with precedent
and ``appears punitive.'' The Applicant further states that
``exemptions should reflect the underlying facts that necessitated the
exemption [and] [h]ere, those facts are as follows: JPMC was convicted
of a single crime, based solely on the misconduct of a single
individual who was not employed by the Applicant's asset management
businesses and who has been terminated by a firm that has dedicated and
continues to dedicate significant resources to enhancing the relevant
[[Page 61817]]
controls to prevent future instances of similar misconduct.'' The
Applicant states that ``the exemption imposes additional and burdensome
requirements on the asset management businesses of the applicant-
businesses entirely uninvolved with the criminal conduct.''
Although the Applicant characterizes the conduct as involving the
isolated actions of one individual, the Department does not agree with
the apparent suggestion that the Applicant bears little or no
responsibility for the criminal conduct. For example, JPMC's Plea
Agreement contains the following statement, under the heading Other
Relevant Conduct: ``the defendant [JPMC], through its currency traders
and sales staff, also engaged in other currency trading and sales
practices in conducting FX Spot Market transactions with customers via
telephone, email, and/or electronic chat, to wit: (i) Intentionally
working customers' limit orders one or more levels, or `pips,' away
from the price confirmed with the customer; (ii) including sales
markups, through the use of live hand signals or undisclosed prior
internal arrangements or communications, to prices given to customers
that communicated with sales staff on open phone lines; (iii) accepting
limit orders from customers and then informing those customers that
their orders could not be filled, in whole or in part, when in fact the
defendant was able to fill the order but decided not to do so because
the defendant expected it would be more profitable not to do so; and
(iv) disclosing non-public information regarding the identity and
trading activity of the defendant's customers to other banks or other
market participants, in order to generate revenue for the defendant at
the expense of its customers.''
In developing this exemption, the Department also considered
statements made by other regulators. The Financial Conduct Authority's
(FCA) Final Notice states: ``[d]uring the Relevant Period, JPMorgan did
not exercise adequate and effective control over its G10 spot FX
trading business. . . . The front office failed adequately to discharge
these responsibilities with regard to obvious risks associated with
confidentiality, conflicts of interest and trading conduct.'' The
Notice further states: ``These failings occurred in circumstances where
certain of those responsible for managing front office matters were
aware of and/or at times involved in behaviors described above.''
By way of further example, the Consent Order of the Office of the
Comptroller of the Currency (OCC) states: ``[t]he OCC's examination
findings established that the Bank [the Applicant's Corporate and
Investment Banking line of business] had deficiencies in its internal
controls and had engaged in unsafe or unsound banking practices with
respect to the oversight and governance of the Bank's FX trading
business such that the Bank failed to detect and prevent the conduct
set forth in paragraph twelve (12). The deficiencies and unsafe or
unsound practices include the following: (a) The Bank's oversight and
governance of its FX trading business were weak and lacked adequate
formal guidance to mitigate and manage risks related to market conduct
in FX Trading with respect to sales, trading and supervisory employees
in that business . . . .''
The Department also notes the size of relevant fines imposed by
various regulators: The Department of Justice imposed a $550 million
fine; The Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve Board imposed a
$342 million fine; and the OCC, the Commodity Futures Trading
Commission, and the FCA imposed fines of $350 million, $310 million,
and [pound]222,166,000, respectively.
This exemption is not punitive; instead, its five-year term and
protective conditions reflect the Department's intent to protect
Covered Plans that entrust substantial assets to a JPMC Affiliated
QPAM, despite the serious misconduct and supervisory failures described
above. The limited term of this exemption gives the Department the
opportunity to review the adherence by the JPMC Affiliated QPAMs to the
conditions set out herein. If the Applicant seeks an extension of this
exemption, the Department will examine whether the compliance and
oversight changes mandated by various regulatory authorities are having
the desired effect on JPMC entities.
The relationship between the JPMC Affiliated QPAMs and the
Applicant's Corporate and Investment Banking line of business (CIB) is
substantial. The Applicant states, ``As of the date of the Applicant's
application, JPMC Affiliated QPAMs managed approximately $100 billion
in plan assets through collective investment trusts that use the
custody and administration services of the Applicant's Corporate and
Investment Banking line of business (CIB), operating through the Bank.
Similarly, certain plans managed by JPMC Affiliated QPAMs through
separate accounts have independently selected CIB (operating through
the Bank) as their trustee and/or custodian, and transactions directed
by JPMC Affiliated QPAMs on behalf of such plans would necessarily
require the trustee/custodian to provide services for a direct or
indirect fee.'' The Applicant also states, ``Because of all of the
services CIB necessarily provides to client accounts, the wording of
this proposed exemption [that excludes the business line from providing
services to funds managed by the Affiliated QPAMs] is tantamount to a
denial.''
Notwithstanding the above, as noted below, the Department has
determined to revise this exemption to permit CIB to continue to
provide services to funds managed by JPMC Affiliated QPAMs, based on
the Department's determination that the conditions set forth herein are
sufficiently protective of the Covered Plans, and given the type of
transactions covered by this exemption and the Applicant's
representations regarding the types of services provided by CIB. The
Department notes that the JPMC Affiliated QPAMs' substantial and
substantive dependency on the JPMC CIB when managing plan and IRA
assets also supports the Department's conclusion that the conditions of
the exemption are necessary and appropriate.
Comment 2--Description of Criminal Conduct--Section I
The prefatory language to Section I of the proposed exemption
provides, ``If the proposed five-year exemption is granted, certain
asset managers with specified relationships to JPMC (the JPMC
Affiliated QPAMs and the JPMC Related QPAMs, as defined further in
Sections II(a) and II(b), respectively) will not be precluded from
relying on the exemptive relief provided by Prohibited Transaction
Class Exemption 84-14 (PTE 84-14 or the QPAM Exemption),
notwithstanding the judgment of conviction against JPMC (the
Conviction), as defined in Section II(e)), for engaging in a conspiracy
to: (1) fix the price of, or (2) eliminate competition in the purchase
or sale of the Euro/U.S. dollar currency pair exchanged in the Foreign
Exchange (FX) Spot Market, for a period of five years beginning on the
date the exemption is granted.''
The Applicant requests that the description of the charged
conduct--the clause beginning ``for engaging in a conspiracy''--be
omitted. The Applicant states that this description is inaccurate and
incomplete, will lead to disputes with counterparties to the detriment
of plans, and will make it unlikely that plans will benefit from or be
protected by this exemption.
After consideration of the Applicant's comment, the Department has
revised the exemption in the manner requested by the Applicant.
[[Page 61818]]
Comment 3--Knowing or Tacit Approval--Sections I(a) and I(c)
Section I(a) of the proposed five-year exemption provides, ``(a)
Other than a single individual who worked for a non-fiduciary business
within JPMorgan Chase Bank and who had no responsibility for, and
exercised no authority in connection with, the management of plan
assets, the JPMC Affiliated QPAMs and the JPMC Related QPAMs (including
their officers, directors, agents other than JPMC, and employees of
such QPAMs who had responsibility for, or exercised authority in
connection with the management of plan assets) did not know of, did not
have reason to know of, or participate in the criminal conduct that is
the subject of the Conviction. For purposes of this paragraph (a),
`participate in' includes the knowing or tacit approval of the
misconduct underlying the Conviction;''
Section I(c) of the proposed exemption provides, ``(c) The JPMC
Affiliated QPAMs will not employ or knowingly engage any of the
individuals that participated in the criminal conduct that is the
subject of the Conviction. For the purposes of this paragraph (c),
`participated in' includes the knowing or tacit approval of the
misconduct underlying Conviction;''
The Applicant requests that the words ``or tacit'' in the phrase
``knowing or tacit approval'' be deleted in Sections I(a) and I(c). The
Applicant states that the term tacit approval ``is undefined and
ambiguous, and potentially encompasses a broad range of conduct that
could become the subject of disputes with counterparties.''
After consideration of the Applicant's comment, the Department has
revised the condition in the manner requested by the Applicant.
Comment 4--Receipt of Compensation--Section I(b)
Section I(b) of the proposed five-year exemption provides, ``(b)
Other than a single individual who worked for a non-fiduciary business
within JPMorgan Chase Bank and who had no responsibility for, and
exercised no authority in connection with, the management of plan
assets, the JPMC Affiliated QPAMs and the JPMC Related QPAMs (including
their officers, directors, and agents other than JPMC, and employees of
such JPMC QPAMs) did not receive direct compensation, or knowingly
receive indirect compensation in connection with the criminal conduct
that is the subject of the Conviction.''
The Applicant states that Section I(b) is not practically workable
because an individual can receive compensation only if the entity he or
she works for receives funds. The Applicant requests that this
condition be modified to reflect that, although undefinable, a non-
fiduciary business within JPMorgan Chase Bank may have indirectly
received funds in connection with the criminal conduct that is the
subject of the Conviction. The Applicant requests that the Department
modify this condition as follows:
The JPMC Affiliated QPAMs and the JPMC Related QPAMs (including
their officers, directors, and agents other than JPMC, and employees of
such JPMC QPAMs who had responsibility for, or exercised authority in
connection with the management of plan assets) did not receive direct
compensation, or knowingly receive indirect compensation, in connection
with the criminal conduct that is the subject of the Conviction, other
than a non-fiduciary line of business within JPMorgan Chase Bank.
The Department has revised the condition in the manner requested by
the Applicant. As revised, the condition precludes relief if any asset
management personnel of JPMC received direct compensation, or knowingly
received indirect compensation, in connection with the criminal conduct
that is the subject of the Conviction.
Comment 5--Inclusion of ``Investment Banking Division of JPMorgan Chase
Bank''--Sections I(d), I(g), and I(h)(1)(i)
Section I(d)of the proposed five-year exemption provides, ``(d) A
JPMC Affiliated QPAM will not use its authority or influence to direct
an 'investment fund' (as defined in Section VI(b) of PTE 84-14), that
is subject to ERISA or the Code and managed by such JPMC Affiliated
QPAM, to enter into any transaction with JPMC or the Investment Banking
Division of JPMorgan Chase Bank, or engage JPMC or the Investment
Banking Division of JPMorgan Chase Bank to provide any service to such
investment fund, for a direct or indirect fee borne by such investment
fund, regardless of whether such transaction or service may otherwise
be within the scope of relief provided by an administrative or
statutory exemption; ''
Section I(g)of the proposed five-year exemption provides, ``(g)
JPMC and the Investment Banking Division of JPMorgan Chase Bank will
not provide discretionary asset management services to ERISA-covered
plans or IRAs, and will not otherwise act as a fiduciary with respect
to ERISA-covered plan or IRA assets; ''
Section I(h)(1)(i) of the proposed five-year exemption provides,
``(h)(1)(i) The asset management decisions of the JPMC Affiliated QPAM
are conducted independently of JPMC's management and business
activities, including the corporate management and business activities
of the Investment Banking Division of JPMorgan Chase Bank; ''
The Applicant requests that these sections be revised to allow the
Investment Banking Division of JPMorgan Chase Bank to provide services,
including the following services, to investment funds managed by the
JPMC Affiliated QPAMs: Safekeeping; settlement; administration; full
service class action filing service; overdraft protection; sweep and
deposit services; portfolio accounting and reporting services; payment
processing services; and foreign custodial services. The Applicant
states that not allowing the Investment Banking Division of JPMorgan
Chase Bank to provide, or to continue to provide, these services would
be harmful to more than a thousand plans.
After considering the Applicant's comment, the Department has
revised the exemption in the manner requested by the Applicant such
that the condition does not apply to the Investment Banking Division of
JPMorgan Chase Bank. In addition, the Department has clarified that
Section I(d) applies to an ``investment fund'' that is subject to ERISA
or the Code and managed by such JPMC Affiliated QPAM with respect to
Covered Plans. Finally, as requested by the Applicant, Section I(g) has
been modified to clarify that JPMC will not violate this condition in
the event that it inadvertently becomes an investment advice fiduciary
and that JPMC can act as a fiduciary for plans that it sponsors for its
own employees or employees of an affiliate.
Comment 6--Exercising Authority Over Plan Assets--Section I(f)
Section I(f)of the proposed five-year exemption provides, ``(f) A
JPMC Affiliated QPAM or a JPMC Related QPAM did not exercise authority
over the assets of any plan subject to Part 4 of Title I of ERISA (an
ERISA-covered plan) or section 4975 of the Code (an IRA) in a manner
that it knew or should have known would: Further the criminal conduct
that is the subject of the Conviction; or cause the JPMC QPAM or its
affiliates or related parties to directly or indirectly profit from the
criminal conduct that is the subject of the Conviction.''
The Applicant requests that Section I(f) be deleted, stating that
it is duplicative of Section I(b), ambiguous,
[[Page 61819]]
and not administrable or in the interests of plans. The Applicant
states that the first clause of the condition does not differ in any
material way from the very first and most basic condition of the
exemption: That the asset management businesses of the Affiliated QPAMs
did not know of or participate in the conduct that is the subject of
the Conviction. The Applicant also states that the second clause of the
condition which states, ``or cause the JPMC QPAM or its affiliates or
related parties to directly or indirectly profit from the criminal
conduct,'' is confusing and repetitive of the condition in section
I(b).
The Department declines to make the Applicant's requested
revisions. The Department does not view Condition I(f) (which relates
to exercising authority) as ambiguous or duplicative of Section I(b)
(which relates to compensation). Further, Condition I(f) is consistent
with the Applicant's prior representation that, ``other than a single
individual who worked for a nonfiduciary business within JPMorgan Chase
Bank and who had no responsibility for, and exercised no authority in
connection with, the management of plan assets, the Affiliated QPAMs
did not participate in the Conduct and (ii) no current or former
employee of JPMC or of any Affiliated QPAM who previously has been or
who subsequently may be identified by JPMC, or any U.S. or non-U.S.
regulatory or enforcement agencies, as having been responsible for the
Conduct will have any involvement in providing asset management
services to plans and IRAs or will be an officer, director, or employee
of the Applicant or of any Affiliated QPAM.'' However, for clarity, the
Department has deleted the term ``related parties.'' \5\
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\5\ See JPMC Exemption Application (May 20, 2015) at page 11.
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Comment 7--Time to Implement Policies and Training--Section I(h)(1)-(2)
Section I(h) of the proposed five-year exemption provides, ``(h)(1)
Within four (4) months of the Conviction, each JPMC Affiliated QPAM
must develop, implement, maintain, and follow written policies and
procedures (the Policies). . . (2) Within four (4) months of the date
of the Conviction, each JPMC Affiliated QPAM must develop and implement
a program of training (the Training), conducted at least annually, for
all relevant JPMC Affiliated QPAM asset/portfolio management, trading,
legal, compliance, and internal audit personnel . . .''
The Applicant requests that the Department increase the development
period associated with the Policies and Training Requirement (the
Development Period) from four (4) months to six (6) months. The
Applicant also seeks confirmation that, following the Development
Period, it will have twelve (12) months to complete the Training for
all relevant employees, and that it must do so again in every
succeeding twelve (12) month period. In support of this request, the
Applicant represents that JPMC Affiliated QPAMs manage assets for
hundreds of ERISA-covered plans, through separate accounts; over a
thousand plans, through collective investment trusts; and more than
160,000 IRAs, through various lines of business. The Applicant states
that it may take up to six (6) months for all of these asset management
staffs to satisfy the conditions set out in subparagraph(h) and then an
additional twelve (12) months to accomplish all of the training. The
Applicant further requests that Section I(h) be streamlined to match
the requirements of PTE 2016-15.
The Department emphasizes that the JPMC QPAMs must comply with the
Policies and Training requirements within both PTE 2016-15 and this
exemption. To this end, the Department has revised the policies and
training requirements of Section I(h) to conform with PTE 2016-15. The
two exemptions now follow this timeline: (i) Each JPMC Affiliated QPAM
must have developed the Policies and Training required by PTE 2016-15
by July 9, 2017; (ii) the first annual Training under PTE 2016-15 must
be completed by July 9, 2018; (iii) each JPMC Affiliated QPAM must
develop the Policies and Training required by this exemption, as
necessary, by July 9, 2018; and (iv) the first Training under this
exemption must be completed by July 9, 2019. By the end of this 30-
month period, asset/portfolio management, trading, legal, compliance,
and internal audit personnel who were employed from the start to the
end of the period must have been trained twice.
Comment 8--Policies and Procedures Relating to Compliance With ERISA
and the Code--Section I(h)(1)(ii)-(v)
Section I(h)(1)(ii)-(v) of the proposed five-year exemption
provides,``(h)(1) Within four (4) months of the Conviction, each JPMC
Affiliated QPAM must develop, implement, maintain, and follow written
policies and procedures (the Policies) requiring and reasonably
designed to ensure that:
. . . (ii) The JPMC Affiliated QPAM fully complies with ERISA's
fiduciary duties, and with ERISA and the Code's prohibited transaction
provisions, and does not knowingly participate in any violation of
these duties and provisions with respect to ERISA-covered plans and
IRAs;
(iii) The JPMC Affiliated QPAM does not knowingly participate in
any other person's violation of ERISA or the Code with respect to
ERISA-covered plans and IRAs;
(iv) Any filings or statements made by the JPMC Affiliated QPAM to
regulators including, but not limited to, the Department, the
Department of the Treasury, the Department of Justice, and the Pension
Benefit Guaranty Corporation, on behalf of ERISA-covered plans or IRAs,
are materially accurate and complete, to the best of such QPAM's
knowledge at that time; [and]
(v) The JPMC Affiliated QPAM does not make material
misrepresentations or omit material information in its communications
with such regulators with respect to ERISA-covered plans or IRAs, or
make material misrepresentations or omit material information in its
communications with ERISA-covered plans and IRA clients.''
The Applicant requests that these subparagraphs be stricken as
duplicative and already mandated by statute. The Applicant states that
these conditions could be read to apply the fiduciary duties of ERISA
to IRAs, which it claims would be overly broad, punitive, and not
rationally related to asset management under the exemption. In the
event the Department declines to strike the above subsections, the
Applicant requests the following revisions to subsections (ii)-(v):
Subsection (ii): The Applicant requests that JPMC Affiliated QPAMs
be required to comply with ERISA's fiduciary duties, ``with respect to
ERISA-covered plans managed in reliance on PTE 84-14,'' and with ERISA
and the Code's prohibited transaction provisions, ``as applicable, with
respect to ERISA-covered plans and IRAs managed in reliance on PTE 84-
14.''
Subsection (iii): The Applicant requests the removal of ``or the
Code,'' and ``IRAs.'' With the Applicant's requested revision,
subsection (iii) would read, ``The JPMC Affiliated QPAM does not
knowingly participate in any other person's violation of ERISA with
respect to ERISA-covered plans.''
Subsection (iv): The Applicant requests that the phrase, ``on
behalf of ERISA-covered plans or IRAs,'' be changed to, ``on behalf of
ERISA-covered plans or IRAs for which a JPMC Affiliated QPAM provides
asset
[[Page 61820]]
management or other discretionary fiduciary services in reliance on PTE
84-14.''
Subsection (v): The Applicant requests that the subparagraph be
revised to, ``(v) The JPMC Affiliated QPAM does not intentionally make
material misrepresentations or omit material information, to the best
of such QPAM's knowledge at that time, in its communications with
ERISA-covered plans and IRA clients, the assets of which are managed by
such JPMC Affiliated QPAM in reliance on PTE 84-14.''
In response to the Applicant's comments, the Department has
modified the Policies' requirement of adherence to the fiduciary and
prohibited transaction provisions of ERISA and the Code so that the
Policies expressly focus on the provisions only to the extent
``applicable'' under ERISA and the Code. In general, however, the
Department has otherwise retained the stringency and breadth of the
Policies requirement, which is more than justified by the compliance
and oversight failures exhibited by JPMC throughout the long period of
time during which the criminal misconduct persisted.
The specific elements of the Policies requirement as set forth in
this exemption are essential to its protective purposes. In approving
this exemption, the Department significantly relies upon conditions
designed to ensure that those relying upon its terms for prohibited
transaction relief will adopt a culture of compliance centered on basic
fiduciary norms and standards of fair dealing, as reflected in the
Policies. These standards are core protections of this exemption.
The Department has made some additional changes, however, which
should not detract from the Policies' protective purpose. Thus, as
requested by the Applicant, subsection (v) has been revised to contain
the ``to the best of QPAM's knowledge at the time'' concept found in
subsection (iv); and the applicability of subsections (iv) and (v) has
been narrowed to ERISA-covered plans and IRAs with respect to which a
JPMC Affiliated QPAM relies on PTE 84-14, or with respect to which a
JPMC Affiliated QPAM has expressly represented that the manager
qualifies as a QPAM or relies on the QPAM class exemption in its
dealings with the ERISA-covered plan or IRA (hereinafter, a Covered
Plan). To the extent a JPMC QPAM would prefer not to be subject to this
provision, however, it may expressly disclaim reliance on QPAM status
or PTE 84-14 in entering into its contract with the Covered Plan. This
revision is consistent with the Department's intent to protect ERISA-
covered plans and IRAs that may have hired a JPMC Affiliated QPAM based
on the manager's express representation that it relies on or qualifies
under PTE 84-14.
As explained in more detail below, the Department will not strike a
condition merely because it is also a statutory requirement. It is the
express intent of the Department to preclude relief for a JPMC
affiliated QPAM that fails to meet the requirements of this exemption,
including those derived from basic standards codified in statute, as
applicable.
Comment 9--Correction of Violations and Failures To Comply--Section
I(h)(1)(vii)
Section I(h)(1)(vii) of the proposed five-year exemption provides,
``Any violation of, or failure to comply with an item in subparagraphs
(ii) through (vi), is corrected promptly upon discovery, and any such
violation or compliance failure not promptly corrected is reported,
upon the discovery of such failure to promptly correct, in writing, to
appropriate corporate officers, the head of compliance, and the General
Counsel (or their functional equivalent) of the relevant JPMC
Affiliated QPAM, the independent auditor responsible for reviewing
compliance with the Policies, and an appropriate fiduciary of any
affected ERISA-covered plan or IRA that is independent of JPMC;
however, with respect to any ERISA-covered plan or IRA sponsored by an
`affiliate' (as defined in Section VI(d) of PTE 84-14) of JPMC or
beneficially owned by an employee of JPMC or its affiliates, such
fiduciary does not need to be independent of JPMC. A JPMC Affiliated
QPAM will not be treated as having failed to develop, implement,
maintain, or follow the Policies, provided that it corrects any
instance of noncompliance promptly when discovered, or when it
reasonably should have known of the noncompliance (whichever is
earlier), and provided that it adheres to the reporting requirements
set forth in this subparagraph (vii).''
The Applicant cites this condition as an example of how the
Department made the proposed exemption ``inexplicably'' and
``arbitrarily'' more burdensome and onerous than other such exemptions
it has granted previously. More specifically, the Applicant seeks
several revisions to Section I(h)(vii), stating that its notification
requirements are overbroad, and that terms such as ``appropriate
corporate officers'' and ``corrected promptly'' are either vague or
undefined. The Applicant requests that ``subparagraphs (ii) through
(vi)'' be revised to read ``subparagraphs (i) through (vi).'' The
Applicant also requests that the last sentence of the subparagraph (h)
be revised, because it is ``overly broad and does not meaningfully
provide relief in instances where a violation or compliance failure is
corrected.'' The Applicant suggests the subparagraph (h) be revised to
read, ``Within sixty (60) days of discovery of any violation of, or
failure to comply with, an item in subparagraphs (i) through (vi), the
JPMC QPAM will formulate, in writing, a plan to address such violation
or failure (a Correction Plan). To the extent any such Correction Plan
is not formulated within sixty (60) days of discovery, the JPMC
Affiliated QPAM will report in writing such violation of, or failure to
comply with, the item in subparagraphs (i) through (vi) to the head of
compliance . . . .''
In response to the Applicant's general comment, the Department has
based the conditions of this exemption on both the particular facts of
this case and its experience over time with previous exemptions. For
the reasons set out herein, the Department has concluded that the
specific conditions of this exemption are appropriate and give the
Department a reasonable basis for concluding that the exemptions are
appropriately protective of affected plans and IRAs. As noted above, a
central aim of the exemption is to ensure that those relying upon the
exemption for relief from the prohibited transaction rules will
consistently act to promote a culture of fiduciary compliance,
notwithstanding the conduct that violated Section I(g) of PTE 84-14.
After considering the Applicant's specific requests for revisions,
however, the Department has replaced ``appropriate corporate officers''
with ``the head of compliance and the General Counsel (or their
functional equivalent) of the relevant line of business that engaged in
the violation or failure.'' The Department also will not condition the
exemption on a requirement for notification of violations to an
appropriate fiduciary of any affected ERISA-covered plan or IRA that is
independent of JPMC.
However, the Department is not revising the ``subparagraphs (ii)
through (vi)'' reference to include ``subparagraph (i)'' because the
Department intends to preclude relief to the extent a JPMC Affiliated
QPAM fails to develop, implement, maintain, and follow written policies
and procedures. Clearly, it is not enough merely to develop policies
and procedures,
[[Page 61821]]
without also implementing, maintaining, and following the terms of
those policies and procedures. Covered Plans do not benefit from the
creation of strong policies and procedures, unless they are actually
followed.
The Department has revised the term ``corrected promptly'' for
consistency with the Department's intent that violations or compliance
failures be corrected ``as soon as reasonably possible upon discovery
or as soon after the QPAM reasonably should have known of the
noncompliance (whichever is earlier).'' However, contrary to the
Applicant's suggestion, the Department intends to preclude relief to
the extent violations or failures are not corrected as required by the
exemption. Therefore, the Department has not adopted the Applicant's
proposed subparagraph (vii), which requires little more than the
formulation of a correction plan, without any corresponding obligation
to actually implement the plan.
Comment 10--Training Incorporated in Policies--Section I(h)(2)(i)
Section I(h)(2)(i) of the proposed five-year exemption provides,
``. . . The Training must: (i) Be set forth in the Policies and, at a
minimum, cover the Policies, ERISA and Code compliance (including
applicable fiduciary duties and the prohibited transaction provisions),
ethical conduct, the consequences for not complying with the conditions
of this five-year exemption (including any loss of exemptive relief
provided herein), and prompt reporting of wrongdoing.''
The Applicant states that the requirement in Section I(h)(2)(i)
that the Training must be ``set forth in'' the Policies is
impracticable and may cause significant logistical challenges over
time. Accordingly, the Applicant requests that Section I(h)(2)(i) be
revised as follows:
``. . . The Training must, at a minimum, cover the Policies,
ERISA and Code compliance (including applicable fiduciary duties and
the prohibited transaction provisions), ethical conduct, the
consequences for not complying with the conditions of this permanent
exemption (including any loss of exemptive relief provided herein),
and prompt reporting of wrongdoing.''
After considering this comment, the Department has revised the
condition as requested by the Applicant.
Comment 11--Training by Independent Professional--Section I(h)(2)(ii)
Section I(h)(2)(ii) of the proposed five-year exemption provides,
``. . . The Training must: . . . (ii) Be conducted by an independent
professional who has been prudently selected and who has appropriate
technical training and proficiency with ERISA and the Code.''
The Applicant requests that Section I(h)(2)(ii) be deleted, stating
that requiring an independent professional is likely to be
``counterproductive, a waste of time and resources, and less effective
than using internal personnel who are familiar with Applicant's
processes and staff . . . .''
Although the Department does not agree with the Applicant's
characterization that hiring an appropriate independent professional,
prudently-selected, would be counterproductive and a waste of
resources, the Department is persuaded that appropriate JPMC personnel,
prudently selected, should be allowed to conduct the training, and has
revised the condition accordingly.
Comment 12--Audit--Section I(i)(1)
Section I(i)(1) of the proposed five-year exemption requires that
each JPMC Affiliated QPAM ``submits to an audit conducted annually by
an independent auditor, who has been prudently selected and who has
appropriate technical training and proficiency with ERISA and the Code,
to evaluate the adequacy of, and the JPMC Affiliated QPAM's compliance
with, the Policies and Training described herein. The audit requirement
must be incorporated in the Policies. Each annual audit must cover a
consecutive twelve (12) month period starting with the twelve (12)
month period that begins on the effective date of the five-year
exemption, and each annual audit must be completed no later than six
(6) months after the period to which the audit applies;''
The Applicant requests that the audit requirement be deleted from
the exemption in its entirety. The Applicant states that requiring the
audit of asset management units that were not accused of wrongdoing is
unnecessary and essentially seeks to punish businesses that have not
been convicted of a crime. The Applicant requests that, if the audit
condition is not omitted, the annual audit should be performed by the
Applicant's Internal Audit function. The Applicant also requests the
removal of the requirement mandating incorporation of the audit
conditions into the Policies, as the Applicant believes such inclusion
serves no purpose and does not further the interest of plans.
Additionally, the Applicant requests the removal of the phrase
``technical training and proficiency,'' because it is redundant and
undefined.
The Department declines to delete the audit requirement in its
entirety. A recurring, independent, and prudently conducted audit of
the JPMC Affiliated QPAMs is critical to ensuring the QPAMs' compliance
with the Policies and Training mandated by this exemption, and the
adequacy of the Policies and Training. The required discipline of
regular audits underpins the Department's finding that the exemption
should help prevent the sort of compliance failures that led to the
Conviction and is protective of Covered Plans and their participants,
beneficiaries, and beneficial owners, as applicable.
The Department views the audit requirement as an integral component
of the exemption, without which the Department would be unable to make
its finding that the exemption is protective of Covered Plans and their
participants, beneficiaries, and beneficial owners, as applicable. A
recurring, independent audit of the JPMC Affiliated QPAMs is a critical
means by which to verify the adequacy of, and compliance with, the
Policies and Training mandated by this exemption.
This exemption's conditions are based, in part, on the Department's
assessment of the seriousness and duration of the misconduct that
resulted in the violation of Section I(g) of PTE 84-14, as well as the
apparent inadequacy of the controls and oversight mechanisms at JPMC to
prevent the misconduct. The FCA's Final Notice states: ``[d]uring the
Relevant Period, JPMorgan did not exercise adequate and effective
control over its G10 spot FX trading business,'' and that, ``[t]he
front office failed adequately to discharge these responsibilities with
regard to obvious risks associated with confidentiality, conflicts of
interest and trading conduct.'' The OCC states: ``the Bank had
deficiencies in its internal controls and had engaged in unsafe or
unsound banking practices with respect to the oversight and governance
of the Bank's FX trading business . . . .'' Accordingly, the Department
declines to delete the audit requirement in its entirety.
The Department, however, recognizes that, notwithstanding JPMC's
oversight failures, only a small number of individuals at JPMC directly
engaged in the misconduct at issue. Thus, the United States District
Court for the District of Connecticut stated, in connection with the
sentencing of JP Morgan Chase & Co., that ``the conduct at issue here
was engaged in by a very small number of individuals'' and ``we do not
have banks who appear to have condoned conduct at any high-ranking
[[Page 61822]]
level.'' \6\ Accordingly, the Department has determined to change the
audit interval under this exemption, from annual to biennial. Section
I(i)(1) of the exemption, therefore, now requires that each JPMC
Affiliated QPAM ``submits to an audit conducted every two years by an
independent auditor.'' Each audit must cover the preceding consecutive
twelve (12) month period. The first audit must cover the period from
July 10, 2018 through July 9, 2019, and must be completed by January 9,
2020. The second audit must cover the period from July 10, 2020 through
July 9, 2021, and must be completed by January 9, 2022. In the event
that the Exemption Period is extended or a new exemption is granted,
the third audit would cover the period from July 10, 2022 through July
9, 2023, and would be completed by January 9, 2024, unless the
Department chose to alter the audit requirement in the new or extended
exemption; \7\
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\6\ See TRANSCRIPT of Proceedings: as to JP Morgan Chase & Co.
(January 5, 2017 at pages 29-30).
\7\ The third audit referenced above would not have to be
completed until after the Exemption Period expires. If the
Department ultimately decides to grant relief for an additional
period, it could decide to alter the terms of the exemption,
including the audit conditions (and the timing of the audit
requirements). Nevertheless, the Applicant should anticipate that
the Department will insist on strict compliance with the audit terms
and schedule set forth above. As it considers any new exemption
application, the Department may also contact the auditor for any
information relevant to its determination.
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
The Department declines to revise Section I(i)(1) to permit the
Applicant's Internal Audit Department to carry out this exemption's
required audit functions, as such a revision would not be protective of
Covered Plans. Auditor independence is essential to this exemption, as
it allows for an impartial analysis of the JPMC Affiliated QPAMs.
Permitting the Applicant's Internal Audit Department to carry out this
exemption's required audit functions would be insufficiently protective
of Covered Plans. The independence of the auditor is the cornerstone of
the integrity of the audit process and is of primary importance to
avoid conflicts of interest and any inappropriate influence on the
auditor's findings. The fundamental importance of auditor independence
to the integrity of the audit process is well established. For example,
the United States Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC) promulgated
regulations at 17 CFR 210.2-01 to ensure auditors are independent of
their clients, and under 17 CFR 240.10A-2, it is unlawful for an
auditor not to be independent in certain circumstances. Likewise, the
Public Company Accounting Oversight Board's (PCAOB) Rule 3520 states
that a public accounting firm and its associated persons must be
independent of the firm's audit client. When working on an audit or
attest engagement, the Association of Independent Certified Public
Accountants' (AICPA) Code of Professional Conduct, Objectivity and
Independence Principle (AICPA, Professional Standards, ET section
0.300.050.01) states that members should be independent in fact and
appearance. Moreover, ERISA section 103(a)(3)(A) requires an accountant
hired by an employee benefit plan to examine the plan's financial
statements to be independent. Notwithstanding the Applicant's
representations regarding the staff size and internal policies of
JPMC's Internal Audit Department, serious misconduct occurred over an
extended period of time at a JPMC entity.
The Department also disagrees with the Applicant's assertion that
the phrase ``technical training and proficiency'' is redundant. The two
terms are not synonymous, as a person may have taken technical training
in a given subject matter but may not be proficient in that subject
matter. The exemption requires that the auditor be both technically
trained and proficient in ERISA as well as the Code. Accordingly, the
Department declines to change the phrase ``technical training and
proficiency'' as used in Section I(i)(1).
The Department also declines to delete the requirement that the
audit conditions be incorporated in the Policies. The audit requirement
provides a critical independent check on compliance with this
exemption's conditions, and helps ensure that the basic protections set
forth in the Policies are taken seriously. Accordingly, the specifics
of the audit requirement are important components of the Policies.
Their inclusion in the Policies promotes compliance and sends an
important message to the institutions' employees and agents, as well as
to Covered Plan clients, that compliance with the policies and
procedures will be subject to careful independent review.
After consideration of the Applicant's concerns regarding the
annual audit, the Department is revising the audit condition to require
an audit on at least a biennial basis. The Departments notes that if
the audit uncovers material deficiencies with JPMC's compliance with
this exemption, then the Applicant should consider conducting an
additional audit after making corrections to ensure that it remains in
compliance with the exemption. In any event, the Department emphasizes
that it retains the right to conduct its own investigation of
compliance based on any such indicators of problems.
Comment 13--Access to Business--Section I(i)(2)
Section I(i)(2) of the proposed five-year exemption requires that
``as permitted by law, each JPMC Affiliated QPAM and, if applicable
JPMC, will grant the auditor unconditional access to its business . .
.''
The Applicant requests that the access granted by Section I(i)(2)
be limited to: (1) Relevant materials reasonably necessary to conduct
the audit; and (2) non-privileged materials that do not contain trade
secrets. The Applicant argues that the ``unconditional access''
required by this condition is too broad and that the absence of
specific exclusions could lead to confusion, dispute, and infringement
on the JPMC Affiliated QPAMs' right to protect privileged
communications, confidential supervisory information with other
regulators (for which the privilege is held by others), irrelevant
materials, and trade secrets.
In the Department's view, to ensure a thorough and robust audit,
the independent auditor must be granted access to information it deems
necessary to make sound conclusions. Access to such information must be
within the scope of the audit engagement and denied only to the extent
any disclosure is not permitted by state or federal statute.
Enumerating specific restrictions on the accessibility of certain
information may have a dampening effect on the auditor's ability to
perform the procedures necessary to make valid conclusions and
therefore undermine the effectiveness of the audit. The auditor's
access to such information, however, is limited to information relevant
to the auditor's objectives as specified by the terms of this exemption
and to the extent disclosure is not prevented by state or federal
statute, or involves communications subject to attorney client
privilege. In this regard, the Department has modified Section I(i)(2)
accordingly.
Comment 14--Engagement Letter--Section I(i)(3)
Section I(i)(3) of the proposed five-year exemption requires the
auditor's engagement to ``specifically require the auditor to determine
whether each JPMC Affiliated QPAM has developed, implemented,
maintained, and followed the Policies . . . and has developed and
implemented the Training, as required herein.''
The Applicant requests that Section I(i)(3) be deleted in its
entirety, stating
[[Page 61823]]
that it is unnecessarily duplicative of the substantive requirements of
the exemption and that the Applicant will be bound by the conditions of
the exemption, whether or not they also appear in the auditor's
engagement letter.
The Department does not concur with the Applicant's request. By
including a statement of the audit's intended purpose and required
determinations in the auditor's agreement, the Applicant ensures that
both the auditor and the JPMC Affiliated QPAMs a have clear
understanding of the purpose and expectations of the audit process.
Therefore, the Department declines to omit Section I(i)(3) from the
exemption.
Comment 15--Auditor's Test of Operational Compliance--Section I(i)(4)
Section I(i)(4) of the proposed five-year exemption provides that,
``[t]he auditor's engagement must specifically require the auditor to
test each JPMC Affiliated QPAM's operational compliance with the
Policies and Training'' and ``the auditor must test a sample of each
QPAM's transactions involving ERISA-covered Plans and IRAs sufficient
in size and nature to afford the auditor a reasonable basis to
determine operational compliance with the Policies and Training.''
The Applicant requests that Section I(i)(4) be deleted in its
entirety. The Applicant argues that this Section is unnecessarily
duplicative, as other conditions of the exemption govern the audit's
scope, the auditor's technical skill, and the prudence of the selection
process. The Applicant also argues that the second sentence of Section
I(i)(4) unnecessarily intrudes upon the auditor's function and
independence. Additionally, the Applicant states that auditors should
be granted discretion as to when to sample transactions, as an auditor
may not have the capacity to test significant data within the time
periods required under this exemption.
The Department declines to make the Applicant's requested revisions
with respect to Section I(i)(4). The inclusion of written audit
parameters in the auditor's engagement letter is necessary both to
document expectations regarding the audit work and to ensure that the
auditor can responsibly perform its important work. As stated above,
clearly defined audit parameters will minimize any potential for
dispute between the Applicant and the auditor. It is appropriate and
necessary for the exemption to require a certain amount, and type, of
audit work to be performed. Similarly, given the scope and number of
relevant transactions, proper sampling is necessary for the auditor to
reach reasonable and reliable conclusions. Although the Department has
declined to delete this section in its entirety, as requested by the
Applicant, the Department has revised this condition for consistency
with other conditions of this exemption which are tailored to the
Department's interest in protecting Covered Plans. Therefore, the
condition now applies to Covered Plans (i.e., ERISA-covered plans and
IRAs with respect to which the JPMC Affiliated QPAM relies on PTE 84-14
or has expressly represented that it qualifies as a QPAM or relies on
the QPAM class exemption in its dealings with the ERISA-covered plan or
IRA).
The Department notes that Section I(i)(4) does not specify the
number of transactions that the auditor must test, but rather requires,
for each QPAM, that the auditor test a sample of each such QPAM's
transactions involving Covered Plans, ``sufficient in size and nature
to afford the auditor a reasonable basis to determine operational
compliance with the Policies and Training.''
Comment 16--Draft of the Audit Report--Section I(i)(5)
Section I(i)(5) of the proposed five-year exemption requires that
``. . . on or before the end of the relevant period described in
Section I(i)(1) for completing the audit, the auditor must issue a
written report (the Audit Report) to JPMC and the JPMC Affiliated QPAM
. . .''
The Applicant requests a modification of Section I(i)(5) that would
allow the Applicant sufficient time to correct any findings of
noncompliance by the auditor before the issuance of the final Audit
Report and its provision to the Department. The Applicant states that
permitting it to review a draft of the Audit Report well in advance of
its submission to the Department would allow the Applicant to implement
plans to correct any violations or findings of noncompliance identified
by the auditor. The Applicant states that communication with the
audited entity is an appropriate audit procedure which ensures that the
auditor's factual premises are correct. The Applicant also states that
the time required to review the audit should be in advance of the Audit
Report's submission and should not take away from the six (6) months
given to complete the audit and the thirty (30) days to submit the
Audit Report to the Department. The Applicant therefore requests that
Section I(i)(5) contain a provision: (1) Requiring the auditor to issue
a draft Audit Report to the Applicant and the JPMC Affiliated QPAMs at
the end of the period for the completion of the audit, as described in
Section I(i)(1); and (2) providing the Applicant and the JPMC
Affiliated QPAM thirty (30) days to review such draft Audit Report.
Additionally, the Applicant requests that the exemption allow the
auditor to issue one consolidated Audit Report covering all the JPMC
Affiliated QPAMs.
The Department agrees that it is appropriate and beneficial for the
auditor and the entity being audited to communicate during the audit
process. Such communication allows for a dialog regarding, among other
things, factual premises, findings, and conclusions. With regard to
issues of noncompliance, communication should take place as soon as
possible, but in no case later than five (5) days following the
discovery of such noncompliance (see Section I(i)(6)) to allow time for
the Applicant to provide additional information to the auditor and
correct the noncompliance. However, the Department considers a
requirement directing the auditor to provide a draft Audit Report to
the audited entity in all cases to be inappropriate, as it is a matter
best determined by the Applicant and the auditor. The Department notes
that, while contemplating the time frames for completion and submission
of the Audit Report, it did take into account the auditor's procedural
work and communications with the Applicant. The Applicant has not
demonstrated the need for additional time to complete and submit the
Audit Report. The Department therefore declines to modify Section
I(i)(5) as requested by the Applicant.
Lastly, the Department has accepted the Applicant's recommendation
that the auditor be allowed to issue one consolidated Audit Report and
has modified Section I(i)(5) accordingly.
Comment 17--Auditor's Determination of Compliance--I(i)(5)(i)
Section I(i)(5)(i) of the proposed five-year exemption provides, in
part: ``Any determination by the auditor regarding the adequacy of the
Policies and Training and the auditor's recommendations (if any) with
respect to strengthening the Policies and Training of the respective
JPMC Affiliated QPAM must be promptly addressed by such JPMC Affiliated
QPAM, and any action taken by such JPMC Affiliated QPAM to address such
recommendations must be included in an addendum to the Audit Report
(which addendum is completed prior to the certification described in
Section I(i)(7) below).''
The Applicant asserts that Section I(i)(5)(i) is arbitrary,
capricious, and
[[Page 61824]]
ambiguous and requests that the term ``promptly'' be omitted from the
condition because it will cause disputes over its meaning. The
Applicant argues that this perceived ambiguity is problematic in this
context because addressing the auditor's recommendation could be a
lengthy process.
In addition, Section I(i)(5)(i) states: ``Furthermore, the auditor
must not rely on the Annual Report created by the compliance officer
(the Compliance Officer) as described in Section I(m) below in lieu of
independent determinations and testing performed by the auditor as
required by Section I(i)(3) and (4) above.''
The Applicant requests that this provision of Section I(i)(5) be
deleted, as it imposes a counterproductive limitation on the auditor's
use of the Annual Review and usurps the auditor's judgment regarding
how to perform its role, and whether and when to rely upon any and all
resources. The Applicant further states, that denying the auditor the
opportunity to fully use its judgment as to which resources it will
rely upon contradicts the underlying purpose of this exemption's
broader audit condition, especially in light of the requirements
relating to the auditor's selection and qualifications. Moreover, the
Applicant states that the language of this condition will interfere
with the workability of the exemption and its use by plans. To that
end, the Applicant states that if counterparties cannot determine
whether this requirement has been complied with, the exemption will not
be used, to the detriment of plans.
The Department acknowledges that the Applicant's efforts to address
the auditor's recommendations regarding any inadequacy in the Policies
and Training identified by the auditor, may take longer to implement
than the time limits mandated by the proposed exemption. Accordingly,
the Department is modifying Section I(i)(5)(i) to reflect the
possibility that the JPMC Affiliated QPAMs' efforts to address the
auditor's recommendations regarding inadequacies in the Policies and
Training identified by the auditor, may not be completed by the
submission date of the Audit Report and may require a written plan to
address such items. However, any noncompliance identified by the
auditor must be promptly addressed. The Department does not agree that
the word ``promptly'' creates inappropriate ambiguity in the condition
and declines to remove the word.
The final sentence of Section I(i)(5)(i) expresses the Department's
intent that the auditor not rely solely on the work of the Compliance
Officer and the contents of the Annual Report in formulating its
conclusions or findings. The auditor must perform its own independent
testing to formulate its conclusions. This exemption does not prohibit
the auditor from considering the Compliance Officer's Annual Report in
carrying out its audit function, including the formulation of an audit
plan. This exemption, however, does prohibit the auditor from reaching
conclusions that are exclusively based upon the contents of the
Compliance Officer's Annual Report. The Department has modified Section
I(i)(5)(i) to more clearly reflect these views.
Included with its comment on Section I(i)(5)(i), the Applicant
requests the deletion of the Compliance Officer and Annual Review
requirements set out in Section I(m). The Department's response to this
request is discussed below.
Comment 18--Adequacy of the Annual Review--Section I(i)(5)(ii)
Section I(i)(5)(ii) of the proposed five-year exemption provides
that ``[t]he Audit Report must include the auditor's specific
determinations regarding: . . . (ii) The adequacy of the Annual Review
described in Section I(m) and the resources provided to the Compliance
Officer in connection with such Annual Review.''
The Applicant asserts that requiring the auditor to assess the
adequacy of the resources provided to the Compliance Officer is
overreaching and should be deleted. The Applicant states that, while
the auditor function requires proficiency in ERISA, it does not require
sophistication or expertise on resource allocation. According to the
Applicant, the question of whether the Compliance Officer has met its
obligations under this exemption will be subject to the auditor's
review. The Applicant states that if the auditor finds any deficiencies
in the review, the Applicant will address such issues including any
allocation of resources.
As discussed in detail below, the Department views the Compliance
Officer and the Annual Review as integral to ensuring compliance with
the exemption. An independent assessment by the auditor of the adequacy
of the Annual Review is essential to providing the Department with the
assurance that the Applicant and the JPMC Affiliated QPAMs have given
these matters the utmost priority and have taken the actions necessary
to comply with the exemption. However, the Department agrees that the
QPAMs need not require the auditor to opine on the adequacy of the
resources allocated to the Compliance Officer and has modified Section
I(i)(5)(ii) accordingly. If, however, the auditor observes compliance
issues related to the Compliance Officer or available resources, it
would be appropriate for the auditor to opine on those problems.
Comment 19--Certification of the Audit--Section I(i)(7)
Section I(i)(7) of the proposed five-year exemption provides, in
part, that ``. . . the General Counsel, or one of the three most senior
executive officers of the JPMC Affiliated QPAM to which the Audit
Report applies, must certify in writing, under penalties of perjury,
that the officer has reviewed that Audit Report and this exemption;
addressed, corrected, or remedied any inadequacy identified in the
Audit Report . . .''
The Applicant requests that this condition be modified to remove
ambiguity, enhance workability, and avoid aspects that could be
interpreted as punitive. The Applicant claims that the requirements of
Section I(i)(7) should take into account JPMC's business structure and
allow the Applicant to determine which senior officers will review the
Audit Report. The Applicant states that it would be preferable that an
executive related to an asset/investment management business operating
through the QPAM review the Audit Report. In this regard, the Applicant
requests Section I(i)(7) be modified in part as follows: ``the General
Counsel or one of the three most senior executives of the line of
business engaged in discretionary assets management activities through
the JPMC Affiliated QPAM with respect to which the Audit Report applies
. . .''.
The Department concurs that a senior executive officer with
knowledge of the asset management business within the QPAM should be
allowed to review the Audit Report, and has modified the language of
Section I(i)(7), accordingly.
The Applicant also requests that the timing of Section I(i)(7) be
clarified. In this regard, the Applicant states that compliance with
this condition would be impossible if, for example, a recommendation
takes longer to implement than the 30-day period contemplated in
Section I(i)(9) for the Audit Report to be certified and provided to
the Department.
While the Department does not view Section I(i)(7) as ambiguous,
the Department is aware, as stated above, that the Applicant's efforts
to address the auditor's recommendations regarding inadequacies in the
Policies and Training identified by the auditor may take longer to
implement than the
[[Page 61825]]
timeframe to submit the certified Audit Report. With respect to this
issue, the Department did not intend to limit corrective actions to
those that could only be completed prior to the submission of the Audit
Report. Therefore, the Department has modified Section I(i)(7) to
reflect that the senior officer may certify that a written plan to
address the inadequacies regarding the Policies and Training identified
in the auditor's Report is in place.
The Applicant also states that this condition should clarify that
it may appropriately ``address'' an inadequacy by noting that an
alternative action to the auditor's recommendation, or even no action,
is a preferable means of protecting ERISA plan clients and IRAs. The
Applicant states that this condition is intrusive, as it invites the
auditor, through its conclusions and recommendations, to micromanage
the business of the relevant JPMC QPAM. The Applicant claims that, with
broad access to a JPMC Affiliated QPAM's records, the auditor could
identify any number of potential inadequacies, all of which the JPM
Affiliated QPAM should not be required to accept unconditionally.
As mentioned above, the Department has determined that it is
necessary for the auditor to be afforded unfettered access to JPMC
Affiliated QPAM records, to the extent that the analysis of such
records falls within the twelve month period to which the audit
relates. For the first audit required by this exemption, that period
runs from January 10, 2018 through January 9, 2019. The conditions of
this exemption do not prohibit the Applicant from disagreeing with the
auditor with respect to whether certain practices fail to comply with
the terms of this exemption. However, in those circumstances where the
auditor is not persuaded to change its position on a matter the auditor
considers noncompliant, the Applicant will be responsible to correct
such matters. Nor do the conditions of this exemption prohibit the
Applicant from disagreeing with the auditor with respect to the
appropriate method for correcting or addressing issues of
noncompliance. The Department would expect the Applicant and the
auditor to have meaningful communications on such differences of
opinion. In the event the Applicant chooses to apply a corrective
method that differs from that recommended by the auditor, the Audit
Report and the Addendum attached thereto should explain in detail the
noncompliance, the auditor's recommended action, the corrective method
chosen, and, if applicable, why the Applicant chose a corrective method
different from that recommended by the auditor.
Lastly, the Applicant requests deletion of the requirement in
Section I(i)(7) for certification by the senior executive officer under
penalties of perjury. The Applicant argues that this requirement is
unnecessary and inappropriate as this exemption already requires
accuracy in communications with regulators and clients.
The Department declines to remove this requirement, which makes
clear the importance of the correction process and creates a strong
incentive going forward to take seriously the audit process--and
compliance generally.
Comment 20--Review and Certification of Audit Report--Section I(i)(8)
Section I(i)(8) the proposed five-year exemption provides that
``[t]he Risk Committee of JPMC's Board of Directors is provided a copy
of each Audit Report; and a senior executive officer with a direct
reporting line to the highest ranking legal officer of JPMC must review
the Audit Report for each JPMC Affiliated QPAM . . .''
The Applicant requests that the requirement to provide the Audit
Report to the Risk Committee of JPMC's Board of Directors be omitted.
The Applicant states that the Department, in imposing this condition,
is acting beyond the scope of its authority. The Applicant also
represents that this condition constitutes micromanaging by the
Department and is inappropriate and unnecessary. The Applicant further
states that this requirement does not protect plans and participants
and is duplicative of other conditions contained in this exemption. The
Applicant argues that a mandate by the Department concerning JPMC's
internal processes for handling information is outside the scope of the
exemption and does not further the statutory goal of protecting plans.
The Applicant requests that the exemption provide that the
certifying reviewer be a senior executive officer. The Applicant
further states that the exemption should not mandate that the
certifying reviewer be a senior executive officer in the direct
reporting line to the highest ranking legal officer of JPMC.
Finally, the Applicant requests the requirement in Section I(i)(8)
that the certification by the senior executive officer be made under
penalty of perjury be deleted, as it is unnecessary.
The Department notes that in its application and related materials,
the Applicant has represented that it has established, or is in the
process of establishing comprehensive changes to processes and
procedures that are, in part, intended to change the culture at JPMC
from the top down. As represented by the Applicant, these changes are
focused on enhancements in: (1) Supervision, controls, and governance;
(2) compliance risk assessment; (3) transaction monitoring and
communications surveillance; (4) compliance testing; and (5) internal
audit.\8\
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\8\ See JPMC Exemption Application (May 20, 2015) at page 12.
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
The Department has developed this exemption to ensure that the
highest levels of management are aware of on-going matters concerning
JPMC, the JPMC Affiliated QPAMs, and compliance with this exemption.
Requiring the provision of the Audit Report to the Board of Directors
and certification by a senior executive officer in the reporting line
of the highest legal compliance officer provides assurance that the
highest levels of management within JPMC stay informed about JPMC's and
the JPMC Affiliated QPAMs' compliance with the terms of this exemption.
In the Department's view, such officials are in the best position to
ensure that any inadequacy identified by the auditor is appropriately
addressed and that necessary changes to corporate policy are
effectuated if and where necessary. Requiring certification under
penalty of perjury is consistent with the Department's longstanding
view that basic requirements of compliance and integrity are
fundamental to an entity's ability to qualify as a QPAM.
Comment 21--Availability of the Audit Report--Section I(i)(9)
The Applicant claims that the requirements in Section I(i)(9) that
``each JPMC Affiliated QPAM must make its Audit Report unconditionally
available for examination by any duly authorized employee or
representative of the Department, other relevant regulators, and any
fiduciary of an ERISA-covered plan or IRA, the assets of which are
managed by such JPMC Affiliated QPAM'' is outside the scope of the
exemption and is unnecessary. The Applicant states that the
availability of the Audit Report should be limited to ERISA-covered
plans and IRAs for which the Applicant relies on PTE 84-14. The
Applicant argues that it is overly-broad, punitive and not related to
the relief provided in the exemption to extend this condition to plans
and IRAs for which the Affiliated JPMC QPAMs do not rely on PTE 84-14.
Additionally, the Applicant requests that the Audit Report should be
made
[[Page 61826]]
available upon request and that any such provision of the Audit Report
may be facilitated via electronic delivery.
The Department does not agree that the condition in Section I(i)(9)
is punitive. As the Applicant recognized in its application, ERISA-
covered plans, IRAs, and counterparties routinely rely on QPAM status
before entering into agreements with financial institutions, even if
those institutions do not believe compliance with PTE 84-14 is strictly
necessary for any particular transaction. Accordingly, the Department
has an interest in ensuring that the conditions of this exemption
broadly protect ERISA-covered plans and IRAs that have relied on QPAM
status in deciding to enter into an agreement with the Applicant or the
Affiliated JPMC QPAMs.
Nevertheless, the Department has revised Section I(i)(9) to clarify
that the JPMC Affiliated QPAMs are required to make the documents
available to any fiduciary of a Covered Plan. The Audit Report, in any
event, will be incorporated into the public record attributable to this
exemption, under Exemption Application Number D-11906, and, therefore,
independently accessible by members of the public. Accordingly, the
Department has determined to revise the condition by replacing the
phrase ``an ERISA-covered plan or IRA, the assets of which are managed
by such JPMC Affiliated QPAM'' with the term ``Covered Plan'' (as
defined in Section II(c)). Lastly, the Department agrees that access to
the Audit Report need only be upon request and such access can be
electronic, and has revised the exemption accordingly.
Comment 22--Engagement Agreements--Section I(i)(10)
The Applicant claims that the requirement under Section I(i)(10)(B)
which provides, ``[e]ach JPMC Affiliated QPAM and the auditor must
submit to OED . . . (B) any engagement agreement entered into with any
other entity retained in connection with such QPAM's compliance with
the Training or Policies conditions of this five-year exemption, no
later than six (6) months after the Conviction Date (and one month
after the execution of any agreement thereafter)'' should be omitted as
it is unnecessary, punitive, and not in the interest of plans or their
participants. The Applicant states that the terms of engagement between
the JPMC Affiliated QPAMS and the auditor and trainer should be left to
the discretion of the parties to such engagement agreements. The
Applicant maintains that it is intrusive to mandate that every service
provider contract that relates to the Policies and the Training be
provided to the Department. Additionally, the Applicant requests that
the timeframe for provision of the auditor's engagement be modified to
no later than six (6) months after execution of such engagement
agreement.
In coordination with the Department's modification of Section
I(h)(2)(ii) to remove the requirement that the Training must be
conducted by an independent professional, the Department has determined
to remove the requirement in Section I(i)(10)(B) to provide to the
Department the engagement agreements entered into with entities
retained in connection with compliance with the Training or Policies
conditions. Furthermore, to remove any confusion and uncertainty
regarding the timing of the submission of the auditor's engagement
agreement, the Department has modified Section I(i)(10) to require that
the auditor's engagement agreement be submitted to the Office of
Exemption Determinations no later than two (2) months after the
engagement agreement is entered into by the Applicant and the
independent auditor.
Comment 23--Auditor's Workpapers--Section I(i)(11)
Section I(i)(11) the proposed five-year exemption provides that the
``auditor must provide OED, upon request, all of the workpapers created
and utilized in the course of the audit, including, but not limited to:
The audit plan; audit testing; identification of any instance of
noncompliance by the relevant JPMC Affiliated QPAM; and an explanation
of any corrective or remedial action taken by the applicable JPMC
Affiliated QPAM.'' The Applicant states that Section I(i)(11) is
duplicative and could cause the Applicant to lose the exemption due to
the auditor's actions or inaction. Additionally, the Applicant notes
that this condition should account for workpapers which the auditor
does not want to submit to the public file on the basis of
confidentiality or privacy of information. The Applicant argues that
such workpapers may contain information such as client data, employee
personal information, and other sensitive information. The Applicant
therefore requests that the Department exempt such workpapers in a
manner that does not compromise the Department's ability to review such
workpapers. Finally, the Applicant claims that by stating ``all of the
workpapers'' and then providing list of what ``all'' might encompass,
the Department is being overzealous and duplicative.
The Department acknowledges that certain information contained in
the workpapers may be confidential and proprietary, and having that
information in a public file may create needless or avoidable
disclosure issues. The Department has determined to modify Section
I(i)(11) to remove the requirement that the auditor provide the
workpapers to OED,\9\ and instead require that the auditor provide
access to the workpapers for the Department's review and inspection.
However, given the importance of the workpapers to the Department's own
review and the Applicant's contractual relationship with the auditor,
the Department declines to include, as requested by the Applicant, a
statement in Section I(i)(11) that a failure on behalf of the auditor
to meet this condition will not violate the exemption.
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\9\ OED is the Office of Exemption Determinations within the
Employee Benefits Security Administration agency of the United
States Department of Labor.
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
Comment 24--Replacement of Auditor--Section I(i)(12)
Section I(i)(12) of the proposed five-year exemption states that:
``JPMC must notify the Department at least thirty (30) days prior to
any substitution of an auditor . . . and that JPMC demonstrate[e] to
the Department's satisfaction that such new auditor is independent of
JPMC, experienced in the matters that are the subject of the exemption,
and capable of making the determination required by [the] exemption.''
The Applicant requests that this Section I(i)(12) be deleted as it
is inconsistent with the condition for the initial selection of an
auditor and duplicative of other substantive terms of the exemption.
Initially, the Applicant notes that permitting JPMC's internal audit
department to perform the audit functions required under this exemption
would render this condition unnecessary. The Applicant states that
requiring JPMC to demonstrate the independence and qualifications of
the auditor prior to a substitution serves no useful purpose, given the
audit process timeline laid out under this exemption. The Applicant
states that, since the exemption does not grant the Department the
authority to approve the initial auditor selection, likewise the
Department should not have the authority to approve the selection of a
subsequent auditor. The Applicant states that many circumstances which
could necessitate an auditor change would not relate to compliance with
the terms of the exemption. The Applicant
[[Page 61827]]
states that if the Department's concern is the removal of a critical
auditor, this condition is not rationally related to such an issue.
As explained above, the Department does not agree that the internal
audit department of JPMC is the appropriate entity to perform the
audit. The auditor's independence is critical to the Department's
determination that the exemption protects Covered Plans. This exemption
is not unique in requiring the Department be notified of changes to
service providers (see, e.g., the requirement of Schedule C of the Form
5500 Annual Return/Report for the Plan Administrator of certain plans
to report to the Department a termination of the plan's auditor and/or
enrolled actuary and to provide an explanation of the reasons for the
termination, including a description of any material disputes or
matters of disagreement concerning the termination). Furthermore,
requiring the Applicant to notify the Department of the substitution of
an auditor serves to ensure that the JPMC Affiliated QPAMs are
attentive to the audit process and the protections it provides; and
that the Department has the information it needs to review compliance.
The Department has determined to modify Section I(i)(12) to remove the
requirement for JPMC to demonstrate the independence and qualifications
of the auditor, however, and requires instead that JPMC, no later than
two months from the engagement of the replacement auditor, notify the
Department of a change in auditor and of the reason(s) for the
substitution including any material disputes between the terminated
auditor and JPMC. JPMC's fiduciary obligations with respect to the
selection of the auditor, as well as the significant role a credible
selection plays in reducing the need for more extensive oversight by
the Department, should be sufficient to safeguard the selection
process.
Comments 25-26--Contracts With Plans and IRAs--Section I(j)
Section I(j) of the proposed five-year exemption provides:
``Effective as of the effective date of this five-year exemption, with
respect to any arrangement, agreement, or contract between a JPMC
Affiliated QPAM and an ERISA-covered plan or IRA for which a JPMC
Affiliated QPAM provides asset management or other discretionary
fiduciary services, each JPMC Affiliated QPAM agrees and warrants:
(1) To comply with ERISA and the Code, as applicable with respect
to such ERISA-covered plan or IRA; to refrain from engaging in
prohibited transactions that are not otherwise exempt (and to promptly
correct any inadvertent prohibited transactions); and to comply with
the standards of prudence and loyalty set forth in section 404 of
ERISA, as applicable, with respect to each such ERISA-covered plan and
IRA;
(2) To indemnify and hold harmless the ERISA-covered plan or IRA
for any damages resulting from a JPMC Affiliated QPAM's violation of
applicable laws, a JPMC Affiliated QPAM's breach of contract, or any
claim brought in connection with the failure of such JPMC Affiliated
QPAM to qualify for the exemptive relief provided by PTE 84-14 as a
result of a violation of Section I(g) of PTE 84-14 other than the
Conviction;
(3) Not to require (or otherwise cause) the ERISA-covered plan or
IRA to waive, limit, or qualify the liability of the JPMC Affiliated
QPAM for violating ERISA or the Code or engaging in prohibited
transactions;
(4) Not to require the ERISA-covered plan or IRA (or sponsor of
such ERISA-covered plan or beneficial owner of such IRA) to indemnify
the JPMC Affiliated QPAM for violating ERISA or engaging in prohibited
transactions, except for violations or prohibited transactions caused
by an error, misrepresentation, or misconduct of a plan fiduciary or
other party hired by the plan fiduciary who is independent of JPMC, and
its affiliates;
(5) Not to restrict the ability of such ERISA-covered plan or IRA
to terminate or withdraw from its arrangement with the JPMC Affiliated
QPAM (including any investment in a separately managed account or
pooled fund subject to ERISA and managed by such QPAM), with the
exception of reasonable restrictions, appropriately disclosed in
advance, that are specifically designed to ensure equitable treatment
of all investors in a pooled fund in the event such withdrawal or
termination may have adverse consequences for all other investors as a
result of an actual lack of liquidity of the underlying assets,
provided that such restrictions are applied consistently and in like
manner to all such investors;
(6) Not to impose any fees, penalties, or charges for such
termination or withdrawal with the exception of reasonable fees,
appropriately disclosed in advance, that are specifically designed to
prevent generally recognized abusive investment practices or
specifically designed to ensure equitable treatment of all investors in
a pooled fund in the event such withdrawal or termination may have
adverse consequences for all other investors, provided that such fees
are applied consistently and in like manner to all such investors; and
(7) Not to include exculpatory provisions disclaiming or otherwise
limiting liability of the JPMC Affiliated QPAM for a violation of such
agreement's terms, except for liability caused by an error,
misrepresentation, or misconduct of a plan fiduciary or other party
hired by the plan fiduciary who is independent of JPMC, and its
affiliates;
(8) Within four (4) months of the date of the Conviction, each JPMC
Affiliated QPAM must provide a notice of its obligations under this
Section I(j) to each ERISA-covered plan and IRA for which an JPMC
Affiliated QPAM provides asset management or other discretionary
fiduciary services. For all other prospective ERISA-covered plan and
IRA clients for which a JPMC Affiliated QPAM provides asset management
or other discretionary services, the JPMC Affiliated QPAM will agree in
writing to its obligations under this Section I(j) in an updated
investment management agreement between the JPMC Affiliated QPAM and
such clients or other written contractual agreement''.
The Applicant states that Section I(j) of the proposed exemption is
overbroad, entirely inappropriate, not rationally-related to asset
management, inconsistent with the Administrative Procedure Act (the
APA), an attempt to create a private right of action for IRAs, and
punitive; that it should be limited to ERISA-covered plans and IRAs
with respect to which the Applicant relies on the QPAM Exemption; and
that it is not reasonably designed to protect plans or their
participants. The Applicant also requests that the condition clarify
that it supersedes the analogous condition in PTE 2016-15, so as not to
impose duplicative requirements, and also be modified to read as
follows: ``This subparagraph supersedes Section I(i) of PTE 2016-15, as
of the date of the exemption's publication in the Federal Register.
Effective as of the publication date, with respect to any arrangement,
agreement, or contract between a JPMC Affiliated QPAM and an ERISA-
covered plan or IRA for which a JPMC Affiliated QPAM provides asset
management or other discretionary fiduciary services in reliance on PTE
84-14 . . . .''
As explained above, ERISA-covered plans and IRAs routinely rely on
QPAM status as a condition of entering into transactions with financial
institutions, even with respect to transactions that do not require
adherence to PTE 84-14. Indeed, the Applicant recognized this fact in
its application (see, e.g., Applicant's statement that ``[w]hile
[[Page 61828]]
equity strategies rarely rely on the QPAM Exemption, plans invested in
such strategies could decide to find other managers or pooled funds if
the affiliated investment managers were no longer QPAMs''). In
addition, it may not always be clear whether the JPMC Affiliated QPAM
intends to rely upon PTE 84-14 for any particular transaction.
Accordingly, it is critical to ensure that protective conditions are in
place to safeguard the interests of ERISA-covered plans and IRAs that
are acting in reliance on the availability of this exemption,
particularly those who may not have entered into the transaction in the
first place, but for the Department's grant of this exemption.
The Department has a clear interest in protecting such Covered
Plans that enter into an asset management agreement with a JPMC
Affiliated QPAM in reliance on the manager's qualification as a QPAM.
Moreover, when a Covered Plan terminates its relationship with an asset
manager, it may incur significant costs and expenses as its investments
are unwound and in connection with finding a new asset manager. The
Department rejects the view that it acts outside its authority by
protecting ERISA-covered plans and IRAs that rely on JPMC's asset
managers' eligibility for this exemption, and reemphasizes the
seriousness of the criminal misconduct that caused JPMC to need this
exemption. The Department may grant an exemption under Section 408(a)
of ERISA or Section 4975(c)(2)(C) of the Code only to the extent the
Secretary finds, among other things, that the exemption is protective
of the affected plan(s) or IRA(s). As noted by regulators, personnel at
JPMorgan Chase Bank, a QPAM, engaged in serious misconduct over an
extended period of time at the expense of their own clients. This
misconduct appears to have stemmed, in part, from deficiencies in
control and oversight.
Notwithstanding the misconduct, which resulted in violation of
Section I(g) of PTE 84-14, the Department has granted this exemption
based, in significant part, upon the inclusion of Section I(j)(1) in
the exemption, which protects Covered Plans by, among other things,
requiring JPMC Affiliated QPAMs to make an express commitment to their
customers to adhere to the requirements of ERISA and the Code, as
applicable. As previously indicated, the Department has concluded that
a culture of compliance, centered on adherence to basic standards of
fair dealing as set forth in this exemption, gives the Department a
compelling basis for making the required statutory findings that the
exemption is in the interests of plan and IRA investors and protective
of their rights. Absent such findings, the exemption would have been
denied.
In response to the Applicant's comments, however, the Department
has required an express commitment to comply with the fiduciary
standards and prohibited transaction rules only to the extent these
provisions are ``applicable'' under ERISA and the Code. This section,
as modified, should serve its salutary purposes of promoting a culture
of compliance and enhancing the ability of plans and IRA customers to
sever their relationships with minimal injury in the event of non-
compliance. This conclusion is reinforced, as well, by the limited
nature of the relief granted by this exemption, which generally does
not extend to transactions that involve self-dealing.
In response to the Applicant's comments, the Department also notes
that nothing in ERISA or the Code prevents the Department from
conditioning relief on express contractual commitments to adhere to the
requirements set out herein. The QPAMs remain free to disclaim reliance
on the exemption and to avoid such express contractual commitments. To
the extent, however, that they hold themselves out as fiduciary QPAMs,
they should be prepared to make an express commitment to their
customers to adhere to the requirements of this exemption. This
commitment strengthens and reinforces the likelihood of compliance, and
helps ensure that, in the event of noncompliance, customers--
particularly IRA customers--will be insulated from injuries caused by
non-compliance. These protections also ensure that customers will be
able to extricate themselves from transactions that become prohibited
as a result of the QPAMs' misconduct, without fear of sustaining
additional losses as a result of the QPAMs' actions. In this
connection, however, the Department emphasizes that the only claims
available to the QPAMs' customers pursuant to these contractual
commitments are those separately provided by ERISA or other state and
federal laws that are not preempted by ERISA. As before, private
litigants have only those causes of action specifically authorized by
laws that exist independent of this exemption.
Comment 27--Indemnity Provision--Section I(j)(2).
Section I(j)(2) of the proposed five-year exemption provides that
``[e]ffective as of the effective date of this five-year exemption,
with respect to any arrangement, agreement, or contract between a JPMC
Affiliated QPAM and an ERISA covered plan or IRA for which a JPMC
Affiliated QPAM provides asset management or other discretionary
fiduciary services, each JPMC Affiliated QPAM agrees and warrants: . .
. (2) To indemnify and hold harmless the ERISA-covered plan or IRA for
any damages resulting from a JPMC Affiliated QPAM's violation of
applicable laws, a JPMC Affiliated QPAM's breach of contract, or any
claim brought in connection with the failure of such JPMC Affiliated
QPAM to qualify for the exemptive relief provided by PTE 84-14 as a
result of a violation of Section I (g) of PTE 84-14 other than the
Conviction.''
The Applicant requests that this condition be deleted because it is
punitive, beyond the Department's authority, and provides for damages
that are excessive and/or not reasonably related to any conduct of the
JPMC Affiliated QPAMs. In addition, the Applicant represents that the
condition may operate in a manner that is fundamentally unfair because
it is not limited to clients who are harmed through a direct, causal
link to the loss of exemptive relief provided by PTE 84-14.
Also with respect to section I(j)(2), the Applicant requests
clarifying language stating that the JPMC Affiliated QPAM
indemnification obligations under this exemption do not extend to
damages resulting from, or caused by forces beyond the control of JPMC,
including certain acts of government authorities and acts of God.
In this regard, the Applicant requests a revision of section
I(j)(2) such that each JPMC Affiliated QPAM must agree and warrant to
indemnify and hold harmless the ERISA-covered plan or IRA, ``for any
reasonable losses involving such arrangement, agreement or contract and
resulting directly from a JPMC Affiliated QPAM's violation of ERISA,
or, to the extent the JPMC Affiliated QPAM relies on the exemptive
relief provided by PTE 84-14 under the arrangement, agreement or
contract for any explicit transactional exit costs of any instrument
with respect to which PTE 84-14 was expressly relied upon and for which
no other exemption is available, resulting directly and solely from the
failure of such JPMC Affiliated QPAM to qualify for the exemptive
relief provided by PTE 84-14 as a result of a violation of Section I(g)
of PTE 84-14, other than as a result of the Conviction.''
As explained above, the intended purpose of this exemption is to
protect
[[Page 61829]]
ERISA-covered plans and IRAs who entrust the JPMC Affiliated QPAMs with
the management of their retirement assets. To this end, the Department
believes that the protective purpose of this exemption is furthered by
Section I(j)(2). The Department emphasizes that this condition is not
punitive, but rather ensures that, when an ERISA-covered plan or IRA
enters into an asset management agreement with a JPMC Affiliated QPAM
in reliance on the manager's qualification as a QPAM, it may expect
adherence to basic fiduciary norms and standards of fair dealing,
notwithstanding the prior conviction. The condition also ensures that
the ERISA-covered plan or IRA will be able to disengage from that
relationship in the event that the terms of this exemption are violated
without undue injury. Accordingly, the Department has revised the
applicability of this condition to more closely reflect this interest.
In particular, the condition applies only to Covered Plans. As
indicated above, if the asset manager would prefer not to be subject to
these provisions as exemption conditions, it may expressly disclaim
reliance on QPAM status or PTE 84-14 in entering into its contract with
the ERISA-covered plan or IRA (in that case, however, it could not rely
on the exemption for relief). The Department has made certain further
changes to this condition upon consideration of the Applicant's
comment. These changes include: renumbering the condition for clarity;
replacing ``applicable laws'' with clarifying language that conforms to
the one-year exemption; and replacing ``any damages'' with ``actual
losses resulting directly from'' certain acts or omissions of the JPMC
Affiliated QPAMs. Because I(j)(2) extends only to actual losses
resulting directly from the actions of the JPMC Affiliated QPAMs, it
does not encompass losses solely caused by other parties, events, or
acts of God.
Comment 28--Limits on Liability--Section I(j)(3) and I(j)(7).\10\
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\10\ The Department has determined that subsection (4) is
duplicative of the exemption's prohibition on exculpatory clauses,
described below. Thus, the subsection has been deleted.
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Sections I(j)(3) and I(j)(7) of the proposed five-year exemption
provide that ``[e]ffective as of the effective date of this five-year
exemption, with respect to any arrangement, agreement, or contract
between a JPMC Affiliated QPAM and an ERISA-covered plan or IRA for
which a JPMC Affiliated QPAM provides asset management or other
discretionary fiduciary services, each JPMC Affiliated QPAM agrees and
warrants:
. . . (3) Not to require (or otherwise cause) the ERISA-covered
plan or IRA to waive, limit, or qualify the liability of the JPMC
Affiliated QPAM for violating ERISA or the Code or engaging in
prohibited transactions; [and] . . . (7) Not to include exculpatory
provisions disclaiming or otherwise limiting liability of the JPMC
Affiliated QPAM for a violation of such agreement's terms, except for
liability caused by an error, misrepresentation, or misconduct of a
plan fiduciary or other party hired by the plan fiduciary who is
independent of JPMC, and its affiliates.''
The Applicant requests that these conditions be deleted because
they: duplicate the statutory requirements in ERISA and the Code, which
ensure that the JPMC Affiliated QPAMs remain liable to their plan or
IRA clients for the asset manager's violations of the law; do not
afford plans and IRAs any greater protection; and amount to unnecessary
overregulation. To the extent there is a violation of a contract, the
Applicant represents that adequate causes of action exist to remedy the
issue.
Alternatively, the Applicant requests that, if the Department
declines to amend Section I(j)(7) as requested, this Section be revised
to clarify that losses caused by counterparties, trading venues, or
acts of terrorism, war, etc., are carved out of the QPAM's liability.
The Department declines to delete Section I(j)(3) from the final
exemption. As the Applicant points out, ERISA already precludes ERISA
fiduciaries from disclaiming obligations under ERISA. See ERISA section
410 (prohibiting exculpatory clauses as void against public policy). To
the extent the exemption condition prevents the JPMC Affiliated QPAMs
from including contractual provisions that are void as against public
policy there is no legitimate basis for objection. Such exculpatory
language should not be in the governing documents in the first place
and is potentially misleading because it suggests disclaimer of
obligations that may not be disclaimed.
Outside the context of ERISA section 410, the provision's
requirement that the JPMC Affiliated QPAMs retain accountability for
adherence to the basic obligations set forth in this exemption is
justified by the misconduct that led to the Conviction as discussed
above, and by the need to ensure that ERISA-covered plan and IRA
customers may readily obtain redress and exit contracts with JPMC
Affiliated QPAMs without harm in the event of violations.
The Department has determined that Section I(j)(4), as proposed, is
duplicative of the exemption's prohibition on exculpatory clauses,
described below. Thus, that subsection has been deleted. Accordingly,
the subsections in Section I(j) have been renumbered.
The Department has modified Section I(j)(6) (formerly (j)(7)) to
clarify that the prohibition on exculpatory provisions does not extend
to losses that arise from an act or event not caused by JPMC. Nothing
in this section alters the prohibition on exculpatory provisions set
forth in ERISA Section 410.
Comment 29--Termination and Withdrawal Restriction
Under Sections I(j)(5) and I(j)(6) of the proposed five-year
exemption, the JPMC Affiliated QPAMs agree: ``. . . (5) Not to restrict
the ability of such ERISA-covered plan or IRA to terminate or withdraw
from its arrangement with the JPMC Affiliated QPAM (including any
investment in a separately managed account or pooled fund subject to
ERISA and managed by such QPAM), with the exception of reasonable
restrictions, appropriately disclosed in advance, that are specifically
designed to ensure equitable treatment of all investors in a pooled
fund in the event such withdrawal or termination may have adverse
consequences for all other investors as a result of an actual lack of
liquidity of the underlying assets, provided that such restrictions are
applied consistently and in like manner to all such investors; [and] .
. . (6) Not to impose any fees, penalties, or charges for such
termination or withdrawal with the exception of reasonable fees,
appropriately disclosed in advance, that are specifically designed to
prevent generally recognized abusive investment practices or
specifically designed to ensure equitable treatment of all investors in
a pooled fund in the event such withdrawal or termination may have
adverse consequences for all other investors, provided that such fees
are applied consistently and in like manner to all such investors.''
The Applicant represents that these conditions should be deleted
because they are harmful to ERISA-covered plans and IRAs and their
participants and beneficiaries, and are punitive to the Applicant.
Withdrawal provisions, according to the Applicant, should be designed
to protect all investors in a pooled fund or in a particular strategy.
The Applicant states that the proposed restrictions here would disrupt
the JPMC Affiliated QPAMs' existing relationships with and contractual
obligations to their clients, notwithstanding the fact that plans and
IRAs have determined that such
[[Page 61830]]
relationships are in their best interests. The Applicant represents
that lockup provisions are commonly used, designed to protect all
investors in a pooled fund, and applied evenly to all investors. If
conditions relating to withdrawal are not permitted, the Applicant
asserts that ERISA-covered plans and IRAs will not be able to invest in
their desired alternatives or strategies.
The Applicant requests that, should these conditions be retained,
they be modified as follows: Under renumbered Sections I(j)(4) and
(j)(5), the JPMC Affiliated QPAMs agree: ``. . . (4) Not to restrict
the ability of such ERISA-covered plan or IRA to terminate or withdraw
from its arrangement with the JPMC Affiliated QPAM with respect to any
investment in a separately managed account or pooled fund subject to
ERISA and managed by such QPAM, with the exception of reasonable
restrictions, appropriately disclosed in advance, that are specifically
designed to ensure equitable treatment of all investors in a pooled
fund in the event such withdrawal or termination may have adverse
consequences for all other investors; [and] . . . (5) Not to impose any
fees, penalties, or charges for such termination or withdrawal with the
exception of reasonable fees, appropriately disclosed in advance, that
are specifically designed to prevent generally recognized abusive
investment practices or specifically designed to ensure equitable
treatment of all investors in a pooled fund in the event such
withdrawal or termination may have adverse consequences for all other
investors, provided that such fees are applied consistently and in like
manner to all such investors.''
The Department has revised renumbered Section I(j)(4) in partial
satisfaction of the Applicant's request. This section now provides,
''Not to restrict the ability of such Covered Plan to terminate or
withdraw from its arrangement with the JPMC Affiliated QPAM with
respect to any investment in a separately managed account or pooled
fund subject to ERISA and managed by such QPAM, with the exception of
reasonable restrictions, appropriately disclosed in advance, that are
specifically designed to ensure equitable treatment of all investors in
a pooled fund in the event such withdrawal or termination may have
adverse consequences for all other investors. In connection with any
such arrangements involving investments in pooled funds subject to
ERISA entered into after the effective date of this exemption, the
adverse consequences must relate to of a lack of liquidity of the
underlying assets, valuation issues, or regulatory reasons that prevent
the fund from promptly redeeming Covered Plan's investment, and such
restrictions must be applicable to all such investors and effective no
longer than reasonably necessary to avoid the adverse consequences.''
Renumbered Section I(j)(5) is consistent with the Applicant's
request.
Comment 30--Updated Investment Management Agreement
Section I(j)(8) of the proposed five-year exemption provides that
``[w]ithin four (4) months of the date of the Conviction, each JPMC
Affiliated QPAM must provide a notice of its obligations under this
Section I(j) to each ERISA-covered plan and IRA for which an JPMC
Affiliated QPAM provides asset management or other discretionary
fiduciary services. For all other prospective ERISA-covered plan and
IRA clients for which a JPMC Affiliated QPAM provides asset management
or other discretionary services, the JPMC Affiliated QPAM will agree in
writing to its obligations under this Section I(j) in an updated
investment management agreement between the JPMC Affiliated QPAM and
such clients or other written contractual agreement.''
The Applicant represents that this condition is duplicative and
``potentially inconsistent'' with PTE 2016-15, and could cause the
Applicant to lose the exemption through the actions of another. The
Applicant requests that the Department publish a notice of technical
correction to PTE 2016-15 to eliminate the notice to clients under that
exemption so that only one notice with the final obligations will be
provided to clients. The Applicant states that it should not be
required to issue two sets of potentially inconsistent notices to
clients. Instead, once the final exemption is published in the Federal
Register, the Applicant suggests that the condition be modified to
require that the notices, and the proposed and final exemptions, be
sent to clients within six (6) months. The Applicant asserts that this
request will alleviate client confusion. Alternatively, the Applicant
requests that the Department modify renumbered Section I(j)(7) so that
it will deem any notices and mailings under PTE 2016-15 to meet the
requirements of the final exemption. In addition, the Applicant
requests that the Department modify renumbered Section I(j)(7) to
clarify that it is limited to agreements, arrangements, or contracts in
which a JPMC Affiliated QPAM provides services in reliance on PTE 84-
14, and where the Applicant has a direct contractual relationship with
the plan or IRA. Finally, the Applicant represents that a bilateral
investment management agreement containing the obligations under
Section I(j) should not be required. If the client refuses to sign an
updated agreement, the Applicant states that the JPMC Affiliated QPAM
unintentionally may be in violation of this condition even where it has
met the substantive requirements of Section I(j). The Applicant
represents that its compliance with the exemption should not depend on
action by its clients. Therefore, the Applicant requests that this
requirement be eliminated, and that renumbered Section I(j)(7) be
revised as follows to reflect the Applicant's aforementioned changes:
``Within six (6) months of the date of this exemption's publication in
the Federal Register, each JPMC Affiliated QPAM will provide a notice
of its obligations under this Section I(j) to each ERISA-covered plan
and IRA for which a JPMC Affiliated QPAM provides asset management or
other discretionary fiduciary services in a direct contractual
relationship and in reliance on PTE 84-14 as of the date of the notice.
The Applicant shall be deemed to have met this condition if, with
respect to any plan or IRA client, the Applicant met the requirements
of PTE 2016-15. For all other ERISA-covered plan and IRA clients (i.e.,
those plans and IRAs that become direct contractual clients after the
time the notice described in PTE 2016-15 is provided to existing
clients) for which a JPMC Affiliated QPAM provides asset management or
other discretionary services in reliance on PTE 84-14, the JPMC
Affiliated QPAM will provide a notice of its obligations under this
Section I(j) to such clients within six (6) months after the date of
publication of this exemption.'' \11\
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\11\ In a letter to the Department dated March 7, 2017, the
Applicant expresses similar concerns about the perceived
inconsistencies, duplicative nature, and administrative challenges
created by the client notification requirement in Section I(i) of
PTE 2016-15 as well as in the proposed exemption. In the letter, the
Applicant recommends that the notice be provided to clients only
after the final exemption has been granted. This is consistent with
the Applicant's proposed revisions to renumbered Section I(j)(7).
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
The Department declines to make a change to PTE 2016-15, since,
among other things, the change the Applicant seeks is not a technical
correction, but rather would require amending that exemption.
Accordingly, the Applicant must fully comply with the terms of PTE
2016-15, including Section I(j). However, the Department has modified
renumbered Section I(j)(7) for better coordination with PTE 2016-15. As
modified, the exemption's text now
[[Page 61831]]
provides that a notice that satisfies Section I(i)(2) of that exemption
will satisfy renumbered Section I(j)(7) of this exemption, unless the
notice contains any language that limits, or is inconsistent with, the
scope of this exemption.
As noted above, the Department has an interest in protecting an
ERISA-covered plan or IRA that enters into an asset management
agreement with a JPMC Affiliated QPAM in reliance on the manager's
qualification as a QPAM, regardless of whether the QPAM relies on the
class exemption when managing the ERISA-covered plan's or IRA's assets.
The Department has revised the applicability of this condition to more
closely reflect this interest, and the condition now applies to Covered
Plans. The Department has also modified the condition so that a JPMC
Affiliated QPAM will not violate the condition solely because a Covered
Plan refuses to sign an updated investment management agreement. In
addition, the JPMC Affiliated QPAM must give notice of its obligations
under Section I(j) to each Covered Plan by July 9, 2018, consistent
with the applicant's request for additional time to provide the notice.
Comment 31--Notice to Plan Clients--Section I(k)(1) \12\
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\12\ The Department has renumbered this condition as section
I(k) in this exemption.
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
Section I(k)(1) of the proposed five-year exemption provides that
``[w]ithin thirty (30) days of the publication of this proposed five-
year exemption in the Federal Register, each JPMC Affiliated QPAM will
provide a notice of the proposed five-year exemption, along with a
separate summary describing the facts that led to the Conviction (the
Summary), which have been submitted to the Department, and a
prominently displayed statement (the Statement) that the Conviction
results in a failure to meet a condition in PTE 84-14, to each sponsor
of an ERISA-covered plan and each beneficial owner of an IRA for which
a JPMC Affiliated QPAM provides asset management or other discretionary
services, or the sponsor of an investment fund in any case where a JPMC
Affiliated QPAM acts only as a sub-advisor to the investment fund in
which such ERISA-covered plan and IRA invests. In the event that this
proposed five-year exemption is granted, the Federal Register copy of
the notice of final five-year exemption must be delivered to such
clients within sixty (60) days of its publication in the Federal
Register, and may be delivered electronically (including by an email
that has a link to the exemption). Any prospective clients for which a
JPMC Affiliated QPAM provides asset management or other discretionary
services must receive the proposed and final five-year exemptions with
the Summary and the Statement prior to, or contemporaneously with, the
client's receipt of a written asset management agreement from the JPMC
Affiliated QPAM.''
The Applicant requests that (k)(1) be changed to require each
existing and prospective client with respect to which the Applicant has
a direct contractual relationship and relies on the QPAM exemption, to
be provided with a link to the proposed and final exemption within six
(6) months after publication; and prospective clients after six (6)
months should receive the proposed and final exemptions through any
reasonable delivery method (such as a written notice of the applicable
website where the exemptions can be found). The Applicant asserts that
the provision, as proposed, is overbroad and punitive and not
rationally related to the use of the QPAM Exemption. The Applicant also
states that, for prospective clients, it is duplicative to provide the
Summary and the copies of the proposal and final grant, which both
state the same facts and will be burdensome to prospective clients due
to the size of the asset management agreement.
The Department notes that the proposed exemption provides details
of the facts and circumstances underlying the Conviction not found in
the Summary or this exemption. One of the purposes of such a complete
disclosure is to ensure that all interested parties are aware of and
attentive to the complete facts and circumstances surrounding JPMC's
application for exemption. Requiring the disclosure of the Summary,
proposal, and grant provides the opportunity for all parties to have
knowledge of these facts and circumstance. Notwithstanding this, the
Department has modified the condition to clarify that disclosures may
be provided electronically. Further, the notice requirement has been
narrowed to ERISA-covered plans and IRAs that would benefit from this
knowledge (i.e., Covered Plans).
Comment 32--Notice to Non-Plan Clients--Section I(k)(2)
Section I(k)(2) of the proposed five-year exemption provides,
``[e]ach JPMC Affiliated QPAM will provide a Federal Register copy of
the proposed five-year exemption, a Federal Register copy of the final
five-year exemption; the Summary; and the Statement to each: (A)
Current Non-Plan Client within four (4) months of the effective date,
if any, of a final five-year exemption; and (B) Future Non-Plan Client
prior to, or contemporaneously with, the client's receipt of a written
asset management agreement from the JPMC Affiliated QPAM. For purposes
of this subparagraph (2), a Current Non-Plan Client means a client of a
JPMC Affiliated QPAM that: is neither an ERISA-covered plan nor an IRA;
has assets managed by the JPMC Affiliated QPAM as of the effective
date, if any, of a final five-year exemption; and has received a
written representation (qualified or otherwise) from the JPMC
Affiliated QPAM that such JPMC Affiliated QPAM qualifies as a QPAM or
qualifies for the relief provided by PTE 84-14 . . . .''
The Applicant requests that Section (I)(k)(2) be deleted in its
entirety because, in its opinion, the provision is punitive and beyond
the Department's authority. The Applicant requests that any notice
requirement be limited to ERISA-covered plans and IRAs that have a
direct contractual relationship with a JPMC Affiliated QPAM and
actually rely on PTE 84-14.
Given the breadth of the notice requirements otherwise mandated by
the exemption, and its decision to restrict the requirements to those
arrangements for which QPAM status plays an integral role (i.e., the
QPAM represents or relies upon its QPAM status), the Department has
determined to delete this provision.
Comment 33--Compliance Officer--Section I(m)
Section I(m) of the proposed five-year exemption provides, in part,
``JPMC designates a senior compliance officer (the Compliance Officer)
who will be responsible for compliance with the Policies and Training
requirements describe herein. The Compliance Officer must conduct an
annual review (the Annual Review) to determine the adequacy and
effectiveness of the implementation of the Policies and Training . . .
.''
The Applicant requests that the conditions relating to the
Compliance Officer be deleted because they are punitive, inconsistent
with precedent, and inconsistent with the APA. The Applicant states
that the criminal conduct that necessitated the exemption did not
involve in any way JPMC's asset management business, and that the QPAMs
already have very robust compliance departments. The Applicant states
that it is duplicative to have another layer of compliance and the
condition substitutes the Department's
[[Page 61832]]
judgment for that of the Applicant and its many other regulators.
Furthermore, the Applicant states that the criminal conduct was the
result of one single former FX trader, and that the inclusion of this
condition is without any precedent, and is arbitrary and capricious.
Finally, the Applicant states that every compliance officer is not a
lawyer, and that the condition's time frames are inconsistent, and not
practicable.
The Department is removing the requirement that the Compliance
Officer be a legal professional (i.e., a lawyer), but declines to make
the Applicant's other requested changes. JPMC personnel engaged in
serious misconduct that was not limited to one trader and that was
caused, at least in part, by serious failures of compliance and
oversight. The misconduct relevant to the development of this exemption
spanned multiple years and involved repeated failures by JPMC
personnel, in supervisory and oversight positions. The Department's
determination to grant this exemption is based in part on the
Department's view that an internal compliance officer with
responsibility for the policies and procedures mandated by this
exemption will provide the level of oversight necessary to ensure that
such Policies and Training are properly implemented.
Comment 34--Deferred Prosecution Agreement/Non-Prosecution Agreement--
Section I(o)
Section I(o) of the proposed five-year exemption provides, with
respect to any Deferred Prosecution Agreement or Non-Prosecution
Agreement: ``During the effective period of the five-year exemption
JPMC: (1) Immediately discloses to the Department any Deferred
Prosecution Agreement (a DPA) or a Non-Prosecution Agreement (an NPA)
with the U.S. Department of Justice, entered into by JPMC or any of its
affiliates in connection with conduct described in Section I(g) of PTE
84-14 or section 411 of ERISA; and (2) Immediately provides the
Department any information requested by the Department, as permitted by
law, regarding the agreement and/or conduct and allegations that led to
the agreement. After review of the information, the Department may
require JPMC, its affiliates, or related parties, as specified by the
Department, to submit a new application for the continued availability
of relief as a condition of continuing to rely on this exemption. If
the Department denies the relief requested in the new application, or
does not grant such relief within twelve months of application, the
relief described herein is revoked as of the date of denial or as of
the expiration of the twelve month period, whichever date is earlier.''
The Applicant requests that this condition be deleted because it is
punitive, and is inconsistent with the APA, statutory authority, and
the Department's own regulatory authority. The Applicant states that
the condition contravenes the DOL's exemption procedure regulation at
29 CFR part 2570, which requires that the Department propose a notice
of termination of an exemption for public comment. The Applicant also
states that the provision could create risk and uncertainty, including
uncertainty for counterparties, with respect to the very transactions
that this exemption is designed to prevent from suddenly expiring.
According to the Applicant, the condition itself could have the effect
of causing plans to terminate such transactions at significant cost.
The Applicant also suggests that parties could enter into an NPA or a
DPA for investigations where a bank is not convicted, and in some
cases, not even charged with, a felony. The Applicant states further
that the timing and factual basis of the NPA/DPA could be distant in
time or place from the current plan management operations that should
be the Department's concern. Finally, the Applicant states that the
provision is inconsistent with the anti-criminal provisions of Section
I(g) of PTE 84-14 or section 411 of ERISA, which both require actual
convictions, whereas an NPA/DPA is related to a decision by the DOJ not
to prosecute.
The Department in no way intended that this condition be read as
providing for an automatic revocation of this exemption, and in light
of the Applicant's comments, has revised the condition accordingly. As
revised, the condition simply requires that the Applicant notify the
Department if and when it or any of its affiliates enter into a DPA or
NPA with the U.S. Department of Justice for conduct described in
section I(g) of PTE 84-14 or ERISA Section 411 and immediately provide
the Department with any information requested by the Department, as
permitted by law, regarding the agreement and/or conduct and
allegations that led to the agreement. The Department retains the right
to propose a withdrawal of the exemption pursuant to its procedures
contained at 29 CFR 2570.50, should the circumstances warrant such
action.
Comment 35--Right to Copies of Policies and Procedures--Section I(p)
Section I(p) of the proposed five-year exemption provides that,
``[e]ach JPMC Affiliated QPAM, in its agreements with ERISA-covered
plan and IRA clients, or in other written disclosures provided to
ERISA-covered plan and IRA clients, within 60 days prior to the initial
transaction upon which relief hereunder is relied, and then at least
once annually, will clearly and prominently: Inform the ERISA-covered
plan and IRA client that the client has the right to obtain copies of
the QPAM's written Policies adopted in accordance with the exemption.''
The Applicant requests that this condition be deleted because it is
impracticable, duplicative, and punitive, and not reasonably designed
to be protective of plans and their participants. The Applicant states
that it has over 300 policies and procedures that touch on ERISA and
the Code and it is not reasonable to require the disclosure and
provision of all the policies. Furthermore, the Applicant states that
it cannot provide notice sixty (60) days prior to the time that the
exemption is used because that date will precede the final exemption.
Finally, the Applicant states that the number of notices required to be
provided to clients is overly burdensome and excessive, and will lead
to confusion and clients ignoring the mailings.
The Department disagrees, in part, with the Applicant's comment.
Affording ERISA covered-plan and IRA clients a means by which to review
and understand the Policies implemented in connection with this
exemption is a vital protection that is fundamental to this exemption's
purpose. However, the Department has modified the condition so that the
QPAMs, at their election, may instead provide Covered Plans disclosure
that accurately describes or summarizes key components of the Policies,
rather than provide the Policies in their entirety. The Department has
also determined that such disclosure may be continuously maintained on
a website, provided that the website link to the summary of the written
Policies is clearly and prominently disclosed to those Covered Plan
clients to whom this section applies. The Department also agrees with
the Applicant that the timing requirement for disclosure should be
revised and, accordingly, has modified the condition of Section I(p) to
require notice regarding the information on the website within six
months of the initial effective date of this exemption, and thereafter
to the extent certain
[[Page 61833]]
material changes are made to the Policies.
Comment 36--No-Fault Provision--Section I(q)
Section I(q) of the proposed five-year exemption provides that,
``[a] JPMC Affiliated QPAM or a JPMC Related QPAM will not fail to meet
the terms of this exemption solely because a different JPMC Affiliated
QPAM or JPMC Related QPAM fails to satisfy a condition for relief
described in Sections I(c), (d), (h), (i), (j), (k), (l), (n) and
(p).''
The Applicant requests that the relief provided under Section I(q)
be extended to cover Sections I(e), (f), (g), and (m). The Applicant
states that the failure of one JPMC Affiliated QPAM to meet these
conditions should not disqualify all other JPMC Affiliated QPAMs from
reliance on this exemption. The Applicant also states that the
auditor's failure to fulfill its requirements under this exemption
should not disqualify the JPMC Affiliated QPAMs from relying on the
exemption.
The Department declines to extend the relief provided under Section
I(q) to Sections I(e), (f), (g), and (m).
Section I(e) provides that any failure of a JPMC Affiliated QPAM or
JPMC Related QPAM to comply with Section I(g) of PTE 84-14 arose solely
from the Conviction. As set forth in the Applicant's materials, the
Conviction is the sole reason a new exemption is necessary for the JPMC
Affiliated QPAMs. If there were a new or additional conviction of a
crime described in Section I(g) of PTE 84-14, the Department would need
to assess the misconduct, its scope, and its significance. Without such
an assessment, the Department could not be confident of the adequacy of
the conditions set forth herein with respect to the JPMC Affiliated
QPAMs and Related QPAMs. Indeed, depending on the particular facts, a
subsequent criminal conviction could be strong evidence of the
inadequacy of this exemption's conditions to protect Covered Plans.
Further, as stated above, the Department is not obligated to grant
further relief to the extent such a conviction occurs.
Section I(f) provides that no JPMC Affiliated QPAM or JPMC Related
QPAM exercised authority over the assets of any ERISA-covered plan or
IRA in a manner that it knew or should have known would: further the
criminal conduct that is the subject of the Conviction; or cause the
JPMC QPAM or its affiliates or related parties to directly or
indirectly profit from the criminal conduct that is the subject of the
Conviction. The Applicant has, in its application and in its response
to questions raised by the Department, provided statements under
penalty of perjury, that they are in compliance with this condition,
and the Department relied upon those statements in granting this
relief. Based on these statements, the Department determines that there
is no reason to include relief from Section I(f) in Section I(q).
Section I(g) requires two specific entities, JPMC and the
Investment Bank of JPMorgan Chase Bank, refrain from providing
investment management services to plans. Section I(m) requires JPMC to
install a Compliance Officer to undertake various compliance and
reporting obligations. Thus, with respect to Sections I(g) and (m), the
obligations imposed extend exclusively to JPMC and the Investment Bank
of JPMorgan Chase Bank. Consequently, if the relief under I(q) were
extended to Sections I(g) and I(m), it would render them virtually
meaningless. There would be little or no effective penalty for the
failure to comply with the conditions, as the Affiliated and Related
QPAMs would remain free to rely on the exemption's terms. The
Department also believes that the potential for disqualification of all
JPMC Affiliated QPAMs under this agreement will serve as additional
incentive for JPMC and JPMorgan Chase Bank to comply in good-faith with
the provisions of Sections I(g) and (m).
Finally, except as noted in Comment 23 above, the Department
accepts the Applicant's comment that failure of the auditor to comply
with any of the conditions of the exemption, should not be treated as a
failure by the JPMC Affiliated QPAMs to comply with the conditions of
the exemption provided that such failure was not due to the actions or
inactions of JPMC or its affiliates, and Section I(q) is amended,
accordingly.
Comment 37--Definition of Affiliated QPAM--Section II(a)
Section II(a) of the proposed five-year exemption provides: ``(a)
The term ``JPMC Affiliated QPAM'' means a ``qualified professional
asset manager''(as defined in Section VI(a) of PTE 84-14) that relies
on the relief provided by PTE 84-14 and with respect to which JPMC is a
current or future ``affiliate'' (as defined in Section VI(d)(1) of PTE
84-14). The term ``JPMC Affiliated QPAM'' excludes the parent entity,
JPMC, the division implicated in the criminal conduct that is the
subject of the Conviction.''
The Applicant states that the last sentence of proposed Section
II(a) contains an unintended error, as JPMC is not a division but is
the parent company in the affiliated group.
The Department agrees with this comment and has modified the
Section accordingly. The Department has reordered Section II, as
described below.
Comment 38--Definition of Conviction--Section II(e)
Section II(e) of the proposed five-year exemption provides: ``The
term `Conviction' means the judgment of conviction against JPMC for
violation of the Sherman Antitrust Act, 15 U.S.C. 1, which is scheduled
to be entered in the District Court for the District of Connecticut
(the District Court) (Case Number 3:15-cr-79-SRU), in connection with
JPMC, through one of its euro/U.S. dollar (EUR/USD) traders, entering
into and engaging in a combination and conspiracy to fix, stabilize,
maintain, increase or decrease the price of, and rig bids and offers
for, the EUR/USD currency pair exchanged in the FX spot market by
agreeing to eliminate competition in the purchase and sale of the EUR/
USD currency pair in the United States and elsewhere. For all purposes
under this exemption, `conduct' of any person or entity that is the
`subject of [a] Conviction' encompasses any conduct of JPMC and/or
their personnel, that is described in the Plea Agreement, (including
the Factual Statement), and other official regulatory or judicial
factual findings that are a part of this record.''
The Applicant states that this definition inaccurately paraphrases
the Plea Agreement and significantly expands the conduct to which JPMC
was charged and pleaded guilty. The Applicant states that it is neither
appropriate nor accurate for the Department to expand the definition
beyond the charge that was the subject of the Plea Agreement.
After considering this comment, the Department has revised the
definition accordingly.
Comment 39--Notice to Interested Persons
The Applicant requests that the Department confirm, and the
Department so confirms, that the Applicant had 30 days after Federal
Register publication of the proposal to notify interested persons.
Comment 40--Summary of Facts and Representations
The Applicant seeks certain clarifications to the Summary of Facts
and Representations that the Department does not view as relevant to
its determination whether to grant this exemption. Those requested
[[Page 61834]]
clarifications may be found as part of the public record for
Application No. D-11906, in a letter to the Department, dated January
20, 2017.
Comment of John Williams (December 7, 2016)
Mr. Williams comments that it is unclear ``how an entity which has
been convicted of wrong-doing should be granted a 5-year exemption from
regulations that it has already violated.''
The Applicant responds that Mr. Williams' statement is based on an
erroneous view that the Applicant has entered into a guilty plea with
the Department. With regard to the notice to interested persons, the
Applicant states that Mr. Williams' comment misconstrues, and
improperly conflates, the criminal proceedings and the purpose of the
proposed exemption. The Applicant states that it is not seeking, and
the proposed exemption does not grant, relief from regulations that
have already been violated. The Applicant further states that, although
the JPMC Affiliated QPAMs did not participate in or know of the
misconduct, the conviction of the non-asset manager affiliate would
nevertheless disqualify the uninvolved asset managers from relying on
the QPAM exemption. The Department reiterates that it determined that
this exemption is protective of, and in the interest of, Covered Plans
given the enhanced compliance and oversight requirements it imposes on
JPMC Affiliated QPAMs.
Comment of Lauri Robinson (December 12, 2016)
Ms. Robinson states that it ``is very difficult for laypersons to
understand how I can be adversely affected by this,'' and requests that
the Department ``make it easier to understand or elaborate on how it
effects [sic] current IRAs.'' Ms. Robinson believes that the Applicant
``should have informed customers of the violation and 550 million
dollar fine.''
In response, the Applicant states that, among other things, the
conviction was a matter of public record as of the date on which the
plea agreement was entered, and that Ms. Robinson was notified, as an
interested person, in accordance with the terms of the proposed
exemption.
The Department notes that each JPMC Affiliated QPAM must provide a
notice of the exemption, along with a separate summary describing the
facts that led to the Conviction, and a prominently displayed statement
that the Conviction results in a failure to meet a condition in PTE 84-
14, to each sponsor or beneficial owner of a Covered Plan, or the
sponsor of an investment fund in any case where a JPMC Affiliated QPAM
acts only as a sub-advisor to the investment fund in which such ERISA-
covered plan and IRA invests.
Comment of Mark Levy (December 20, 2016)
Mr. Levy, who states that he owns a Chase investment account, urges
the Department not to ``grant[ the Applicant] a `pass' for their wrong
doing [sic],'' because ``[n]o institution should be considered `too
big' to pay its share of imposed fines/penalties.''
In response, the Applicant states that, among other things, JPMC is
liable for approximately $1.9 billion in monetary penalties imposed by
the Department of Justice and other regulators; and that the asset
management businesses of the JPMC affiliated QPAMs had no involvement
in, or knowledge of, the misconduct. The Department reiterates that
this exemption is not punitive and is instead designed to protect
Covered Plans.
Comment of Dan Cable (December 22, 2016)
Mr. Cable objects to the exemption in general by stating he does
not believe that: (i) The Applicant is taking its criminal behavior
seriously, (ii) the QPAM exemption is not customarily and routinely
used, and (iii) the Applicant has not adequately demonstrated harm to
clients if the exemption is not granted.
In response, the Applicant states that, among other things, the
Department of Justice, the District Court, and other applicable
regulators already have imposed upon the Applicant certain monetary
penalties and other sanctions intended to punish the Applicant and
deter future wrongdoing. The Applicant states that it has taken
responsibility for the conduct that was the basis of the plea
agreement, that the JPMC Affiliated QPAMs had no involvement in the
conduct, and that such conduct violated neither ERISA nor the
Department's regulations. As such, the Applicant states that Department
should not use the exemption process to further punish these uninvolved
asset managers, and that to do so would only harm the plan and IRA
clients of the uninvolved JPMC Affiliated QPAMs.
The commenter also expresses concern that the training and audit
requirements of the proposed exemption are inadequate. In response, the
Applicant disagrees and states that these proposed requirements are
imposed on entities that had no involvement in the criminal conduct and
that these requirements add to pre-existing robust and comprehensive
training, audit, and compliance functions -- both firm-wide and
specific to the asset management businesses.
The commenter also expresses concern that the JPMC Affiliated QPAMs
benefited from the criminal conduct that is the subject of the
Conviction. In response, the Applicant notes that the proposed
exemption contains the following condition: ``(b) Other than a single
individual who worked for a non-fiduciary business within JPMorgan
Chase Bank and who had no responsibility for, and exercised no
authority in connection with, the management of plan assets, the JPMC
Affiliated QPAMs and the JPMC Related QPAMs (including their officers,
directors, agents other than JPMC, and employees of such JPMC QPAMs)
did not receive direct compensation, or knowingly receive indirect
compensation in connection with the criminal conduct that is the
subject of the Conviction.'' The Applicant states that it is able to
and will comply with this condition.
The commenter expresses skepticism that the JPMC Affiliated QPAMs
will not ``hire any of the crooks.'' In response, the Applicant states
that the proposed exemption contains the following condition: ``The
JPMC Affiliated QPAMs will not employ or knowingly engage any of the
individuals that participated in the criminal conduct that is the
subject of the Conviction.'' The Applicant states that it is able to
and will comply with this condition.
The commenter states that the QPAM exemption is not routinely
relied upon by the Applicant. According to the Applicant, practically
all retirement plans expect their asset managers to use the QPAM
exemption, and many counterparties expect representations from the
Applicant that it applies.
Finally, the commenter states that it is unclear how a client of
the JPMC Affiliated QPAMs would be harmed in the event that the
Department does not grant the requested exemption. In response, the
Applicant states that the loss of QPAM status for the JPMC Affiliated
QPAMs would have a very substantial impact, affecting a significant
number of ERISA plans and IRAs. The Applicant notes that, as of the
time its application was filed, the Applicant managed approximately
$65.5 billion in assets for ERISA plans, and over $12 billion in IRA
assets for over 32,000 IRAs.
Comment of Sharon Bushman (December 26, 2016)
The commenter, who states she is the holder of an IRA managed by
the
[[Page 61835]]
Applicant, states that she does not understand the notice to interested
persons, and requests that no action be taken on the exemption until a
full explanation is provided regarding the implications for individual
clients. In response, the Applicant states that the Department fully
explained the purpose and effect of the exemption in the preamble to
the Federal Register notice.
As noted above, each JPMC Affiliated QPAM must provide a notice of
the exemption, along with a separate summary describing the facts that
led to the Conviction, and a prominently displayed statement that the
Conviction results in a failure to meet a condition in PTE 84-14, to
each sponsor or beneficial owner of a Covered Plan, or the sponsor of
an investment fund in any case where a JPMC Affiliated QPAM acts only
as a sub-advisor to the investment fund in which such ERISA-covered
plan and IRA invests.
Comment of Cynthia Beaver (January 18, 2017)
The commenter states that she does not understand the notice to
interested persons and requests clarification regarding whether she
will be required to move her account if the exemption is not granted.
If the exemption is granted, the commenter asks whether there will be
adequate ``outside oversight'' to ensure that her account is safe.
In response, the Applicant expresses the view that the proposed
exemption's conditions (taking into account the Applicant's comments
with respect to the proposal) are sufficient and are designed to
protect clients such as the commenter from the any adverse effects of
the JPMC Affiliated QPAMs losing the QPAM exemption.
The Department notes that the exemption requires an extensive audit
every two years by a qualified auditor who is independent of JPMC.
Comment--Letter From House Committee on Financial Services
The Department also received a comment letter from certain members
of Congress (the Members) regarding this exemption, as well as
regarding other QPAM-related proposed one year exemptions. In the
letter, the Members stated that certain conditions contained in these
proposed exemptions are crucial to protecting the investments of our
nation's workers and retirees, referring to proposed conditions which
require each bank to: (a) Indemnify and hold harmless ERISA-covered
plans and IRAs for any damages resulting from the future misconduct of
such bank; and (b) disclose to the Department any Deferred Prosecution
Agreement or a Non-Prosecution Agreement with the U.S. Department of
Justice. The Members also requested that the Department hold hearings
in connection with the proposed exemptions.
The Department acknowledges the Members' concerns regarding the
need for public discourse regarding proposed exemptions. To this end,
the Department's procedures regarding prohibited transaction exemption
requests under ERISA (the Exemption Procedures) afford interested
persons the opportunity to request a hearing. Specifically, section
2570.46(a) of the Exemption Procedures provides that, ``[a]ny
interested person who may be adversely affected by an exemption which
the Department proposes to grant from the restrictions of section
406(b) of ERISA, section 4975(c)(1)(E) or (F) of the Code, or section
8477(c)(2) of FERSA may request a hearing before the Department within
the period of time specified in the Federal Register notice of the
proposed exemption.'' The Exemption Procedures provide that ``[t]he
Department will grant a request for a hearing made in accordance with
paragraph (a) of this section where a hearing is necessary to fully
explore material factual issues identified by the person requesting the
hearing.'' The Exemption Procedures also provide that ``[t]he
Department may decline to hold a hearing where: (1) The request for the
hearing does not meet the requirements of paragraph (a) of this
section; (2) the only issues identified for exploration at the hearing
are matters of law; or (3) the factual issues identified can be fully
explored through the submission of evidence in written (including
electronic) form.'' \13\
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\13\ 29 CFR part 2570, published at 76 FR 66653 (October 27,
2011).
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While the Members' letter raises important policy issues, it does
not appear to raise specific material factual issues. The Department
previously explored a wide range of legal and policy issues regarding
Section I(g) of the QPAM Exemption during a public hearing held on
January 15, 2015 in connection with the Department's proposed exemption
involving Credit Suisse AG, and has determined that an additional
hearing on these issues is not necessary.
After giving full consideration to the record, the Department has
decided to grant the exemption, as described above. The complete
application file (Application No. D-11906) is available for public
inspection in the Public Disclosure Room of the Employee Benefits
Security Administration, Room N-1515, U.S. Department of Labor, 200
Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20210.
For a more complete statement of the facts and representations
supporting the Department's decision to grant this exemption, refer to
the notice of proposed exemption published on November 21, 2016 at 81
FR 83372.
Exemption
Section I: Covered Transactions
Certain entities with specified relationships to JPMC (hereinafter,
the JPMC Affiliated QPAMs and the JPMC Related QPAMs, as defined in
Sections II(g) and II(h), respectively) will not be precluded from
relying on the exemptive relief provided by Prohibited Transaction
Class Exemption 84-14 (PTE 84-14 or the QPAM Exemption),
notwithstanding the Conviction, as defined in Section II(a), during the
Exemption Period,\14\ provided that the following conditions are
satisfied:
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\14\ Section I(g) of PTE 84-14 generally provides relief only if
``[n]either the QPAM nor any affiliate thereof . . . nor any owner .
. . of a 5 percent or more interest in the QPAM is a person who
within the 10 years immediately preceding the transaction has been
either convicted or released from imprisonment, whichever is later,
as a result of'' certain felonies including violation of the Sherman
Antitrust Act, Title 15 United States Code, Section 1.
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(a) Other than a single individual who worked for a non-fiduciary
business within JPMorgan Chase Bank and who had no responsibility for,
and exercised no authority in connection with, the management of plan
assets, the JPMC Affiliated QPAMs and the JPMC Related QPAMs (including
their officers, directors, agents other than JPMC, and employees of
such QPAMs who had responsibility for, or exercised authority in
connection with the management of plan assets) did not know of, did not
have reason to know of, or participate in the criminal conduct that is
the subject of the Conviction. For purposes of this paragraph (a),
``participate in'' means the knowing approval of the misconduct
underlying the Conviction;
(b) Apart from a non-fiduciary line of business within JPMorgan
Chase Bank, the JPMC Affiliated QPAMs and the JPMC Related QPAMs
(including their officers, directors, and agents other than JPMC, and
employees of such JPMC QPAMs who had responsibility for, or exercised
authority in connection with the management of plan assets) did not
receive direct compensation, or knowingly receive indirect
compensation, in connection with the criminal conduct that is the
subject of the Conviction;
(c) The JPMC Affiliated QPAMs will not employ or knowingly engage
any of
[[Page 61836]]
the individuals that participated in the criminal conduct that is the
subject of the Conviction. For the purposes of this paragraph (c),
``participated in'' means the knowing approval of the misconduct
underlying the Conviction;
(d) At all times during the Exemption Period, no JPMC Affiliated
QPAM will use its authority or influence to direct an ``investment
fund'' (as defined in Section VI(b) of PTE 84-14), that is subject to
ERISA or the Code and managed by such JPMC Affiliated QPAM with respect
to one or more Covered Plans, to enter into any transaction with JPMC,
or to engage JPMC to provide any service to such investment fund, for a
direct or indirect fee borne by such investment fund, regardless of
whether such transaction or service may otherwise be within the scope
of relief provided by an administrative or statutory exemption;
(e) Any failure of a JPMC Affiliated QPAM or a JPMC Related QPAM to
satisfy Section I(g) of PTE 84-14 arose solely from the Conviction;
(f) A JPMC Affiliated QPAM or a JPMC Related QPAM did not exercise
authority over the assets of any plan subject to Part 4 of Title I of
ERISA (an ERISA-covered plan) or section 4975 of the Code (an IRA) in a
manner that it knew or should have known would: further the criminal
conduct that is the subject of the Conviction; or cause the JPMC
Affiliated QPAM, the JPMC Related QPAM, or their affiliates to directly
or indirectly profit from the criminal conduct that is the subject of
the Conviction;
(g) Other than with respect to employee benefit plans maintained or
sponsored for its own employees or the employees of an affiliate, JPMC
will not act as a fiduciary within the meaning of section 3(21)(A)(i)
or (iii) of ERISA, or section 4975(e)(3)(A) and (C) of the Code, with
respect to ERISA-covered plan and IRA assets; provided, however, that
JPMC will not be treated as violating the conditions of this exemption
solely because it acted as an investment advice fiduciary within the
meaning of section 3(21)(A)(ii) or section 4975(e)(3)(B) of the Code;
(h)(1) By July 9, 2018, each JPMC Affiliated QPAM must develop,
implement, maintain, and follow written policies and procedures (the
Policies). The Policies must require, and must be reasonably designed
to ensure that:
(i) The asset management decisions of the JPMC Affiliated QPAM are
conducted independently of the corporate management and business
activities of JPMC;
(ii) The JPMC Affiliated QPAM fully complies with ERISA's fiduciary
duties and with ERISA and the Code's prohibited transaction provisions,
as applicable with respect to each Covered Plan, and does not knowingly
participate in any violation of these duties and provisions with
respect to Covered Plans;
(iii) The JPMC Affiliated QPAM does not knowingly participate in
any other person's violation of ERISA or the Code with respect to
Covered Plans;
(iv) Any filings or statements made by the JPMC Affiliated QPAM to
regulators, including, but not limited to, the Department, the
Department of the Treasury, the Department of Justice, and the Pension
Benefit Guaranty Corporation, on behalf of or in relation to Covered
Plans are materially accurate and complete, to the best of such QPAM's
knowledge at that time;
(v) To the best of the JPMC Affiliated QPAM's knowledge at the
time, the JPMC Affiliated QPAM does not make material
misrepresentations or omit material information in its communications
with such regulators with respect to Covered Plans;
(vi) The JPMC Affiliated QPAM complies with the terms of this
exemption; and
(vii) Any violation of, or failure to comply with an item in
subparagraphs (ii) through (vi), is corrected as soon as reasonably
possible upon discovery, or as soon after the QPAM reasonably should
have known of the noncompliance (whichever is earlier), and any such
violation or compliance failure not so corrected is reported, upon the
discovery of such failure to so correct, in writing, to the head of
compliance and the General Counsel (or their functional equivalent) of
the relevant line of business that engaged in the violation or failure,
and the independent auditor responsible for reviewing compliance with
the Policies. A JPMC Affiliated QPAM will not be treated as having
failed to develop, implement, maintain, or follow the Policies,
provided that it corrects any instance of noncompliance as soon as
reasonably possible upon discovery, or as soon as reasonably possible
after the QPAM reasonably should have known of the noncompliance
(whichever is earlier), and provided that it adheres to the reporting
requirements set forth in this subparagraph (vii);
(2) By July 9, 2018, each JPMC Affiliated QPAM must develop a
program of training (the Training), to be conducted at least annually,
for all relevant JPMC Affiliated QPAM asset/portfolio management,
trading, legal, compliance, and internal audit personnel. The first
Training under this Final Exemption must be completed by all relevant
JPMC Affiliated QPAM personnel by July 9, 2019 (by the end of this 30-
month period, asset/portfolio management, trading, legal, compliance,
and internal audit personnel who were employed from the start to the
end of the period must have been trained twice: the first time under
PTE 2016-15; and the second time under this exemption). The Training
must:
(i) At a minimum, cover the Policies, ERISA and Code compliance
(including applicable fiduciary duties and the prohibited transaction
provisions), ethical conduct, the consequences for not complying with
the conditions of this exemption (including any loss of exemptive
relief provided herein), and prompt reporting of wrongdoing; and
(ii) Be conducted by a professional who has been prudently selected
and who has appropriate technical training and proficiency with ERISA
and the Code;
(i)(1) Each JPMC Affiliated QPAM submits to an audit conducted
every two years by an independent auditor who has been prudently
selected and who has appropriate technical training and proficiency
with ERISA and the Code, to evaluate the adequacy of, and each JPMC
Affiliated QPAM's compliance with, the Policies and Training described
herein. The audit requirement must be incorporated in the Policies.
Each audit must cover the preceding consecutive twelve (12) month
period. The first audit must cover the period from July 10, 2018
through July 9, 2019, and must be completed by January 9, 2020. The
second audit must cover the period from July 10, 2020 through July 9,
2021, and must be completed by January 9, 2022. In the event that the
Exemption Period is extended or a new exemption is granted, the third
audit would cover the period from July 10, 2022 through July 9, 2023,
and would have to be completed by January 9, 2024 (unless the
Department chooses to alter the biennial audit requirement in the new
or extended exemption);'' \15\
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\15\ The third audit referenced above would not have to be
completed until after the Exemption Period expires. If the
Department ultimately decides to grant relief for an additional
period, it could decide to alter the terms of the exemption,
including the audit conditions (and the timing of the audit
requirements). Nevertheless, the Applicant should anticipate that
the Department will insist on strict compliance with the audit terms
and schedule set forth above. As it considers any new exemption
application, the Department may also contact the auditor for any
information relevant to its determination.
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(2) Within the scope of the audit and to the extent necessary for
the auditor,
[[Page 61837]]
in its sole opinion, to complete its audit and comply with the
conditions for relief described herein, and only to the extent such
disclosure is not prevented by state or federal statute, or involves
communications subject to attorney client privilege, each JPMC
Affiliated QPAM and, if applicable, JPMC, will grant the auditor
unconditional access to its business, including, but not limited to:
its computer systems; business records; transactional data; workplace
locations; training materials; and personnel. Such access is limited to
information relevant to the auditor's objectives as specified by the
terms of this exemption;
(3) The auditor's engagement must specifically require the auditor
to determine whether each JPMC Affiliated QPAM has developed,
implemented, maintained, and followed the Policies in accordance with
the conditions of this exemption, and has developed and implemented the
Training, as required herein;
(4) The auditor's engagement must specifically require the auditor
to test each JPMC Affiliated QPAM's operational compliance with the
Policies and Training. In this regard, the auditor must test, for each
QPAM, a sample of such QPAM's transactions involving Covered Plans,
sufficient in size and nature to afford the auditor a reasonable basis
to determine such QPAM's operational compliance with the Policies and
Training;
(5) For each audit, on or before the end of the relevant period
described in Section I(i)(1) for completing the audit, the auditor must
issue a written report (the Audit Report) to JPMC and the JPMC
Affiliated QPAM to which the audit applies that describes the
procedures performed by the auditor during the course of its
examination. The auditor, at its discretion, may issue a single
consolidated Audit Report that covers all the JPMC Affiliated QPAMs.
The Audit Report must include the auditor's specific determinations
regarding:
(i) The adequacy of each JPMC Affiliated QPAM's Policies and
Training; each JPMC Affiliated QPAM's compliance with the Policies and
Training; the need, if any, to strengthen such Policies and Training;
and any instance of the respective JPMC Affiliated QPAM's noncompliance
with the written Policies and Training described in Section I(h) above.
The JPMC Affiliated QPAM must promptly address any noncompliance. The
JPMC Affiliated QPAM must promptly address or prepare a written plan of
action to address any determination by the auditor regarding the
adequacy of the Policies and Training and the auditor's recommendations
(if any) with respect to strengthening the Policies and Training of the
respective Affiliated QPAM. Any action taken or the plan of action to
be taken by the respective JPMC Affiliated QPAM must be included in an
addendum to the Audit Report (such addendum must be completed prior to
the certification described in Section I(i)(7) below). In the event
such a plan of action to address the auditor's recommendation regarding
the adequacy of the Policies and Training is not completed by the time
of submission of the Audit Report, the following period's Audit Report
must state whether the plan was satisfactorily completed. Any
determination by the auditor that the respective JPMC Affiliated QPAM
has implemented, maintained, and followed sufficient Policies and
Training must not be based solely or in substantial part on an absence
of evidence indicating noncompliance. In this last regard, any finding
that a JPMC Affiliated QPAM has complied with the requirements under
this subparagraph must be based on evidence that the particular JPMC
Affiliated QPAM has actually implemented, maintained, and followed the
Policies and Training required by this exemption. Furthermore, the
auditor must not solely rely on the Annual Report created by the
compliance officer (the Compliance Officer), as described in Section
I(m) below, as the basis for the auditor's conclusions in lieu of
independent determinations and testing performed by the auditor, as
required by Section I(i)(3) and (4) above; and
(ii) The adequacy of the most recent Annual Review described in
Section I(m);
(6) The auditor must notify the respective JPMC Affiliated QPAM of
any instance of noncompliance identified by the auditor within five (5)
business days after such noncompliance is identified by the auditor,
regardless of whether the audit has been completed as of that date;
(7) With respect to each Audit Report, the General Counsel, or one
of the three most senior executive officers of the line of business
engaged in discretionary asset management services through the JPMC
Affiliated QPAM with respect to which the Audit Report applies, must
certify in writing, under penalty of perjury, that the officer has
reviewed the Audit Report and this exemption; that such JPMC Affiliated
QPAM has addressed, corrected or remedied any noncompliance and
inadequacy or has an appropriate written plan to address any inadequacy
regarding the Policies and Training identified in the Audit Report.
Such certification must also include the signatory's determination that
the Policies and Training in effect at the time of signing are adequate
to ensure compliance with the conditions of this exemption, and with
the applicable provisions of ERISA and the Code;
(8) The Risk Committee of JPMC's Board of Directors is provided a
copy of each Audit Report; and a senior executive officer with a direct
reporting line to the highest ranking legal compliance officer of JPMC
must review the Audit Report for each JPMC Affiliated QPAM and must
certify in writing, under penalty of perjury, that such officer has
reviewed each Audit Report;
(9) Each JPMC Affiliated QPAM provides its certified Audit Report,
by regular mail to: Office of Exemption Determinations (OED), 200
Constitution Avenue NW, Suite 400, Washington, DC 20210; or by private
carrier to: 122 C Street NW, Suite 400, Washington, DC 20001-2109. This
delivery must take place no later than thirty (30) days following
completion of the Audit Report. The Audit Report will be made part of
the public record regarding this exemption. Furthermore, each JPMC
Affiliated QPAM must make its Audit Report unconditionally available,
electronically or otherwise, for examination upon request by any duly
authorized employee or representative of the Department, other relevant
regulators, and any fiduciary of a Covered Plan;
(10) Each JPMC Affiliated QPAM and the auditor must submit to OED:
Any engagement agreement(s) entered into pursuant to the engagement of
the auditor under this exemption, no later than two (2) months after
the execution of any such engagement agreement;
(11) The auditor must provide the Department, upon request, for
inspection and review, access to all the workpapers created and
utilized in the course of the audit, provided such access and
inspection is otherwise permitted by law; and
(12) JPMC must notify the Department of a change in the independent
auditor no later than two (2) months after the engagement of a
substitute or subsequent auditor and must provide an explanation for
the substitution or change including a description of any material
disputes between the terminated auditor and JPMC;
(j) As of January 10, 2018 and throughout the Exemption Period,
with respect to any arrangement, agreement, or contract between a JPMC
Affiliated
[[Page 61838]]
QPAM and a Covered-Plan, the JPMC Affiliated QPAM agrees and warrants:
(1) To comply with ERISA and the Code, as applicable with respect
to such Covered Plan; to refrain from engaging in prohibited
transactions that are not otherwise exempt (and to promptly correct any
inadvertent prohibited transactions); and to comply with the standards
of prudence and loyalty set forth in section 404 of ERISA with respect
to each such ERISA-covered plan and IRA to the extent that section is
applicable;
(2) To indemnify and hold harmless the Covered Plan for any actual
losses resulting directly from a JPMC Affiliated QPAM's violation of
ERISA's fiduciary duties, as applicable, and of the prohibited
transaction provisions of ERISA and the Code, as applicable; a breach
of contract by the QPAM; or any claim arising out of the failure of
such JPMC Affiliated QPAM to qualify for the exemptive relief provided
by PTE 84-14 as a result of a violation of Section I(g) of PTE 84-14
other than the Conviction. This condition applies only to actual losses
caused by the JPMC Affiliated QPAM's violations.
(3) Not to require (or otherwise cause) the Covered Plan to waive,
limit, or qualify the liability of the JPMC Affiliated QPAM for
violating ERISA or the Code or engaging in prohibited transactions;
(4) Not to restrict the ability of such Covered Plan to terminate
or withdraw from its arrangement with the JPMC Affiliated QPAM with
respect to any investment in a separately managed account or pooled
fund subject to ERISA and managed by such QPAM, with the exception of
reasonable restrictions, appropriately disclosed in advance, that are
specifically designed to ensure equitable treatment of all investors in
a pooled fund in the event such withdrawal or termination may have
adverse consequences for all other investors. In connection with any
such arrangements involving investments in pooled funds subject to
ERISA entered into after the initial effective date of this exemption,
the adverse consequences must relate to of a lack of liquidity of the
underlying assets, valuation issues, or regulatory reasons that prevent
the fund from promptly redeeming an ERISA-covered plan's or IRA's
investment, and such restrictions must be applicable to all such
investors and effective no longer than reasonably necessary to avoid
the adverse consequences;
(5) Not to impose any fees, penalties, or charges for such
termination or withdrawal with the exception of reasonable fees,
appropriately disclosed in advance, that are specifically designed to
prevent generally recognized abusive investment practices or
specifically designed to ensure equitable treatment of all investors in
a pooled fund in the event such withdrawal or termination may have
adverse consequences for all other investors, provided that such fees
are applied consistently and in like manner to all such investors; and
(6) Not to include exculpatory provisions disclaiming or otherwise
limiting liability of the JPMC Affiliated QPAM for a violation of such
agreement's terms. To the extent consistent with Section 410 of ERISA,
however, this provision does not prohibit disclaimers for liability
caused by an error, misrepresentation, or misconduct of a plan
fiduciary or other party hired by the plan fiduciary who is independent
of JPMC and its affiliates, or damages arising from acts outside the
control of the JPMC Affiliated QPAM;
(7) By July 9, 2018, each JPMC Affiliated QPAM must provide a
notice of its obligations under this Section I(j) to each Covered Plan.
For all other prospective Covered Plans, the JPMC Affiliated QPAM will
agree to its obligations under this Section I(j) in an updated
investment management agreement between the JPMC Affiliated QPAM and
such clients or other written contractual agreement. This condition
will be deemed met for each Covered Plan that received a notice
pursuant to PTE 2016-15 that meets the terms of this condition.
Notwithstanding the above, a JPMC Affiliated QPAM will not violate the
condition solely because a Plan or IRA refuses to sign an updated
investment management agreement;
(k) By March 10, 2018, each JPMC Affiliated QPAM will provide a
notice of the exemption, along with a separate summary describing the
facts that led to the Conviction (the Summary), which have been
submitted to the Department, and a prominently displayed statement (the
Statement) that the Conviction results in a failure to meet a condition
in PTE 84-14, to each sponsor and beneficial owner of a Covered Plan,
or the sponsor of an investment fund in any case where a JPMC
Affiliated QPAM acts as a sub-advisor to the investment fund in which
such ERISA-covered plan and IRA invests. Any prospective client for
which a JPMC Affiliated QPAM relies on PTE 84-14 or has expressly
represented that the manager qualifies as a QPAM or relies on the QPAM
class exemption must receive the proposed and final exemptions with the
Summary and the Statement prior to, or contemporaneously with, the
client's receipt of a written asset management agreement from the JPMC
Affiliated QPAM. Disclosures may be delivered electronically.
(l) The JPMC Affiliated QPAMs must comply with each condition of
PTE 84-14, as amended, with the sole exception of the violation of
Section I(g) of PTE 84-14 that is attributable to the Conviction;
(m)(1) By July 9, 2018, JPMC designates a senior compliance officer
(the Compliance Officer) who will be responsible for compliance with
the Policies and Training requirements described herein. The Compliance
Officer must conduct an annual review for each annual period beginning
on January 10, 2018, (the Annual Review) \16\ to determine the adequacy
and effectiveness of the implementation of the Policies and Training.
With respect to the Compliance Officer, the following conditions must
be met:
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\16\ Such Annual Review must be completed with respect to the
annual periods ending January 9, 2019; January 9, 2020; January 9,
2021; January 9, 2022; and January 9, 2023.
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(i) The Compliance Officer must be a professional who has extensive
experience with, and knowledge of, the regulation of financial services
and products, including under ERISA and the Code; and
(ii) The Compliance Officer must have a direct reporting line to
the highest-ranking corporate officer in charge of legal compliance for
asset management;
(2) With respect to each Annual Review, the following conditions
must be met:
(i) The Annual Review includes a review of: Any compliance matter
related to the Policies or Training that was identified by, or reported
to, the Compliance Officer or others within the compliance and risk
control function (or its equivalent) during the previous year; any
material change in the relevant business activities of the JPMC
Affiliated QPAMs; and any change to ERISA, the Code, or regulations
related to fiduciary duties and the prohibited transaction provisions
that may be applicable to the activities of the JPMC Affiliated QPAMs;
(ii) The Compliance Officer prepares a written report for each
Annual Review (each, an Annual Report) that (A) summarizes his or her
material activities during the preceding year; (B) sets forth any
instance of noncompliance discovered during the preceding year, and any
related corrective action; (C) details any change to the Policies or
Training to guard against any similar instance of noncompliance
occurring again; and (D) makes recommendations, as necessary, for
additional training,
[[Page 61839]]
procedures, monitoring, or additional and/or changed processes or
systems, and management's actions on such recommendations;
(iii) In each Annual Report, the Compliance Officer must certify in
writing that to his or her knowledge: (A) The report is accurate; (B)
the Policies and Training are working in a manner which is reasonably
designed to ensure that the Policies and Training requirements
described herein are met; (C) any known instance of noncompliance
during the preceding year and any related correction taken to date have
been identified in the Annual Report; and (D) the JPMC Affiliated QPAMs
have complied with the Policies and Training, and/or corrected (or is
correcting) any instances of noncompliance in accordance with Section
I(h) above;
(iv) Each Annual Report must be provided to appropriate corporate
officers of JPMC and each JPMC Affiliated QPAM to which such report
relates; the head of compliance and the General Counsel (or their
functional equivalent) of the relevant JPMC Affiliated QPAM; and must
be made unconditionally available to the independent auditor described
in Section I(i) above;
(v) Each Annual Review, including the Compliance Officer's written
Annual Report, must be completed within three (3) months following the
end of the period to which it relates;
(n) Each JPMC Affiliated QPAM will maintain records necessary to
demonstrate that the conditions of this exemption have been met, for
six (6) years following the date of any transaction for which such JPMC
Affiliated QPAM relies upon the relief in the exemption;
(o) During the Exemption Period, JPMC: (1) Immediately discloses to
the Department any Deferred Prosecution Agreement (a DPA) or a Non-
Prosecution Agreement (an NPA) with the U.S. Department of Justice,
entered into by JPMC or any of its affiliates in connection with
conduct described in Section I(g) of PTE 84-14 or section 411 of ERISA;
and (2) immediately provides the Department any information requested
by the Department, as permitted by law, regarding the agreement and/or
conduct and allegations that led to the agreement;
(p) By July 9, 2018, each JPMC Affiliated QPAM, in its agreements
with, or in other written disclosures provided to Covered Plans, will
clearly and prominently inform Covered Plan clients of their right to
obtain a copy of the Policies or a description (``Summary Policies'')
which accurately summarizes key components of the QPAM's written
Policies developed in connection with this exemption. If the Policies
are thereafter changed, each Covered Plan client must receive a new
disclosure within six (6) months following the end of the calendar year
during which the Policies were changed.\17\ With respect to this
requirement, the description may be continuously maintained on a
website, provided that such website link to the Policies or the Summary
Policies is clearly and prominently disclosed to each Covered Plan; and
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\17\ In the event Applicant meets this disclosure requirement
through Summary Policies, changes to the Policies shall not result
in the requirement for a new disclosure unless, as a result of
changes to the Policies, the Summary Policies are no longer
accurate.
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(q) A JPMC Affiliated QPAM or a JPMC Related QPAM will not fail to
meet the terms of this exemption solely because a different JPMC
Affiliated QPAM or JPMC Related QPAM fails to satisfy a condition for
relief described in Sections I(c), (d), (h), (i), (j), (k), (l), (n)
and (p); or if the independent auditor described in Section I(i) fails
a provision of the exemption other than the requirement described in
Section I(i)(11), provided that such failure did not result from any
actions or inactions of JPMC or its affiliates.
Section II: Definitions
(a) The term ``Conviction'' means the judgment of conviction
against JPMC for violation of the Sherman Antitrust Act, 15 U.S.C. 1,
entered in the District Court for the District of Connecticut (the
District Court) (case number 3:15-cr-79-SRU). For all purposes under
this exemption, ``conduct'' of any person or entity that is the
``subject of [a] Conviction'' encompasses the conduct described in
Paragraph 4(g)-(i) of the Plea Agreement filed in the District Court in
case number 3:15-cr-79-SRU; and
(b) The term ``Conviction Date'' means the date of the judgment of
the trial court. For avoidance of confusion, the Conviction Date is
January 10, 2017, as set forth on page 3 of Dkt. 49, in case number
3:15-cr-79-SRU.
(c) The term ``Covered Plan'' means a plan subject to Part 4 of
Title 1 of ERISA (``ERISA-covered plan'') or a plan subject to Section
4975 of the Code (``IRA'') with respect to which a JPMC Affiliated QPAM
relies on PTE 84-14, or with respect to which a JPMC Affiliated QPAM
(or any JPMC affiliate) has expressly represented that the manager
qualifies as a QPAM or relies on the QPAM class exemption (PTE 84-14).
A Covered Plan does not include an ERISA-covered Plan or IRA to the
extent the JPMC Affiliated QPAM has expressly disclaimed reliance on
QPAM status or PTE 84-14 in entering into its contract, arrangement, or
agreement with the ERISA-covered plan or IRA;
(d) The terms ``ERISA-covered plan'' and ``IRA'' mean,
respectively, a plan subject to Part 4 of Title I of ERISA and a plan
subject to section 4975 of the Code.
(e) The term ``Exemption Period'' means January 10, 2018, through
January 9, 2023;
(f) The term ``JPMC'' means JPMorgan Chase and Co., the parent
entity, but does not include any subsidiaries or other affiliates;
(g) The term ``JPMC Affiliated QPAM'' means a ``qualified
professional asset manager,'' as defined in Section VI(a) of PTE 84-14,
that relies on the relief provided by PTE 84-14 and with respect to
which JPMC is a current or future ``affiliate'' (as defined in Section
VI(d)(1) of PTE 84-14). The term ``JPMC Affiliated QPAM'' excludes the
parent entity, JPMC, the entity implicated in the criminal conduct that
is the subject of the Conviction
(h) The term ``JPMC Related QPAM'' means any current or future
``qualified professional asset manager'' (as defined in section VI(a)
of PTE 84-14) that relies on the relief provided by PTE 84-14, and with
respect to which JPMC owns a direct or indirect five percent or more
interest, but with respect to which JPMC is not an ``affiliate'' (as
defined in Section VI(d)(1) of PTE 84-14).
Effective Date
This exemption is effective on January 10, 2018. The term of the
exemption is from January 10, 2018, through January 9, 2023 (the
Exemption Period).
Department's Comment: The Department cautions that the relief in
this exemption will terminate immediately if, among other things, an
entity within the JPMC corporate structure is convicted of a crime
described in Section I(g) of PTE 84-14 (other than the Conviction)
during the Exemption Period. Although JPMC could apply for a new
exemption in that circumstance, the Department would not be obligated
to grant the exemption. The terms of this exemption have been
specifically designed to permit plans to terminate their relationships
in an orderly and cost effective fashion in the event of an additional
conviction or a determination that it is otherwise prudent for a plan
to terminate its relationship with an entity covered by the exemption.
[[Page 61840]]
Further Information
For more information on this exemption, contact Mr. Joseph Brennan
of the Department, telephone (202) 693-8456. (This is not a toll-free
number.)
Deutsche Investment Management Americas Inc. (DIMA) and Certain Current
and Future Asset Management Affiliates of Deutsche Bank AG
(collectively, the Applicant or the DB QPAMs), Located in New York, New
York
[Prohibited Transaction Exemption 2017-04; Exemption Application No. D-
11908]
Discussion
On November 21, 2016, the Department of Labor (the Department)
published a notice of proposed exemption in the Federal Register at 81
FR 83400, for certain entities with specified relationships to Deutsche
Securities Korea, Co. (DSK) \18\ or DB Group Services (UK) Limited (DB
Group Services) \19\ to continue to rely upon the relief provided by
PTE 84-14 for a period of five years,\20\ notwithstanding certain
criminal convictions, as described herein (the Convictions).
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\18\ Deutsche Securities Korea, Co. is a South Korean
``affiliate'' (as defined in Section VI(c) of PTE 84-14) of Deutsche
Bank AG.
\19\ DB Group Services (UK) Limited is United Kingdom-based
``affiliate'' (as defined in Section VI(c) of PTE 84-14) of Deutsche
Bank AG.
\20\ (49 FR 9494, March 13, 1984), as corrected at 50 FR 41430
(October 10, 1985), as amended at 70 FR 49305 (August 23, 2005) and
as amended at 75 FR 38837 (July 6, 2010), hereinafter referred to as
PTE 84-14 or the QPAM exemption.
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The Department is granting this exemption to ensure that Covered
Plans \21\ with assets managed by an asset manager within the corporate
family of Deutsche Bank AG (together with its current and future
affiliates, Deutsche Bank) may continue to benefit from the relief
provided by PTE 84-14. The effective date of this exemption is April
18, 2018, and the exemption is effective from April 18, 2018 through
April 17, 2021 (the Exemption Period).
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\21\ ``Covered Plan'' is a plan subject to Part 4 of Title 1 of
ERISA (``ERISA-covered plan'') or a plan subject to section 4975 of
the Code (``IRA'') with respect to which a DB QPAM relies on PTE 84-
14, or with respect to which a DB QPAM (or any Deutsche Bank
affiliate) has expressly represented that the manager qualifies as a
QPAM or relies on the QPAM class exemption (PTE 84-14). A Covered
Plan does not include an ERISA-covered plan or IRA to the extent the
DB QPAM has expressly disclaimed reliance on the QPAM status or PTE
84-14 in entering into its contract, arrangement, or agreement with
the ERISA-covered plan or IRA. See further discussion in this
preamble under the heading Comment 5--Policies and Procedures
related to DB QPAM Disclosures--Section I(h)(1)(iv)-(v).
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No relief from a violation of any other law is provided by this
exemption, including any criminal conviction described in the proposed
exemption. Furthermore, the Department cautions that the relief in this
exemption will terminate immediately if, among other things, an entity
within the Deutsche Bank corporate structure is convicted of a crime
described in Section I(g) of PTE 84-14 (other than the Convictions)
during the Exemption Period. The terms of this exemption are designed
to promote adherence to basic fiduciary standards under ERISA and the
Code. This exemption also aims to ensure that Covered Plans can
terminate relationships in an orderly and cost effective fashion in the
event the fiduciary of a Covered Plan determines it is prudent to
terminate the relationship with a DB QPAM.
Written Comments
The Department invited all interested persons to submit written
comments and/or requests for a public hearing with respect to the
notice of proposed exemption, published in the Federal Register at 81
FR 83400 on November 21, 2016. All comments and requests for a hearing
were due by January 5, 2017.\22\ The Department received written
comments from the Applicant, members of the U.S. Congress, and a number
of plan and IRA clients of Deutsche Bank. After considering these
submissions, the Department has determined to grant the exemption, with
revisions, as described below.
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\22\ The comment period was subsequently extended by the
Department to January 17, 2017. However, the Department received
additional comments from the Applicant after the close of the
extended comment period.
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Comment 1--Knowing or Tacit Approval--Sections I(a) and I(c)
Section I(a) of the proposed exemption provides, ``(a) The DB QPAMs
(including their officers, directors, agents other than Deutsche Bank,
and employees of such DB QPAMs) did not know of, have reason to know
of, or participate in the criminal conduct of DSK and DB Group Services
that is the subject of the Convictions (for purposes of this Section
I(a), ``participate in'' includes the knowing or tacit approval of the
misconduct underlying the Convictions).''
Section I(c) of the proposed exemption provides, ``(c) The DB QPAMs
will not employ or knowingly engage any of the individuals that
participated in the criminal conduct that is the subject of the
Convictions (for the purposes of this Section I(c), ``participated in''
includes the knowing or tacit approval of the misconduct underlying the
Convictions).''
The Applicant requests that the parenthetical explanation for
``participated in'' be deleted in both Section I(a) and I(c). The
Applicant states that the language in both sections preceding the
parentheticals is clear and unambiguous, rendering the parentheticals
unnecessary. Alternatively, the Applicant requests that, should the
parenthetical remain in the exemption, the Department removes the words
``or tacit'' in the phrase ``knowing or tacit approval'' in Sections
I(a) and I(c). The Applicant states that the term ``is undefined and
ambiguous, and potentially encompasses a broad range of conduct that
could become the subject of disputes with counterparties.'' The
Applicant also states that ``tacit approval'' should not be replaced
with the term ``condone'' (as the Department did in paragraph (c) in
the Final Temporary Exemption), as it is duplicative of and has the
same meaning as ``approve''.
The Department declines to delete the parenthetical explanations in
Sections I(a) and I(c). Rather, after consideration, the Department
removed ``or tacit'' from both conditions so that ``participated in''
means the ``knowing approval of the misconduct underlying the
Convictions.''
Comment 2--Exercising Authority Over Plan Assets--Section I(f)
Section I(f) of the proposed exemption provides, ``(f) A DB QPAM
did not exercise authority over the assets of any plan subject to Part
4 of Title I of ERISA (an ERISA-covered plan) or section 4975 of the
Code (an IRA) in a manner that it knew or should have known would:
further the criminal conduct that is the subject of the Convictions; or
cause the QPAM, affiliates, or related parties to directly or
indirectly profit from the criminal conduct that is the subject of the
Convictions.''
Deutsche Bank requests that the phrase ``related parties'' in
Condition I(f) be deleted as the term ``is undefined and could lead to
confusion.'' The Applicant also states that this condition may be
interpreted as implicating the purchase, for a plan or IRA, of any
instrument linked to a benchmark rate. Deutsche Bank requests that the
Department add clarification language which ``[provides] that this
condition is not violated solely because an ERISA-covered plan or IRA
managed by a DB QPAM purchased, sold or held an economic interest in a
security or product, the value of which was tied to a benchmark
interest rate implicated in the conduct that is the subject of the
Convictions.''
[[Page 61841]]
After consideration, the Department deleted the phrase ``related
parties'' for clarity. However, the Department declines to make the
Applicant's other requested revisions. The Department does not view
Condition I(f) (which relates to exercising authority) as confusing.
Further, Condition I(f) is consistent with the Applicant's prior
representation that, with respect to the conviction of DB Group
Services (UK) Limited (DB Group Services) for LIBOR manipulation (the
US Conviction), ``[no] current or former employee of [DB Group
Services] or of any affiliated QPAM who previously has been or who
subsequently may be identified by [DB Group Services], Deutsche Bank AG
or any U.S. or non-U.S. regulatory or enforcement agencies as having
been responsible for the [LIBOR-related misconduct] will be an officer,
director, or employee of any Applicant or of any other current or
future affiliated QPAM; and . . . no employee of [DB Group Services] or
of any affiliated QPAM who was involved in the [LIBOR-related
misconduct] had any, or will have any future, involvement in the
current or future affiliated QPAMs' asset management activities.'' \23\
With respect to the conviction of Deutsche Securities Korea Co. (DSK)
for market manipulation (the Korean Conviction), the Applicant has
represented that ``Deutsche Bank's [Asset & Wealth Management] Division
had no involvement whatsoever in the conduct or compliance issues that
formed the basis for the LIBOR and South Korea matters . . . .'' \24\
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\23\ See DIMA Exemption Application (April 23, 2015), at 12-13.
\24\ See Deutsche Bank AG Submission to the Department of Labor
in Further Support of Applications for Conditional Exemption
(September 18, 2015), at 8.
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Furthermore, the Department does not believe that the proposed
carve-out for transactions involving the sale, purchase or holding of
instruments tied to a benchmark interest rate is necessary. The
Applicant has informed the Department that, with respect to condition
I(a), the Applicant can represent the following: ``Other than certain
individuals who worked for non-asset management business within DBSI
and/or DBAG and [who] had no responsibility for, and exercised no
authority in connection with, the management of plan assets, and are no
longer employed by DBSI and DBAG, the DB QPAMs (including their
officers, directors, agents other than Deutsche Bank, and employees of
such DB QPAMs) did not know of, have reason to know of, or participate
in the criminal conduct of DSK and DB Group Services that is the
subject of the Convictions.'' \25\ The Department believes that this
representation obviates the need for a carve-out, regardless of whether
the instrument involved in the transaction is tied to a benchmark
interest rate.
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
\25\ Applicant Submission to the Department (May 25, 2017), at
3.
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
In addition, the Department clarified that Section I(d) applies (a)
to ``investment funds'' managed by the DB QPAM with respect to Covered
Plans, and (b) at all times during the Exemption Period.
Comment 3--Restriction on Provision of Discretionary Asset Management
Services--Section I(g)
Section I(g) of the proposed exemption provides, ``(g) DSK and DB
Group Services will not provide discretionary asset management services
to ERISA-covered plans or IRAs, nor will otherwise act as a fiduciary
with respect to ERISA-covered plan and IRA assets.''
Deutsche Bank states that the phrase ``otherwise act as a
fiduciary'' precludes DSK and DB Group Services from acting as a
fiduciary in any way with respect to ERISA-covered plans and IRA
assets, including under the Department's new ``Definition of the Term
`Fiduciary';'' ``Conflict of Interest Rule--Retirement Investment
Advice,'' 81 FR 200946 (April 8, 2016), and including with respect to
DSK's and DB Group Services' own internal plans. Deutsche Bank
represents that because DSK acts as a broker-dealer and may provide
investment advice, such conduct will require DSK to acknowledge that it
is acting as a fiduciary once the new fiduciary rule becomes effective,
and this condition would make it impossible for plans to engage DSK for
any services at all. The Applicant states that, while DSK and DB Group
Services should not be permitted to act as discretionary asset managers
of ERISA-covered plans and IRAs because of the crimes which led to the
Convictions, the Department should not preclude ERISA-covered plans or
IRAs from independently engaging DSK for other services or limit the
activities of any entity other than those so convicted. The Applicant
requests that ``provide discretionary asset management services to
ERISA-covered plans or IRAs, nor will otherwise act as a fiduciary with
respect to ERISA-covered plan and IRA assets'' be replaced with ``act
as fiduciaries within the meaning of ERISA Section 3(21)(A)(i) or
(iii), or Code Section 4975(e)(3)(A) or (C), with respect to ERISA-
covered plan and IRA assets.'' Also, the Applicant requests that the
Department provide a carve-out ``with respect to employee benefit plans
maintained or sponsored for their own employees or the employees of an
affiliate.''
Furthermore, Deutsche Bank states that it, like many foreign banks,
uses foreign service companies, like DB Group Services, to hire and pay
employees who then work for, and are supervised by, other entities in
the Deutsche Bank controlled group. The Applicant represents that DB
Group Services provides employees to Deutsche Bank asset management
affiliates, and that these employees are then responsible for the
employees' training, supervision, compliance, etc., as if they were
employed by such affiliates. Accordingly, Deutsche Bank requests
confirmation that the fact that DB Group Services employs and pays such
individual employees will not cause a DB QPAM to fail to meet this
condition. Specifically, the Applicant requests that the Department
qualify Section I(g) by ``[providing] that DSK and DB Group Services
will not be treated as violating this condition solely because they
acted as investment advice fiduciaries within the meaning of ERISA
Section 3(21)(A)(ii), or Section 4975(e)(3)(B) of the Code, or because
DB Group Services employees may be double-hatted, seconded, supervised
or otherwise subject to the control of a DB QPAM, including in a
discretionary fiduciary capacity with respect to the DB QPAM clients.''
The Department concurs with the Applicant, and has modified Section
I(g) of the final exemption accordingly.
The Department has also clarified that this condition does not
apply with respect to employee benefit plans maintained or sponsored
for their own employees or the employees of an affiliate of DSK or DB
Group Services.
Comment 4--Policies and Procedures Relating to Compliance With ERISA
and the Code--Section I(h)(1)(ii)-(iii)
Sections I(h)(1)(ii)-(iii) of the proposed exemption provide,
``(h)(1) Each DB QPAM must immediately develop, implement, maintain,
and follow written policies and procedures (the Policies) requiring and
reasonably designed to ensure that:
(ii) The DB QPAM fully complies with ERISA's fiduciary duties and
with ERISA and the Code's prohibited transaction provisions, and does
not knowingly participate in any violation of these duties and
provisions with respect to ERISA-covered plans and IRAs;
[[Page 61842]]
(iii) The DB QPAM does not knowingly participate in any other
person's violation of ERISA or the Code with respect to ERISA-covered
plans and IRAs;''
The Applicant requests that the subparagraph I(h)(1)(iii) be
stricken as duplicative. The Applicant states that the requirement that
a DB QPAM ``not knowingly participate in any other person's violation''
is ``subsumed within the requirement'' that such DB QPAM ``not
knowingly participate in any violation'' of the duties and provisions
set forth in ERISA and the Code (including Section 405 of ERISA).
The Department declines to make this deletion. The specific
elements of the Policies requirement as set forth in this exemption are
essential to its protective purposes. In approving this exemption, the
Department significantly relies upon conditions designed to ensure that
those relying upon its terms for prohibited transaction relief will
adopt a culture of compliance centered on basic fiduciary norms and
standards of fair dealing, as reflected in the Policies. These
standards are core protections of this exemption. The Department does
not view subparagraph (iii) of Section I(h)(1), which relates to a DB
QPAM's compliance with ERISA or the Code, as duplicative of
subparagraph (ii), which includes also a DB QPAM's full compliance with
ERISA's fiduciary duties, and with ERISA and the Code's prohibited
transaction provisions. Subparagraph (ii) is based on the DB QPAM's
management of assets of Covered Plans. On the other hand, subparagraph
(iii) focuses on the DB QPAM's diligence in collaborating with third
parties in the management of assets of Covered Plans.
The Department modified the Policies' requirement of adherence to
the fiduciary and prohibited transaction provisions of ERISA and the
Code in subparagraph (ii) so that the Policies expressly focus on the
provisions only to the extent ``in each such case as applicable with
respect to each Covered Plan . . . .'' In general, however, the
Department has otherwise retained the stringency and breadth of the
Policies requirement, which is more than justified by the compliance
and oversight failures exhibited by Deutsche Bank throughout the long
period of time during which the criminal misconduct persisted. The
Department notes that it made minor revisions to reflect the fact that
DB QPAMs may already have Policies under the previous exemption, in
which case, they are required to ``maintain'' such Policies.
Comment 5--Policies and Procedures Related to DB QPAM Disclosures--
Section I(h)(1)(iv)-(v)
Sections I(h)(1)(iv)-(v) of the proposed exemption provide,
``(h)(1) Each DB QPAM must immediately develop, implement, maintain,
and follow written policies and procedures (the Policies) requiring and
reasonably designed to ensure that:
(iv) Any filings or statements made by the DB QPAM to regulators,
including but not limited to, the Department, the Department of the
Treasury, the Department of Justice, and the Pension Benefit Guaranty
Corporation, on behalf of ERISA-covered plans or IRAs are materially
accurate and complete, to the best of such QPAM's knowledge at that
time;
(v) The DB QPAM does not make material misrepresentations or omit
material information in its communications with such regulators with
respect to ERISA-covered plans or IRAs, or make material
misrepresentations or omit material information in its communications
with ERISA-covered plan and IRA clients.''
The Applicant states that Sections I(h)(1)(iv) I(h)(1)(v) are
``overlapping, duplicative and extend beyond the scope of exemptive
relief'' to instances where the Applicant is not acting in reliance on
PTE 84-14. The Applicant requests that the subparagraphs be limited to
situations where the Applicant is relying on PTE 84-14 and this
exemption. Also, Deutsche Bank states that the distinction between
subparagraph (iv)'s requirement that information provided to regulators
be materially accurate and complete and subparagraph (v)'s requirement
that such communications may not have material misrepresentations or
omissions is unclear, and suggests the reference in (v) be deleted.
Finally, Deutsche Bank requests that the phrase ``to the best of such
QPAM's knowledge at that time'' should appear in subparagraph (h)(1)(v)
as it does in subparagraph (h)(1)(iv), but is absent from condition
(h)(1)(v).
The Department notes that the Section I(h) requirement that the
policies and procedures developed by the DB QPAM adhere to basic
fiduciary norms is a protective measure that is necessary in light of
the substantial compliance and oversight failures exhibited by Deutsche
Bank throughout the long period of time during which the misconduct
persisted. Notwithstanding this, the Department is revising the
condition, in part, as requested by the Applicant.
Subsection (v) has been revised to contain the ``to the best of
QPAM's knowledge at the time'' concept found in subsection (iv); and
the applicability of subsections (iv) and (v) has been narrowed to
ERISA-covered plans and IRAs with respect to which a DB QPAM relies on
PTE 84-14, or with respect to which a DB QPAM has expressly represented
that the manager qualifies as a QPAM or relies on the QPAM class
exemption in its dealings with the ERISA-covered plan or IRA
(hereinafter, a Covered Plan). To the extent a DB QPAM would prefer not
to be subject to this provision, however, it may expressly disclaim
reliance on QPAM status or PTE 84-14 in entering into its contract with
an ERISA-covered plan or IRA, and such plan or IRA is not a Covered
Plan.\26\ This revision is consistent with the Department's intent to
protect Covered Plans that may have hired a DB QPAM based on the
understanding that the manager qualifies as a QPAM or relies on PTE 84-
14.
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
\26\ Of course, neither may the QPAM rely on PTE 84-14 or this
exemption with respect to any such ERISA-covered plan or IRA for
which it has expressly disclaimed reliance on QPAM status or PTE 84-
14.
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
As noted in more detail below, the Department will not strike a
condition merely because it is also a statutory requirement. It is the
express intent of the Department to preclude relief for a DB QPAM that
fails to meet the requirements of this exemption, including those
derived from basic norms codified in statute, as applicable.
Comment 6--Corrections of Violations and Failures To Comply--Section
I(h)(1)(vii)
Section I(h)(1)(vii) of the proposed exemption provides, ``(vii)
Any violation of, or failure to comply with, an item in subparagraphs
(ii) through (vi), is corrected promptly upon discovery, and any such
violation or compliance failure not promptly corrected is reported,
upon the discovery of such failure to promptly correct, in writing, to
appropriate corporate officers, the head of compliance and the General
Counsel (or their functional equivalent) of the relevant DB QPAM, the
independent auditor responsible for reviewing compliance with the
Policies, and an appropriate fiduciary of any affected ERISA-covered
plan or IRA that is independent of Deutsche Bank; however, with respect
to any ERISA-covered plan or IRA sponsored by an `affiliate' (as
defined in Section VI(d) of PTE 84-14) of Deutsche Bank or beneficially
owned by an employee of Deutsche Bank or its affiliates, such fiduciary
does not need to be independent of Deutsche Bank. A DB
[[Page 61843]]
QPAM will not be treated as having failed to develop, implement,
maintain, or follow the Policies, provided that it corrects any
instance of noncompliance promptly when discovered, or when it
reasonably should have known of the noncompliance (whichever is
earlier), and provided that it adheres to the reporting requirements
set forth in this subparagraph (vii).''
The Applicant states that Section I(h)(1)(vii) extends beyond the
scope necessary to ensure compliance with other requirements in
condition (h). Deutsche Bank states that the reporting requirement is
not needed given the ``multiple, overlapping requirements'' related to
the Annual Review and the Audit Report.
Deutsche Bank also references several ``ambiguities'' in
subparagraph (vii). The Applicant states that the term ``promptly'' is
undefined, and, as a result, it is unclear when a violation must be
corrected and when the reporting obligation is triggered. Similarly,
the phrases ``appropriate corporate officers . . . of the relevant DB
QPAM'' and ``appropriate fiduciary of any affected ERISA-covered plan
or IRA'' are undefined. The Applicant states that the last sentence of
subparagraph (vii) does not provide meaningful relief because some
corrections will take longer to complete than the exemption appears to
permit.
The Applicant suggests that the correction procedure provided in
subparagraph (vii) should apply to any violation of or failure to
comply with subparagraph (i) regarding the policy governing
independence in asset management decisions as well. The Applicant
further suggests that it should be allowed to correct any errors under
the policy, as with the other errors. Deutsche Bank states that the
Department has not explained why a failure under subparagraph (i),
however inadvertent, should result in an automatic loss of the
exemption.
Deutsche Bank suggests the following language: ``(vii) Within sixty
(60) days of its discovery of any violation of, or failure to comply
with, an item in subparagraphs (i) through (vi), such DB QPAM will
formulate, in writing, a plan to address such violation or failure (a
Correction Plan). To the extent any such Correction Plan is not
formulated within sixty (60) days of the DB QPAM's discovery of such
violation or failure, the DB QPAM will report in writing such violation
or failure to the head of compliance or the General Counsel (or their
functional equivalents) of the relevant line of business that engaged
in such violation or failure.''
The Department has based the conditions of this exemption on both
the particular facts underlying the Convictions and its experience over
time with previous exemptions. For the reasons set out herein, the
Department has concluded that the specific conditions of this exemption
are appropriate and give the Department a reasonable basis for
concluding that the exemptions are appropriately protective of affected
plans and IRAs. As noted above, a central aim of the exemption is to
ensure that those relying upon the exemption for relief from the
prohibited transaction rules will consistently act to promote a culture
of fiduciary compliance, notwithstanding the conduct that violated
Section I(g) of PTE 84-14.
The Department does not agree with the Applicant's contention that
the Section I(h)(1)(vii) extends beyond the scope necessary to ensure
compliance with other requirements in Section I(h), or that it is
duplicative of the Annual Report and Audit Report requirements. The
Department considers the Policies, and the DB QPAM's compliance
therewith, to be a fundamental component of exemptive relief, and this
Section I(h)(1)(vii) emphasizes the importance of this compliance,
including the correction process. Further the Department notes that the
audits and Annual Reports are periodic and do not reflect the timeframe
that this condition is intended to reflect.
Regarding the Applicant's requests for revisions, the Department is
replacing ``appropriate corporate officers'' with ``the head of
compliance and the General Counsel (or their functional equivalent) of
the relevant DB QPAM that engaged in the violation or failure.'' The
Department also will not condition the exemption on a requirement for
notification of violations to an appropriate fiduciary of any affected
ERISA-covered plan or IRA that is independent of Deutsche Bank.
However, the Department is not revising the ``subparagraphs (ii)
through (vi)'' reference to include ``subparagraph (i)'' because the
Department intends to preclude relief to the extent a DB QPAM fails to
develop, implement, maintain, and follow written policies and
procedures. Clearly, it is not enough merely to develop policies and
procedures, without also implementing, maintaining, and following the
terms of those policies and procedures. Covered Plans do not benefit
from the creation of strong policies and procedures, unless they are
actually followed.
The Department has revised the term ``corrected promptly'' for
consistency with the Department's intent that violations or compliance
failures be corrected ``as soon as reasonably possible upon discovery
or as soon after the QPAM reasonably should have known of the
noncompliance (whichever is sooner).'' However, the Department intends
to preclude relief to the extent violations or failures are not
corrected as required by the exemption. Therefore, the Department has
not adopted the Applicant's proposed subparagraph (vii), which requires
little more than the formulation of a correction plan, without any
corresponding obligation to actually implement the plan.
Comment 7--Time to Implement Training--Section I(h)(2)
The prefatory language in Section I(h)(2) provides, ``(2) Each DB
QPAM must immediately develop and implement a program of training (the
Training), conducted at least annually, for all relevant DB QPAM asset/
portfolio management, trading, legal, compliance, and internal audit
personnel.''
Deutsche Bank requests that, in order to avoid confusion over
whether Applicant must train the same pool of employees multiple times
in a year, the Department add a clarifying proviso to this requirement,
specifically, at the end of the first sentence in the prefatory
language: ``(this condition in paragraph (h)(2) shall be deemed to be
met with respect to any employee trained in accordance with the
requirements of PTE 2016-12 or the temporary one-year exemption within
the prior 12 months).'' The Applicant states that it is also subject to
a similar training requirement under the temporary exemption. Deutsche
Bank represents that, during the period covered by PTE 2015-15, it
trained more than 1,000 of its employees.
The Department clarifies that, to the extent that the Training
requirements in Section I(h)(2) of the exemption, and the corresponding
requirements in PTE 2016-13 and PTE 2016-12 are consistent, such
provisions should be harmonized so that the sequential exemptions do
not inadvertently require multiple trainings per year. Consistent with
this requested change in the prefatory language, the Department has
added further clarity on the timeline with respect to the Training. The
Department is specifying that ``the first Training under this Exemption
must be completed by all relevant DB QPAM personnel by April 17,
2019.'' Furthermore, the Department specifies that, by April 17, 2019,
asset/portfolio management, trading, legal, compliance, and internal
audit personnel who were
[[Page 61844]]
employed from April 18, 2017 through April 17, 2019 must have been
trained at least twice: the first time under PTE 2016-13; and the
second time under this exemption. The Department notes that it made
minor revisions to reflect the fact that DB QPAMs may already have
Training under the previous exemption, in which case, they are required
to ``maintain.''
Comment 8--Training Set Forth in Policies--Section I(h)(2)(i)
Section I(h)(2)(i) of the proposed exemption provides, ``(2) Each
DB QPAM must immediately develop and implement a program of training
(the Training), conducted at least annually, for all relevant DB QPAM
asset/portfolio management, trading, legal, compliance, and internal
audit personnel. The Training must:
(i) Be set forth in the Policies and at a minimum, cover the
Policies, ERISA and Code compliance (including applicable fiduciary
duties and the prohibited transaction provisions), ethical conduct, the
consequences for not complying with the conditions of this exemption
(including any loss of exemptive relief provided herein), and prompt
reporting of wrongdoing;''
The Applicant states that the requirement in Section I(h)(2)(i)
that the Training must be ``set forth in'' the Policies may cause
significant logistical challenges over time. The Applicant requests
that the section be clarified, such that only the requirement of the
Training should be set forth in the Policies.
The Department concurs with the Applicant's comment and has revised
the condition accordingly.
Comment 9--Training by Independent Professional--Section I(h)(2)(ii)
Section I(h)(2)(ii) of the proposed exemption provides, ``. . . The
Training must: . . . (ii) Be conducted by an independent professional
who has been prudently selected and who has appropriate technical and
training and proficiency with ERISA and the Code.''
The Applicant requests that Section I(h)(2)(ii) be deleted, stating
that it is not necessary for the Department to specify who conducts the
Training, what the professional's background is, how the Training is
conducted or when the independent auditor is required under Section
I(i)(1) to evaluate the adequacy of DB QPAMs' compliance with the
Training requirement. Deutsche Bank further states that the requirement
may be ``counterproductive, as the most effective trainer may be
someone with detailed knowledge of the DB QPAMs' business and
compliance practices that an `independent' trainer may lack.'' Finally,
Deutsche Bank states that the term ``independent professional'' is also
undefined. Alternatively, Deutsche Bank suggests, the Training must
``(ii) Be conducted by an individual(s) (either in person, remotely or
electronically, such as through live or recorded web-based training)
who has appropriate proficiency with ERISA and the Code.''
Although the Department does not agree with the Applicant's
characterization that hiring an appropriate independent professional,
prudently selected, would be counterproductive, the Department is
persuaded that appropriate Deutsche Bank personnel, prudently selected,
should be allowed to conduct the training, and has revised the
condition accordingly. The Department declines to incorporate the
Applicant's requested language regarding the use of electronic or web-
based methods in conducting the Training. The revised I(h)(2)(ii) now
states that the Training ``[b]e conducted by a professional who has
been prudently selected and who has appropriate technical training and
proficiency with ERISA and the Code.''
Comment 10--Audit--Section I(i)(1)
Section I(i)(1) of the proposed exemption requires that each
Deutsche Bank QPAM ``submits to an audit conducted annually by an
independent auditor, who has been prudently selected and who has
appropriate technical training and proficiency with ERISA and the Code.
. . .'' Section I(i)(1) also provides that ``[t]he audit requirement
must be incorporated in the Policies . . . .''
The Applicant requests deletion of the requirement that the audit
requirement be incorporated in the Policies, as its duplication in the
Policies serves no apparent purpose. The Applicant further suggests
that the auditor should be given discretion to define the precise audit
period under this exemption (which may be more or less than 12 months),
so as to avoid a short audit period in the event that this exemption is
granted before the expiration of the first audit period under the final
temporary exemption. To this end, the Applicant requests the following
be added to the condition: ``(provided that the first audit period
hereunder may be longer or shorter than 12 months at the election of
the auditor to avoid an unreasonably short audit period).'' The
Applicant requests that the reference to ``appropriate technical
training'' be deleted, as it appears ``duplicative of proficiency in
ERISA.''
The Department does not agree with the Applicant's assertion that
the phrase ``technical training and proficiency'' is duplicative. In
this regard, the Department does not believe that the two terms are
synonymous, as a person may have taken technical training in a given
subject matter but may not be proficient in that subject matter. The
exemption requires that the auditor be both technically trained and
proficient in ERISA as well as the Code. Accordingly, the Department
declines to change the phrase ``technical training and proficiency'' as
used in Section I(i)(1).
The Department also declines to delete the requirement that the
audit conditions be incorporated in the Policies. The audit requirement
provides a critical independent check on compliance with this
exemption's conditions, and helps ensure that the basic protections set
forth in the Policies are taken seriously. Accordingly, the specifics
of the audit requirement are important components of the Policies.
Their inclusion in the Policies promotes compliance and sends an
important message to the institutions' employees and agents, as well as
to Covered Plan clients, that compliance with the policies and
procedures will be subject to careful independent review.
The Department further declines to incorporate the Applicant's
suggested language regarding the timeline of the audit required by the
temporary exemption. The audit required under the temporary exemption
covers a period from October 24, 2016 until April 17, 2018, which is
not an unreasonably short audit period.
Each audit must cover the preceding 12-month period. The first
audit must cover the period from April 18, 2018 through April 17, 2019,
and must be completed by October 17, 2019. The second audit must cover
the period from April 18, 2019 through April 17, 2020, and must be
completed by October 17, 2020. In the event that the Exemption Period
is extended or a new exemption is granted, the third audit would cover
the period from April 18, 2020 through April 17, 2021, and would have
to be completed by October 17, 2021, unless the Department chooses to
alter the annual audit requirement in any potential new or extended
exemption.
Comment 11--Access to Business--Section I(i)(2)
Section I(i)(2) of the proposed exemption requires that ``as
permitted by law, each DB QPAM and, if applicable Deutsche Bank, will
grant the auditor unconditional access to its business . . . .''
The Applicant requests that the access granted by Section I(i)(2)
be limited to
[[Page 61845]]
non-privileged materials relevant to the scope of exemptive relief that
do not contain trade secrets. The Applicant states that, with the
breadth of the ``unconditional access'' described in the proposed
exemption, ``the absence of a specific limitation could lead to
confusion, disputes, and infringement on DB or a DB QPAM's rights to
protect its privileged communications and trade secrets or intrusion
into activities falling outside the scope of exemptive relief.'' The
Applicant states that the condition, as written in the proposed
exemption, leaves the determination of necessity solely to the auditor.
The Applicant suggests the following revised condition: ``(2) To the
extent necessary for the auditor, in its sole opinion, to complete its
audit and comply with the conditions for relief described herein, and
as permitted by law, each DB QPAM and, if applicable, and solely to
determine if the provisions of the exemption involving Deutsche Bank
are met, Deutsche Bank, will grant the auditor unconditional access to
its relevant business, including, but not limited to: Its relevant
computer systems; relevant business records; transactional data
relating to ERISA plans and IRAs managed by a DB QPAM in reliance on
PTE 84-14 and this exemption; workplace locations; relevant training
materials; and personnel (for avoidance of doubt, this condition does
not require access to privileged, trade secret and other similarly
sensitive business information).''
In the Department's view, to ensure a thorough and robust audit,
the auditor must be granted access to information the auditor deems
necessary for the auditor to make sound conclusions. Access to such
information must be within the scope of the audit engagement and denied
only to the extent any disclosure is not permitted by state or federal
statute. Enumerating specific restrictions on the accessibility of
certain information would have a dampening effect on the auditor's
ability to perform the procedures necessary to make valid conclusions
and would therefore undermine the effectiveness of the audit. The
auditor's access to such information, however, is limited to
information relevant to the auditor's objectives as specified by the
terms of this exemption and to the extent disclosure is not prevented
by state or federal statute or involves communications subject to
attorney client privilege. In this regard, the Department has modified
Section I(i)(2) accordingly.
Comment 12--Auditor's Test of Operational Compliance--Section I(i)(4)
Section I(i)(4) of the proposed exemption provides that, ``[t]he
auditor's engagement must specifically require the auditor to test each
DB QPAM's operational compliance with the Policies and Training'' and
``the auditor must test a sample of each QPAM's transactions involving
ERISA-covered Plans and IRAs sufficient in size and nature to afford
the auditor a reasonable basis to determine operational compliance with
the Policies and Training.''
The Applicant requests that Section I(i)(4) be deleted in its
entirety. The Applicant states that other conditions of the exemption
govern the audit's scope, the auditor's technical skill, and the
prudence of the selection process. The Applicant also states that the
second sentence of Section I(i)(4) unnecessarily intrudes upon the
auditor's function and independence. The Applicant asserts that the
Department should defer to the judgment of the auditor whether and when
to sample transactions.
The Department declines to make the Applicant's requested revision
with respect to Section I(i)(4). The requirements of this exemption
concerning the content of the auditor's engagement are necessary to
ensure administrative feasibility and to protect Covered Plans. The
inclusion of written audit parameters in the auditor's engagement
letter is necessary both to document expectations regarding the audit
work and to ensure that the auditor can responsibly perform its
important work. As stated above, clearly defined audit parameters will
minimize any potential for dispute between the Applicant and the
auditor. Also, given the scope and number of relevant transactions,
proper sampling is necessary for the auditor to reach reasonable and
reliable conclusions. Although the Department has declined to delete
this section in its entirety, as requested by the Applicant, the
Department has revised this condition for consistency with other
conditions of this exemption which are tailored to the Department's
interest in protecting Covered Plans. Therefore, the condition now
applies to Covered Plans (i.e., ERISA-covered plans and IRAs with
respect to which the DB QPAM relies on PTE 84-14 or has expressly
represented that it qualifies as a QPAM or relies on the QPAM class
exemption in its dealings with the ERISA-covered plan or IRA).
The Department notes that Section I(i)(4) does not specify the
number of transactions that the auditor must test, but rather requires,
for each QPAM, that the auditor test a sample of such QPAM's
transactions involving Covered Plans, ``sufficient in size and nature
to afford the auditor a reasonable basis to determine operational
compliance with the Policies and Training.''
Comment 13--Auditor's Determination of Compliance--I(i)(5)(i)
Section I(i)(5)(i) of the proposed exemption provides, ``(5) For
each audit, on or before the end of the relevant period described in
Section I(i)(1) for completing the audit, the auditor must issue a
written report (the Audit Report) to Deutsche Bank and the DB QPAM to
which the audit applies that describes the procedures performed by the
auditor during the course of its examination. The Audit Report must
include the auditor's specific determinations regarding:
(i) The adequacy of the DB QPAM's Policies and Training; the DB
QPAM's compliance with the Policies and Training; the need, if any, to
strengthen such Policies and Training; and any instance of the
respective DB QPAM's noncompliance with the written Policies and
Training described in Section I(h) above. Any determination by the
auditor regarding the adequacy of the Policies and Training and the
auditor's recommendations (if any) with respect to strengthening the
Policies and Training of the respective DB QPAM must be promptly
addressed by such DB QPAM, and any action taken by such DB QPAM to
address such recommendations must be included in an addendum to the
Audit Report (which addendum is completed prior to the certification
described in Section I(i)(7) below). Any determination by the auditor
that the respective DB QPAM has implemented, maintained, and followed
sufficient Policies and Training must not be based solely or in
substantial part on an absence of evidence indicating noncompliance. In
this last regard, any finding that the DB QPAM has complied with the
requirements under this subsection must be based on evidence that
demonstrates the DB QPAM has actually implemented, maintained, and
followed the Policies and Training required by this exemption.
Furthermore, the auditor must not rely on the Annual Report created by
the Compliance Officer as described in Section I(m) below in lieu of
independent determinations and testing performed by the auditor as
required by Section I(i)(3) and (4) above.''
The Applicant requests deletion of the term ``promptly'' because it
is undefined and will cause disputes over its
[[Page 61846]]
meaning. The Applicant states that this perceived ambiguity is
problematic in this context because addressing the auditor's
recommendation could be a lengthy process.
In addition, the Applicant requests that Section I(i)(5) be
modified because it imposes a counterproductive limitation on the
auditor's use of the Annual Review and usurps the auditor's judgment
regarding how to perform its role. According to the Applicant, it is
``unnecessary'' for the Department to specify how the auditor performs
its work in light of the requirements relating to the auditor's
selection and qualifications. The Applicant also states that denying
the auditor the discretion to rely on the Annual Report undermines the
protection the Annual Report gives plans, as the Annual Report may
identify issues the auditor did not independently discover. To this
end, the Applicant suggests the following revised sentence regarding
the Auditor's use of the Annual Report: ``Furthermore, in conducting
the required audit, the auditor may consider the Annual Report created
by the Compliance Officer as described in Section I(m) below, as the
auditor deems appropriate.''
The Department acknowledges that the Applicant's efforts to address
the auditor's recommendations regarding any inadequacy in the Policies
and Training identified by the auditor, may take longer to implement
than the time limits mandated by the proposed exemption. Accordingly,
the Department is modifying Section I(i)(5)(i) to reflect the
possibility that the DB QPAMs' efforts to address the auditor's
recommendations regarding inadequacies in the Policies and Training
identified by the auditor, may not be completed by the submission date
of the Audit Report and may require a written plan to address such
items. However, any noncompliance identified by the auditor must be
promptly addressed. The Department does not agree that the word
``promptly'' creates inappropriate ambiguity in the condition and
declines to remove the word.
The final sentence of Section I(i)(5)(i) expresses the Department's
intent that the auditor not rely solely on the work of the Compliance
Officer and the contents of the Annual Report in formulating its
conclusions or findings. The Auditor must perform its own independent
testing to formulate its conclusions. This exemption does not prohibit
the Auditor from considering the Compliance Officer's Annual Report in
carrying out its audit function, including the formulation of an audit
plan. This exemption, however, does prohibit the Auditor from basing
its conclusions exclusively on the contents of the Compliance Officer's
Annual Report. The Department has modified Section I(i)(5)(i) to more
clearly reflect these views.
Included with its comment on Section I(i)(5)(i), the Applicant
notes its request for the deletion of the Compliance Officer and Annual
Review requirements set out in Section I(m). The Department's response
to this request is discussed below.
The Department also modified Section I(i)(5) to provide that ``the
auditor, at its discretion, may issue a single consolidated Audit
Report which covers all the DB QPAMs.'' The Department notes the
potential logistical advantage and administrative feasibility with
respect to the Department's receipt of the audit report pursuant to
Section I(i)(9) if there is one report encompassing all of the DB
QPAMs.
Comment 14--Adequacy of the Annual Review--Section I(i)(5)(ii)
Section I(i)(5)(ii) of the proposed exemption provides that ``[t]he
Audit Report must include the auditor's specific determinations
regarding: . . . (ii) The adequacy of the Annual Review described in
Section I(m) and the resources provided to the Compliance Officer in
connection with such Annual Review.''
The Applicant requests deletion of the Compliance Officer and
Annual Review provisions in Section I(i)(5)(ii) of the proposed
exemption. If the Compliance Officer and Annual Review provisions do
remain in the exemption, the Applicant requests that the Annual Report
is provided to the auditor, who then can make a determination as to the
adequacy of the report.
The Applicant also asserts that the proposed exemption contains
multiple conditions relating to the auditor's selection and
qualifications, and the auditor should be trusted in its judgment.
Accordingly, the Applicant argues that the phrase ``and the resources
provided to the Compliance officer in connection with such Annual
Review'' should be deleted, because, according to the Applicant,
resource requests by the Compliance Officer should not translate into a
public debate with the Department and the auditor on whether the DB
QPAMs should be allowed to use PTE 84-14. The Applicant states that
this condition interferes with the administrability of the exemption
and its use by plans, if counterparties cannot understand the
requirement or test whether it has been complied with.
As discussed in detail below, the Department views the Compliance
Officer and the Annual Review as integral to ensuring compliance with
the exemption. A recurring, independent, and prudently conducted audit
of the DB QPAMs is critical to ensuring the QPAMs' compliance with the
Policies and Training mandated by this exemption, and the adequacy of
the Policies and Training. The required discipline of regular audits
underpins the Department's finding that the exemption is protective of
plans and their participants, and should help prevent the sort of
compliance failures that led to the Conviction. The Department agrees,
however, that the auditor need not opine on the adequacy of the
resources allocated to the Compliance Officer. Thus, the Department
modified Section I(i)(5)(ii) accordingly. If, however, the auditor
observes compliance issues related to the Compliance Officer or
available resources, it would be appropriate for the auditor to opine
on those problems.
Comment 15--Certification of the Audit--Section I(i)(7)
Section I(i)(7) of the proposed exemption provides, ``(7) With
respect to each Audit Report, the General Counsel, or one of the three
most senior executive officers of the DB QPAM to which the Audit Report
applies, must certify in writing, under penalty of perjury, that the
officer has reviewed the Audit Report and this exemption; addressed,
corrected, or remedied any inadequacy identified in the Audit Report;
and determined that the Policies and Training in effect at the time of
signing are adequate to ensure compliance with the conditions of this
proposed five-year exemption and with the applicable provisions of
ERISA and the Code.''
The Applicant requests that this condition be modified to account
for Deutsche Bank's business structure and permit the Applicant to
decide which senior officers should review the Audit Report. Deutsche
Bank requests that the reviewing individual be ``one of the three most
senior officers with responsibility for the asset management business
of the DB QPAM (or, to the extent no such senior officer has
responsibility for the asset management business of the DB QPAM, one of
the three most senior executives of the line of business engaged in
discretionary asset management activities through the DB QPAM).''
Deutsche Bank further requests that the timing of this provision be
clarified, as remedying issues found during the course of the Audit may
prove to be a lengthier process than the
[[Page 61847]]
30-day certification period as required in Section I(i)(9). The
Applicant states that the provision should require only that a process
for remedying issues should be initiated in a timely fashion.
Deutsche Bank also requests that the condition clarify that
``addressing'' an inadequacy may constitute either accepting the
auditor's recommendation, pointing out that alternative action is
appropriate, or disagreeing with the auditor. The Applicant states that
the auditor is not a monitor or part of the Applicant's management, and
thus should not dictate how the Applicant runs its asset management
business.
The Applicant also requests the following addition to the
condition: ``For purposes of this condition, a DB QPAM does not fail to
address a potential inadequacy identified by the auditor by proposing
an alternative means of protecting relevant ERISA plan clients and
IRAs.''
The Applicant further requests deletion of the requirement that the
Audit Report be certified under penalty of perjury.
The Department concurs that a senior executive officer engaged in
the asset management business within the QPAM should be allowed to
review the Audit Report, and has modified the language of Section
I(i)(7), accordingly.
While the Department does not view Section I(i)(7) as ambiguous,
the Department is aware, as stated above, that the Applicant's efforts
to address the auditor's recommendations may take longer to implement
than the timeframe to submit the certified Audit Report. With respect
to this issue, the Department did not intend to limit corrective
actions to those that could only be completed prior to the submission
of the Audit Report. Therefore, the Department has modified Section
I(i)(7) to reflect that the senior officer may certify that a written
plan to address the inadequacies regarding the Policies and Training
identified in the Auditor's Report is in place.
As mentioned above, the Department has determined that it is
necessary for the Auditor to be afforded unfettered access to DB QPAM
records, to the extent that the analysis of such records falls within
the twelve-month period to which the audit relates. For the first audit
required by this exemption, that period runs from April 18, 2018
through April 17, 2019. The conditions of this exemption do not
prohibit the Applicant from disagreeing with the auditor with respect
to whether certain practices fail to comply with the terms of this
exemption. However, in those circumstances where the auditor is not
persuaded to change its position on a matter the auditor considers
noncompliant, the Applicant will be responsible to correct such
matters. Nor do the conditions of this exemption prohibit the Applicant
from disagreeing with the auditor with respect to the appropriate
method for correcting or addressing issues of noncompliance. The
Department would expect the Applicant and the auditor to have
meaningful communications on such differences of opinion. In the event
the Applicant chooses to apply a corrective method that differs from
that recommended by the Auditor, the Audit Report and the Addendum
attached thereto should explain in detail the noncompliance, the
auditor's recommended action, the corrective method chosen, and why the
Applicant chose a corrective method different from that recommended by
the Auditor. The Department declines to remove the requirement for
certification by the senior executive officer under penalty of perjury,
which makes clear the importance of the correction process and creates
a strong incentive to take seriously the audit process and compliance
generally.
Comment 16--Review and Certification of Audit Report--Section I(i)(8)
Section I(i)(8) of the proposed exemption provides, ``(8) The Risk
Committee of Deutsche Bank's Board of Directors is provided a copy of
each Audit Report; and a senior executive officer with a direct
reporting line to the highest ranking legal compliance officer of
Deutsche Bank must review the Audit Report for each DB QPAM and must
certify in writing, under penalty of perjury, that such officer has
reviewed each Audit Report.''
In its comment, Deutsche Bank requests that the condition be
revised to conform with Deutsche Bank's corporate structure.
Specifically, the Applicant states that Deutsche Bank's Audit Committee
would be an appropriate recipient of the Audit Report given Deutsche
Bank's current structure. The Applicant represents that ``the Audit
Committee supports the Supervisory Board in, among other things, the
following matters: Monitoring the financial accounting process; the
effectiveness of the risk management system, particularly of the
internal control system and the internal audit system; the auditing of
the financial statements, especially with regard to the auditor's
independence and the additional services provided by the auditor; and
the Management Board's prompt remediation--through suitable measures--
of the deficiencies identified by the auditor. Furthermore, the Audit
Committee is informed about special audits, substantial complaints and
other exceptional measures on the part of bank regulatory
authorities.''
The Applicant requests flexibility in determining which committee
should review the Audit Report in the event of future corporate
restructuring or transferring of responsibility. Deutsche Bank requests
the following addition to the condition: ``another committee as
reasonably selected by the Supervisory Board.''
Finally, the Applicant requests the requirement in Section I(i)(8)
that the certification by the senior executive officer be made under
penalty of perjury be deleted, as it is unnecessary.
The Department is revising Section I(i)(8) of the exemption to
require that ``[t]he Audit Committee of Deutsche Bank's Supervisory
Board is provided a copy of each Audit Report; and a senior executive
officer with a direct reporting line to the highest ranking compliance
officer of Deutsche Bank must review the Audit Report for each DB QPAM
and must certify in writing, under penalty of perjury, that such
officer has reviewed each Audit Report.'' Furthermore, the Department
agrees to allow for flexibility in choosing the committee. In this
regard, the exemption now requires notice to the Department prior to
any change in the committee that receives the Audit Report.
The Department has developed this exemption to ensure that the
highest levels of management are aware of ongoing matters concerning
Deutsche Bank, the DB QPAMs, and compliance with this exemption.
Requiring the provision of the Audit Report to the Audit Committee and
certification by a senior executive officer in the reporting line of
the highest legal compliance officer provides assurance that the
highest levels of management within Deutsche Bank stay informed about
Deutsche Bank's and the DB QPAMs' compliance with the terms of this
exemption. In the Department's view, such officials are in the best
position to ensure that any inadequacy identified by the auditor is
appropriately addressed and that necessary changes to corporate policy
are made if and where necessary. Requiring certification under penalty
of perjury is consistent with the Department's longstanding view that
basic requirements of compliance and integrity are fundamental to an
entity's ability to qualify as a QPAM.
Comment 17--Availability of the Audit Report--Section I(i)(9)
Section I(i)(9) of the proposed exemption provides, ``(9) Each DB
[[Page 61848]]
QPAM provides its certified Audit Report, by regular mail to: The
Department's Office of Exemption Determinations (OED), 200 Constitution
Avenue NW, Suite 400, Washington, DC 20210, or by private carrier to:
122 C Street NW, Suite 400, Washington, DC 20001-2109, no later than 45
days following its completion. The Audit Report will be part of the
public record regarding this exemption. Furthermore, each DB QPAM must
make its Audit Report unconditionally available for examination by any
duly authorized employee or representative of the Department, other
relevant regulators, and any fiduciary of an ERISA-covered plan or IRA,
the assets of which are managed by such DB QPAM;''
The Applicant states that the availability of the Audit Report
should be limited to ERISA-covered plans and IRAs for which the
Applicant relies on PTE 84-14. The Applicant argues that it is overly-
broad, punitive and not related to the relief provided in the exemption
to extend this condition to plans and IRAs for which the DB QPAMs do
not rely on PTE 84-14.
The Department does not agree that the condition in Section I(i)(9)
is punitive. As the Applicant recognized in its application, ERISA-
covered plans, IRAs, and counterparties routinely rely on QPAM status
before entering into agreements with financial institutions, even if
those institutions do not believe compliance with PTE 84-14 is strictly
necessary for any particular transaction. Accordingly, the Department
has an interest in ensuring that the conditions of this exemption
broadly protect ERISA-covered plans and IRAs that have relied on QPAM
status in deciding to enter into an agreement with the Applicant or the
DB QPAMs.
Nevertheless, the Department has revised Section I(i)(9) to clarify
that the DB QPAMs are required to make the documents available to any
fiduciary of a Covered Plan. The Audit Report, in any event, will be
incorporated into the public record attributable to this exemption,
under Exemption Application Number D-11908, and, therefore,
independently accessible by members of the public. Accordingly, the
Department has determined to revise the condition by replacing the
phrase ``an ERISA-covered plan or IRA, the assets of which are managed
by such DB QPAM'' with the term ``Covered Plan'' (as defined in Section
II(b)). Lastly, the Department is modifying the condition such that
access to the Audit Report need only be upon request and such access
can be electronic, and has revised the exemption accordingly.
Comment 18--Engagement Agreements--Section I(i)(10)
Section I(i)(10) of the proposed exemption provides, ``(10) Each DB
QPAM and the auditor must submit to OED: (A) Any engagement
agreement(s) entered into pursuant to the engagement of the auditor
under this exemption; and (B) any engagement agreement entered into
with any other entity retained in connection with such QPAM's
compliance with the Training or Policies conditions of this proposed
exemption, no later than six (6) months after the effective date of
this exemption (and one month after the execution of any agreement
thereafter).''
The Applicant requests deletion of clause (B) related to engagement
agreements entered into with respect to the Training or Policies
conditions. Deutsche Bank cites the multiple conditions in the
exemption for the qualifications of the trainer, the contents of the
Policies, and the auditor's review of the adequacy of the Training and
Policies, and submits that this condition duplicates part of the
auditor's role and is burdensome. The Applicant states that this
condition as written could require filing of numerous consultant and
service provider engagement letters associated with developing the
Training and Policies. The Applicant asserts that there is no reason
for the Department to see and review, and make available to the public,
every service provider contract that could relate to policies,
procedures or training. The Applicant further requests that any
engagement agreements submitted to the Department be redacted to
protect confidential business terms.
In coordination with the Department's modification of Section
I(h)(2)(ii) to remove the requirement that the Training must be
conducted by an independent professional, the Department has determined
to remove the requirement in Section I(i)(10)(B) to provide to the
Department the engagement agreements entered into with entities
retained in connection with compliance with the Training or Policies
conditions.
Furthermore, to remove any confusion and uncertainty regarding the
timing of the submission of the auditor's engagement agreement, the
Department has modified Section I(i)(10) to require that the auditor's
engagement agreement be submitted to the Office of Exemption
Determinations no later than two (2) months after the execution of any
such engagement agreement.
Comment 19--Auditor's Workpapers--Section I(i)(11)
Section I(i)(11) of the proposed exemption provides, ``(11) The
auditor must provide OED, upon request, all of the workpapers created
and utilized in the course of the audit, including, but not limited to:
the audit plan; audit testing; identification of any instance of
noncompliance by the relevant DB QPAM; and an explanation of any
corrective or remedial action taken by the applicable DB QPAM.''
The Applicant requests that this language be limited to ensure that
any confidential or otherwise sensitive business information is
redacted prior to any disclosure of the workpapers in a public file.
The Applicant cites the sensitive information to which the auditor will
have access, such as client information, marketing data, personal
information of the QPAM's employees, and other business details. The
Applicant states that the condition can be limited to allow the
auditor, and OED,\27\ to inspect such information without it being
disclosed in the public record. Furthermore, the Applicant requests for
all of the provisions in the exemption that relate to the auditor to
make it clear that Applicant will not lose the benefit of the exemption
for failures of the auditor. The Applicant requests that the Department
either not include the workpapers as part of the public file, or
provide that ``any confidential business or personal information of the
DB QPAMs, Deutsche Bank, and their clients (or the officers, directors,
employees or agents thereof) reflected in the workpapers, including,
without limitation, client communications, shall be redacted, and
provided further that nothing herein shall be deemed to limit any
authority the Department may otherwise have to inspect such information
without making it part of the public file.''
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\27\ OED is the Office of Exemption Determinations within the
Employee Benefits Security Administration agency of the United
States Department of Labor.
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The Department acknowledges that certain information contained in
the workpapers may be confidential and proprietary, and having that
information in a public file may create needless or avoidable
disclosure issues. The Department has determined to modify Section
I(i)(11) to remove the requirement that the auditor provide the
workpapers to OED, and instead require that the auditor provide access
to the workpapers for the Department's review and inspection. However,
given the importance of the workpapers to the Department's own review
and the
[[Page 61849]]
Applicant's contractual relationship with the auditor, the Department
declines to include, as requested by the Applicant, a statement in
Section I(i)(11) that a failure on behalf of the auditor to meet this
condition will not violate the exemption.
Comment 20--Replacement of the Auditor--Section I(i)(12)
Section I(i)(12) of the proposed exemption provides, ``(12)
Deutsche Bank must notify the Department at least 30 days prior to any
substitution of an auditor, except that no such replacement will meet
the requirements of this paragraph unless and until Deutsche Bank
demonstrates to the Department's satisfaction that such new auditor is
independent of Deutsche Bank, experienced in the matters that are the
subject of the exemption and capable of making the determinations
required of this exemption.''
The Applicant requests that this condition be deleted, as the
exemption requires the auditor to satisfy multiple conditions with
respect to qualifications, and it serves no useful purpose to require
the Applicant to demonstrate that the auditor satisfies such additional
standards before substitution, particularly given the timeline of the
audit process. The Applicant states that the Department has not
required its approval of the initial choice of auditor. The Applicant
states that there is a multitude of possible reasons that an auditor
would need to be replaced, including the auditor being unable to
complete an audit timely.
This exemption is not unique in requiring the Department be
notified of changes to service providers (See, e.g., the requirement of
Schedule C of the Form 5500 Annual Return/Report for the Plan
Administrator of certain plans to report to the Department a
termination of the plan's auditor and/or enrolled actuary and to
provide an explanation of the reasons for the termination, including a
description of any material disputes or matters of disagreement
concerning the termination). Furthermore, requiring the Applicant to
notify the Department of the substitution of an auditor serves to
ensure that the DB QPAMs are attentive to the audit process and the
protections it provides; and that the Department has the information it
needs to review compliance. However, the Department has determined to
modify Section I(i)(12) to remove the requirement for Deutsche Bank to
demonstrate the independence and qualifications of the auditor, and
requires instead that Deutsche Bank, no later than two months from the
engagement of a substitute or subsequent auditor, notify the Department
of a change in auditor and of the reason(s) for the substitution
including any material disputes between the terminated auditor and
Deutsche Bank.
Comment 21--Contracts with ERISA-Covered Plans and IRAs--Section I(j)
The prefatory language to Section I(j) of the proposed exemption
provides, ``(j) Effective as of the effective date of this exemption,
with respect to any arrangement, agreement, or contract between a DB
QPAM and an ERISA-covered plan or IRA for which a DB QPAM provides
asset management or other discretionary fiduciary services, each DB
QPAM agrees and warrants:''
In its comment, Deutsche Bank requests that this condition be
limited to ERISA-covered plans and IRAs with respect to which the
Applicant relies on PTE 84-14 and this exemption. Deutsche Bank states
that extending this provision to ERISA-covered plans and IRAs for which
the DB QPAMs do not rely on it is overly broad, punitive, and not
related to asset management or the scope of the exemptive relief.
As explained above, Plans and IRAs routinely rely on QPAM status as
a condition of entering into transactions with financial institutions,
even with respect to transactions that do not require adherence to PTE
84-14. As the Applicant represented to the Department on December 24,
2015, ``plan investors may rely on the availability of the QPAM
exemption even for pooled funds intended to qualify for an exception
under the Department's plan asset regulation. The QPAM exemption
provides a broad, effective back-stop against non-exempt prohibited
transactions in the event a pooled fund inadvertently ceases to meet
the conditions of that exception.'' In addition, it may not always be
clear whether the DB QPAM intends to rely upon PTE 84-14 for any
particular transaction. Accordingly, it is critical to ensure that
protective conditions are in place to safeguard the interests of ERISA-
covered plans and IRAs that are acting in reliance on the availability
of this exemption, particularly those who may not have entered into the
transaction in the first place, but for the Department's grant of this
exemption.
The Department has a clear interest in protecting such ERISA-
covered plans and IRAs that enter into an asset management agreement
with a Deutsche Bank asset manager in reliance on the manager's
qualification as a QPAM. Moreover, when an ERISA-covered plan or IRA
terminates its relationship with an asset manager, it may incur
significant costs and expenses as its investments are unwound and in
connection with finding a new asset manager. The Department has revised
this condition for consistency with its interest in protecting ERISA-
covered plans and IRAs that rely upon QPAM status. Therefore, the
Department has substituted the term ``Covered Plan'' for ``an ERISA-
covered plan or IRA for which a DB QPAM provides asset management or
other discretionary fiduciary services'' to memorialize this interest
so that the condition now applies to ERISA-covered plans and IRAs only
when the Deutsche Bank asset manager relies on PTE 84-14 or has
expressly represented that it qualifies as a QPAM or relies on the QPAM
class exemption in its dealings with the ERISA-covered plan or IRA.
To the extent a DB QPAM would prefer not to be subject to these
conditions, however, it may expressly disclaim reliance on QPAM status
or PTE 84-14 in entering into its contract with the ERISA-covered plan
or IRA.
Comment 22--Contracts with ERISA-Covered Plans and IRAs--Section
I(j)(1)
Section I(j)(1) of the proposed exemption provides, ``(j) Effective
as of the effective date of this exemption, with respect to any
arrangement, agreement, or contract between a DB QPAM and an ERISA-
covered plan or IRA for which a DB QPAM provides asset management or
other discretionary fiduciary services, each DB QPAM agrees and
warrants:
(1) To comply with ERISA and the Code, as applicable with respect
to such ERISA-covered plan or IRA; to refrain from engaging in
prohibited transactions that are not otherwise exempt (and to promptly
correct any inadvertent prohibited transactions); and to comply with
the standards of prudence and loyalty set forth in section 404 of ERISA
with respect to each such ERISA-covered plan and IRA;''
In its comment, Deutsche Bank requests that Section I(j)(1) be
deleted, as it constitutes an attempt to provide a private right of
action for IRAs that Congress did not require. The Applicant states
that the provision imposes legal requirements on IRAs, such as duties
of prudence and loyalty, that Congress did not require; for plans
subject to ERISA, this provision is entirely duplicative of the private
right of action in ERISA. The Applicant states that the exemption
proposes to change the enforcement of ERISA and the Code for all asset
management clients and to create private rights of action above and
beyond ERISA and the Code. The
[[Page 61850]]
Applicant states that this exemption did not arise out of a violation
of ERISA, and the Department's grant or denial of an exemption is not
aimed at punishing institutions for criminal conduct under laws other
than ERISA, especially when they have already been punished under those
other laws.
If this provision is not deleted, the Applicant requests that
``promptly'' be deleted for similar reasons as noted earlier, and that
the condition be revised as follows: ``(1) To comply with ERISA and the
Code, as applicable, with respect to such ERISA-covered plan or IRA,
[and] to refrain from engaging in prohibited transactions that are not
otherwise exempt (and to correct any inadvertent prohibited
transactions).''
The Department rejects the view that it acts outside its authority
by protecting ERISA-covered plans and IRAs that rely on Deutsche Bank's
asset managers' eligibility for this exemption, and reemphasizes the
seriousness of the criminal misconduct that created the need for this
exemption. The Department may grant an exemption under section 408(a)
of ERISA or section 4975(c)(2)(C) of the Code only to the extent the
Secretary finds, among other things, that the exemption is protective
of the affected ERISA-covered plan(s) and/or IRA(s) (i.e., the Covered
Plans). As noted in the exemption application, personnel at Deutsche
Bank, including at different Deutsche Bank divisions acting as QPAMs,
engaged in serious misconduct over an extended period of time. This
misconduct appears to have stemmed, in part, from deficiencies in
control and oversight.
Notwithstanding the misconduct, which resulted in violations of
Section I(g) of PTE 84-14, the Department has determined that this
exemption is protective of Covered Plans and in the interest of
participants, beneficiaries, and beneficial owners of such Covered
Plans. The Department made this determination based, in significant
part, upon the protections of Section I(j) that require DB QPAMs to
make an express commitment to Covered Plans to adhere to the
requirements of ERISA and the Code, as applicable. As previously
indicated, the Department has concluded that a culture of compliance,
centered on adherence to basic standards of fair dealing as set forth
in this exemption, gives the Department a compelling basis for making
the required statutory findings that the exemption is in the interest
of, and protects the rights of, participants, beneficiaries, and
beneficial owners of Covered Plans. Absent such findings, the exemption
would have been denied.
The Department does not accept the view that an exemption may not
contain a condition, such as an obligation to adhere to basic fiduciary
norms of prudence and loyalty, to the extent that it duplicates a
statutory requirement. Nothing in the ERISA or the Code suggests that
the Department is forbidden, in exercising its discretion to craft
protective exemption conditions, from basing its conditions on
protective conditions that Congress itself has adopted in related
contexts. Nor has the Department created any new causes of action
through this exemption. As before, private litigants would have only
those causes of action specifically authorized by laws that exist
independent of this exemption.
The Department declines to delete the term ``promptly'' for the
same reasons as noted previously. Furthermore, for the reasons set
forth above, the Department has modified the clause ``and to comply
with the standards of prudence and loyalty set forth in section 404 of
ERISA with respect to each such ERISA-covered plan and IRA.'' Instead,
with respect to this clause, the Department has required an express
commitment to comply with the fiduciary standards and prohibited
transaction rules only to the extent these provisions are
``applicable'' under ERISA and the Code. The revised terms, together
with this exemption's limited relief (e.g., this exemption generally
does not extend to transactions that involve self-dealing) should serve
to promote a culture of compliance and protect Covered Plans and their
participants, beneficiaries, and beneficial owners.
In response to the Applicant's comments, the Department also notes
that nothing in ERISA or the Code prevents the Department from
conditioning relief on express contractual commitments to adhere to the
requirements set out herein. The DB QPAMs remain free to disclaim
reliance on the exemption and to avoid such express contractual
commitments. To the extent, however, that they hold themselves out as
fiduciary QPAMs, they should be prepared to make an express commitment
to their customers to adhere to the requirements of this exemption.
This commitment strengthens and reinforces the likelihood of
compliance, and helps ensure that, in the event of noncompliance,
Covered Plans are insulated from injuries caused by noncompliance.
These protections also ensure that Covered Plans are able to extricate
themselves from transactions that become prohibited as a result of the
QPAMs' misconduct, without fear of sustaining additional losses as a
result of the QPAMs' actions. In this connection, however, the
Department emphasizes that the only claims available to the QPAMs'
Covered Plans customers pursuant to these contractual commitments are
those separately provided by ERISA or other state and federal laws that
are not preempted by ERISA.
Comment 23--Indemnity and Limits on Liability--Sections I(j)(2), (3),
(6), and (7)
Sections I(j)(2), (3), (6) and (7) of the proposed exemption
provide, ``(j) Effective as of the effective date of this exemption,
with respect to any arrangement, agreement, or contract between a DB
QPAM and an ERISA-covered plan or IRA for which a DB QPAM provides
asset management or other discretionary fiduciary services, each DB
QPAM agrees and warrants:
(2) Not to require (or otherwise cause) the ERISA-covered plan or
IRA to waive, limit, or qualify the liability of the DB QPAM for
violating ERISA or the Code or engaging in prohibited transactions;
(3) Not to require the ERISA-covered plan or IRA (or sponsor of
such ERISA-covered plan or beneficial owner of such IRA) to indemnify
the DB QPAM for violating ERISA or engaging in prohibited transactions,
except for violations or prohibited transactions caused by an error,
misrepresentation, or misconduct of a plan fiduciary or other party
hired by the plan fiduciary who is independent of Deutsche Bank;
(6) Not to include exculpatory provisions disclaiming or otherwise
limiting liability of the DB QPAM for a violation of such agreement's
terms, except for liability caused by an error, misrepresentation, or
misconduct of a plan fiduciary or other party hired by the plan
fiduciary who is independent of Deutsche Bank and its affiliates; and
(7) To indemnify and hold harmless the ERISA--covered plan or IRA
for any damages resulting from a violation of applicable laws, a breach
of contract, or any claim arising out of the failure of such DB QPAM to
qualify for the exemptive relief provided by PTE 84-14 as a result of a
violation of Section I(g) of PTE 84-14 other than the Convictions;''
In its comment, the Applicant requests that the indemnity required
by Section I(j)(7) be deleted as it may operate in a manner that is
fundamentally unfair. The Applicant views the indemnity provision as
not being limited to clients who are harmed through a direct, causal
link to the loss of the exemptive relief provided by PTE 84-14.
According to the Applicant, the condition appears to protect plans and
[[Page 61851]]
IRAs against damages well beyond those provided under Section 409(a) of
ERISA, for all sort of harms, including those (i) that arise from
violations and breaches by third parties, (ii) that arise only
tenuously from the manager's conduct, (iii) that may be grossly
unreasonable in amount, (iv) for claims without merit and (v) for
claims in connection with accounts that do not rely on the relief
provided by PTE 84-14.
The Applicant requests that, if the Department decides to retain
the provision, the Department should expressly tie the indemnity to
damages with a proximate, causal connection to relevant conduct of the
manager. The Applicant provides the following revisions: ``(7) To
indemnify and hold harmless the ERISA-covered plan or IRA for any
reasonable damages involving such arrangement, agreement or contract
and resulting directly from a violation of ERISA by such DB QPAM, or,
to the extent the DB QPAM relies on the exemptive relief provided by
PTE 84-14 and this exemption under the arrangement, agreement or
contract, the failure of such DB QPAM to qualify for the exemptive
relief provided by PTE 84-14 and this exemption as a result of a
violation of Section I(g) of PTE 84-14 other than as a result of the
Convictions. This condition does not require indemnification for
indirect, special, consequential or punitive damages.''
The Applicant contends that the other provisions enumerated above
extend beyond the scope of relief and contain duplicative requirements,
both internally and with respect to requirements that are already in
ERISA. The Applicant states that the broad indemnity in subsection (7)
substantively provides all of the protections contained in subsections
(2), (3) and (6) (i.e., if the client is to be indemnified, it is
confusing and unnecessary to restate that protection multiple times in
multiple ways). The Applicant further states that if Section I(j)(7)
remains, Sections I(j) (2), (3) and (6) should be deleted.
Alternatively, if the Department decides to delete Section I(j)(7),
while retaining Sections I(j)(3) and (6), Section I(j)(2) should be
deleted because it is subsumed within the more detailed and qualified
condition in Section I(j)(3).
The Department has determined that Section I(j)(3), as proposed, is
duplicative of the exemption's prohibition on exculpatory clauses,
described below, and has deleted subsection (j)(3). The Department has
made certain further changes to this condition upon consideration of
the Applicant's comment. These changes include: Renumbering the
condition for clarity; replacing ``applicable laws'' with clarifying
language that conforms to the one-year exemption; replacing ``any
damages'' with ``actual losses resulting directly from'' certain acts
or omissions of the DB QPAMs; and adding language which affirms that
the obligations under this condition do not extend to damages caused by
acts that are beyond the control of the DB QPAMS. However, with respect
to the indemnification clause, now renumbered Section I(j)(2), the
purpose of this exemption is to protect Covered Plans. Section I(j)(2)
is essential to achieving that purpose. The Department emphasizes that
this condition is not punitive, but rather ensures that, a Covered Plan
may expect a DB QPAM to adhere to basic fiduciary norms and standards
of fair dealing, notwithstanding the Convictions. The condition also
ensures that Covered Plans have the ability to disengage from a
relationship with a DB QPAM without undue injury if Deutsche Bank
violates the terms of this exemption. Accordingly, the Department has
revised the applicability of this condition to more closely reflect
this interest. In particular, the condition applies to Covered Plans.
As indicated above, if the asset manager would prefer not to be subject
to these provisions as exemption conditions, it may expressly disclaim
reliance on QPAM status or PTE 84-14 in entering into its contract with
an ERISA-covered plan or IRA (in that case, however, it could not rely
on the exemption for relief).
The Department also modified former Section I(j)(6) (now I(j)(2))
to clarify that the prohibition on exculpatory provisions does not
extend to losses that arise from an act or event not caused by Deutsche
Bank. Nothing in this section alters the prohibition on exculpatory
provisions set forth in ERISA Section 410.
The Department declines to delete former Section I(j)(2), now
(j)(3), from the final exemption. As the Applicant points out, ERISA
already precludes ERISA fiduciaries from disclaiming obligations under
ERISA. See ERISA section 410 (prohibiting exculpatory clauses as void
against public policy). To the extent the exemption condition prevents
the DB QPAMs from including contractual provisions that are void as
against public policy there is no legitimate basis for objection. Such
exculpatory language should not be in the governing documents in the
first place and is potentially misleading because it suggests
disclaimer of obligations that may not be disclaimed.
Outside the context of ERISA section 410, the provision's
requirement that the DB QPAMs retain accountability for adherence to
the basic obligations set forth in this exemption is justified by the
misconduct that led to the Convictions as discussed above, and by the
need to ensure that Covered Plan customers may readily obtain redress
and exit contracts with DB QPAMs without harm in the event of
violations.
Comment 24--Termination and Withdrawal Restrictions--Sections I(j)(4)
and (5)
Sections I(j)(4) and (5) of the proposed exemption provide, ``(j)
Effective as of the effective date of this exemption, with respect to
any arrangement, agreement, or contract between a DB QPAM and an ERISA-
covered plan or IRA for which a DB QPAM provides asset management or
other discretionary fiduciary services, each DB QPAM agrees and
warrants:
(4) Not to restrict the ability of such ERISA-covered plan or IRA
to terminate or withdraw from its arrangement with the DB QPAM
(including any investment in a separately managed account or pooled
fund subject to ERISA and managed by such QPAM), with the exception of
reasonable restrictions, appropriately disclosed in advance, that are
specifically designed to ensure equitable treatment of all investors in
a pooled fund in the event such withdrawal or termination may have
adverse consequences for all other investors as a result of an actual
lack of liquidity of the underlying assets, provided that such
restrictions are applied consistently and in like manner to all such
investors;
(5) Not to impose any fees, penalties, or charges for such
termination or withdrawal with the exception of reasonable fees,
appropriately disclosed in advance, that are specifically designed to
prevent generally recognized abusive investment practices or
specifically designed to ensure equitable treatment of all investors in
a pooled fund in the event such withdrawal or termination may have
adverse consequences for all other investors, provided that such fees
are applied consistently and in like manner to all such investors;''
In its comment, the Applicant requests that Sections I(j)(4) and
(5) be deleted entirely. The Applicant states that lockup provisions in
facilitating the investment strategies are used to protect all
investors in a pooled fund and applied evenhandedly to all investors.
However, the Applicant states, the conditions would provide ERISA-
covered plan and IRA clients investing
[[Page 61852]]
in the fund with an advantage, to the detriment of public plans and
other investors. The Applicant states that the conditions are
unnecessary. If the Department declines to delete the provisions, the
Applicant requests that they be revised to allow restrictions related
to liquidity issues as well as those related to ensuring compliance
with regulatory requirements, addressing valuation issues, and
permitting the fund to pursue the investors' chosen investment
strategy. Specifically, with respect to subsection (j)(4), the
Applicant requests that the language ``as a result of an actual lack of
liquidity of the underlying assets'' be stricken from the condition.
Furthermore, with respect to subsection (j)(5), the Applicant requests
that ``prevent generally recognized abusive investment practices or
specifically designed to'' be removed.
The Department declines to delete Sections I(j)(4) and (5) from
this exemption. The Department has revised subsection (j)(4) to further
clarify the Department's intent, but refuses to remove the concept
entirely. Therefore, the Department has replaced ``as a result of an
actual lack of liquidity of the underlying assets, provided that such
restrictions are applied consistently and in like manner to all such
investors'' with ``In connection with any such arrangements involving
investments in pooled funds subject to ERISA entered into after the
effective date of this exemption, the adverse consequences must relate
to of a lack of liquidity of the underlying assets, valuation issues,
or regulatory reasons that prevent the fund from promptly redeeming an
ERISA-covered plan's or IRA's investment, and such restrictions must be
applicable to all such investors and effective no longer than
reasonably necessary to avoid the adverse consequences.'' Finally, the
Department declines to make the Applicant's requested change to
subsection I(j)(5).
Comment 25--Updated Investment Management Agreement--Section I(j)(8)
Section I(j)(8) of the proposed exemption provides, ``(8) Within
four (4) months of the effective date of this proposed exemption, each
DB QPAM must provide a notice of its obligations under this Section
I(j) to each ERISA-covered plan and IRA for which the DB QPAM provides
asset management or other discretionary fiduciary services. For all
other prospective ERISA-covered plan and IRA clients for which a DB
QPAM provides asset management or other discretionary fiduciary
services, the DB QPAM must agree in writing to its obligations under
this Section I(j) in an updated investment management agreement or
advisory agreement between the DB QPAM and such clients or other
written contractual agreement.''
The Applicant states that the provision is overly broad because it
is not limited to ERISA-covered plans and IRAs for which DB QPAMs rely
on PTE 84-14 and this exemption. The Applicant requests that this
provision be limited to such ERISA-covered plan and IRA clients. The
Applicant states that the four-month notice period is too short, and
requests the Department extend the notice period to at least six
months.
The Applicant also requests that the Department provide a carve-out
such that the Applicant does not need to provide any notices under this
provision to existing clients to which it provided notice under Section
I(j) of PTE 2016-13, assuming that the notice required in the current
provision here is substantially similar to that required under PTE
2016-13. To this end, the Applicant requests the following language be
added to this condition: ``(For avoidance of doubt, notices provided to
existing clients under Section I(j) of PTE 2016-13 will be deemed to
satisfy this requirement).''
Furthermore, the Applicant states that a bilateral management
agreement containing the obligations under Section I(j) should not be
mandated. The Applicant states that the DB QPAM would be in violation
of this condition if a client refuses to sign the updated agreement.
The Applicant asserts that its compliance with the exemption should not
depend on action by its clients. Accordingly, the Applicant requests
that this requirement be eliminated, and that this condition instead
require the DB QPAMS to ``provide a written notice of its obligations
under this Section I(j)'' to its prospective ERISA-covered plan and IRA
clients.
The Department has modified Section I(j)(8), now renumbered as
Section I(j)(7), for better coordination with PTE 2016-13. As modified,
the exemption's text now provides that a notice that satisfies Section
I(i)(2) of PTE 2016-13 will satisfy renumbered Section I(j)(7) of this
exemption, unless the notice contains any language that limits, or is
inconsistent with, the scope of this exemption. Additionally, the time
period for providing the notice is now six months, although the
Department has specified the exact six-month deadline for such notice,
which is October 17, 2018.
As noted above, the Department has an interest in protecting an
ERISA-covered plan or IRA that enters into an asset management
agreement with a Deutsche Bank asset manager in reliance on the
manager's qualification as a QPAM, regardless of whether the QPAM
relies on the class exemption when managing the ERISA-covered plan's or
IRA's assets. The Department has revised the applicability of this
condition to more closely reflect this interest, and the condition now
applies to ERISA-covered plans and IRAs for which a DB QPAM expressly
represents that the manager qualifies as a QPAM or relies on the QPAM
class exemption. The condition does not apply to an ERISA-covered plan
or IRA with respect to which the Deutsche Bank asset manager has
expressly disclaimed reliance on QPAM status or PTE 84-14 in entering
into its contract with the ERISA-covered plan or IRA. The Department
has also modified the condition such that a DB QPAM will not violate
the condition solely because a Covered Plan refuses to sign an updated
investment management agreement.
Comment 26--Notice to Plan Clients--Section I(k)(1)
Section I(k)(1) of the proposed exemption provides that, ``(k)(1)
Notice to ERISA-covered plan and IRA clients. Within fifteen (15) days
of the publication of this proposed exemption in the Federal Register,
each DB QPAM will provide a notice of the proposed exemption, along
with a separate summary describing the facts that led to the
Convictions (the Summary), which have been submitted to the Department,
and a prominently displayed statement (the Statement) that each
Conviction separately results in a failure to meet a condition in PTE
84-14, to each sponsor of an ERISA-covered plan and each beneficial
owner of an IRA for which a DB QPAM provides asset management or other
discretionary fiduciary services, or the sponsor of an investment fund
in any case where a DB QPAM acts only as a sub-advisor to the
investment fund in which such ERISA-covered plan and IRA invests. In
the event that this proposed exemption is granted, the Federal Register
copy of the notice of final exemption must be delivered to such clients
within sixty (60) days of its publication in the Federal Register, and
may be delivered electronically (including by an email that has a link
to the exemption). Any prospective clients for which a DB QPAM provides
asset management or other discretionary fiduciary services must receive
the proposed and final exemptions with the Summary and the Statement
prior to, or contemporaneously with, the client's
[[Page 61853]]
receipt of a written asset management agreement from the DB QPAM.''
In its comment, the Applicant contends that this condition should
be limited to ERISA-covered plans and IRAs with respect to which the
Applicant relies on PTE 84-14 and this exemption, as not applying such
a limitation is overly broad, punitive, and not related to the use of
this exemption. Furthermore, the Applicant states it should not be
required to provide to clients a separate summary of facts in addition
to the notice of the proposed exemption, which contains the facts and
representations set forth in the preamble and ``is a far more fulsome
and complete explanation.'' The Applicant requests that the condition
make clear that the condition may be satisfied through other
documentation, such as a subscription agreement. The Applicant further
requests flexibility with respect to the fifteen-day time-period for
providing the notice, suggesting the following language be added: ``or
such longer period as agreed to with the Department.'' The Applicant
also requests that ``the client's receipt of a written asset management
agreement'' be replaced with ``the client's signing of a written asset
management agreement (or other written documentation).''
The Department notes that the proposed exemption provides details
of the facts and circumstances underlying the conviction not found in
the Summary or the final grant. One of the purposes of such a complete
disclosure is to ensure that all interested parties are aware of and
attentive to the complete facts and circumstances surrounding Deutsche
Bank's application for exemption. In this regard, these parties include
clients that receive an asset management agreement, which is why the
Department is not revising the provision in the manner requested.
Requiring the disclosure of the Summary, proposal, and this final grant
provides the opportunity for all parties to have knowledge of these
facts and circumstances. Notwithstanding this, the Department has
modified the condition to clarify that disclosures may be provided
electronically. Further, the Department is narrowing the notice
requirement to each ``sponsor and beneficial owner of a Covered Plan.''
Notice does not need to be given to a client with respect to whom a DB
QPAM has expressly disclaimed reliance on QPAM status or reliance on
PTE 84-14.
With respect to the Applicant's requested change regarding the
timeframe, the Department believes that requiring that delivery be
completed in 60 days following the publication of this exemption in the
Federal Register provides sufficient time for the Applicant to prepare
the Summary and effect delivery. The Department has moved this 60-day
requirement to the beginning of Section I(k) by specifying a specific
date upon which notice should be completed, June 17, 2018.
Comment 27--Notice to Non-Plan Clients--Section I(k)(2)
Section I(k)(2) of the proposed exemption provides, ``[e]ach DB
QPAM will provide a Federal Register copy of the proposed exemption, a
Federal Register copy of the final exemption; the Summary; and the
Statement to each: (A) Current Non-Plan Client within four (4) months
of the effective date, if any, of a final exemption; and (B) Future
Non-Plan Client prior to, or contemporaneously with, the client's
receipt of a written asset management agreement, or other written
contractual agreement, from the DB QPAM. For purposes of this
subparagraph (2), a Current Non-Plan Client means a client of a DB QPAM
that: Is neither an ERISA-covered plan nor an IRA; has assets managed
by the DB QPAM as of the effective date, if any, of a final exemption;
and has received a written representation (qualified or otherwise) from
the DB QPAM that such DB QPAM qualifies as a QPAM or qualifies for the
relief provided by PTE 84-14. For purposes of this subparagraph (2), a
Future Non-Plan Client means a prospective client of a DB QPAM that: Is
neither an ERISA-covered plan nor an IRA; has assets managed by the DB
QPAM after the effective date, if any, of a final exemption; and has
received a written representation (qualified or otherwise) from the DB
QPAM that such DB QPAM qualifies as a QPAM or qualifies for the relief
provided by PTE 84-14.''
The Applicant requested that Section I(k)(2) be deleted in its
entirety. Given the breadth of the notice requirement otherwise
mandated by the exemption, and its decision to restrict the requirement
to those arrangements for which QPAM status plays an integral role
(i.e., the DB QPAM represents or relies upon its QPAM status), the
Department has determined to delete this provision.
Comment 28--Compliance Officer--Section I(m)
Section I(m) of the proposed exemption outlines the requirements
associated with appointment of a Compliance Officer and an accompanying
Annual Review.
In its comment, Deutsche Bank argues that Section I(m) is
duplicative of the audit, unfair and punitive. The Applicant states
that no conduct by the DB QPAMs merits a separate Annual Review
dedicated to ERISA. The Applicant asserts that the provision assumes
facts unsupported by the record, namely: (1) That DB QPAMs will not
comply with ERISA or the Code and applicable exemptions; (2) that their
existing compliance structure, even when enhanced by the conditions of
this exemption and earlier ones, are insufficient; and (3) that the
auditor is either incapable of adequately testing the DB QPAMs'
compliance with ERISA, the Code and applicable exemptions or the
auditor cannot be trusted to conduct this testing. The Applicant states
that this provision also appears in none of the earlier individual
exemptions that allowed applicants to rely on PTE 84-14 notwithstanding
a criminal conviction violating Section I(g) of PTE 84-14. The
Applicant asserts that the inclusion of this condition treats the
Applicant unfairly and is inconsistent with the Administrative
Procedure Act and Section 408(a) of ERISA and Section 4975 of the Code.
Deutsche Bank states that, if the Department declines to delete
Section I(m), the provision should be modified so as to not interfere
with the auditor, reduce the time that auditor has to complete its work
or impose on the DB QPAMs duplicative or irrelevant and, therefore,
unnecessary conditions. Furthermore, the Applicant states that
Department should not require the Compliance Officer to complete
substantially similar work that it expects of the auditor in a
substantially shorter timeframe. The Applicant states that the
Compliance Officer should report to an officer with familiarity with
asset management, not some unrelated business. The Applicant asserts
that the Annual Review should be concerned only with the subject matter
of this exemption, such as material compliance with ERISA and the Code,
and not gauge the adequacy of the resources provided to the Compliance
Officer.
The Department discusses the Applicant's overarching concerns with
Section I(m) in response to the individual changes to specific
provisions below.
Section I(m)(1)(ii) of the proposed exemption states, in relevant
part, ``(1) Deutsche Bank designates a senior compliance officer (the
Compliance Officer) who will be responsible for compliance with the
Policies and Training requirements described herein. The Compliance
Officer must conduct an annual review (the Annual Review) to determine
the adequacy and effectiveness of the implementation of
[[Page 61854]]
the Policies and Training. With respect to the Compliance Officer, the
following conditions must be met:
(ii) The Compliance Officer must have a direct reporting line to
the highest-ranking corporate officer in charge of legal compliance
that is independent of Deutsche Bank's other business lines;''
With respect to subsection I(m)(1)(ii), the Applicant requests that
``of legal compliance that is independent of Deutsche Bank's other
business lines'' be replaced with ``of compliance for asset
management.'' The Department has made changes in line with the
Applicant's request, but has not removed the word ``legal.''
Section I(m)(2) of the proposed exemption states, ``(2) With
respect to each Annual Review, the following conditions must be met:
(i) The Annual Review includes a review of: Any compliance matter
related to the Policies or Training that was identified by, or reported
to, the Compliance Officer or others within the compliance and risk
control function (or its equivalent) during the previous year; any
material change in the business activities of the DB QPAMs; and any
change to ERISA, the Code, or regulations related to fiduciary duties
and the prohibited transaction provisions that may be applicable to the
activities of the DB QPAMs;''
With respect to this section, the Applicant requests: substituting
``Any material compliance matter'' for ``Any compliance matter'';
deletion of ``or others within the compliance and risk control function
(or its equivalent);'' and clarification that the Annual Review
encompass ``any material change in the business activities of the DB
QPAMs that may impact their compliance with ERISA or Section 4975 of
the Code.''
The Department declines to add the word ``material'' due to the
focused scope of the Annual Review on the Policies and Training
required under this exemption. The Department also declines to delete
the phrase ``or others within the compliance and risk control function
(or its equivalent)'' because it is important that all relevant
compliance matters be properly accounted for, not simply those that
make their way to the Compliance Officer. The Department has added the
word ``relevant'' to clarify that any changes to the QPAM's business
activities should be relevant to the scope and coverage of this
exemption.
Section I(m)(2)(ii) of the proposed exemption states, ``The
Compliance Officer prepares a written report for each Annual Review
(each, an Annual Report) that (A) summarizes his or her material
activities during the preceding year; (B) sets forth any instance of
noncompliance discovered during the preceding year, and any related
corrective action; (C) details any change to the Policies or Training
to guard against any similar instance of noncompliance occurring again;
and (D) makes recommendations, as necessary, for additional training,
procedures, monitoring, or additional and/or changed processes or
systems, and management's actions on such recommendations;''
With respect to this section, the Applicant suggests that the
Annual Report ``(A) summarizes his or her material activities in
connection with any compliance matter related to the Policies or
Training during the preceding year; (B) sets forth any material
instance of noncompliance related to the Policies or Training
discovered during the preceding year, and any related corrective
action; (C) details any material change to the Policies or Training to
guard against any similar instance of noncompliance occurring again;
and (D) makes recommendations, as necessary, for additional training,
procedures, monitoring, or additional and/or changed processes or
systems relating to the Policies or Training, and management's actions
on such recommendations.''
The Department declines to make these changes because Section
(m)(1) properly sets out the scope of the Annual Review in that it is
meant ``to determine the adequacy and effectiveness of the
implementation of the Policies and Training.'' Any additional
requirements outlined with respect to the Annual Review should be
handled accordingly.
Section I(m)(2)(iii) of the proposed exemption states, ``In each
Annual Report, the Compliance Officer must certify in writing that to
his or her knowledge: (A) The report is accurate; (B) the Policies and
Training are working in a manner which is reasonably designed to ensure
that the Policies and Training requirements described herein are met;
(C) any known instance of noncompliance during the preceding year and
any related correction taken to date have been identified in the Annual
Report; (D) the DB QPAMs have complied with the Policies and Training
in all respects, and/or corrected any instances of noncompliance in
accordance with Section I(h) above; and (E) Deutsche Bank has provided
the Compliance Officer with adequate resources, including, but not
limited to, adequate staffing;
With respect to this section, the Applicant requests that ``certify
in writing'' be replaced with ``state,'' that ``any known instances of
noncompliance'' be ``related to the Policies or Training,'' and that
the review of whether ``Deutsche Bank has provided the Compliance
Officer with adequate resources, including, but not limited to,
adequate staffing'' be deleted.
The Department has deleted paragraph (E) regarding staffing and
resources, as requested by the Applicant, but has not made the other
requested changes because these provisions are properly limited in
scope to the Policies and Training as outlined in Section I(m)(1).
Section I(m)(2)(v) of the proposed exemption states, ``Each Annual
Review, including the Compliance Officer's written Annual Report, must
be completed at least three (3) months in advance of the date on which
each audit described in Section I(i) is scheduled to be completed;''
With respect to this section, the Applicant requests that the
Annual Review, including the Annual Report, be completed ``at least one
(1) month in advance of the date on which each audit described in
Section I(i) is scheduled to be completed.''
The Department has modified this section slightly so that it is no
longer tied to completion of the audit, but rather the end of the
period to which the Annual Report and Annual Review relates.
Comment 29--Deferred Prosecution Agreement/Non-Prosecution Agreement--
Section I(p)
Section I(p) of the proposed exemption provides, ``(p)(1) During
the effective period of this exemption, Deutsche Bank immediately
discloses to the Department any Deferred Prosecution Agreement (a DPA)
or Non-Prosecution Agreement (an NPA) entered into by Deutsche Bank or
any of its affiliates with the U.S Department of Justice, in connection
with conduct described in Section I(g) of PTE 84-14 or section 411 of
ERISA; and (2) Immediately provides the Department any information
requested by the Department, as permitted by law, regarding such
agreement and/or conduct and allegations that led to the agreement.
After review of the information, the Department may require Deutsche
Bank or its affiliates, as specified by the Department, to submit a new
application for the continued availability of relief as a condition of
continuing to rely on this exemption. If the Department denies the
relief requested in the new application,
[[Page 61855]]
or does not grant such relief within twelve (12) months of the
application, the relief described herein is revoked as of the date of
denial or as of the expiration of the twelve month period, whichever
date is earlier;''
In its comment, the Applicant requests that the Department delete
Section I(p). The Applicant asserts that the condition does not meet
the requirements of either the Administrative Procedure Act or the
Department's own regulations, specifically with regards to withdrawal
or revocation of an exemption. The Applicant also takes issue with the
substance of the Department's proposed informal termination.
Specifically, according to the Applicant, its inclusion in the
exemption raises the risk of an immediate loss of exemptive relief and
related uncertainty in connection with thousands of transactions and
investments with respect to its plan asset clients.
Deutsche Bank also contends that the timing of NPAs and DPAs is
uncertain, as the activities under investigation also may be remote,
historical, or unrelated to DB QPAMs' activities. The Applicant notes
that the condition does not build in any notice to plan fiduciaries,
counterparties, or other parties in interest that rely on QPAM, and as
such is not administrable or protective of plans.
The Applicant asserts that Section I(p) is inconsistent with the
anti-criminal rules of Section I(g) of PTE 84-14 and Section 411 of
ERISA as neither NPAs nor DPAs rise to the level of convictions.
Moreover, this condition establishes a precedent to be inserted into
every one of these matters--regardless of how attenuated the conduct is
from plans and participants, and even if it is clearly in the interest
of plans and participants to keep the individual QPAM exemption in
place, and not to have uncertainty around this outcome.
The Applicant suggests revisions if the Department declines to
delete the condition. Specifically, the Applicant seeks to clarify that
the Applicant will ``[provide] the Department any non-privileged
information requested by the Department, as permitted by law, regarding
such agreement and/or conduct and allegations that led to the
agreement.'' Furthermore, the Applicant seeks deletion of the
following: ``After review of the information, the Department may
require Deutsche Bank or its affiliates, as specified by the
Department, to submit a new application for the continued availability
of relief as a condition of continuing to rely on this exemption. If
the Department denies the relief requested in the new application, or
does not grant such relief within twelve (12) months of the
application, the relief described herein is revoked as of the date of
denial or as of the expiration of the twelve month period, whichever
date is earlier.''
The Department in no way intended the condition to be read as
providing for an automatic revocation of this exemption and, in light
of the Applicant's comments, has revised the condition accordingly. As
revised, the condition simply requires that the Applicant notify the
Department if and when it or any of its affiliates enter into a DPA or
NPA with the U.S. Department of Justice for conduct described in
section I(g) of PTE 84-14 or ERISA section 411 and immediately provide
the Department with any information requested by the Department, as
permitted by law, regarding the agreement and/or conduct and
allegations that led to the agreement. The Department retains the right
to propose a withdrawal of the exemption pursuant to its procedures
contained at 29 CFR 2570.50, should the circumstances warrant such
action.
Regarding the Applicant's comment that the timing and factual basis
of the NPA or DPA could be far removed or distant in time or place from
current plan management operations, the Department notes that entering
into a DPA or NPA may reflect conduct that could have sustained a
criminal conviction, and such conduct would be relevant to the
Department's determination whether to allow an entity to continue to
rely on this exemption or to grant a subsequent exemption when this
exemption expires. Such agreements are not entered into lightly and can
stem from misconduct that reflects directly on the parties' willingness
and ability to adhere to the standards set forth herein. Similarly,
such agreement can have a direct bearing on the efficacy of the
affected institution's policies and procedures in preventing
misconduct, such as the policies and procedures mandated by this
exemption.
The Department declines to specify that the DB QPAMs need only
provide ``non-privileged information'' upon request by the Department.
As stated above, the Department will evaluate the conduct underlying
the new DPA or NPA and will review all relevant information.
Comment 30--Right to Copies of Policies and Procedures--Section I(q)
Section I(q) of the proposed exemption provides, ``(q) Each DB
QPAM, in its agreements with ERISA-covered plan and IRA clients, or in
other written disclosures provided to ERISA-covered plan and IRA
clients, within 60 days prior to the initial transaction upon which
relief hereunder is relied, and then at least once annually, will
clearly and prominently inform the ERISA-covered plan and IRA client
that the client has the right to obtain copies of the QPAM's written
Policies adopted in accordance with this exemption.''
In its comment, the Applicant states that there are difficulties in
informing ERISA-covered plan and IRA clients within sixty (60) days
prior to the period the exemption is relied on because the Applicant
intends to rely on the exemptive relief provided hereunder as soon as
possible to ensure efficient trading on behalf of ERISA plan and IRA
clients. The Applicant requests that the initial informing of clients
be ``prior to or concurrently with the initial transaction upon which
relief hereunder is relied.'' The Applicant also states that the annual
notification requirements represent another duplicative and overlapping
notice requirement to clients, which are burdensome and potentially
confusing to clients, and requests that the annual notification
requirement be deleted. The Applicant argues that providing the client
with the exemption notice, which in turn informs the client that it can
request and receive the policies and procedures upon request should
obviate the need for additional mailings.
Affording ERISA-covered plan and IRA clients a means by which to
review and understand the Policies implemented in connection with this
exemption is a vital protection that is fundamental to this exemption's
purpose. However, the Department has modified the condition so that the
QPAMs, at their election, may instead provide Covered Plans disclosure
that accurately describes or summarizes key components of the Policies,
rather than the policies in their entirety. The Department has also
determined that such disclosure may be continuously maintained on a
website, provided that the website link to the summary of the written
Policies is clearly and prominently disclosed to those ERISA-covered
plan and IRA clients to whom this section applies. The Department also
agrees with the Applicant that the timing requirement for disclosure
should be revised and, accordingly, has modified Section I(q) to
require notice regarding the information on the website within 6 months
of the effective date of this exemption (by October 17, 2018), and
thereafter to the extent
[[Page 61856]]
certain material changes are made to the Policies.
Comment 31--Definition of Convictions--Section II(a)
Section II(a) of the proposed exemption provides, ``(a) The term
`Convictions' means (1) the judgment of conviction against DB Group
Services, in Case 3:15-cr-00062-RNC to be entered in the United States
District Court for the District of Connecticut to a single count of
wire fraud, in violation of 18 U.S.C. 1343, and (2) the judgment of
conviction against DSK entered on January 25, 2016, in Seoul Central
District Court, relating to charges filed against DSK under Articles
176, 443, and 448 of South Korea's Financial Investment Services and
Capital Markets Act for spot/futures-linked market price manipulation.
For all purposes under this exemption, `conduct' of any person or
entity that is the `subject of [a] Conviction' encompasses any conduct
of Deutsche Bank and/or their personnel, that is described in the Plea
Agreement (including the Factual Statement thereto), Court judgments
(including the judgment of the Seoul Central District Court), criminal
complaint documents from the Financial Services Commission in Korea,
and other official regulatory or judicial factual findings that are a
part of this record,''
In its comment, the Applicant states that this definition
inaccurately paraphrases the Plea Agreement and Seoul Central District
Court decision and significantly expands the conduct with respect to
both the Conviction and the Korean Conviction. The Applicant requests
that the language ``any conduct of Deutsche Bank and/or their
personnel, that is described in the Plea Agreement (including the
Factual Statement thereto), Court judgments (including the judgment of
the Seoul Central District Court), criminal complaint documents from
the Financial Services Commission in Korea, and other official
regulatory or judicial factual findings that are part of this record''
be replaced with ``the factual allegations described in Paragraph 13 of
the Plea Agreement filed in the District Court in Case Number 3:15-cr-
00062-RNC, and in the 'Criminal Acts' section pertaining to 'Defendant
DSK' in the Decision of the Seoul Central District Court.''
After considering this comment, the Department has revised the
definition to be consistent with the definition of ``Convictions'' in
the temporary exemption.
Comments 32 and 38--Definition of DB QPAM--Section II(b)
Section II(b) of the proposed exemption provides, ``(a) The term
`DB QPAM' means a `qualified professional asset manager' (as defined in
Section VI(a) of PTE 84-14) that relies on the relief provided by PTE
84-14 and with respect to which DSK or DK Group Services is a current
or future `affiliate' (as defined in Section VI(d) of PTE 84-14). For
purposes of this exemption, Deutsche Bank Securities, Inc. (DBSI),
including all entities over which it exercises control; and Deutsche
Bank AG, including all of its branches, are excluded from the
definition of a DB QPAM'' (footnote omitted).
In its comment, the Applicant requests that the reference to
Section VI(d) of PTE 84-14 be specified as Section VI(d)(1) because
Deutsche Bank is seeking relief only for control ``affiliates'' as
defined in Section VI(d)(1). The Department agrees this is the intended
scope of relief and has revised the definition accordingly.
The Applicant requests that Deutsche Bank Services Inc. (DBSI) be
permitted to act as a QPAM. However, as noted in the proposal to this
exemption, Deutsche Bank had previously advised the Department that
``[t]he DB QPAMs (including their officers, directors, agents other
than Deutsche Bank, and employees of such DB QPAMs) did not know of,
have reason to know of, or participate in the criminal conduct of DSK
that is the subject of the Conviction.'' Then, in a letter to the
Department dated July 15, 2016, Deutsche Bank raised the possibility
that an individual (John Ripley), while employed at DBSI, may have
known or had reason to know of the criminal conduct of DSK that is the
subject of the Korean Conviction. Similarly, the Applicant further
noted that, with respect to the LIBOR-related misconduct, ``certain
sell side employees of DBSI, the dual registrant, may have known about
the conduct that is the subject of the plea agreement.''
For nearly nine months, following the publication of PTE 2015-15,
the Applicant failed to raise with the Department the ``interpretive''
issue regarding whether an individual or individuals employed at DBSI
may have known or had reason to know of the criminal conduct at DSK,
notwithstanding the previous representation, and whether DBSI was still
eligible to act as a QPAM. Consequently, the Department is not
persuaded that DBSI should be permitted to act as a QPAM.
The Applicant also suggests that, while the Definition of QPAM
could be revised to preclude relief for DSK and DB Group Services,
Deutsche Bank AG should be permitted to act as a QPAM, stating that
Deutsche Bank AG and its branches were not convicted of a crime, and
excluding those entities is unfair given the scope of relief provided
to other banks subject to a disqualifying conviction. The Applicant,
however, has not demonstrated that the exemption's existing conditions
would adequately protect affected ERISA-covered plans and IRAs to the
extent Deutsche Bank AG is permitted to act as a QPAM. Accordingly, the
Department has not revised the exemption as requested.
Comments 33, 35-37, 40--Summary of Facts and Representations
The Applicant seeks certain factual updates and clarifications and
statements regarding the Summary of Facts and Representations. The
Department notes that the factual updates and clarifications may be
found as part of the public record for Application No. D-11908, in its
comment letter to the Department, dated January 17, 2017.
Comment 34--DBSI
The preamble to the proposed exemption states: ``In a letter to the
Department dated July 15, 2016, Deutsche Bank raised the possibility
that an individual [John Ripley], while employed at DBSI, may have
known or had reason to know of the criminal conduct of DSK that is the
subject of the Korean Conviction.'' (footnote omitted). The preamble
also states that DB did not raise any ``interpretive questions
regarding Section I(a) of PTE 2015-15, or express any concerns
regarding DBSI's possible noncompliance, during the comment period for
PTE 2015-15,'' and that ``a period of approximately nine months passed
before Deutsche Bank raised an interpretive question regarding Section
I(a) of PTE 2015-15.''
In its comment letter, the Applicant contests the suggestion of the
statements above that Deutsche Bank had failed to previously disclose
Mr. Ripley's knowledge of the conduct and his employment with DBSI to
the Department. The Applicant asserts that it identified Mr. Ripley
both as an employee of DBSI and a subject of the Korean case on
numerous prior occasions, as far back as 2011. The Department
referenced these disclosures by identifying Mr. Ripley, his employment
at DBSI, and his involvement in the case in the proposed exemption on
behalf of Deutsche Bank
[[Page 61857]]
AG related to exemption application no. D-11696, at 80 FR 51314 (August
24, 2015) (the DSK Proposal). The Applicant contends that it did not
raise any interpretative question on Section I(a) of PTE 2015-15
earlier because Deutsche Bank assumed that the Department would not
impose an exemption condition that the Department knew Deutsche Bank
could not meet.
The Department acknowledges the disclosures by the Applicant
regarding Mr. Ripley, his employment at DBSI, and his alleged role in
the conduct underlying the Korean Conviction. However, the Department
emphasizes that, despite the references to Mr. Ripley in the DSK
Proposal and the proposed condition I(a) that the ``[t]he DB QPAMs
(including their officers, directors, agents other than Deutsche Bank,
and employees of such DB QPAMs) did not know of, have reason to know
of, or participate in the criminal conduct of DSK that is the subject
of the Conviction,'' the Applicant did not submit a comment
highlighting this concern. The Department notes that, pursuant to the
DSK Proposal, the Applicant had seven (7) days to submit a comment. It
did not do so. Furthermore, following the grant of PTE 2015-15, if the
Applicant believed that the Department had included ``an exemption
condition that . . . [Deutsche Bank] could not meet,'' the Applicant
could have asked the Department for clarification at any time. The
Department further notes that, at the time of the grant of PTE 2015-15,
the Department was processing Exemption Application no. D-11956, and
was in regular contact with the Applicant regarding that submission. In
fact, a tentative denial conference was held on November 9, 2015,
between representatives of the Department and the Applicant, pursuant
to a tentative denial letter dated July 16, 2015. In addition to the
tentative denial conference, the Applicant submitted substantial
information in support of the application, and to address the
Department's concerns raised both in the letter and at the November 9,
2015, conference. However, the Applicant did not raise this potential
concern for approximately nine months and elaborated in the July 15,
2016 letter referenced in the summary of facts and representations in
the proposed exemption.
In the July 15, 2016, letter, the Applicant further noted that,
with respect to the LIBOR-related misconduct, ``certain sell side
employees of DBSI, the dual registrant, may have known about the
conduct that is the subject of the plea agreement.'' In a follow-up
submission to the Department dated August 19, 2016, the Applicant
represented that ``[to] the best of the Applicant's knowledge, no
person employed by DBSI was determined to be responsible for the LIBOR
misconduct, although one person who worked for the Bank may have been
dual hatted to DBSI prior to 2008.''
Comments 39, 41, 42--Technical Corrections in the Operative Language
In Section II(i) of the exemption, formerly Section II(g) in the
proposed exemption, the Department has replaced the term ``Factual
Statement'' with ``Agreed Statement of Facts.'' The Department has also
replaced the term ``action'' with ``charge.'' Finally, the Department
has deleted the phrase ``related to the manipulation of the London
Interbank Offered Rate (LIBOR).'' The Department notes that the
modified Section II(i) in the exemption is consistent with Section
II(g) in the temporary exemption.
The Department has modified both the prefatory language of Section
I and Section II(e) of the exemption to reflect the fact that the full
name of DB Group Services is ``DB Group Services (UK) Limited.''
The Department has further modified the prefatory language of
Section I to reflect the correct date of the Korean Conviction as
January 25, 2016.
The Department also notes that the defined terms in Section II have
been reordered in their entirety so that they now appear in
alphabetical order.
Comment 43--Term of the Exemption
In its comment, the Applicant requests that the Department extend
the term of the exemption to the remaining 9 years. The Applicant
states that the conduct underlying the Convictions was isolated and
limited to business not related to Deutsche Bank's asset management
business, which is separate from the business of both DB Group Services
and DSK. The Applicant further states that the Department historically
has granted ten-year exemptions for cases involving serious criminal
conduct and the present exemption should be disposed of in a like
manner. The Applicant notes that the differences in the standards seem
``arbitrary, and unrelated to the conduct,'' as ``the Department has
departed from its historic practice of granting exemptions for similar
circumstances with similar conditions.'' The Applicant states that the
Department has not provided an explanation for the conditions new to
this exemption ``other than its belief that crimes are serious.'' The
Applicant states that ``the exemption is not a proper place to further
punish Applicant and it should not be treated more harshly than prior
applicants.'' Rather, the Applicant represents that it has entered into
agreements with prosecutors and regulators and paid fines to address
the subject misconduct. The Applicant asserts that ``[t{time} he
exemption process is not an appropriate place to re-examine those
resolutions.''
The Applicant further states: ``ERISA was not violated here, and
the asset management and wealth management businesses were not
implicated in the criminal proceedings. It is thus unfortunate that the
Department has chosen to impose conditions that suggest that the DB
affiliated asset managers have violated some provision of ERISA that
requires punitive conditions moving forward. There is simply no reason
that Applicant should not receive the traditional ten-year exemption
that the Department has historically granted to applicants for QPAM
exemptions.'' The Applicant states that the crimes did not occur in
asset management. Rather, the Applicant states that ''[t]he auditor's
report, which will be available to plan fiduciaries and to the
Department, will be a sufficient indicator of the DB QPAMs' compliance
with the exemption, without requiring reapplication after 5 years.''
Although the Applicant characterizes the conduct as unrelated to
Deutsche Bank's asset management business, the Department does not
agree with the apparent suggestion that the Applicant bears little or
no responsibility for the criminal conduct, or that the misconduct
amounted to mere isolated instances. This exemption was developed based
on the Department's view that the misconduct relevant to the
Convictions occurred at Deutsche Bank entities. With respect to the
Korean Conviction, the record includes the Decision by the Seoul
Central District Court (the Korean Court) dated January 25, 2016. The
Korean Court decision notes: ``Defendant DSK could have anticipated and
prevented in advance its officers and employees' violation of the
[Korean Financial Investment Services and Capital Markets Act] in light
of the size of its business, the number of its officers and employees,
and its past experiences of engaging in the financial investment
business in Korea.''
With respect to the US Conviction, the record includes the Plea
Agreement between the DOJ and DB Group Services and the accompanying
Agreed Statement of Facts, as well as the
[[Page 61858]]
Deferred Prosecution Agreement entered into by Deutsche Bank AG. The
Plea Factual Statement states: ``From at least 2003 through at least
2010, [Deutsche Bank] derivatives traders engaged in a scheme to
defraud [Deutsche Bank's] counterparties by secretly attempting to
manipulate and manipulating U.S. Dollar, Yen, and Pound Sterling LIBOR,
as well as EURIBOR [IBOR]. They carried out this scheme by attempting
to manipulate and manipulating the various IBOR submissions. These
derivatives traders requested that the [Deutsche Bank] IBOR submitters
send in benchmark interest rates that would benefit the traders'
trading positions, rather than rates that complied with the definitions
of the IBORs. These derivatives traders either requested a particular
IBOR contribution for a particular tenor and currency, or requested
that the rate submitter contribute a higher, lower, or unchanged rate
for a particular tenor and currency . . . In the instances when the
published benchmark interest rates were manipulated in [Deutsche
Bank's] favor due to [Deutsche Bank's] manipulation of its own or other
banks' submissions, that manipulation benefitted DB derivatives
traders, or minimized their losses, to the detriment of counterparties
located in Connecticut and elsewhere, at least with respect to the
particular transactions comprising the trading positions that the
traders took into account in making their requests to the rate
submitters. Certain [Deutsche Bank] pool and MMD derivatives traders
who tried to manipulate LIBOR and EURIBOR submissions understood the
features of the derivatives products tied to these benchmark interest
rates; accordingly, they understood that to the extent they increased
their profits or decreased their losses in certain transactions from
their efforts to manipulate rates, their counterparties would suffer
corresponding adverse financial consequences with respect to those
particular transactions. The derivatives traders did not inform their
counterparties that the traders were engaging in efforts to manipulate
the IBORs to which the profitability of their trades was tied.'' The
Plea Factual Statement further states that ``[t]his deceptive scheme
involved efforts by [DB Group Services] derivatives traders to
manipulate hundreds of IBORs.''
The Deferred Prosecution Agreement further notes: ``Although
Deutsche Bank's cooperation was often helpful, Deutsche Bank's
cooperation also fell short in some important respects. First, Deutsche
Bank was slow to cooperate fully with the Department's investigation.
For example, Deutsche Bank did not timely produce certain information,
including key information related to Deutsche Bank's Euro traders. As
another example, in a telephone conversation, two executive level
managers discussed knowing that the Department asked for relevant
information and that the information had been withheld from the
Department and other U.S. authorities while acknowledging they probably
would have to give the information to the European Union. Second,
Deutsche Bank was not, by comparison to previously settling
institutions, proactive in its investigation and disclosure. For
example, Deutsche Bank's conduct included interbank coordination
between it and other institutions, but it was the other institutions,
not Deutsche Bank, that provided that information to the Department.
Third, Deutsche Bank's investigation was hampered by numerous
unintentional but significant mistakes in the preservation, collection,
and production of documents, audio, and data. For example, Deutsche
Bank destroyed thousands of hours of potentially responsive audio
recordings due to the negligent execution of certain discovery holds.
As another example, Deutsche Bank discovered an important
communications platform more than two years after receiving the
Department's initial request for information, which platform contained
some of the most explicit documents. Fourth, Deutsche Bank caused the
Department to be misinformed that the bank was not permitted to provide
to the Department a report by Deutsche Bank's primary domestic
regulator, BaFin, that discussed shortcomings in Deutsche Bank's
internal investigation of IBOR related misconduct.''
In developing this exemption, the Department also considered
statements made by other regulators. The United Kingdom's Financial
Conduct Authority's (FCA) Final Notice states: ``The lack of
appropriate systems to retrieve recorded Trader telephone calls and to
map trading books and trades constituted a serious failure on the part
of Deutsche Bank to [organize] and control its affairs responsibly and
effectively, and to manage risks adequately . . . These failings
demonstrate that there was a lack of appreciation within Deutsche Bank
of the need to ensure systems are suitable for risk management and
compliance purposes, enabling appropriate and timely investigations of
potential Trader misconduct. The shortcomings of these particular
systems came to light during the course of the Authority's
investigation, but these systems issues would have been equally
problematic in relation to any internal or regulatory agency enquiries
or investigations concerning the possible misconduct of individual
Traders.''
The Consent Order of the New York State Department of Financial
Services states that, ``[the] culture within the Bank valued increased
profits with little regard to the integrity of the market.''
The Consent Order of the United States Commodities Futures Trading
Commission (CFTC) with Deutsche Bank states that, ``Deutsche Bank
engaged in this wrongful conduct even after the [CFTC] Division of
Enforcement requested in April 2010 that Deutsche Bank conduct an
internal investigation of its U.S. Dollar LIBOR submission practices.
In fact, Deutsche Bank did not make meaningful improvements in its
internal controls until mid-2011 and did not formalize a policy about
conflicts of interest among traders and submitters relating to
benchmark submissions until February, 2013.''
The Department also notes the size of relevant fines imposed by
various regulators: the Seoul Central District Court imposed a fine of
KRW 43,695,371,124 on Deutsche Bank and KRW 1,183,362,400 on DSK; the
Department of Justice imposed a $150 million fine on DB Group Services
and a $625 million penalty on Deutsche Bank; the New York State
Department of Financial Services imposed a penalty of $600 million; and
the CFTC and the FCA imposed fines of $800 million and [pound]226.8
million, respectively.
After deliberating on all the considerations above, the Department
decided the appropriate term for this exemption is three years. This
exemption is not punitive. In the Department's view, the 3-year term of
this exemption and its numerous protective conditions reflect the
Department's intent to protect Covered Plans that entrust substantial
assets with a Deutsche Bank asset manager, following serious
misconduct, supervisory failures, and two criminal convictions. The
limited term of this exemption gives the Department the opportunity to
review the adherence by the DB QPAMs to the conditions set out herein.
The Department has decided it is necessary to limit the term of relief
to facilitate the Department's ability to ensure that the circumstances
that allowed the prior bad conduct to occur have been adequately
addressed. Because two separate convictions within the Deutsche Bank
corporate
[[Page 61859]]
structure create the need for this exemption, the Department has
concluded that future review of the relief provided by this exemption
should occur within a shorter timeframe.
The Applicants may apply for an additional extension when they
believe appropriate. Before granting an extension, however, the
Department expects to carefully consider the efficacy of this exemption
and any public comments on additional extensions, particularly
including comments on how well the exemption has or has not worked to
safeguard the interests of Covered Plans. If the Applicant seeks an
extension of this exemption, the Department will examine whether the
compliance and oversight changes mandated by various regulatory
authorities are having their desired effect on Deutsche Bank entities.
Section I(r)
The Department, in order to avoid inadvertent violations of the
exemption that are outside the Applicant's control, has determined to
modify Section I(r) such that a failure of the auditor to comply with
any of the conditions in Section I(i) of the exemption, except for
subsection I(i)(11), should not be treated as a failure by the DB QPAMs
to comply with the conditions of the exemption provided that such
failure was not due to the actions or inactions of Deutsche Bank or its
affiliates, and Section I(r) is amended, accordingly.
Comment--Letter From House Committee on Financial Services
The Department also received a comment letter from certain members
of Congress (the Members) regarding this exemption, as well as
regarding other QPAM-related proposed one-year exemptions. In the
letter, the Members recognized that certain conditions contained in
these proposed exemptions are crucial in protecting the investments of
workers and retirees. In particular, they referred to proposed
conditions which require each bank to: (a) Indemnify and hold harmless
ERISA-covered plans and IRAs for any damages resulting from the future
misconduct of such bank; and (b) disclose to the Department any
Deferred Prosecution Agreement or a Non-Prosecution Agreement with the
U.S. Department of Justice. The Members also requested that the
Department hold hearings in connection with the proposed exemptions.
The Department acknowledges the Members' concerns regarding the
need for public discourse regarding proposed exemptions. To this end,
the Department's procedures regarding prohibited transaction exemption
requests under ERISA (the Exemption Procedures) afford interested
persons the opportunity to request a hearing. Specifically, section
2570.46(a) of the Exemption Procedures provides that, ``[a]ny
interested person who may be adversely affected by an exemption which
the Department proposes to grant relief from the restrictions of
section 406(b) of ERISA, section 4975(c)(1)(E) or (F) of the Code, or
section 8477(c)(2) of FERSA may request a hearing before the Department
within the period of time specified in the Federal Register notice of
the proposed exemption.'' The Exemption Procedures provide that ``[t]he
Department will grant a request for a hearing made in accordance with
paragraph (a) of this section where a hearing is necessary to fully
explore material factual issues identified by the person requesting the
hearing.'' The Exemption Procedures also provide that ``[t]he
Department may decline to hold a hearing where: (1) The request for the
hearing does not meet the requirements of paragraph (a) of this
section; (2) the only issues identified for exploration at the hearing
are matters of law; or (3) the factual issues identified can be fully
explored through the submission of evidence in written (including
electronic) form.'' \28\
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\28\ 29 CFR part 2570, published at 76 FR 66653 (October 27,
2011).
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
While the Members' letter raises policy issues, it does not appear
to raise specific material factual issues. The Department previously
explored a wide range of legal and policy issues regarding Section I(g)
of the QPAM Exemption during a public hearing held on January 15, 2015
in connection with the Department's proposed exemption involving Credit
Suisse AG, and has determined that an additional hearing on these
issues is not necessary.
Public Comments
The Department received three comments from two members of the
public.
One commenter, Theo Allen, objects to the Department's proposed
exemption on the basis that President Trump owes ``hundreds of millions
of dollars of debt to Deutsche Bank'' and in his view, that debt should
be ``divested'' before the exemption is granted.
Arthur Lipson of Western Investment LLC (Western) submitted two
comment letters regarding the proposed exemption. The first letter
states that Western is a shareholder in two closed-end funds managed by
Deutsche Bank affiliates. He states that these funds are not subject to
ERISA but are subject to the Investment Company Act of 1940, as
amended. Mr. Lipson objects to a recent election of the closed-end fund
trustees. Western sued the funds in connection with that election.
Mr. Lipson's second letter additionally states that Deutsche Bank
should not be granted an exemption unless it ensures ``compliance with
the principle of directorial accountability in the funds that it
manages.''
Conclusion
After giving full consideration to the record, the Department has
decided to grant the exemption, as described above. The complete
application file (Application No. D-11908) is available for public
inspection in the Public Disclosure Room of the Employee Benefits
Security Administration, Room N-1515, U.S. Department of Labor, 200
Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20210.
For a more complete statement of the facts and representations
supporting the Department's decision to grant this exemption, refer to
the notice of proposed exemption published on November 21, 2016 at 81
FR 83400.
Exemption
Section I: Covered Transactions
Certain entities with specified relationships to Deutsche Bank AG
(hereinafter, the DB QPAMs, as defined in Section II(d)) will not be
precluded from relying on the exemptive relief provided by Prohibited
Transaction Class Exemption 84-14 (PTE 84-14 or the QPAM Exemption),
notwithstanding: (1) The ``Korean Conviction'' against Deutsche
Securities Korea Co., a South Korean affiliate of Deutsche Bank AG
(hereinafter, DSK, as defined in Section II(f)), entered on January 25,
2016; and (2) the ``US Conviction'' against DB Group Services (UK)
Limited, an affiliate of Deutsche Bank based in the United Kingdom
(hereinafter, DB Group Services, as further defined in Section II(e)),
during the Exemption Period,\29\ provided that the following conditions
are satisfied:
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
\29\ Section I(g) of PTE 84-14 generally provides relief only if
``[n]either the QPAM nor any affiliate thereof . . . nor any owner .
. . of a 5 percent or more interest in the QPAM is a person who
within the 10 years immediately preceding the transaction has been
either convicted or released from imprisonment, whichever is later,
as a result of'' certain felonies including fraud.
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
(a) The DB QPAMs (including their officers, directors, agents other
than Deutsche Bank, and employees of such QPAMs) did not know of, have
reason to know of, or participate in the
[[Page 61860]]
criminal conduct of DSK and DB Group Services that is the subject of
the Convictions. For purposes of this paragraph I(a), ``participate
in'' means the knowing approval of the misconduct underlying the
Convictions;
(b) The DB QPAMs (including their officers, directors, and agents
other than Deutsche Bank, and employees of such DB QPAMs) did not
receive direct compensation, or knowingly receive indirect
compensation, in connection with the criminal conduct that is the
subject of the Convictions;
(c) The DB QPAMs will not employ or knowingly engage any of the
individuals that participated in the criminal conduct that is the
subject of the Convictions. For the purposes of this paragraph (c),
``participated in'' means the knowing approval of the misconduct
underlying the Convictions;
(d) At all times during the Exemption Period, no DB QPAM will use
its authority or influence to direct an ``investment fund'' (as defined
in Section VI(b) of PTE 84-14), that is subject to ERISA or the Code
and managed by such DB QPAM with respect to one or more Covered Plans,
to enter into any transaction with DSK or DB Group Services, or to
engage DSK or DB Group Services to provide any service to such
investment fund, for a direct or indirect fee borne by such investment
fund, regardless of whether such transaction or service may otherwise
be within the scope of relief provided by an administrative or
statutory exemption;
(e) Any failure of the DB QPAMs to satisfy Section I(g) of PTE 84-
14 arose solely from the Convictions;
(f) A DB QPAM did not exercise authority over the assets of any
plan subject to Part 4 of Title I of ERISA (an ERISA-covered plan) or
section 4975 of the Code (an IRA) in a manner that it knew or should
have known would: Further the criminal conduct that is the subject of
the Convictions; or cause the QPAM or their affiliates to directly or
indirectly profit from the criminal conduct that is the subject of the
Convictions;
(g) Other than with respect to employee benefit plans maintained or
sponsored for its own employees or the employees of an affiliate, DSK
and DB Group Services will not act as fiduciaries within the meaning of
section 3(21)(A)(i) or (iii) of ERISA, or section 4975(e)(3)(A) and (C)
of the Code, with respect to ERISA-covered plan and IRA assets;
provided, however, that DSK and DB Group Services will not be treated
as violating the conditions of this exemption solely because they acted
as investment advice fiduciaries within the meaning of section
3(21)(A)(ii) of ERISA, or section 4975(e)(3)(B) of the Code, or because
DB Group Services employees may be double-hatted, seconded, supervised
or otherwise subject to the control of a DB QPAM, including in a
discretionary fiduciary capacity with respect to the DB QPAM clients;
(h)(1) Each DB QPAM must continue to maintain or immediately
implement and follow written policies and procedures (the Policies).
The Policies must require, and must be reasonably designed to ensure
that:
(i) The asset management decisions of the DB QPAM are conducted
independently of the corporate management and business activities of DB
Group Services and DSK;
(ii) The DB QPAM fully complies with ERISA's fiduciary duties and
with ERISA and the Code's prohibited transaction provisions, in each
such case as applicable with respect to each Covered Plan, and does not
knowingly participate in any violation of these duties and provisions
with respect to Covered Plans;
(iii) The DB QPAM does not knowingly participate in any other
person's violation of ERISA or the Code with respect to Covered Plans;
(iv) Any filings or statements made by the DB QPAM to regulators,
including, but not limited to, the Department, the Department of the
Treasury, the Department of Justice, and the Pension Benefit Guaranty
Corporation, on behalf of or in relation to Covered Plans, are
materially accurate and complete, to the best of such QPAM's knowledge
at that time;
(v) To the best of the DB QPAM's knowledge at the time, the DB QPAM
does not make material misrepresentations or omit material information
in its communications with such regulators with respect to ERISA-
covered plans or IRAs with respect to Covered Plans;
(vi) The DB QPAM complies with the terms of this exemption; and
(vii) Any violation of, or failure to comply with an item in
subparagraphs (ii) through (vi), is corrected as soon as reasonably
possible upon discovery, or as soon after the QPAM reasonably should
have known of the noncompliance (whichever is earlier), and any such
violation or compliance failure not so corrected is reported, upon the
discovery of such failure to so correct, in writing, to the head of
compliance and the General Counsel (or their functional equivalent) of
the relevant DB QPAM that engaged in the violation or failure, and the
independent auditor responsible for reviewing compliance with the
Policies. A DB QPAM will not be treated as having failed to develop,
implement, maintain, or follow the Policies, provided that it corrects
any instance of noncompliance as soon as reasonably possible upon
discovery, or as soon as reasonably possible after the QPAM reasonably
should have known of the noncompliance (whichever is earlier), and
provided that it adheres to the reporting requirements set forth in
this subparagraph (vii);
(2) Each DB QPAM must develop and implement a program of training
(the Training), to be conducted at least annually, for all relevant DB
QPAM asset/portfolio management, trading, legal, compliance, and
internal audit personnel. The first Training under this Final Exemption
must be completed by all relevant DB QPAM personnel by April 18, 2019
(by the end of this 30-month period, asset/portfolio management,
trading, legal, compliance, and internal audit personnel who were
employed from the start to the end of the period must have been trained
twice: the first time under PTE 2016-13; and the second time under this
exemption). The Training must:
(i) At a minimum, cover the Policies, ERISA and Code compliance
(including applicable fiduciary duties and the prohibited transaction
provisions), ethical conduct, the consequences for not complying with
the conditions of this exemption (including any loss of exemptive
relief provided herein), and prompt reporting of wrongdoing; and
(ii) Be conducted by a professional who has been prudently selected
and who has appropriate technical training and proficiency with ERISA
and the Code;
(i)(1) Each DB QPAM submits to an audit conducted annually by an
independent auditor, who has been prudently selected and who has
appropriate technical training and proficiency with ERISA and the Code,
to evaluate the adequacy of, and each DB QPAM's compliance with, the
Policies and Training described herein. The audit requirement must be
incorporated in the Policies. Each annual audit must cover the
preceding consecutive twelve (12) month period. The first audit must
cover the period from April 18, 2018 through April 17, 2019, and must
be completed by October 17, 2019. The second audit must cover the
period from April 18, 2019 through April 17, 2020, and must be
completed by October 17, 2020. In the event that the Exemption Period
is extended or a new exemption is granted, the third audit would cover
the period from April 18, 2020 through April 17, 2021, and would have
to be
[[Page 61861]]
completed by October 17, 2021 (unless the Department chooses to alter
the annual audit requirement in the new or extended exemption); \30\
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\30\ The third audit referenced above would not have to be
completed until after the Exemption Period expires. If the
Department ultimately decides to grant relief for an additional
period, it could decide to alter the terms of the exemption,
including the audit conditions (and the timing of the audit
requirements). Nevertheless, the Applicant should anticipate that
the Department will insist on strict compliance with the audit terms
and schedule set forth above. As it considers any new exemption
application, the Department may also contact the auditor for any
information relevant to its determination.
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(2) Within the scope of the audit and to the extent necessary for
the auditor, in its sole opinion, to complete its audit and comply with
the conditions for relief described herein, and only to the extent such
disclosure is not prevented by state or federal statute, or involves
communications subject to attorney client privilege, each DB QPAM and,
if applicable, Deutsche Bank, will grant the auditor unconditional
access to its business, including, but not limited to: its computer
systems; business records; transactional data; workplace locations;
training materials; and personnel. Such access is limited to
information relevant to the auditor's objectives as specified by the
terms of this exemption;
(3) The auditor's engagement must specifically require the auditor
to determine whether each DB QPAM has developed, implemented,
maintained, and followed the Policies in accordance with the conditions
of this exemption, and has developed and implemented the Training, as
required herein;
(4) The auditor's engagement must specifically require the auditor
to test each DB QPAM's operational compliance with the Policies and
Training. In this regard, the auditor must test, for each QPAM, a
sample of such QPAM's transactions involving Covered Plans, sufficient
in size and nature to afford the auditor a reasonable basis to
determine such QPAM's operational compliance with the Policies and
Training;
(5) For each audit, on or before the end of the relevant period
described in Section I(i)(1) for completing the audit, the auditor must
issue a written report (the Audit Report) to Deutsche Bank and the DB
QPAM to which the audit applies that describes the procedures performed
by the auditor during the course of its examination. The auditor, at
its discretion, may issue a single consolidated Audit Report that
covers all the DB QPAMs. The Audit Report must include the auditor's
specific determinations regarding:
(i) The adequacy of each DB QPAM's Policies and Training; each DB
QPAM's compliance with the Policies and Training; the need, if any, to
strengthen such Policies and Training; and any instance of the
respective DB QPAM's noncompliance with the written Policies and
Training described in Section I(h) above. The DB QPAM must promptly
address any noncompliance. The DB QPAM must promptly address or prepare
a written plan of action to address any determination of inadequacy by
the auditor regarding the adequacy of the Policies and Training and the
auditor's recommendations (if any) with respect to strengthening the
Policies and Training of the respective QPAM. Any action taken or the
plan of action to be taken by the respective DB QPAM must be included
in an addendum to the Audit Report (such addendum must be completed
prior to the certification described in Section I(i)(7) below). In the
event such a plan of action to address the auditor's recommendation
regarding the adequacy of the Policies and Training is not completed by
the time of submission of the audit report, the following period's
audit report, must state whether the plan was satisfactorily completed.
Any determination by the auditor that the respective DB QPAM has
implemented, maintained, and followed sufficient Policies and Training
must not be based solely or in substantial part on an absence of
evidence indicating noncompliance. In this last regard, any finding
that a DB QPAM has complied with the requirements under this
subparagraph must be based on evidence that the particular DB QPAM has
actually implemented, maintained, and followed the Policies and
Training required by this exemption. Furthermore, the auditor must not
solely rely on the Annual Report created by the compliance officer (the
Compliance Officer), as described in Section I(m) below as the basis
for the auditor's conclusions in lieu of independent determinations and
testing performed by the auditor as required by Section I(i)(3) and (4)
above;
(ii) The adequacy of the most recent Annual Review described in
Section I(m);
(6) The auditor must notify the respective DB QPAM of any instance
of noncompliance identified by the auditor within five (5) business
days after such noncompliance is identified by the auditor, regardless
of whether the audit has been completed as of that date;
(7) With respect to each Audit Report, the General Counsel, or one
of the three most senior executive officers of the line of business
engaged in discretionary asset management services through the DB QPAM
with respect to which the Audit Report applies, must certify in
writing, under penalty of perjury, that the officer has reviewed the
Audit Report and this exemption; that such DB QPAM has addressed,
corrected, or remedied any noncompliance and inadequacy or has an
appropriate written plan to address any inadequacy regarding the
Policies and Training identified in the Audit Report. Such
certification must also include the signatory's determination that the
Policies and Training in effect at the time of signing are adequate to
ensure compliance with the conditions of this exemption, and with the
applicable provisions of ERISA and the Code;
(8) The Audit Committee of Deutsche Bank's Supervisory Board is
provided a copy of each Audit Report; and a senior executive officer
with a direct reporting line to the highest ranking legal compliance
officer of Deutsche Bank must review the Audit Report for each DB QPAM
and must certify in writing, under penalty of perjury, that such
officer has reviewed each Audit Report. Deutsche Bank must provide
notice to the Department in the event of a switch in the committee to
which the Audit Report will be provided;
(9) Each DB QPAM provides its certified Audit Report, by regular
mail to: Office of Exemption Determinations (OED), 200 Constitution
Avenue NW, Suite 400, Washington, DC 20210; or by private carrier to:
122 C Street NW, Suite 400, Washington, DC 20001-2109. This delivery
must take place no later than thirty (30) days following completion of
the Audit Report. The Audit Report will be made part of the public
record regarding this exemption. Furthermore, each DB QPAM must make
its Audit Report unconditionally available, electronically or
otherwise, for examination upon request by any duly authorized employee
or representative of the Department, other relevant regulators, and any
fiduciary of a Covered Plan;
(10) Each DB QPAM and the auditor must submit to OED any engagement
agreement(s) entered into pursuant to the engagement of the auditor
under this exemption, no later than two (2) months after the execution
of any such engagement agreement;
(11) The auditor must provide the Department, upon request, for
inspection and review, access to all the workpapers created and
utilized in the course of the audit, provided such access and
inspection is otherwise permitted by law; and
[[Page 61862]]
(12) Deutsche Bank must notify the Department of a change in the
independent auditor no later than two (2) months after the engagement
of a substitute or subsequent auditor and must provide an explanation
for the substitution or change including a description of any material
disputes between the terminated auditor and Deutsche Bank;
(j) As of April 18, 2018 and throughout the Exemption Period, with
respect to any arrangement, agreement, or contract between a DB QPAM
and a Covered Plan, the DB QPAM agrees and warrants:
(1) To comply with ERISA and the Code, as applicable with respect
to such Covered Plan; to refrain from engaging in prohibited
transactions that are not otherwise exempt (and to promptly correct any
inadvertent prohibited transactions); and to comply with the standards
of prudence and loyalty set forth in section 404 of ERISA, with respect
to each such ERISA-covered plan and IRA to the extent that section is
applicable;
(2) To indemnify and hold harmless the Covered Plan for any actual
losses resulting directly from a DB QPAM's violation of ERISA's
fiduciary duties, as applicable, and of the prohibited transaction
provisions of ERISA and the Code, as applicable; a breach of contract
by the QPAM; or any claim arising out of the failure of such DB QPAM to
qualify for the exemptive relief provided by PTE 84-14 as a result of a
violation of Section I(g) of PTE 84-14 other than the Convictions. This
condition applies only to actual losses caused by the DB QPAM's
violations.
(3) Not to require (or otherwise cause) the Covered Plan to waive,
limit, or qualify the liability of the DB QPAM for violating ERISA or
the Code or engaging in prohibited transactions;
(4) Not to restrict the ability of such Covered Plan to terminate
or withdraw from its arrangement with the DB QPAM with respect to any
investment in a separately managed account or pooled fund subject to
ERISA and managed by such QPAM, with the exception of reasonable
restrictions, appropriately disclosed in advance, that are specifically
designed to ensure equitable treatment of all investors in a pooled
fund in the event such withdrawal or termination may have adverse
consequences for all other investors. In connection with any such
arrangements involving investments in pooled funds subject to ERISA
entered into after the effective date of this exemption, the adverse
consequences must relate to of a lack of liquidity of the underlying
assets, valuation issues, or regulatory reasons that prevent the fund
from promptly redeeming an ERISA-covered plan's or IRA's investment,
and such restrictions must be applicable to all such investors and
effective no longer than reasonably necessary to avoid the adverse
consequences;
(5) Not to impose any fees, penalties, or charges for such
termination or withdrawal with the exception of reasonable fees,
appropriately disclosed in advance, that are specifically designed to
prevent generally recognized abusive investment practices or
specifically designed to ensure equitable treatment of all investors in
a pooled fund in the event such withdrawal or termination may have
adverse consequences for all other investors, provided that such fees
are applied consistently and in like manner to all such investors; and
(6) Not to include exculpatory provisions disclaiming or otherwise
limiting liability of the DB QPAM for a violation of such agreement's
terms. To the extent consistent with Section 410 of ERISA, however,
this provision does not prohibit disclaimers for liability caused by an
error, misrepresentation, or misconduct of a plan fiduciary or other
party hired by the plan fiduciary who is independent of Deutsche Bank,
and its affiliates, or damages arising from acts outside the control of
the DB QPAM;
(7) By October 17, 2018, each DB QPAM must provide a notice of its
obligations under this Section I(j) to each Covered Plan. For all other
prospective Covered Plans, the DB QPAM will agree to its obligations
under this Section I(j) in an updated investment management agreement
between the DB QPAM and such clients or other written contractual
agreement. This condition will be deemed met for each Covered Plan that
received a notice pursuant to PTE 2016-13 that meets the terms of this
condition. Notwithstanding the above, a DB QPAM will not violate the
condition solely because a Plan or IRA refuses to sign an updated
investment management agreement;
(k) By June 17, 2018, each DB QPAM will provide a notice of the
exemption, along with a separate summary describing the facts that led
to the Convictions (the Summary), which have been submitted to the
Department, and a prominently displayed statement (the Statement) that
the Convictions result in a failure to meet a condition in PTE 84-14,
to each sponsor and beneficial owner of a Covered Plan, or the sponsor
of an investment fund in any case where a DB QPAM acts as a sub-advisor
to the investment fund in which such ERISA-covered plan and IRA
invests. Any prospective client for which a DB QPAM relies on PTE 84-14
or has expressly represented that the manager qualifies as a QPAM or
relies on the QPAM class exemption must receive the proposed and final
exemptions with the Summary and the Statement prior to, or
contemporaneously with, the client's receipt of a written asset
management agreement from the DB QPAM. Disclosures may be delivered
electronically.
(l) The DB QPAMs must comply with each condition of PTE 84-14, as
amended, with the sole exceptions of the violations of Section I(g) of
PTE 84-14 that are attributable to the Convictions;
(m)(1) By October 17, 2018, Deutsche Bank designates a senior
compliance officer (the Compliance Officer) who will be responsible for
compliance with the Policies and Training requirements described
herein. The Compliance Officer must conduct an annual review for each
annual period beginning on April 18, 2018, (the Annual Review) \31\ to
determine the adequacy and effectiveness of the implementation of the
Policies and Training. With respect to the Compliance Officer, the
following conditions must be met:
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\31\ Such Annual Review must be completed with respect to the
annual periods ending April 17, 2019; April 17, 2020; and April 17,
2021.
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(i) The Compliance Officer must be a legal professional who has
extensive experience with, and knowledge of, the regulation of
financial services and products, including under ERISA and the Code;
and
(ii) The Compliance Officer must have a direct reporting line to
the highest-ranking corporate officer in charge of legal compliance for
asset management;
(2) With respect to each Annual Review, the following conditions
must be met:
(i) The Annual Review includes a review of: Any compliance matter
related to the Policies or Training that was identified by, or reported
to, the Compliance Officer or others within the compliance and risk
control function (or its equivalent) during the previous year; any
material change in the relevant business activities of the DB QPAMs;
and any change to ERISA, the Code, or regulations related to fiduciary
duties and the prohibited transaction provisions that may be applicable
to the activities of the DB QPAMs;
(ii) The Compliance Officer prepares a written report for each
Annual Review (each, an Annual Report) that (A) summarizes his or her
material activities
[[Page 61863]]
during the preceding year; (B) sets forth any instance of noncompliance
discovered during the preceding year, and any related corrective
action; (C) details any change to the Policies or Training to guard
against any similar instance of noncompliance occurring again; and (D)
makes recommendations, as necessary, for additional training,
procedures, monitoring, or additional and/or changed processes or
systems, and management's actions on such recommendations;
(iii) In each Annual Report, the Compliance Officer must certify in
writing that to his or her knowledge: (A) The report is accurate; (B)
the Policies and Training are working in a manner which is reasonably
designed to ensure that the Policies and Training requirements
described herein are met; (C) any known instance of noncompliance
during the preceding year and any related correction taken to date have
been identified in the Annual Report; and (D) the DB QPAMs have
complied with the Policies and Training, and/or corrected (or is
correcting) any instances of noncompliance in accordance with Section
I(h) above;
(iv) Each Annual Report must be provided to appropriate corporate
officers of Deutsche Bank and each DB QPAM to which such report
relates; the head of compliance and the General Counsel (or their
functional equivalent) of the relevant DB QPAM; and must be made
unconditionally available to the independent auditor described in
Section I(i) above;
(v) Each Annual Review, including the Compliance Officer's written
Annual Report, must be completed within three (3) months following the
end of the period to which it relates;
(n) Deutsche Bank disgorged all of its profits generated by the
spot/futures-linked market manipulation activities of DSK personnel
that led to the Conviction against DSK entered on January 25, 2016, in
Seoul Central District Court;
(o) Each DB QPAM will maintain records necessary to demonstrate
that the conditions of this exemption have been met, for six (6) years
following the date of any transaction for which such DB QPAM relies
upon the relief in the exemption;
(p) During the Exemption Period, Deutsche Bank: (1) Immediately
discloses to the Department any Deferred Prosecution Agreement (a DPA)
or a Non-Prosecution Agreement (an NPA) with the U.S. Department of
Justice, entered into by Deutsche Bank or any of its affiliates in
connection with conduct described in Section I(g) of PTE 84-14 or
section 411 of ERISA; and (2) immediately provides the Department any
information requested by the Department, as permitted by law, regarding
the agreement and/or conduct and allegations that led to the agreement;
(q) By October 17, 2018, each DB QPAM, in its agreements with, or
in other written disclosures provided to Covered Plans, will clearly
and prominently inform Covered Plan clients of their right to obtain a
copy of the Policies or a description (Summary Policies) which
accurately summarizes key components of the QPAM's written Policies
developed in connection with this exemption. If the Policies are
thereafter changed, each Covered Plan client must receive a new
disclosure within six (6) months following the end of the calendar year
during which the Policies were changed.\32\ With respect to this
requirement, the description may be continuously maintained on a
website, provided that such website link to the Policies or the Summary
Policies is clearly and prominently disclosed to each Covered Plan; and
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\32\ In the event the Applicant meets this disclosure
requirement through Summary Policies, changes to the Policies shall
not result in the requirement for a new disclosure unless, as a
result of changes to the Policies, the Summary Policies are no
longer accurate.
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(r) A DB QPAM will not fail to meet the terms of this exemption,
solely because a different DB QPAM fails to satisfy a condition for
relief described in Sections I(c), (d), (h), (i), (j), (k), (l), (o),
and (q); or if the independent auditor described in Section I(i) fails
a provision of the exemption other than the requirement described in
Section I(i)(11), provided that such failure did not result from any
actions or inactions of Deutsche Bank or its affiliates.
Section II: Definitions
(a) The term ``Convictions'' means (1) the judgment of conviction
against DB Group Services, in case number 3:15-cr-00062-RNC to be
entered in the United States District Court for the District of
Connecticut to a single count of wire fraud, in violation of 18 U.S.C.
1343, and (2) the judgment of conviction against DSK entered on January
25, 2016, in Seoul Central District Court, relating to charges filed
against DSK under Articles 176, 443, and 448 of South Korea's Financial
Investment Services and Capital Markets Act for spot/futures-linked
market price manipulation. For all purposes under this exemption,
``conduct'' of any person or entity that is the ``subject of [a]
Conviction'' encompasses the factual allegations described in Paragraph
13 of the Plea Agreement filed in the District Court in case number
3:15-cr-00062-RNC, and in the ``Criminal Acts'' section pertaining to
``Defendant DSK'' in the Decision of the Seoul Central District Court.
(b) The term ``Covered Plan'' is a plan subject to Part 4 of Title
1 of ERISA (``ERISA-covered plan'') or a plan subject to Section 4975
of the Code (``IRA'') with respect to which a DB QPAM relies on PTE 84-
14, or with respect to which a DB QPAM (or any Deutsche Bank affiliate)
has expressly represented that the manager qualifies as a QPAM or
relies on the QPAM class exemption (PTE 84-14). A Covered Plan does not
include an ERISA-covered Plan or IRA to the extent the DB QPAM has
expressly disclaimed reliance on QPAM status or PTE 84-14 in entering
into its contract, arrangement, or agreement with the ERISA-covered
plan or IRA.
(c) The term ``DB Group Services'' means DB Group Services (UK)
Limited, an ``affiliate'' of Deutsche Bank (as defined in Section VI(c)
of PTE 84-14) based in the United Kingdom.
(d) The term ``DB QPAM'' means a ``qualified professional asset
manager'' (as defined in Section VI(a) \33\ of PTE 84-14) that relies
on the relief provided by PTE 84-14 and with respect to which DSK or DB
Group Services is a current or future ``affiliate'' (as defined in
Section VI(d)(1) of PTE 84-14). For purposes of this exemption,
Deutsche Bank Securities, Inc. (DBSI), including all entities over
which it exercises control; and Deutsche Bank AG, including all of its
branches, are excluded from the definition of a DB QPAM.
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\33\ In general terms, a QPAM is an independent fiduciary that
is a bank, savings and loan association, insurance company, or
investment adviser that meets certain equity or net worth
requirements and other licensure requirements that has acknowledged
in a written management agreement that it is a fiduciary with
respect to each plan that has retained the QPAM.
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(e) The term ``Deutsche Bank'' means Deutsche Bank AG but, unless
indicated otherwise, does not include its subsidiaries or affiliates.
(f) The term ``DSK'' means Deutsche Securities Korea Co., a South
Korean ``affiliate'' of Deutsche Bank (as defined in Section VI(c) of
PTE 84-14).
(g) The terms ``ERISA-covered plan'' and ``IRA'' mean,
respectively, a plan subject to Part 4 of Title I of ERISA and a plan
subject to section 4975 of the Code.
(h) The term ``Exemption Period'' means April 18, 2018, through
April 17, 2021.
(i) The term ``Plea Agreement'' means the Plea Agreement (including
the
[[Page 61864]]
Agreed Statement of Facts), dated April 23, 2015, between the Antitrust
Division and Fraud Section of the Criminal Division of the U.S.
Department of Justice (the DOJ) and DB Group Services resolving the
charge brought by the DOJ in case number 3:15-cr-00062-RNC against DB
Group Services for wire fraud in violation of Title 18, United States
Code, Section 1343.
Effective Date
The effective date of this exemption is April 18, and the exemption
will be effective from April 18, 2018, through April 17, 2021 (the
Exemption Period).
Department's Comment: The Department cautions that the relief in
this exemption will terminate immediately if an entity within the
Deutsche Bank corporate structure is convicted of a crime described in
Section I(g) of PTE 84-14 (other than the Convictions) during the
Exemption Period. Although Deutsche Bank could apply for a new
exemption in that circumstance, the Department would not be obligated
to grant the exemption. The terms of this exemption have been
specifically designed to permit plans to terminate their relationships
in an orderly and cost effective fashion in the event of an additional
conviction or a determination that it is otherwise prudent for a plan
to terminate its relationship with an entity covered by the exemption.
Further Information
For more information on this exemption, contact Mr. Scott Ness of
the Department, telephone (202) 693-8561. (This is not a toll-free
number.)
Citigroup Inc. (Citigroup or the Applicant) Located in New York, New
York
[Prohibited Transaction Exemption 2017-05; Exemption Application No. D-
11909]
Discussion
On November 21, 2016, the Department of Labor (the Department)
published a notice of proposed exemption in the Federal Register at 81
FR 83416, for certain entities with specified relationships to
Citigroup to continue to rely upon the relief provided by PTE 84-14 for
a period of five years,\34\ notwithstanding Citicorp's criminal
conviction, as described herein. The Department is granting this
exemption in order to ensure that Covered Plans \35\ whose assets are
managed by a Citigroup Affiliated QPAM or Citigroup Related QPAM may
continue to benefit from the relief provided by PTE 84-14. This
exemption is effective from January 10, 2018 through January 9, 2023
(the Exemption Period).
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\34\ (49 FR 9494, March 13, 1984), as corrected at 50 FR 41430
(October 10, 1985), as amended at 70 FR 49305 (August 23, 2005) and
as amended at 75 FR 38837 (July 6, 2010), hereinafter referred to as
PTE 84-14 or the QPAM Exemption.
\35\ ``Covered Plan'' is a plan subject to Part 4 of Title 1 of
ERISA (``ERISA-covered plan'') or a plan subject to Section 4975 of
the Code (``IRA''), with respect to which a Citigroup Affiliated
QPAM relies on PTE 84-14, or with respect to which a Citigroup
Affiliated QPAM (or any Citigroup affiliate) has expressly
represented that the manager qualifies as a QPAM or relies on the
QPAM class exemption (PTE 84-14). A Covered Plan does not include an
ERISA-covered Plan or IRA to the extent the Citigroup Affiliated
QPAM has expressly disclaimed reliance on QPAM status or PTE 84-14
in entering into its contract, arrangement, or agreement with the
ERISA covered plan or IRA.
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No relief from a violation of any other law is provided by this
exemption, including any criminal conviction described in the proposed
exemption. Furthermore, the Department cautions that the relief in this
exemption will terminate immediately if, among other things, an entity
within the Citigroup corporate structure is convicted of a crime
described in Section I(g) of PTE 84-14 (other than the Conviction)
during the Exemption Period. The terms of this exemption have been
specifically designed to promote conduct that adheres to basic
fiduciary standards under ERISA and the Code. The exemption also aims
to ensure that plans and IRAs can terminate relationships in an orderly
and cost-effective fashion in the event a plan or IRA fiduciary
determines it is prudent for the plan or IRA to sever its relationship
with an entity covered by the exemption.
Written Comments
The Department invited all interested persons to submit written
comments and/or requests for a public hearing with respect to the
notice of proposed exemption, published in the Federal Register at 81
FR 83416 on November 21, 2016. All comments and requests for a hearing
were due by March 1, 2017.\36\ The Department received written comments
from the Applicant, members of the U.S. Congress, and a number of plan
and IRA clients of Citigroup. After considering these submissions, the
Department has determined to grant the exemption, with revisions, as
described below.
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\36\ The Department received additional comments from the
Applicant, however, after the close of the comment period.
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Term of the Exemption and Conditions
The Applicant requests that the exemption's term and underlying
conditions be revised to conform with certain exemptions issued by the
Department prior to 2014. The Applicant cites 16 individual exemptions
granted by the Department prior to 2014 involving financial
institutions that could not satisfy Section I(g) of PTE 84-14 (the Pre-
2014 Exemptions) because of criminal convictions. The Applicant states
that the conditions included within the Pre-2014 Exemptions remained
materially unchanged during this time. The Applicant additionally cites
PTE 2015-06 and 2015-14 (the 2015 Exemptions) which, like the Pre-2014
Exemptions, permitted certain financial institutions to continue to
rely upon the relief provided by PTE 84-14, notwithstanding judgments
of conviction against such institutions.
The Applicant states that, with respect to the 2015 Exemptions, the
Department adopted certain additional conditions not previously
included in the Pre-2014 Exemptions, including: (1) Shortening the
period of relief from 10 years to 5 years; (2) particularized
requirements relating to policies, procedures, and annual training; and
(3) an annual audit requirement. The Applicant states that the public
record underlying the 2015 Exemptions does not present any demonstrated
deficiency with respect to the Pre-2014 Exemptions that warranted the
adoption of these additional conditions in the 2015 Exemptions. Nor,
according to the Applicant, are the 2015 Exemptions' additional
conditions explained by any change in relevant laws or guidance, or any
distinction between the conduct that gave rise to the need for the 2015
Exemptions compared to the conduct that gave rise to the need for the
Pre-2014 Exemptions.
The Applicant also cites a Presidential Memorandum and two
Executive Orders: (1) Presidential Memorandum on Fiduciary Duty Rule,
dated February 3, 2017; (2) Presidential Executive Order on Core
Principles for Regulating the United States Financial System, dated
February 3, 2017; and (3) Presidential Executive Order on Reducing
Regulation and Controlling Regulatory Costs, dated January 30, 2017
(the Executive Orders). The Applicant states that these Executive
Orders suggest a compelling reason for the Department to revert to the
approach reflected in the Pre-2014 Exemptions.
The Applicant further states that the individual exemptions granted
by the Department in connection with criminal convictions fall into two
different categories. In one category, the applicant's underlying
misconduct is integral to corporate business activity.
[[Page 61865]]
In the other category, according to the Applicant, the applicant's
underlying misconduct is non-integral and isolated to a small number of
employees. The Applicant states that the conduct underlying this
exemption resembles the facts underlying those exemptions in which
misconduct was non-integral and isolated to a small number of
employees, as it was ``limited to one London-based euro/U.S. dollar
trader and the unit he worked in was distant and separate from the
Applicant's businesses that rely on PTE 84-14.''
The Applicant states that, taken together and considered against
the historical backdrop of the individual exemptions and Executive
Orders summarized above, there are compelling reasons for the
Department to revert to the approach reflected in the Pre-2014
Exemptions, including: (1) Extending the exemption from a 5-year term
to a 9-year term, and (2) eliminating the independent audit and
compliance officer requirements under the exemption. The Applicant
states that the Department's past practice for these types of
exemptions has been to provide for ten-year relief and that the
rationale for abbreviating the term in this exemption does not appear
to be connected to the nature or severity of the misconduct at issue.
The Department declines to extend the term of this exemption to ten
years. Although the Applicant characterizes the conduct as involving
the isolated actions of one individual, the Department does not agree
with the apparent suggestion that the Applicant bears little or no
responsibility for the criminal conduct. In considering the misconduct,
the Department did not limit its analysis to the acts of the single
trader identified by the Applicant. The Department also considered the
period of time during which the misconduct persisted, the compliance
and supervisory mechanisms within Citigroup that failed to detect and
prevent the misconduct, and certain other relevant misconduct
identified in Citicorp's Plea Agreement.
Citicorp's Plea Agreement identifies misconduct that extended
beyond the isolated acts of the single London-based euro/U.S. dollar
trader. For example, Citicorp's Plea Agreement contains the following
statement under the heading Other Relevant Conduct: ``the defendant
[Citicorp], through its currency traders and sales staff, also engaged
in other currency trading and sales practices in conducting FX Spot
Market transactions with customers via telephone, email, and/or
electronic chat, to wit: (i) Intentionally working customers' limit
orders one or more levels, or ``pips,'' away from the price confirmed
with the customer; (ii) including sales markup, through the use of live
hand signals or undisclosed prior internal arrangements or
communications, to prices given to customers that communicated with
sales staff on open phone lines; (iii) accepting limit orders from
customers and then informing those customers that their orders could
not be filled, in whole or in part, when in fact the defendant was able
to fill the order but decided not to do so because the defendant
expected it would be more profitable not to do so; and (iv) disclosing
non-public information regarding the identity and trading activity of
the defendant's customers to other banks or other market participants,
in order to generate revenue for the defendant at the expense of its
customers.''
In developing this exemption, the Department also considered
statements made by regulators concerning the compliance and supervisory
mechanisms within Citigroup that failed to detect and prevent the
misconduct. For example, the Financial Conduct Authority's (FCA) Final
Notice to Citibank N.A., states: ``[d]uring the Relevant Period, Citi
did not exercise adequate and effective control over its G10 spot FX
trading business,'' and, ``[t]hese failings occurred in circumstances
where certain of those responsible for managing front office matters
were aware of and/or at times involved in behaviours described above.''
The Notice further states: ``They also occurred despite the fact that
risks around confidentiality were highlighted when in August 2011 Citi
became aware that a trader in its FX business outside London had
inappropriately shared confidential client information in a chat room
with a trader at another firm.''
By way of further example, the Consent Order of the Office of the
Comptroller of the Currency (OCC) states: ``[t]he OCC's examination
findings established that the Bank had deficiencies in its internal
controls and had engaged in unsafe or unsound banking practices with
respect to the oversight and governance of the Bank's FX Trading such
that the Bank failed to detect and prevent the conduct. . . .'' The
OCC's Consent Order also states that, ``deficiencies and unsafe or
unsound practices include the following: (a) The Bank's compliance risk
assessment lacked sufficient granularity and failed to identify the
risks related to market conduct in FX Trading with respect to sales,
trading and supervisory employees in that business; (b) The Bank's
transaction monitoring and communications surveillance were inadequate
to detect potential Employee market misconduct in FX Trading. . . .''
With respect to the severity of the misconduct, the Department
notes the magnitude of the relevant fines imposed by various
regulators, which include: $925 million by the Department of Justice;
$342 million by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve; $350
million by the OCC; $310 million by the Commodity Futures Trading
Commission; and [pound]225,575,000 by the FCA.
The Department also notes that this exemption's five-year term and
protective conditions reflect the Department's intent to protect
Covered Plans that entrust substantial assets to a Citigroup Affiliated
QPAM, despite the serious nature of the misconduct and the compliance
and oversight failures exhibited by Citigroup throughout the extended
period of time during which the criminal misconduct persisted. The term
of this exemption gives the Department the opportunity to review the
adherence by the Citigroup Affiliated QPAMs' to the conditions set out
herein. If the Applicant seeks to extend this exemption beyond this
five year term, the Department will examine whether the compliance and
oversight changes mandated by the various regulatory authorities are
having the desired effect on the Citigroup entities.
Description of Criminal Conduct--Sections I and II(e)
The prefatory language to Section I of the proposed five-year
exemption provides that, ``the Citigroup Affiliated QPAMs and the
Citigroup Related QPAMs, as defined in Sections II(f) and II(g),
respectively, will not be precluded from relying on the exemptive
relief provided by Prohibited Transaction Class Exemption 84-14 (PTE
84-14 or the QPAM Exemption), notwithstanding the judgment of
conviction against Citicorp (the Conviction), as defined in Section
II(a)), for engaging in a conspiracy to: (1) Fix the price of, or (2)
eliminate competition in the purchase or sale of the euro/U.S. dollar
currency pair exchanged in the Foreign Exchange (FX) Spot Market, for a
period of five years beginning on the date the exemption is granted.''
Section II(e) of the proposed five year exemption provides that, in
relevant part, ``[t]he term `Conviction' means the judgment of
conviction against Citigroup for violation of the Sherman Antitrust
Act, 15 U.S.C. 1, which is scheduled to be entered in the District
Court for the District of Connecticut (the District Court) (Case Number
3:15-cr-78-SRU), in connection with Citigroup, through one of its euro/
U.S. dollar
[[Page 61866]]
(EUR/USD) traders, entering into and engaging in a combination and
conspiracy to fix, stabilize, maintain, increase or decrease the price
of, and rig bids and offers for, the EUR/USD currency pair exchanged in
the FX spot market by agreeing to eliminate competition in the purchase
and sale of the EUR/USD currency pair in the United States and
elsewhere. For all purposes under this five-year, `conduct' of any
person or entity that is the `subject of [a] Conviction' encompasses
any conduct of Citigroup and/or their personnel, that is described in
the Plea Agreement, (including the Factual Statement), and other
official regulatory or judicial factual findings that are a part of
this record.''
The Applicant incorporates by reference its comment letter
submitted to the Department in connection with PTE 2016-14 (PTE 2016-14
Comment Letter),\37\ in which the Applicant requested that references
to the Conviction be limited to the actual judgment of conviction
against Citicorp. The Applicant states that the references to the
Conviction in the prefatory language of Section I and Section II would
cause confusion for Plans and counterparties transacting with Plans.
The Applicant also requests that the Department revise Section II(e) by
replacing ``Citigroup'' with ``Citicorp,'' as Citicorp was the entity
charged in connection with the Plea Agreement.
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
\37\ See Citigroup PTE 2016-14 Comment Letter, dated November
25, 2016.
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After consideration of the Applicant's comment, the Department has
revised the exemption to provide that ``[t]he term `Conviction' means
the judgment of conviction against Citicorp for violation of the
Sherman Antitrust Act, 15 U.S.C. 1, entered in the District Court for
the District of Connecticut (the District Court) (case number 3:15-cr-
78-SRU). For all purposes under this exemption, `conduct' of any person
or entity that is the `subject of [a] Conviction' encompasses the
conduct described in Paragraph 4(g)-(i) of the Plea Agreement filed in
the District Court in case number 3:15-cr-78-SRU.'' The Department has
also revised Section II(e) by replacing ``Citigroup'' with
``Citicorp.'' The Department has also renumbered the definition of
Conviction as Section II(a) in the final exemption.
Knowing or Tacit Approval--Sections I(a) and I(c)
Section I(a) of the proposed five-year exemption provides, ``(a)
Other than a single individual who worked for a non-fiduciary business
within Citigroup's Markets and Securities Services business, and who
had no responsibility for, and exercised no authority in connection
with, the management of plan assets, the Citigroup Affiliated QPAMs and
the Citigroup Related QPAMs (including their officers, directors,
agents other than Citicorp, and employees of such QPAMs who had
responsibility for, or exercised authority in connection with the
management of plan assets) did not know of, did not have reason to know
of, or participate in the criminal conduct that is the subject of the
Conviction (for purposes of this paragraph (a), `participate in'
includes the knowing or tacit approval of the misconduct underlying the
Conviction).''
With regard to Section I(a), the Applicant requests the deletion of
the parenthetical, which reads, ``(for purposes of this paragraph (a),
`participate in' includes the knowing or tacit approval of the
misconduct underlying the Conviction).'' \38\ The Department declines
to delete this definition of ``participate in,'' but has replaced
``knowing or tacit approval,'' with ``knowing approval.''
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
\38\ Certain of the Applicant's requested revisions, including
its requested revision with respect to Section I(a), are reflected
in a red-lined draft attachment which the Applicant provided to the
Department with its comment letter.
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
Section I(c) of the proposed exemption provides, ``(c) The
Citigroup Affiliated QPAMs will not employ or knowingly engage any of
the individuals that participated in the criminal conduct that is the
subject of the Conviction (for the purposes of this paragraph (c),
`participated in' includes the knowing or tacit approval of the
misconduct underlying Conviction).''
With regard to Section I(c), the Applicant requests that the
definition of ``participated in'' be changed from, ``the knowing or
tacit approval of the misconduct underlying the Conviction'' to,
``approving or condoning the misconduct underlying the Conviction.''
After consideration of the Applicant's comment, the Department has
revised Section I(c) in a manner that is consistent with Section I(a),
as described above. Accordingly, the relevant part of Section I(c) now
reads, ``For the purposes of this paragraph (c), `participated in'
means the knowing approval of the misconduct underlying the
Conviction.''
Receipt of Compensation--Section I(b)
Section I(b) of the proposed five-year exemption provides, ``(b)
Other than a single individual who worked for a non-fiduciary business
within Citigroup's Markets and Securities Services business, and who
had no responsibility for, and exercised no authority in connection
with, the management of plan assets, the Citigroup Affiliated QPAMs and
the Citigroup Related QPAMs (including their officers, directors, and
agents other than Citigroup, and employees of such Citigroup QPAMs) did
not receive direct compensation, or knowingly receive indirect
compensation in connection with the criminal conduct that is the
subject of the Conviction.''
The Applicant requests the replacement of ``Citigroup'' with
``Citicorp'' in the phrase, ``(including their officers, directors, and
agents other than Citigroup. . . .'' After considering the Applicant's
comment, the Department has revised the exemption in the manner
requested by the Applicant.
Use of Authority or Influence--Section I(d)
Section I(d) of the proposed exemption provides that, ``(d) A
Citigroup Affiliated QPAM will not use its authority or influence to
direct an `investment fund' (as defined in Section VI(b) of PTE 84-14),
that is subject to ERISA or the Code and managed by such Citigroup
Affiliated QPAM, to enter into any transaction with Citicorp or the
Markets and Securities Services business of Citigroup, or to engage
Citicorp or the Markets and Securities Services business of Citigroup,
to provide any service to such investment fund, for a direct or
indirect fee borne by such investment fund, regardless of whether such
transaction or service may otherwise be within the scope of relief
provided by an administrative or statutory exemption.''
In the PTE 2014 Comment Letter, the Applicant represented that a
sudden cessation of services by the Markets and Securities Services
Business of Citigroup to affected plans, such as agency securities
lending services, would be disruptive to such plans. In this regard,
the Applicant seeks deletion of the condition's reference to ``the
Markets and Securities Services Business of Citigroup.''
After considering the Applicant's comment, the Department has
revised the exemption in the manner requested by the Applicant such
that the condition does not apply to the Markets and Securities
Services Business of Citigroup. The Department has also revised Section
I(d) by clarifying that it applies to, ``an `investment fund'. . . .
managed by such Citigroup Affiliated QPAM with respect to Covered
Plans.'' This modification to Section I(d) reflects the Department's
interest in ensuring
[[Page 61867]]
that the conditions included herein broadly protect Covered Plans.
Provision of Asset Management Services--Section I(g)
Section I(g) of the proposed exemption provides that ``(g) Citicorp
and the Markets and Securities Services Business of Citigroup will not
provide discretionary asset management services to ERISA-covered plans
or IRAs, or otherwise act as a fiduciary with respect to ERISA-covered
plan or IRA assets.''
In the PTE 2016-14 Comment Letter, the Applicant represented that
the function of the Markets and Securities Services Business of
Citigroup may be deemed to involve fiduciary conduct and that requiring
those services to be terminated suddenly would be disruptive to
affected plans. The Applicant therefore seeks the deletion of the
condition's reference to the Markets and Securities Services Business
of Citigroup.
The Applicant also requests that Section I(g) be revised to read,
``Other than with respect to employee benefit plans maintained or
sponsored for their own employees or the employees of an affiliate,
Citicorp will not act as a fiduciary within the meaning of ERISA
Section 3(21)(A)(i) or (iii), or Code Section 4975(e)(3)(A) or (C),
with respect to ERISA-covered plan and IRA assets; in accordance with
this provision, Citicorp will not be treated as violating the
conditions of this exemption solely because they acted as investment
advice fiduciaries within the meaning of ERISA Section 3(21)(A)(ii) or
Section 4975(e)(3)(B) of the Code.''
After considering the Applicant's comment regarding disruption and
damages to affected ERISA-covered plans and IRAs, the Department has
revised the exemption in the manner requested by the Applicant.
Additionally, the Department has revised Section I(g) to clarify that
Citigroup will not violate this condition in the event that it
inadvertently becomes an investment advice fiduciary or acts as a
fiduciary for plans that it sponsors for its own employees or employees
of an affiliate.
Policies and Procedures Relating to Compliance with ERISA and the
Code--Section I(h)(1)-(2)
Section I(h) of the proposed five-year exemption provides that,
``(h)(1) Within four (4) months of the Conviction, each Citigroup
Affiliated QPAM must develop, implement, maintain, and follow written
policies and procedures (the Policies) . . . (2) Within four (4) months
of the date of the Conviction, each Citigroup Affiliated QPAM must
develop and implement a program of training (the Training), conducted
at least annually, for all relevant Citigroup Affiliated QPAM asset/
portfolio management, trading, legal, compliance, and internal audit
personnel. . . .''
The Applicant requests that the Department increase the development
period associated with the Policies and Training Requirements (the
Development Period) from four (4) months to six (6) months from the
date of the Conviction. The Applicant also requests clarification that
a Citigroup Affiliated QPAM's obligation to ``develop'' the Policies
and Training under this section can be satisfied to the extent that
such Citigroup Affiliated QPAM has developed Policies and Training
independent of this exemption, including Policies and Training
developed in connection with PTE 2016-14. The Applicant further
requests that the Department clarify that the Applicant shall have up
to twelve (12) months to train all relevant employees following the
Development Period, and that such Training will then be conducted at
least annually, in accordance with Section I(h)(2).
The Department emphasizes that the Citigroup QPAMs must comply with
the Policies and Training requirements within both PTE 2016-14 and this
exemption. To this end, the Department has revised the policies and
training requirements of Section I(h) to conform with PTE 2016-14. The
two exemptions now follow this timeline: (i) Each Citigroup Affiliated
QPAM must have developed the Policies and Training required by PTE
2016-14 by July 9, 2017; (ii) the first annual Training under PTE 2016-
14 must be completed by July 9, 2018; (iii) each Citigroup Affiliated
QPAM must develop the Policies and Training required by this exemption,
as necessary, by July 9, 2018; and (iv) the first Training under this
exemption must be completed by July 9, 2019. By the end of this 30-
month period, asset/portfolio management, trading, legal, compliance,
and internal audit personnel who were employed from the start to the
end of the period must have been trained twice.
In addition, Section I(h)(1)(i) of the proposed five-year exemption
provides that the Policies must be reasonably designed to ensure that:
``(i) The asset management decisions of the Citigroup Affiliated QPAM
are conducted independently of the corporate management and business
activities, including the corporate management and business activities
of the Markets and Securities Services business of Citigroup.''
The Applicant requests the deletion of the condition's reference to
the Markets and Securities Services Business of Citigroup. In the PTE
2016-14 Comment letter, the Applicant stated that such revision is
necessary in order to avoid disruption to affected plans and IRAs. The
Department concurs with this comment, and has revised the condition to
state that, ``[t]he Policies must require, and must be reasonably
designed to ensure that: (i) The asset management decisions of the
Citigroup Affiliated QPAM are conducted independently of the corporate,
management, and business activities of Citigroup.''
Section I(h)(1)(ii) of the proposed five-year exemption provides
that the Policies must be reasonably designed to ensure that: ``(ii)
The Citigroup Affiliated QPAM fully complies with ERISA's fiduciary
duties, and with ERISA and the Code's prohibited transaction
provisions, and does not knowingly participate in any violation of
these duties and provisions with respect to ERISA-covered plans and
IRAs.''
The Department has determined to revise Section I(h)(1)(ii) to
clarify this exemption's expectations regarding the substance of the
Policies. In this regard, the Department has added the term, ``as
applicable with respect to each Covered Plan,'' following the phrase,
``ERISA's fiduciary duties, and with ERISA and the Code's prohibited
transaction provisions.''
Section I(h)(1)(iv) of the proposed five-year exemption provides
that the Policies must be reasonably designed to ensure that: ``(iv)
Any filings or statements made by the Citigroup Affiliated QPAM to
regulators, including, but not limited to, the Department, the
Department of the Treasury, the Department of Justice, and the Pension
Benefit Guaranty Corporation, on behalf of ERISA-covered plans or IRAs,
are materially accurate and complete, to the best of such QPAM's
knowledge at that time.''
The Department has determined to revise Section I(h)(1)(iv) to
better coordinate with the other conditions of this exemption. In this
regard, the Department has revised the condition to read, ``. . . . on
behalf of or in relation to Covered Plans. . . .''
Section I(h)(1)(v) of the proposed five-year exemption provides
that the Policies must be reasonably designed to ensure that: ``(v) The
Citigroup Affiliated QPAM does not make material misrepresentations or
omit material information in its communications with
[[Page 61868]]
such regulators with respect to ERISA-covered plans or IRAs, or make
material misrepresentations or omit material information in its
communications with ERISA-covered plans and IRA clients.''
The Department has revised Section I(h)(1)(v) in the same manner as
it revised Section I(h)(1)(iv). The Department has also revised Section
I(h)(1)(v) by adding the following language to the beginning of the
section: ``To the best of the Citigroup Affiliated QPAM's knowledge at
the time. . . .''
Incorporating the Training into the Policies--Section I(h)(2)(i)
Section I(h)(2)(i) of the proposed five-year exemption provides,
``. . . The Training must: (i) Be set forth in the Policies and, at a
minimum, cover the Policies, ERISA and Code compliance (including
applicable fiduciary duties and the prohibited transaction provisions),
ethical conduct, the consequences for not complying with the conditions
of this five-year exemption (including any loss of exemptive relief
provided herein), and prompt reporting of wrongdoing.''
The Department has revised Section I(h)(2)(i) by removing the
requirement that the Training must be set forth in the Policies. As
revised, Section I(h)(2)(i) provides that the Training must, ``(i) At a
minimum, cover the Policies, ERISA and Code compliance (including
applicable fiduciary duties and the prohibited transaction provisions),
ethical conduct, the consequences for not complying with the conditions
of this exemption (including any loss of exemptive relief provided
herein), and prompt reporting of wrongdoing.''
Training by Independent Professional--Section I(h)(2)(ii)
Section I(h)(2)(ii) of the proposed five-year exemption provides
that the Training must, ``(ii) Be conducted by an independent
professional who has been prudently selected and who has appropriate
technical and training and proficiency with ERISA and the Code.''
The Applicant requests that the requirement that the professional
be ``independent'' be omitted, on the basis that the ``independence''
of the trainer will not enhance the quality or effectiveness of the
training, and may in fact detract from it. In this regard, the
Applicant states that the training will be monitored by the Compliance
Officer, subject to annual review by the Compliance Officer (the Annual
Review), and audited by the independent auditor. The Applicant states
that a professional trainer who is familiar with the Applicant's
operations, culture, and management is less likely to be independent,
but is more likely to be effective in its role. The Applicant also
states that the compliance and audit functions mandated under this
exemption will provide adequate safeguards that are sufficient to
address any concern arising from a lack of independence on the part of
the professional trainer. In sum, the Applicant requests that it be
permitted to implement the required training within the context of its
own existing training regime.
Although the Department disagrees with the Applicant's assertion
that hiring a prudently-selected, independent professional may in fact
detract from the quality and effectiveness of the training required
under this exemption, the Department is persuaded that Citigroup
personnel who are prudently-selected and have appropriate technical
training and proficiency with ERISA and the Code may conduct the
training. The Department has revised the condition accordingly.
Audit Requirement--Section I(i).
Section I(i)(1) of the proposed five-year exemption provides that,
``(i)(1) Each Citigroup Affiliated QPAM submits to an audit conducted
annually by an independent auditor, who has been prudently selected and
who has appropriate technical training and proficiency with ERISA and
the Code, to evaluate the adequacy of, and the Citigroup Affiliated
QPAM's compliance with, the Policies and Training described herein.''
As stated above, the Applicant requests that the audit requirement
be deleted from the exemption in its entirety. In support of its
request, the Applicant states that the audit requirement is burdensome,
costly, and redundant. The Applicant also states that it has
comprehensive compliance and internal audit departments, and that these
departments should be responsible for carrying out the audit
requirements under this exemption.
The Department declines to delete the audit requirement in its
entirety. A recurring, independent, and prudently-conducted audit of
the Citigroup Affiliated QPAMs is critical to ensuring the QPAMs'
compliance with the Policies and Training mandated by this exemption,
and the adequacy of the Policies and Training. The required discipline
of regular audits underpins the Department's finding that the exemption
is protective of Covered Plans, their participants, beneficiaries, and
beneficial owners, as applicable. Strong independent audits should help
prevent the sort of compliance failures that led to the Conviction.
The Department views the audit requirement as an integral component
of the exemption, without which the Department would be unable to make
its finding that the exemption is protective of Covered Plans and their
participants, beneficiaries, and beneficial owners, as applicable. This
exemption's conditions are based, in part, on the Department's
assessment of the seriousness and duration of the misconduct that
resulted in the violation of Section I(g) of PTE 84-14, as well as the
apparent inadequacy of control and oversight mechanisms at Citigroup to
prevent the misconduct. The Department, however, recognizes that,
notwithstanding Citigroup's oversight failures, only a small number of
individuals at Citigroup directly engaged in the misconduct at issue.
Thus, the United States District Court for the District of Connecticut
stated, in connection with the sentencing of Citicorp, that: ``the
conduct at issue here was engaged in by a very small number of
individuals,'' and that, ``we do not have banks who appear to have
condoned conduct at any high-ranking level.'' \39\
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\39\ See TRANSCRIPT of Proceedings: as to Citicorp (January 5,
2017 at pages 29-30).
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Accordingly, the Department has determined to change the audit
interval under this exemption from annual to biennial. Section I(i)(1)
of the exemption, therefore, now requires that each Citigroup
Affiliated QPAM submit ``to an audit conducted every two years by an
independent auditor.'' Each audit must cover the preceding consecutive
twelve (12) month period. The first audit must cover the period from
July 10, 2018 through July 9, 2019, and must be completed by January 9,
2020. The second audit must cover the period from July 10, 2020 through
July 9, 2021, and must be completed by January 9, 2022. In the event
that the Exemption Period is extended or a new exemption is granted,
the third audit would cover the period from July 10, 2022 through July
9, 2023, and would be completed by January 9, 2024, unless the
Department chose to alter the audit requirement in the new or extended
exemption.\40\
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\40\ The third audit referenced above would not have to be
completed until after the Exemption Period expires. If the
Department ultimately decides to grant relief for an additional
period, it could decide to alter the terms of the exemption,
including the audit conditions (and the timing of the audit
requirements). Nevertheless, the Applicant should anticipate that
the Department will insist on strict compliance with the audit terms
and schedule set forth above. As it considers any new exemption
application, the Department may also contact the auditor for any
information relevant to its determination.
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[[Page 61869]]
The Departments notes that if the audit uncovers material
deficiencies with Citigroup's compliance with this exemption, then the
Applicant should consider conducting an additional audit after making
corrections to ensure that it remains in compliance with the exemption.
In any event, the Department emphasizes that it retains the right to
conduct its own investigation of compliance based on any such
indicators of problems.
The Department declines to revise Section I(i) in a manner that
would permit the Applicant's Internal Audit Department to carry out
this exemption's required audit functions. Permitting the Applicant's
internal audit department to carry out this exemption's required audit
functions would be insufficiently protective of Covered Plans. Auditor
independence is essential to this exemption, as it allows for an
impartial analysis of the Citigroup Affiliated QPAMs. The independence
of the auditor is the cornerstone of the integrity of the audit process
and is of primary importance to avoid conflicts of interest and any
inappropriate influence on the auditor's findings.
The fundamental importance of auditor independence to the integrity
of the audit process is well established. For example, the United
States Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC) promulgated regulations
at 17 CFR 210.2-01 to ensure that auditors are independent of their
clients, and under 17 CFR 240.10A-2, it is unlawful for an auditor not
to be independent in certain circumstances. Likewise, the Public
Accounting Oversight Board's (PCAOB) Rule 3520 states that a public
accounting firm and its associated persons must be independent of the
firm's audit clients. The Association of Independent Certified Public
Accountants' (AICPA) Code of Professional Conduct, Objectivity and
Independence Principle (AICPA, Professional Standards, ET section
0.300.050.01) requires members working on an audit or attest engagement
to be independent, in fact and appearance. Moreover, ERISA section
103(a)(3)(A) requires an accountant hired by an employee benefit plan
to examine the plan's financial statements to be independent.
Entities Subject to Audit--Section I(i)
Section I(i)(1) of the proposed five-year exemption provides,
``(i)(1) Each Citigroup Affiliated QPAM submits to an audit conducted
annually by an independent auditor. . . .''
The Applicant requests that only the particular Citigroup
Affiliated QPAMs and Citigroup Related QPAMs actually relying upon PTE
84-14 and this exemption when providing services to, or engaging in
transactions as an agent for, their clients, should be subject to the
audit requirement under this exemption, and not every entity within the
Citigroup-affiliated group that could be eligible to be a ``qualified
professional asset manager,'' as defined in PTE 84-14. The Applicant
also requests that Section I(i)(1) be revised to state that the
Citigroup entities subject to the audit requirement are Citigroup
Affiliated QPAM's, ``which the Applicant has identified in a
certificate signed by the officer who will review and certify the Audit
Report (as defined in Section I(i)(5)) pursuant to Section I(i)(8).''
In support of its request, the Applicant states that the purpose of the
independent audit is to ensure that Citigroup entities relying upon PTE
84-14 are in compliance with the conditions of PTE 84-14 and the
conditions of this exemption. The Applicant also states that it would
identify the relevant entities to the independent auditor in a
certificate signed by the compliance officer who will review the Audit
Report.
The Department has determined to revise Section I(i)(1) in the
manner requested by the Applicant. The Department acknowledges that the
independent auditor will need to be provided with the identities of the
Citigroup Affiliated QPAMs to be audited and that the Applicant is best
positioned to provide such information. The Department notes that
Section I(i) requires the audit of each Citigroup entity that relies
upon QPAM status, or expressly represents to ERISA-covered plan or IRA
clients that it qualifies as a QPAM.
Auditor Information Access--Section I(i)(2)
Section I(i)(2) of the proposed five-year exemption provides,
``(i)(2) To the extent necessary for the auditor, in its sole opinion,
to complete its audit and comply with the conditions for relief
described herein, and as permitted by law, each Citigroup Affiliated
QPAM and, if applicable, Citigroup, will grant the auditor
unconditional access to its business, including, but not limited to:
its computer systems; business records; transactional data; workplace
locations; training materials; and personnel.''
The Applicant requests that the phrase ``as permitted by law'' be
clarified by the addition of the following proviso: ``provided, that
the auditor shall not have access to any privileged information or
confidential supervisory information.'' The Applicant states that
certain privileged or confidential supervisory information which would
be ``permitted by law'' to be shared with the auditor could result in
the loss of the attorney-client or other privilege, or regulatory
interest in maintaining confidentiality. The Applicant states that the
purposes of the independent audit can be fully accomplished without
requiring the Applicant to bear such costs. The Applicant also states
that relevant privileges, and in particular, the attorney-client
privilege, are based on important policy interests that routinely are
thought to outweigh other critically important legal and social
interests.
In the Department's view, to ensure a thorough and robust audit,
the independent auditor must be granted access to information it deems
necessary to make sound conclusions. The auditor's access to such
information must be within the scope of the audit engagement and denied
only to the extent that such disclosure is not permitted by state or
federal statute. Designating specific restrictions on information
accessibility may hinder the auditor's ability to perform the
procedures necessary to make informed conclusions, thus undermining the
effectiveness of the audit. The auditor's access to such information,
however, is limited to information relevant to the auditor's objectives
as specified by the terms of this exemption and to the extent
disclosure is not prevented by state or federal statute or involves
communications subject to attorney client privilege. In this regard,
the Department has modified Section I(i)(2) accordingly.
Audit Transaction Sampling--Section I(i)(4)
Section I(i)(4) of the proposed five-year exemption provides, ``(4)
The auditor's engagement must specifically require the auditor to test
each Citigroup Affiliated QPAM's operational compliance with the
Policies and Training. In this regard, the auditor must test a sample
of each QPAM's transactions involving ERISA-covered plans and IRAs
sufficient in size and nature to afford the auditor a reasonable basis
to determine the operational compliance with the Policies and
Training.''
The Applicant requests that the Department clarify that audit
``samples'' pursuant to this condition need only apply to transactions
undertaken in reliance on PTE 84-14. The Applicant states that the
purpose of the independent audit is to confirm compliance with the
conditions required under the exemption and permit the Applicant to
continue to
[[Page 61870]]
utilize PTE 84-14 on behalf of Covered Plans.
The Department has revised this condition for consistency with
other conditions of this exemption which are tailored to the
Department's interest in protecting Covered Plans. Therefore, the
condition now applies only to Covered Plans. The Department
additionally notes that Section I(i)(4) does not specify the number of
transactions that the auditor must test, but rather requires, for each
QPAM, that the auditor test a sample of each such QPAM's transactions
involving Covered Plans, ``sufficient in size and nature to afford the
auditor a reasonable basis to determine operational compliance with the
Policies and Training.''
Audit Report--Section I(i)(5)
Section I(i)(5) of the proposed five-year exemption provides that,
``[f]or each audit, on or before the end of the relevant period
described in Section I(i)(1) for completing the audit, the auditor must
issue a written report (the Audit Report) to Citigroup and the
Citigroup Affiliated QPAM to which the audit applies that describes the
procedures performed by the auditor during the course of its
examination. The Audit Report must include the auditor's specific
determinations regarding:
(i) The adequacy of the Citigroup Affiliated QPAM's Policies and
Training; the Citigroup Affiliated QPAM's compliance with the Policies
and Training; the need, if any, to strengthen such Policies and
Training; and any instance of the respective Citigroup Affiliated
QPAM's noncompliance with the written Policies and Training described
in Section I(h) above. Any determination by the auditor regarding the
adequacy of the Policies and Training and the auditor's recommendations
(if any) with respect to strengthening the Policies and Training of the
respective Citigroup Affiliated QPAM must be promptly addressed by such
Citigroup Affiliated QPAM, and any action taken by such Citigroup
Affiliated QPAM to address such recommendations must be included in an
addendum to the Audit Report (which addendum is completed prior to the
certification described in Section I(i)(7) below). Any determination by
the auditor that the respective Citigroup Affiliated QPAM has
implemented, maintained, and followed sufficient Policies and Training
must not be based solely or in substantial part on an absence of
evidence indicating noncompliance. In this last regard, any finding
that the Citigroup Affiliated QPAM has complied with the requirements
under this subsection must be based on evidence that demonstrates the
Citigroup Affiliated QPAM has actually implemented, maintained, and
followed the Policies and Training required by this five-year
exemption. Furthermore, the auditor must not solely rely on the Annual
Report created by the compliance officer (the Compliance Officer) as
described in Section I(m) below as the basis for the auditor's
conclusions in lieu of independent determinations and testing performed
by the auditor as required by Section I(i)(3) and (4) above; and
(ii) The adequacy of the Annual Review described in Section I(m)
and the resources provided to the Compliance Officer in connection with
such Annual Review.''
To improve consistency between the audit conditions of this
exemption, the Department has modified Section I(i)(5) to clarify that
the auditor may issue one consolidated Audit Report covering all the
Citigroup QPAMS for the period of time being audited. The Department
also acknowledges that the Citigroup Affiliated QPAMs' efforts to
address the auditor's recommendations regarding any inadequacy in the
Policies and Training identified by the auditor may take longer to
implement than the time limits mandated by the proposed exemption.
Accordingly, the Department is modifying Section I(i)(5)(i) to reflect
the possibility that the Citigroup Affiliated QPAMs' efforts to address
the auditor's recommendations regarding any inadequacy in the Policies
and Training may not be completed by the submission date of the Audit
Report and may involve a written plan to address such items. However,
any noncompliance identified by the auditor must be promptly addressed.
The revised Section also requires that if such a written plan of
action to address the auditor's recommendation as to the adequacy of
the Polices and Training is not completed by the submission of the
Audit Report, the following period's Audit Report must state whether
the plan was satisfactorily completed. Additionally, the Department has
modified the final sentence in Section I(i)(5)(i) to more clearly
express the Department's intent that the auditor must not rely solely
on the work of the Compliance Officer and the Compliance Officer's
Annual Report in formulating its conclusions or findings. The auditor
must perform its own independent testing to formulate its conclusions.
This exemption does not prohibit the auditor from considering the
Compliance Officer's Annual Report in carrying out its audit function,
including its formulation of an audit plan. This exemption, however,
does prohibit the auditor from reaching conclusions that are
exclusively based upon the contents of the Compliance Officer's Annual
Report.
Finally, while an independent assessment by the auditor of the
adequacy of the Annual Review is essential to providing the Department
with the assurance that the Applicant and the Citigroup QPAMs have
given these matters the utmost priority and have taken the necessary
actions to comply with the exemption, the Department has determined
that the auditor should not be responsible for opining on the adequacy
of the resources allocated to the Compliance Officer and has modified
Section I(i)(5)(ii) accordingly. If, however, the auditor observes
compliance issues related to the Compliance Officer or available
resources, it would be appropriate for the auditor to opine on those
problems.
Certification of Audit Report--Section I(i)(7)-(8)
Section I(i)(7) of the proposed five-year exemption provides that,
``(7) With respect to each Audit Report, the General Counsel, or one of
the three most senior executive officers of the Citigroup Affiliated
QPAM to which the Audit Report applies, must certify in writing, under
penalty of perjury, that the officer has reviewed the Audit Report and
this exemption; addressed, corrected, or remedied any inadequacy
identified in the Audit Report; and determined that the Policies and
Training in effect at the time of signing are adequate to ensure
compliance with the conditions of this proposed five-year exemption,
and with the applicable provisions of ERISA and the Code.''
Section I(i)(8) of the proposed five-year exemption provides,
``(i)(8) The Risk Committee of Citigroup's Board of Directors is
provided a copy of each Audit Report; and a senior executive officer
with a direct reporting line to the highest ranking legal compliance
officer of Citigroup must review the Audit Report for each Citigroup
Affiliated QPAM and must certify in writing, under penalty of perjury,
that such officer has reviewed each Audit Report.''
With respect to Section I(i)(7), the Applicant requests
clarification that the certifying official who must ``certify in
writing, under penalty of perjury, that the officer has reviewed the
Audit Report and this exemption. . . .'' should be the general counsel
or one of the three most senior executive officers of the Citigroup
Affiliated QPAM itself
[[Page 61871]]
(and not of the ultimate parent of the Citigroup-affiliated corporate
group, Citigroup Inc.).
With respect to Section I(i)(8), the Applicant requests that, ``a
senior executive officer with a direct reporting line to the highest
ranking legal compliance officer of Citigroup,'' be revised to, ``a
senior executive officer of Citigroup or one of its affiliates who
reports directly to, or reports to another executive who reports
directly to, the highest ranking compliance officer of Citigroup. . .
.''
The Department agrees that the obligation under Section I(i)(7) to
review the Audit Report and identify and remedy deficiencies may be
carried out by the general counsel or one of the three most senior
executive officers of the Citigroup Affiliated QPAM itself. The
Department also agrees that the obligation under Section I(i)(8) to
review the Audit Report may be carried out by a senior executive
officer of Citigroup or one of its affiliates who reports directly to,
or reports to another executive who reports directly to, the highest
ranking compliance officer of Citigroup. The Department has revised
Sections I(i)(7) and (8) accordingly.
Additionally, to coordinate with the revisions applied to Section
I(i)(5), as discussed above, the Department has revised Section I(i)(7)
to acknowledge that the Applicant's efforts to address the auditor's
recommendations regarding inadequacies in the Policies and Training may
take longer to implement than the required timeframe for submission of
the certified Audit Report. In this regard, the Department did not
intend to limit the Applicant's ability to implement corrective
measures by requiring that such efforts be completed prior to the
submission of the Audit Report. Therefore, the Department has modified
Section I(i)(7) to reflect that the senior executive officer may
certify that a written plan to address the inadequacies regarding the
Policies and Training identified in the auditor's report is in place.
Availability of the Audit Report--Section I(i)(9)
Section I(i)(9) of the proposed exemption provides in part, ``. . .
each Citigroup Affiliated QPAM must make its Audit Report
unconditionally available for examination by any duly authorized
employee or representative of the Department, other relevant
regulators, and any fiduciary of an ERISA-covered plan or IRA, the
assets of which are managed by such Citigroup Affiliated QPAM in
reliance of PTE 84-14.''
Throughout this exemption, the Department has discussed its
interest in ensuring that the conditions included herein broadly
protect ERISA-covered plans and IRAs that enter into an asset
management agreement with a Citigroup Affiliated QPAM in reliance on
such QPAM's qualification under PTE 84-14. However, the Department
recognizes that, under certain circumstances, extending the Applicant's
disclosure obligations beyond the plan and IRA clients that this
exemption is designed to protect does not contribute to this
exemption's intended purpose. With regard to Section I(i)(9), the
Department has adopted revisions which require the Citigroup Affiliated
QPAMs to make the Audit Report available to any fiduciary of a Covered
Plan. Accordingly, the Department has revised this condition by
replacing the phrase ``an ERISA-covered plan or IRA, the assets of
which are managed by such Citigroup Affiliated QPAM'' with the term
``Covered Plan'' (as defined in Section II(b)). Lastly, the Department
has revised Section I(i)(9) to require that access to the Audit Report
need only be provided upon request and such access can be electronic.
The Department notes that the Audit Report, in any event, will be
incorporated into the public record attributable to this exemption,
under Exemption Application Number D-11909, and, therefore,
independently accessible by members of the public.
Engagement Agreements--Section I(i)(10)
Section I(i)(10) of the proposed exemption provides that ``[e]ach
Citigroup Affiliated QPAM and the auditor must submit to OED: (A) any
engagement agreement(s) entered into pursuant to the engagement of the
auditor under this exemption; and (B) any engagement agreement entered
into with any other entity retained in connection with such QPAM's
compliance with the Training or Policies conditions of this five-year
exemption, no later than six (6) months after the Conviction Date (and
one month after the execution of any agreement thereafter).''
In coordination with the Department's modification of Section
I(h)(2)(ii), which permits prudently-selected Citigroup personnel to
conduct the training, the Department has determined to remove the
Section I(i)(10)(B) requirement for Citigroup Affiliated QPAMs and the
auditor to provide the Department with engagement agreements entered
into with entities retained in connection with the Training or Policies
conditions. Furthermore, to remove any confusion and uncertainty
regarding the timing of the submission of the auditor's engagement
agreement, the Department has modified Section I(i)(10) to require that
the auditor's engagement agreement be submitted to the Office of
Exemption Determinations no later than two (2) months after the
engagement agreement is entered into by the Applicant and the
independent auditor.
Audit Workpapers--Section I(i)(11)
Section I(i)(10) of the proposed exemption requires ``[t]he auditor
must provide OED, upon request, all of the workpapers created and
utilized in the course of the audit, including, but not limited to: The
audit plan; audit testing; identification of any instance of
noncompliance by the relevant Citigroup Affiliated QPAM; and an
explanation of any corrective or remedial action taken by the
applicable Citigroup Affiliated QPAM.''
The Department acknowledges that certain information contained in
the audit workpapers may be confidential and proprietary, and that the
inclusion of such information in the public file may create avoidable
disclosure issues. The Department has modified Section I(i)(11) to
remove the requirement that the auditor provide the workpapers to
OED,\41\ and instead require that the auditor provide access to the
workpapers for the Department's review and inspection.
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
\41\ OED is the Office of Exemption Determinations within the
Employee Benefits Security Administration agency of the United
States Department of Labor.
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
Substitution of the Auditor--Section I(i)(12)
Section I(i)(12) of the proposed exemption provides ``Citigroup
must notify the Department at least thirty (30) days prior to any
substitution of an auditor, except that no such replacement will meet
the requirements of this paragraph unless and until Citigroup
demonstrates to the Department's satisfaction that such new auditor is
independent of Citigroup, experienced in the matters that are the
subject of the exemption, and capable of making the determinations
required of this exemption.''
The Department has revised this condition for consistency with its
interest in protecting Covered Plans. As revised, Section I(i)(12) now
requires that Citigroup, no later than two (2) months following the
engagement of a replacement auditor, must notify the Department of the
auditor substitution and the reason(s) for the substitution, including
any material disputes between the terminated auditor and Citigroup. The
Department has also
[[Page 61872]]
revised Section I(i)(12) to remove the requirement for Citigroup to
demonstrate the independence and qualifications of the auditor.
Citigroup's fiduciary obligations with respect to the selection of the
auditor, as well as the significant role a credible selection plays in
reducing the need for more extensive oversight by the Department,
should be sufficient to safeguard the selection process.
Contractual Commitments to Covered Plans--Section I(j)
Section I(j) of the proposed five-year exemption provides, ``(j)
Effective as of the effective date of this five-year exemption, with
respect to any arrangement, agreement, or contract between a Citigroup
Affiliated QPAM and an ERISA-covered plan or IRA for which a Citigroup
Affiliated QPAM provides asset management or other discretionary
fiduciary services, each Citigroup Affiliated QPAM agrees and warrants:
(1) To comply with ERISA and the Code, as applicable with respect
to such ERISA-covered plan or IRA; to refrain from engaging in
prohibited transactions that are not otherwise exempt (and to promptly
correct any inadvertent prohibited transactions); and to comply with
the standards of prudence and loyalty set forth in section 404 of
ERISA, as applicable, with respect to each such ERISA-covered plan and
IRA;
(2) To indemnify and hold harmless the ERISA-covered plan or IRA
for any damages resulting from a Citigroup Affiliated QPAM's violation
of applicable laws, a Citigroup Affiliated QPAM's breach of contract,
or any claim brought in connection with the failure of such Citigroup
Affiliated QPAM to qualify for the exemptive relief provided by PTE 84-
14 as a result of a violation of Section I(g) of PTE 84-14 other than
the Conviction;
(3) Not to require (or otherwise cause) the ERISA-covered plan or
IRA to waive, limit, or qualify the liability of the Citigroup
Affiliated QPAM for violating ERISA or the Code or engaging in
prohibited transactions;
(4) Not to require the ERISA-covered plan or IRA (or sponsor of
such ERISA-covered plan or beneficial owner of such IRA) to indemnify
the Citigroup Affiliated QPAM for violating ERISA or engaging in
prohibited transactions, except for violations or prohibited
transactions caused by an error, misrepresentation, or misconduct of a
plan fiduciary or other party hired by the plan fiduciary who is
independent of Citigroup, and its affiliates;
(5) Not to restrict the ability of such ERISA-covered plan or IRA
to terminate or withdraw from its arrangement with the Citigroup
Affiliated QPAM (including any investment in a separately managed
account or pooled fund subject to ERISA and managed by such QPAM), with
the exception of reasonable restrictions, appropriately disclosed in
advance, that are specifically designed to ensure equitable treatment
of all investors in a pooled fund in the event such withdrawal or
termination may have adverse consequences for all other investors as a
result of an actual lack of liquidity of the underlying assets,
provided that such restrictions are applied consistently and in like
manner to all such investors;
(6) Not to impose any fees, penalties, or charges for such
termination or withdrawal with the exception of reasonable fees,
appropriately disclosed in advance, that are specifically designed to
prevent generally recognized abusive investment practices or
specifically designed to ensure equitable treatment of all investors in
a pooled fund in the event such withdrawal or termination may have
adverse consequences for all other investors, provided that such fees
are applied consistently and in like manner to all such investors;
(7) Not to include exculpatory provisions disclaiming or otherwise
limiting liability of the Citigroup Affiliated QPAM for a violation of
such agreement's terms, except for liability caused by an error,
misrepresentation, or misconduct of a plan fiduciary or other party
hired by the plan fiduciary which is independent of Citigroup, and its
affiliates; and
(8) Within four (4) months of the date of the Conviction, each
Citigroup Affiliated QPAM must provide a notice of its obligations
under this Section I(j) to each ERISA-covered plan and IRA for which a
Citigroup Affiliated QPAM provides asset management or other
discretionary fiduciary services. For all other prospective ERISA-
covered plan and IRA clients for which a Citigroup Affiliated QPAM
provides asset management or other discretionary services, the
Citigroup Affiliated QPAM will agree in writing to its obligations
under this Section I(j) in an updated investment management agreement
between the Citigroup Affiliated QPAM and such clients or other written
contractual agreement.''
The Applicant states that the creation of new contractual rights as
contemplated under Section I(j) is inappropriate and unnecessary for
the protection of ERISA-covered plan and IRA clients. The Applicant
states that Section (j) would require the creation of new contractual
commitments in favor of ERISA-covered Plan and IRA clients that would
be substantially similar to the contractual commitments contemplated by
the Best Interest Contract Exemption (the ``BIC Exemption'') published
in the Federal Register on April 18, 2016. The Applicant states that
the proposed extension of these BIC Exemption provisions to this
exemption is inappropriate, because the BIC Exemption is intended to
address circumstances in which a fiduciary may have a conflict of
interest, while this exemption would apply only in contexts in which no
such conflict exists. The Applicant further states that, under the
circumstances, it is appropriate at a minimum for Section I(j) of the
exemption to be revised to provide that in no circumstance shall the
contractual commitments required therein extend beyond the contractual
commitments required to be made to a fiduciary seeking to rely on the
BIC Exemption, if any, as the BIC Exemption is in effect from time to
time.
The Applicant also requests that the requirements of Sect[iukcy]on
I(j) be limited to services that are rendered to Plan clients in
reliance on PTE 84-14. Accordingly, the Applicant requests that
Sect[iukcy]on I(j) should be clarified by adding the phrase, ``in
reliance on PTE 84-14,'' immediately following the phrase, ``asset
management or other discretionary fiduciary services,'' in the leading
paragraph and in two other places in Section I(j)(8). The Applicant
states that the effect of the Exemption is to permit the Applicant to
continue to use PTE 84-14 and that imposing conditions relating to
conduct that is not connected to the relief being provided exceeds the
statutory mandate of Section 408(a).
The Department may grant an exemption under Section 408(a) of ERISA
or Section 4975(c)(2)(C) of the Code only to the extent the Secretary
finds, among other things, that the exemption is protective of the
affected plan(s) or IRA(s). Notwithstanding the misconduct, which
resulted in violation of Section I(g) of PTE 84-14, the Department has
granted this exemption based, in significant part, upon the inclusion
of Section I(j), which protects Covered Plans by, among other things,
requiring the Citigroup Affiliated QPAMs to make express commitments to
adhere to the requirements of ERISA and the Code, as applicable.
As previously indicated, the Department has concluded that a
culture of compliance, centered on
[[Page 61873]]
adherence to basic standards of fair dealing as set forth in this
exemption, gives the Department a compelling basis for making the
required statutory findings that the exemption is in the interests of
plan and IRA investors and protective of their rights. Absent such
findings, the exemption would have been denied.
The Department has required an express commitment to comply with
the fiduciary standards and prohibited transaction rules only to the
extent these provisions are ``applicable'' under ERISA and the Code.
This section, as modified, should serve its salutary purposes of
promoting a culture of compliance and enhancing the ability of plans
and IRA customers to sever their relationships with minimal injury in
the event of non-compliance. This conclusion is reinforced, as well, by
the limited nature of the relief granted by this exemption, which
generally does not extend to transactions that involve self-dealing.
The Department notes that nothing in ERISA or the Code prevents the
Department from conditioning relief on express contractual commitments
to adhere to the requirements set out herein. The QPAMs remain free to
disclaim reliance on the exemption and to avoid such express
contractual commitments. To the extent, however, that they hold
themselves out as fiduciary QPAMs, they should be prepared to make an
express commitment to their customers to adhere to the requirements of
this exemption. This commitment strengthens and reinforces the
likelihood of compliance, and helps ensure that, in the event of
noncompliance, customers, including IRA customers, will be insulated
from injuries caused by non-compliance.
These protections also ensure that customers will be able to
extricate themselves from transactions that become prohibited as a
result of the QPAMs' misconduct, without fear of sustaining additional
losses as a result of the QPAMs' actions. In this connection, however,
the Department emphasizes that the only claims available to the QPAMs'
customers pursuant to these contractual commitments are those
separately provided by ERISA or other state and federal laws that are
not preempted by ERISA. As before, private litigants have only those
causes of action specifically authorized by laws that exist independent
of this exemption.
As explained above, ERISA-covered plans and IRAs routinely rely on
QPAM status as a condition of entering into transactions with financial
institutions, even with respect to transactions that do not require
adherence to PTE 84-14. In addition, it may not always be clear whether
a Citigroup Affiliated QPAM intends to rely upon PTE 84-14 for any
particular transaction. Accordingly, it is critical to ensure that
protective conditions are in place to safeguard the interests of ERISA-
covered plans and IRAs that are acting in reliance on the availability
of this exemption, particularly with respect to plans and IRAs that may
not have entered into a transaction in the first place, but for the
Department's grant of this exemption.
The Department has revised this condition for consistency with its
interest in protecting Covered Plans. The condition now applies to
ERISA-covered plans and IRAs only when the Citigroup Affiliated QPAM
relies on PTE 84-14 or has expressly represented that it qualifies as a
QPAM or relies on the QPAM class exemption in its dealings with the
ERISA-covered plan or IRA (i.e., a Covered Plan). To the extent a
Citigroup QPAM would prefer not to be subject to these conditions,
however, it may expressly disclaim reliance on QPAM status or PTE 84-14
in entering into its contract with the ERISA-covered plan or IRA.
Contractual Commitments--Section I(j)(1)
Section I(j)(1) of the proposed five-year exemption provides that
each Citigroup Affiliated QPAM agrees and warrants: ``(1) To comply
with ERISA and the Code, as applicable with respect to such ERISA-
covered plan or IRA; to refrain from engaging in prohibited
transactions that are not otherwise exempt (and to promptly correct any
inadvertent prohibited transactions); and to comply with the standards
of prudence and loyalty set forth in section 404 of ERISA, as
applicable, with respect to each such ERISA-covered plan and IRA.''
The Applicant requests the phrase, ``as applicable'' be moved to
follow the phrase, ``. . . .with respect to such ERISA-covered plan or
IRA.'' The Department has determined to revise Section I(j)(1) by
adding ``to the extent that Section is applicable,'' following the
phrase, ``with respect to each such ERISA-covered plan and IRA'' at the
end of the condition. As written, the text expressly focuses on
provisions of ERISA and the Code only to the extent those provisions
are applicable to the conduct at issue.
Indemnity Provision--Section I(j)(2)
Section I(j)(2) of the proposed five-year exemption provides that
each Citigroup Affiliated QPAM agrees and warrants: ``(2) To indemnify
and hold harmless the ERISA-covered plan or IRA for any damages
resulting from a Citigroup Affiliated QPAM's violation of applicable
laws, a Citigroup Affiliated QPAM's breach of contract, or any claim
brought in connection with the failure of such Citigroup Affiliated
QPAM to qualify for the exemptive relief provided by PTE 84-14 as a
result of a violation of Section I(g) of PTE 84-14 other than the
Conviction.''
The Applicant requests that Section I(j)(2) be revised to read:
``To indemnify and hold harmless the ERISA-covered plan or IRA for any
damages resulting from a violation of ERISA's fiduciary duties and of
ERISA and the Code's prohibited transaction provisions, a breach of
contract, or any claim arising out of the failure of such Citigroup
Affiliated QPAM to qualify for the exemptive relief provided by PTE 84-
14 as a result of a violation of Section I(g) of PTE 84-14 other than
the Conviction;''
As explained above, the intended purpose of this exemption is to
protect Covered Plans that entrust the Citigroup Affiliated QPAMs with
the management of their retirement assets. To this end, the Department
believes that the protective purpose of this exemption is furthered by
Section I(j)(2). This condition ensures that, when a Covered Plan
enters into an asset management agreement with a Citigroup Affiliated
QPAM in reliance on the manager's qualification as a QPAM, it may
expect adherence to basic fiduciary norms and standards of fair
dealing, notwithstanding the prior conviction. This condition also
ensures that the Covered Plan will be able to disengage from that
relationship without undue injury in the event that the terms of this
exemption are violated.
Accordingly, the Department has revised the applicability of this
condition to more closely reflect this interest. In particular, the
condition applies to Covered Plans. As indicated above, if the asset
manager would prefer not to be subject to these provisions as exemption
conditions, it may expressly disclaim reliance on QPAM status or PTE
84-14 in entering into its contract with an ERISA-covered plan or IRA
(in that case, however, it could not rely on the exemption for relief).
The Department has made certain further changes to this condition,
which include: Replacing ``applicable laws'' with clarifying language
that conforms to PTE 2016-14; and replacing ``any damages'' with
``actual losses resulting directly from'' certain acts or omissions of
the Citigroup Affiliated QPAMs. Because I(j)(2) extends only to actual
[[Page 61874]]
losses resulting directly from the actions of the Citigroup Affiliated
QPAMs, it does not encompass losses solely caused by other parties,
events, or acts of God.
Contractual Commitments--Section I(j)(4)
Section I(j)(4) of the proposed five-year exemption provides that
each Citigroup Affiliated QPAM agrees and warrants: ``(4) Not to
require the ERISA-covered plan or IRA (or sponsor of such ERISA-covered
plan or beneficial owner of such IRA) to indemnify the Citigroup
Affiliated QPAM for violating ERISA or engaging in prohibited
transactions, except for violations or prohibited transactions caused
by an error, misrepresentation, or misconduct of a plan fiduciary or
other party hired by the plan fiduciary who is independent of
Citigroup, and its affiliates.''
The Department has determined that Section I(j)(4), as proposed, is
duplicative of the exemption's prohibition on exculpatory clauses under
Section I(j)(7). The Department therefore has deleted Section
I(j)(4)and renumbered the subsequent subsections in Section I(j)
accordingly.
Contractual Commitments--Section I(j)(5) \42\
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
\42\ The Department has renumbered this section as Section
I(j)(4) in this final exemption.
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Section I(j)(5) of the proposed five-year exemption provides that
each Citigroup Affiliated QPAM agrees and warrants: ``(5) Not to
restrict the ability of such ERISA-covered plan or IRA to terminate or
withdraw from its arrangement with the Citigroup Affiliated QPAM
(including any investment in a separately managed account or pooled
fund subject to ERISA and managed by such QPAM), with the exception of
reasonable restrictions, appropriately disclosed in advance, that are
specifically designed to ensure equitable treatment of all investors in
a pooled fund in the event such withdrawal or termination may have
adverse consequences for all other investors as a result of an actual
lack of liquidity of the underlying assets, provided that such
restrictions are applied consistently and in like manner to all such
investors.''
The Applicant requests that I(j)(5) be revised by replacing,
``including'' with ``with respect to,'' and replacing, ``as a result of
an actual lack of liquidity of the underlying assets, provided that
such restrictions are applied consistently and in like manner to all
such investors;'' with ``in connection with any such arrangements
involving investments in pooled funds subject to ERISA entered into
after the Conviction Date, the adverse consequences must relate to a
lack of liquidity of the pooled fund's underlying assets, valuation
issues, or regulatory reasons that prevent the fund from immediately
redeeming an ERISA-covered plan's or IRA's investment, and such
restrictions are applicable to all such investors and effective no
longer than reasonably necessary to avoid the adverse consequences.''
The Department has modified this condition (renumbered in this
exemption as Section I(j)(4)) to clarify the circumstances under which
reasonable restrictions are necessary to protect the remaining
investors in a pooled fund and to also clarify that, in any such event,
the restrictions must be reasonable and last no longer than reasonably
necessary to remedy the adverse consequences. The revised and renumber
Section I(j)(4) provides, ''Not to restrict the ability of such Covered
Plan to terminate or withdraw from its arrangement with the Citigroup
Affiliated QPAM with respect to any investment in a separately managed
account or pooled fund subject to ERISA and managed by such QPAM, with
the exception of reasonable restrictions, appropriately disclosed in
advance, that are specifically designed to ensure equitable treatment
of all investors in a pooled fund in the event such withdrawal or
termination may have adverse consequences for all other investors. In
connection with any such arrangements involving investments in pooled
funds subject to ERISA entered into after the effective date of this
exemption, the adverse consequences must relate to of a lack of
liquidity of the underlying assets, valuation issues, or regulatory
reasons that prevent the fund from promptly redeeming an ERISA-covered
plan's or IRA's investment, and such restrictions must be applicable to
all such investors and effective no longer than reasonably necessary to
avoid the adverse consequences.''
Limits on Liability--Section I(j)(7)
Section I(j)(7) of the proposed five-year exemption provides that
each Citigroup Affiliated QPAM agrees and warrants: ``(j)(7) Not to
include exculpatory provisions disclaiming or otherwise limiting
liability of the Citigroup Affiliated QPAM for a violation of such
agreement's terms, except for liability caused by an error,
misrepresentation, or misconduct of a plan fiduciary or other party
hired by the plan fiduciary which is independent of Citigroup, and its
affiliates.''
The Department has modified Section I(j)(6) (formerly (j)(7)) to
clarify that the prohibition on exculpatory provisions does not extend
to losses that arise from an act or event not caused by Citigroup, and
that nothing in this section alters the prohibition on exculpatory
provisions set forth in ERISA Section 410.
Notice and Updated Investment Management Agreement--Section I(j)(8)
Section I(j)(8) of the proposed five-year exemption provides that,
``(j)(8) Within four (4) months of the date of the Conviction, each
Citigroup Affiliated QPAM must provide a notice of its obligations
under this Section I(j) to each ERISA-covered plan and IRA for which a
Citigroup Affiliated QPAM provides asset management or other
discretionary fiduciary services. For all other prospective ERISA-
covered plan and IRA clients for which a Citigroup Affiliated QPAM
provides asset management or other discretionary services, the
Citigroup Affiliated QPAM will agree in writing to its obligations
under this Section I(j) in an updated investment management agreement
between the Citigroup Affiliated QPAM and such clients or other written
contractual agreement.''
The Applicant requests that Section I(j)(8) be revised to extend
the applicable notification period from 4 months to 6 months. The
Applicant also requests that I(j)(8) be limited to ERISA-covered plans
and IRAs for which a Citigroup Affiliated QPAM provides asset
management or other discretionary fiduciary services ``in reliance on
PTE 84-14.''
As noted above, the Department has an interest in protecting an
ERISA-covered plan or IRA that enters into an asset management
agreement with a Citigroup Affiliated QPAM in reliance on the manager's
qualification as a QPAM, regardless of whether the QPAM relies on the
class exemption when managing such ERISA-covered plan's or IRA's
assets. The Department has revised the applicability of this condition
to more closely reflect this interest, and the condition now applies
only to Covered Plans. The Department has also modified the condition
so that a Citigroup Affiliated QPAM will not violate the condition
solely because a Covered Plan refuses to sign an updated investment
management agreement. In addition, the Department has revised Section
I(j)(8) to provide that the Citigroup Affiliated QPAM must provide
notice to each Covered Plan by July 9, 2018.
[[Page 61875]]
Notice to Covered Plan Clients--Section I(k)(1) \43\
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\43\ The Department has renumbered this section as Section I(k)
in this final exemption.
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Section I(k)(1) of the proposed five-year exemption provides, in
relevant part that, ``Within fifteen (15) days of the publication of
this proposed five-year exemption in the Federal Register, each
Citigroup Affiliated QPAM will provide a notice of the proposed five-
year exemption, along with a separate summary describing the facts that
led to the Conviction (the Summary), which have been submitted to the
Department, and a prominently displayed statement (the Statement) that
the Conviction results in a failure to meet a condition in PTE 84-14,.
. . . In the event that this proposed five-year exemption is granted,
the Federal Register copy of the notice of final five-year exemption
must be delivered to such clients within sixty (60) days of its
publication in the Federal Register''
The Applicant requests that Section I(k)(1) be revised to read, in
relevant part, ``Each Citigroup Affiliated QPAM has provided a notice
of the proposed five-year exemption, along with a separate summary
describing the facts that led to the Conviction (the Summary). . . . In
addition, the Federal Register copy of the notice of final five-year
exemption must be delivered to such clients within sixty (60) days of
its publication in the Federal Register. . . .''
The Department notes that the proposed exemption provides details
of the facts and circumstances underlying the Conviction not found in
the Summary or the final grant. One of the purposes of such a complete
disclosure is to ensure that all interested parties are aware of, and
attentive to, the complete facts and circumstances surrounding
Citigroup's application for exemption. Requiring the disclosure of the
Summary, proposal, and grant provides the opportunity for all parties
to have knowledge of these facts and circumstance.
Notwithstanding this, the Department has modified the condition to
clarify that disclosures under this condition may be provided
electronically. Further, the notice requirement under this condition
has been narrowed to ERISA-covered plans and IRAs that would benefit
from this knowledge (i.e., Covered Plans).
Notice to Non-Plan Clients--Section I(k)(2)
Section I(k)(2) of the proposed five-year exemption provides, in
relevant part that, ``Each Citigroup Affiliated QPAM will provide a
Federal Register copy of the proposed five-year exemption, a Federal
Register copy of the final five-year exemption; the Summary; and the
Statement to each: (A) Current Non-Plan Client within four (4) months
of the effective date, if any, of a final five-year exemption; and (B)
Future Non-Plan Client prior to, or contemporaneously with, the
client's receipt of a written asset management agreement from the
Citigroup Affiliated QPAM.''
Given the breadth of the notice requirements otherwise mandated by
the exemption, and the decision to restrict such requirements to
arrangements for which QPAM status plays an integral role (i.e., the
QPAM represents or relies upon its QPAM status), the Department has
determined to delete this provision.
Compliance Officer--Section I(m)
Section I(m)(1) of the proposed five-year exemption provides,
``(m)(1) Citigroup designates a senior compliance officer (the
Compliance Officer) who will be responsible for compliance with the
Policies and Training requirements described herein. . . (i) The
Compliance Officer must be a legal professional with extensive
experience with, and knowledge of, the regulation of financial services
and products, including under ERISA and the Code; and (ii) The
Compliance Officer must have a direct reporting line to the highest-
ranking corporate officer in charge of legal compliance that is
independent of Citigroup's other business lines.''
As stated above, the Applicant requests that the compliance officer
requirement of Section I(m) be deleted from the exemption in its
entirety. In support of its request, the Applicant states that this
requirement is burdensome, costly, and redundant. The Applicant states
that it has comprehensive compliance and internal audit departments
that should be responsible for developing and implementing the
necessary policies and procedures under this exemption.
The Department declines to eliminate the compliance officer
requirement under this exemption. Citigroup personnel engaged in
serious misconduct that was caused, at least in part, by compliance and
oversight failure. The Department's determination to grant this
exemption is based in part on the view that an internal compliance
officer with responsibility for the Policies and Training mandated by
this exemption will provide the level of oversight necessary to ensure
that such Policies and Training are properly developed and implemented
throughout the term of this exemption.
The Applicant also requests that Section I(m)(1) be clarified by
deleting the word ``legal'' from the phrase ``legal compliance'' in
clause (ii). In this regard, the Applicant states that the Citigroup's
compliance function is separate from its legal function. The Applicant
also requests that Section I(m) be revised to clarify that the
Compliance Officer will be a senior compliance officer of Citigroup
Inc. or one of its affiliates, and that such senior compliance officer
will be an officer who reports directly to, or reports to another
compliance officer who reports directly to, Citigroup Inc.'s highest
ranking compliance officer (whose title is currently Global Chief
Compliance Officer of Citigroup Inc.).
After consideration of the Applicant's comment, the Department has
revised Section I(m)(1) in the manner requested by the Applicant.
Deferred Prosecution/Non-Prosecution Agreements--Section I(o)
Section I(o) of the proposed five-year exemption provides, ``(o)
During the effective period of the five-year exemption, Citigroup: (1)
Immediately discloses to the Department any Deferred Prosecution
Agreement (a DPA) or a Non-Prosecution Agreement (an NPA) with the U.S.
Department of Justice, entered into by Citigroup or any of its
affiliates in connection with conduct described in Section I(g) of PTE
84-14 or section 411 of ERISA; and (2) Immediately provides the
Department any information requested by the Department, as permitted by
law, regarding the agreement and/or conduct and allegations that led to
the agreement. The Department may, following its review of that
information, require Citigroup or a party specified by the Department,
to submit a new application for the continued availability of relief as
a condition of continuing to rely on this exemption. If the Department
denies the relief requested in that application, or does not grant such
relief within twelve (12) months of the application, the relief
described herein would be revoked as of the date of denial or as of the
expiration of the twelve month period, whichever date is earlier.''
The Applicant requests that Section I(o)(2) be revised to read
substantially the same as Section I(l) of PTE-2016-14, subject to the
following additional changes. The Applicant requests the replacement of
the word ``immediately'' with ``promptly'' in subsections (1) and (2);
the insertion of the word ``reasonably'' before the phrase
[[Page 61876]]
``requested by the Department'' in subsection (2); and the deletion of
the final sentence of subsection (2), which reads ``If the Department
denies the relief requested in that application, or does not grant such
relief within twelve (12) months of the application, the relief
described herein would be revoked as of the date of denial or as of the
expiration of the twelve month period, whichever date is earlier.''
The Department in no way intended that this condition be read as
providing for an automatic revocation of this exemption, and in light
of the Applicant's comments, has revised the condition accordingly. As
revised, the condition requires that the Applicant notify the
Department if and when it, or any of its affiliates enter into a DPA or
NPA with the U.S. Department of Justice for conduct described in
section I(g) of PTE 84-14 or ERISA section 411; and immediately
provide, upon request by the Department, any information, as permitted
by law, regarding the agreement and/or conduct and allegations that led
to the agreement. The Department, however, retains the right to propose
a withdrawal of the exemption pursuant to its procedures contained at
29 CFR 2570.50, should circumstances warrant such action.
Right to Copies of Policies and Procedures--Section I(p)
Section I(p) of the proposed five-year exemption provides that,
``[e]ach Citigroup Affiliated QPAM, in its agreements with ERISA-
covered plan and IRA clients, or in other written disclosures provided
to ERISA-covered plan and IRA clients, within 60 days prior to the
initial transaction upon which relief hereunder is relied, and then at
least once annually, will clearly and prominently: Inform the ERISA-
covered plan and IRA client that the client has the right to obtain
copies of the QPAM's written Policies adopted in accordance with the
exemption.''
Ensuring that ERISA covered-plan and IRA clients have a means by
which to review and understand the Policies implemented in connection
with this exemption is a vital protection that is fundamental to this
exemption's purpose. The Department has modified Section I(p) to
provide that the Citigroup Affiliated QPAMs, at their election, may
provide Covered Plans with a disclosure that accurately describes or
summarizes key components of the Policies. As revised, Section I(p)
does not require the Citigroup Affiliated QPAMs to provide the Policies
in their entirety. The Department has also determined that such
disclosure may be continuously maintained on a website, provided that a
website link to the summary of the written Policies is clearly and
prominently disclosed to those Covered Plan clients to whom this
section applies. The Department has also modified Section I(p) to
require that the Citigroup Affiliated QPAMs provide notice regarding
the information on the website within 60 days of the effective date of
this exemption, and thereafter to the extent certain material changes
are made to the Policies.
New Definition of Citcorp
In the PTE 2016-14 Comment Letter, the Applicant requested that the
Department add a definition for the term ``Citicorp'' to read as: ``The
term `Citicorp' means, a financial services holding company organized
and existing under the laws of Delaware and does not include any
subsidiaries or other affiliates.'' After consideration of the
Applicant's comment, the Department has added a new Section II(e) to
this exemption defining Citicorp in the manner requested by the
Applicant.
Summary of Facts and Representations
The Applicant seeks certain clarifications to the Summary of Facts
and Representations which the Department does not view as relevant to
its determination whether to grant this exemption. Those requested
clarifications may be found as part of the public record for
Application No. D-11909, in a letter to the Department, dated February
28, 2017.
Letter From House Committee on Financial Services
The Department also received a comment letter from certain members
of Congress (the Members) regarding this exemption, as well as other
QPAM-related proposed one year exemptions. In the letter, the Members
stated that certain conditions contained in these proposed exemptions
are crucial to protecting the investments of our nation's workers and
retirees, referring to proposed conditions which require each bank to:
(a) Indemnify and hold harmless ERISA-covered plans and IRAs for any
damages resulting from the future misconduct of such bank; and (b)
disclose to the Department any Deferred Prosecution Agreement or a Non-
Prosecution Agreement with the U.S. Department of Justice. The Members
also requested that the Department hold hearings in connection with the
proposed exemptions.
The Department acknowledges the Members' concerns regarding the
need for public discourse regarding proposed exemptions. To this end,
the Department's procedures regarding prohibited transaction exemption
requests under ERISA (the Exemption Procedures) afford interested
persons the opportunity to request a hearing. Specifically, section
2570.46(a) of the Exemption Procedures provides that, ``[a]ny
interested person who may be adversely affected by an exemption which
the Department proposes to grant from the restrictions of section
406(b) of ERISA, section 4975(c)(1)(E) or (F) of the Code, or section
8477(c)(2) of FERSA may request a hearing before the Department within
the period of time specified in the Federal Register notice of the
proposed exemption.'' The Exemption Procedures provide that ``[t]he
Department will grant a request for a hearing made in accordance with
paragraph (a) of this section where a hearing is necessary to fully
explore material factual issues identified by the person requesting the
hearing.'' The Exemption Procedures also provide that ``[t]he
Department may decline to hold a hearing where: (1) The request for the
hearing does not meet the requirements of paragraph (a) of this
section; (2) the only issues identified for exploration at the hearing
are matters of law; or (3) the factual issues identified can be fully
explored through the submission of evidence in written (including
electronic) form.'' \44\
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\44\ 29 CFR part 2570, published at 76 FR 66653, October 27,
2011.
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While the Members' letter raises important policy issues, it does
not appear to raise specific material factual issues. The Department
previously explored a wide range of legal and policy issues regarding
Section I(g) of the QPAM Exemption during a public hearing held on
January 15, 2015 in connection with the Department's proposed exemption
involving Credit Suisse AG, and has determined that an additional
hearing on these issues is not necessary.
Comments From Interested Persons
The Department also received comment letters from certain
interested persons. With respect to each, the commenter sought a
further explanation regarding the proposed exemption.
After giving full consideration to the record, the Department has
decided to grant the exemption, as described above. The complete
application file (Application No. D-11909) is available for public
inspection in the Public Disclosure Room of the Employee Benefits
Security Administration, Room N-1515, U.S. Department of Labor, 200
[[Page 61877]]
Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20210.
For a more complete statement of the facts and representations
supporting the Department's decision to grant this exemption, refer to
the notice of proposed exemption published on November 21, 2016 at 81
FR 83416.
Exemption
Section I: Covered Transactions
Certain entities with specified relationships to Citigroup
(hereinafter, the Citigroup Affiliated QPAMs and the Citigroup Related
QPAMs, as defined in Sections II(f) and II(g), respectively) will not
be precluded from relying on the exemptive relief provided by
Prohibited Transaction Class Exemption 84-14 (PTE 84-14 or the QPAM
Exemption), notwithstanding the Conviction, as defined in Section
II(a), during the Exemption Period,\45\ provided that the following
conditions are satisfied:
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\45\ Section I(g) of PTE 84-14 generally provides that
``[n]either the QPAM nor any affiliate thereof . . . nor any owner .
. . of a 5 percent or more interest in the QPAM is a person who
within the 10 years immediately preceding the transaction has been
either convicted or released from imprisonment, whichever is later,
as a result of '' certain felonies including violation of the
Sherman Antitrust Act, Title 15 United States Code, Section 1.
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
(a) Other than a single individual who worked for a non-fiduciary
business within Citigroup's Markets and Securities Services business,
and who had no responsibility for, and exercised no authority in
connection with, the management of plan assets, the Citigroup
Affiliated QPAMs and the Citigroup Related QPAMs (including their
officers, directors, agents other than Citicorp, and employees of such
QPAMs who had responsibility for, or exercised authority in connection
with the management of plan assets) did not know of, did not have
reason to know of, or participate in the criminal conduct that is the
subject of the Conviction. For purposes of this paragraph (a),
``participate in'' means the knowing approval of the misconduct
underlying the Conviction;
(b) Other than a single individual who worked for a non-fiduciary
business within Citigroup's Markets and Securities Services Business,
and who had no responsibility for, and exercised no authority in
connection with, the management of plan assets, the Citigroup
Affiliated QPAMs and the Citigroup Related QPAMs (including their
officers, directors, and agents other than Citicorp, and employees of
such Citigroup QPAMs) did not receive direct compensation, or knowingly
receive indirect compensation in connection with the criminal conduct
that is the subject of the Conviction;
(c) The Citigroup Affiliated QPAMs will not employ or knowingly
engage any of the individuals that participated in the criminal conduct
that is the subject of the Conviction. For the purposes of this
paragraph (c), ``participated in'' means the knowing approval of the
misconduct underlying the Conviction;
(d) At all times during the Exemption Period, no Citigroup
Affiliated QPAM will use its authority or influence to direct an
``investment fund'' (as defined in Section VI(b) of PTE 84-14), that is
subject to ERISA or the Code and managed by such Citigroup Affiliated
QPAM in reliance on PTE 84-14, or with respect to which a Citigroup
Affiliated QPAM has expressly represented to an ERISA-covered plan or
IRA with assets invested in such ``investment fund'' that it qualifies
as a QPAM or relies on PTE 84-14, to enter into any transaction with
Citicorp, or to engage Citicorp to provide any service to such
investment fund, for a direct or indirect fee borne by such investment
fund, regardless of whether such transaction or service may otherwise
be within the scope of relief provided by an administrative or
statutory exemption;
(e) Any failure of a Citigroup Affiliated QPAM or a Citigroup
Related QPAM to satisfy Section I(g) of PTE 84-14 arose solely from the
Conviction;
(f) A Citigroup Affiliated QPAM or a Citigroup Related QPAM did not
exercise authority over the assets of any plan subject to Part 4 of
Title I of ERISA (an ERISA-covered plan) or section 4975 of the Code
(an IRA) in a manner that it knew or should have known would: Further
the criminal conduct that is the subject of the Conviction; or cause
the Citigroup Affiliated QPAM, the Citigroup Related QPAM, or their
affiliates to directly or indirectly profit from the criminal conduct
that is the subject of the Conviction;
(g) Other than with respect to employee benefit plans maintained or
sponsored for its own employees or the employees of an affiliate,
Citicorp will not act as a fiduciary within the meaning of section
3(21)(A)(i) or (iii) of ERISA, or section 4975(e)(3)(A) and (C) of the
Code, with respect to ERISA-covered plan and IRA assets; provided,
however, that Citicorp will not be treated as violating the conditions
of this exemption solely because it acted as an investment advice
fiduciary within the meaning of section 3(21)(A)(ii) or section
4975(e)(3)(B) of the Code;
(h)(1) By July 9, 2018, each Citigroup Affiliated QPAM must
develop, implement, maintain, and follow written policies and
procedures (the Policies). The Policies must require, and must be
reasonably designed to ensure that:
(i) The asset management decisions of the Citigroup Affiliated QPAM
are conducted independently of the corporate management and business
activities of Citigroup;
(ii) The Citigroup Affiliated QPAM fully complies with ERISA's
fiduciary duties, and with ERISA and the Code's prohibited transaction
provisions, as applicable with respect to each Covered Plan, and does
not knowingly participate in any violation of these duties and
provisions with respect to Covered Plans;
(iii) The Citigroup Affiliated QPAM does not knowingly participate
in any other person's violation of ERISA or the Code with respect to
Covered Plans;
(iv) Any filings or statements made by the Citigroup Affiliated
QPAM to regulators, including, but not limited to, the Department, the
Department of the Treasury, the Department of Justice, and the Pension
Benefit Guaranty Corporation, on behalf of or in relation to Covered
Plans, are materially accurate and complete, to the best of such QPAM's
knowledge at the time;
(v) To the best of the Citigroup Affiliated QPAM's knowledge at the
time, the Citigroup Affiliated QPAM does not make material
misrepresentations or omit material information in its communications
with such regulators with respect to Covered Plans;
(vi) The Citigroup Affiliated QPAM complies with the terms of this
exemption; and
(vii) Any violation of, or failure to comply with an item in
subparagraphs (ii) through (vi), is corrected as soon as reasonably
possible upon discovery, or as soon after the QPAM reasonably should
have known of the noncompliance (whichever is earlier), and any such
violation or compliance failure not so corrected is reported, upon the
discovery of such failure to so correct, in writing, to the head of
compliance and the General Counsel (or their functional equivalent) of
the relevant line of business that engaged in the violation or failure,
and the independent auditor responsible for reviewing compliance with
the Policies. A Citigroup Affiliated QPAM will not be treated as having
failed to develop, implement, maintain, or follow the Policies,
provided that it corrects any instance of noncompliance as soon as
reasonably possible upon discovery, or as soon as reasonably possible
after the QPAM reasonably should have known
[[Page 61878]]
of the noncompliance (whichever is earlier), and provided that it
adheres to the reporting requirements set forth in this subparagraph
(vii);
(2) By July 9, 2018, each Citigroup Affiliated QPAM must develop a
program of training (the Training), to be conducted at least annually,
for all relevant Citigroup Affiliated QPAM asset/portfolio management,
trading, legal, compliance, and internal audit personnel. The first
Training under this Final Exemption must be completed by all relevant
Citigroup Affiliated QPAM personnel by July 9, 2019 (by the end of this
30-month period, asset/portfolio management, trading, legal,
compliance, and internal audit personnel who were employed from the
start to the end of the period must have been trained twice: The first
time under PTE 2016-15; and the second time under this exemption). The
Training must:
(i) At a minimum, cover the Policies, ERISA and Code compliance
(including applicable fiduciary duties and the prohibited transaction
provisions), ethical conduct, the consequences for not complying with
the conditions of this exemption (including any loss of exemptive
relief provided herein), and prompt reporting of wrongdoing; and
(ii) Be conducted by a professional who has been prudently selected
and who has appropriate technical training and proficiency with ERISA
and the Code;
(i)(1) Each Citigroup Affiliated QPAM, which the Applicant has
identified in a certificate signed by the officer who will review and
certify the Audit Report (as defined in Section I(i)(5)) pursuant to
Section I(i)(8), submits to an audit conducted every two years by an
independent auditor who has been prudently selected and who has
appropriate technical training and proficiency with ERISA and the Code,
to evaluate the adequacy of, and each Citigroup Affiliated QPAM's
compliance with, the Policies and Training described herein. The audit
requirement must be incorporated in the Policies. Each audit must cover
the preceding consecutive twelve (12) month period. The first audit
must cover the period from July 10, 2018 through July 9, 2019, and must
be completed by January 9, 2020. The second audit must cover the period
from July 10, 2020 through July 9, 2021, and must be completed by
January 9, 2022. In the event that the Exemption Period is extended or
a new exemption is granted, the third audit would cover the period from
July 10, 2022 through July 9, 2023, and would have to be completed by
January 9, 2024 (unless the Department chooses to alter the biennial
audit requirement in the new or extended exemption);
(2) Within the scope of the audit and to the extent necessary for
the auditor, in its sole opinion, to complete its audit and comply with
the conditions for relief described herein, and only to the extent such
disclosure is not prevented by state or federal statute, or involves
communications subject to attorney client privilege, each Citigroup
Affiliated QPAM and, if applicable, Citigroup, will grant the auditor
unconditional access to its business, including, but not limited to:
Its computer systems; business records; transactional data; workplace
locations; training materials; and personnel. Such access is limited to
information relevant to the auditor's objectives as specified by the
terms of this exemption;
(3) The auditor's engagement must specifically require the auditor
to determine whether each Citigroup Affiliated QPAM has developed,
implemented, maintained, and followed the Policies in accordance with
the conditions of this exemption, and has developed and implemented the
Training, as required herein;
(4) The auditor's engagement must specifically require the auditor
to test each Citigroup Affiliated QPAM's operational compliance with
the Policies and Training. In this regard, the auditor must test, for
each QPAM, a sample of such QPAM's transactions involving Covered
Plans, sufficient in size and nature to afford the auditor a reasonable
basis to determine such QPAM's operational compliance with the Policies
and Training;
(5) For each audit, on or before the end of the relevant period
described in Section I(i)(1) for completing the audit, the auditor must
issue a written report (the Audit Report) to Citigroup and the
Citigroup Affiliated QPAM to which the audit applies that describes the
procedures performed by the auditor during the course of its
examination. The auditor, at its discretion, may issue a single
consolidated Audit Report that covers all the Citigroup Affiliated
QPAMs. The Audit Report must include the auditor's specific
determinations regarding:
(i) The adequacy of each Citigroup Affiliated QPAM's Policies and
Training; each Citigroup Affiliated QPAM's compliance with the Policies
and Training; the need, if any, to strengthen such Policies and
Training; and any instance of the respective Citigroup Affiliated
QPAM's noncompliance with the written Policies and Training described
in Section I(h) above. The Citigroup Affiliated QPAM must properly
address any noncompliance. The Citigroup Affiliate must promptly
address or prepare a written plan of action to address any
determination by the auditor regarding the adequacy of the Policies and
Training and the auditor's recommendations (if any) with respect to
strengthening the Policies and Training of the respective Citigroup
Affiliated QPAM. Any action taken or the plan of action to be taken by
the respective Citigroup Affiliated QPAM must be included in an
addendum to the Audit Report (such addendum must be completed prior to
the certification described in Section I(i)(7) below). In the event
such a plan of action to address the auditor's recommendation regarding
the adequacy of the Policies and Training is not completed by the time
of submission of the Audit Report, the following period's Audit Report
must state whether the plan was satisfactorily completed. Any
determination by the auditor that the respective Citigroup Affiliated
QPAM has implemented, maintained, and followed sufficient Policies and
Training must not be based solely or in substantial part on an absence
of evidence indicating noncompliance. In this last regard, any finding
that a Citigroup Affiliated QPAM has complied with the requirements
under this subsection must be based on evidence that the particular
Citigroup Affiliated QPAM has actually implemented, maintained, and
followed the Policies and Training required by this exemption.
Furthermore, the auditor must not solely rely on the Annual Report
created by the compliance officer (the Compliance Officer), as
described in Section I(m) below, as the basis for the auditor's
conclusions in lieu of independent determinations and testing performed
by the auditor, as required by Section I(i)(3) and (4) above; and
(ii) The adequacy of the most recent Annual Review described in
Section I(m);
(6) The auditor must notify the respective Citigroup Affiliated
QPAM of any instance of noncompliance identified by the auditor within
five (5) business days after such noncompliance is identified by the
auditor, regardless of whether the audit has been completed as of that
date;
(7) With respect to each Audit Report, the General Counsel, or one
of the three most senior executive officers of the Citigroup Affiliated
QPAM to which the Audit Report applies, must certify in writing, under
penalty of perjury, that the officer has reviewed the Audit Report and
this exemption; that such Citigroup Affiliated QPAM has
[[Page 61879]]
addressed, corrected or remedied any noncompliance and inadequacy or
has an appropriate written plan to address any inadequacy regarding the
Policies and Training identified in the Audit Report. Such
certification must also include the signatory's determination that the
Policies and Training in effect at the time of signing are adequate to
ensure compliance with the conditions of this exemption, and with the
applicable provisions of ERISA and the Code;
(8) The Risk Management Committee of Citigroup's Board of Directors
is provided a copy of each Audit Report; and a senior executive officer
of Citigroup or one of its affiliates who reports directly to, or
reports to another executive who reports directly to, the highest
ranking compliance officer of Citigroup must review the Audit Report
for each Citigroup Affiliated QPAM and must certify in writing, under
penalty of perjury, that such officer has reviewed each Audit Report;
(9) Each Citigroup Affiliated QPAM provides its certified Audit
Report, by regular mail to: Office of Exemption Determinations (OED),
200 Constitution Avenue NW, Suite 400, Washington, DC 20210, or by
private carrier to: 122 C Street NW, Suite 400, Washington, DC 20001-
2109. This delivery must take place no later than thirty (30) days
following completion of the Audit Report. The Audit Report will be made
part of the public record regarding this exemption. Furthermore, each
Citigroup Affiliated QPAM must make its Audit Report unconditionally
available, electronically or otherwise, for examination upon request by
any duly authorized employee or representative of the Department, other
relevant regulators, and any fiduciary of a Covered Plan;
(10) Each Citigroup Affiliated QPAM and the auditor must submit to
OED: Any engagement agreement(s) entered into pursuant to the
engagement of the auditor under this exemption, no later than two (2)
months after the execution of any such engagement agreement;
(11) The auditor must provide the Department, upon request, for
inspection and review, access to all the workpapers created and
utilized in the course of the audit, provided such access and
inspection is otherwise permitted by law; and
(12) Citigroup must notify the Department of a change in the
independent auditor no later than two (2) months after the engagement
of a substitute or subsequent auditor and must provide an explanation
for the substitution or change including a description of any material
disputes between the terminated auditor and Citigroup;
(j) As of January 10, 2018, and throughout the Exemption Period,
with respect to any arrangement, agreement, or contract between a
Citigroup Affiliated QPAM and a Covered Plan, the Citigroup Affiliated
QPAM agrees and warrants:
(1) To comply with ERISA and the Code, as applicable with respect
to such Covered Plan; to refrain from engaging in prohibited
transactions that are not otherwise exempt (and to promptly correct any
inadvertent prohibited transactions); and to comply with the standards
of prudence and loyalty set forth in section 404 of ERISA with respect
to each such ERISA-covered plan and IRA to the extent that section is
applicable;
(2) To indemnify and hold harmless the Covered Plan for any actual
losses resulting directly from a Citigroup Affiliated QPAM's violation
of ERISA's fiduciary duties, as applicable, and the prohibited
transaction provisions of ERISA and the Code, as applicable; a breach
of contract by the QPAM; or any claim arising out of the failure of
such Citigroup Affiliated QPAM to qualify for the exemptive relief
provided by PTE 84-14 as a result of a violation of Section I(g) of PTE
84-14 other than the Conviction. This condition applies only to actual
losses caused by the Citigroup Affiliated QPAM's violations;
(3) Not to require (or otherwise cause) the Covered Plan to waive,
limit, or qualify the liability of the Citigroup Affiliated QPAM for
violating ERISA or the Code or engaging in prohibited transactions;
(4) Not to restrict the ability of such Covered Plan to terminate
or withdraw from its arrangement with the Citigroup Affiliated QPAM
with respect to any investment in a separately managed account or
pooled fund subject to ERISA and managed by such QPAM, with the
exception of reasonable restrictions, appropriately disclosed in
advance, that are specifically designed to ensure equitable treatment
of all investors in a pooled fund in the event such withdrawal or
termination may have adverse consequences for all other investors. In
connection with any such arrangements involving investments in pooled
funds subject to ERISA entered into after the effective date of this
exemption, the adverse consequences must relate to of a lack of
liquidity of the underlying assets, valuation issues, or regulatory
reasons that prevent the fund from promptly redeeming an ERISA-covered
plan's or IRA's investment, and such restrictions must be applicable to
all such investors and effective no longer than reasonably necessary to
avoid the adverse consequences;
(5) Not to impose any fees, penalties, or charges for such
termination or withdrawal with the exception of reasonable fees,
appropriately disclosed in advance, that are specifically designed to
prevent generally recognized abusive investment practices or
specifically designed to ensure equitable treatment of all investors in
a pooled fund in the event such withdrawal or termination may have
adverse consequences for all other investors, provided that such fees
are applied consistently and in like manner to all such investors;
(6) Not to include exculpatory provisions disclaiming or otherwise
limiting liability of the Citigroup Affiliated QPAM for a violation of
such agreement's terms. To the extent consistent with Section 410 of
ERISA, however, this provision does not prohibit disclaimers for
liability caused by an error, misrepresentation, or misconduct of a
plan fiduciary or other party hired by the plan fiduciary who is
independent of Citigroup, and its affiliates, or damages arising from
acts outside the control of the Citigroup Affiliated QPAM;
(7) By July 9, 2018, each Citigroup Affiliated QPAM must provide a
notice of its obligations under this Section I(j) to each Covered Plan.
For all other prospective Covered Plans, the Citigroup Affiliated QPAM
will agree to its obligations under this Section I(j) in an updated
investment management agreement between the Citigroup Affiliated QPAM
and such clients or other written contractual agreement. This condition
will be deemed met for each Covered Plan that received a notice
pursuant to PTE 2016-14 that meets the terms of this condition.
Notwithstanding the above, a Citigroup Affiliated QPAM will not violate
the condition solely because a Plan or IRA refuses to sign an updated
investment management agreement;
(k) By March 10, 2018, each Citigroup Affiliated QPAM will provide
a notice of the exemption, along with a separate summary describing the
facts that led to the Conviction (the Summary), which have been
submitted to the Department, and a prominently displayed statement (the
Statement) that the Conviction results in a failure to meet a condition
in PTE 84-14, to each sponsor and beneficial owner of a Covered Plan,
or the sponsor of an investment fund in any case where a Citigroup
Affiliated QPAM acts as a sub-advisor to the investment fund in which
such ERISA-covered plan and IRA invests. Any
[[Page 61880]]
prospective clients for which a Citigroup Affiliated QPAM relies on PTE
84-14 or has expressly represented that the manager qualifies as a QPAM
or relies on the QPAM class exemption must receive the proposed and
final exemptions with the Summary and the Statement prior to, or
contemporaneously with, the client's receipt of a written asset
management agreement from the Citigroup Affiliated QPAM. Disclosures
may be delivered electronically.
(l) The Citigroup Affiliated QPAMs must comply with each condition
of PTE 84-14, as amended, with the sole exception of the violation of
Section I(g) of PTE 84-14 that is attributable to the Conviction;
(m)(1) By July 9, 2018, Citigroup designates a senior compliance
officer (the Compliance Officer) who will be responsible for compliance
with the Policies and Training requirements described herein. The
Compliance Officer must conduct an annual review for each annual period
beginning on January 10, 2018 (the Annual Review) \46\ to determine the
adequacy and effectiveness of the implementation of the Policies and
Training. With respect to the Compliance Officer, the following
conditions must be met:
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\46\ Note that such Annual Review must be completed with respect
to the annual periods ending January 9, 2019; January 9, 2020;
January 9, 2021; January 9, 2022; and January 9; 2023.
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(i) The Compliance Officer must be a professional who has extensive
experience with, and knowledge of, the regulation of financial services
and products, including under ERISA and the Code; and
(ii) The Compliance Officer must be a senior compliance officer of
Citigroup Inc. or one of its affiliates, and such senior compliance
officer will be an officer who reports directly to, or reports to
another compliance officer who reports directly to, Citigroup Inc.'s
highest ranking compliance officer (whose title is currently Global
Chief Compliance Officer of Citigroup Inc.);
(2) With respect to each Annual Review, the following conditions
must be met:
(i) The Annual Review includes a review of: Any compliance matter
related to the Policies or Training that was identified by, or reported
to, the Compliance Officer or others within the compliance and risk
control function (or its equivalent) during the previous year; any
material change in the relevant business activities of the Citigroup
Affiliated QPAMs; and any change to ERISA, the Code, or regulations
related to fiduciary duties and the prohibited transaction provisions
that may be applicable to the activities of the Citigroup Affiliated
QPAMs;
(ii) The Compliance Officer prepares a written report for each
Annual Review (each, an Annual Report) that (A) summarizes his or her
material activities during the preceding year; (B) sets forth any
instance of noncompliance discovered during the preceding year, and any
related corrective action; (C) details any change to the Policies or
Training to guard against any similar instance of noncompliance
occurring again; and (D) makes recommendations, as necessary, for
additional training, procedures, monitoring, or additional and/or
changed processes or systems, and management's actions on such
recommendations;
(iii) In each Annual Report, the Compliance Officer must certify in
writing that to his or her knowledge: (A) The report is accurate; (B)
the Policies and Training are working in a manner which is reasonably
designed to ensure that the Policies and Training requirements
described herein are met; (C) any known instance of noncompliance
during the preceding year and any related correction taken to date have
been identified in the Annual Report; and (D) the Citigroup Affiliated
QPAMs have complied with the Policies and Training and/or corrected (or
is correcting) any instances of noncompliance in accordance with
Section I(h) above;
(iv) Each Annual Report must be provided to appropriate corporate
officers of Citigroup and each Citigroup Affiliated QPAM to which such
report relates; the head of compliance and the General Counsel (or
their functional equivalent) of the relevant Citigroup Affiliated QPAM;
and must be made unconditionally available to the independent auditor
described in Section I(i) above;
(v) Each Annual Review, including the Compliance Officer's written
Annual Report, must be completed within three (3) months following the
end of the period to which it relates;
(n) Each Citigroup Affiliated QPAM will maintain records necessary
to demonstrate that the conditions of this exemption have been met, for
six (6) years following the date of any transaction for which such
Citigroup Affiliated QPAM relies upon the relief in the exemption;
(o) During the Exemption Period, Citigroup: (1) Immediately
discloses to the Department any Deferred Prosecution Agreement (a DPA)
or a Non-Prosecution Agreement (an NPA) with the U.S. Department of
Justice, entered into by Citigroup or any of its affiliates in
connection with conduct described in Section I(g) of PTE 84-14 or
section 411 of ERISA; and (2) immediately provides the Department any
information requested by the Department, as permitted by law, regarding
the agreement and/or conduct and allegations that led to the agreement;
(p) By July 9, 2018, each Citigroup Affiliated QPAM, in its
agreements with, or in other written disclosures provided to Covered
Plans, will clearly and prominently inform Covered Plan clients of
their right to obtain a copy of the Policies or a description
(``Summary Policies'') which accurately summarizes key components of
the QPAM's written Policies developed in connection with this
exemption. If the Policies are thereafter changed, each Covered Plan
client must receive a new disclosure within six (6) months following
the end of the calendar year during which the Policies were
changed.\47\ With respect to this requirement, the description may be
continuously maintained on a website, provided that such website link
to the Policies or the Summary Policies is clearly and prominently
disclosed to each Covered Plan; and
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\47\ In the event Applicant meets this disclosure requirement
through Summary Policies, changes to the Policies shall not result
in the requirement for a new disclosure unless, as a result of
changes to the Policies, the Summary Policies are no longer
accurate.
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(q) A Citigroup Affiliated QPAM or a Citigroup Related QPAM will
not fail to meet the terms of this exemption, solely because a
different Citigroup Affiliated QPAM or Citigroup Related QPAM fails to
satisfy a condition for relief described in Sections I(c), (d), (h),
(i), (j), (k), (l), (n) and (p); or if the independent auditor
described in Section I(i) fails a provision of the exemption other than
the requirement described in Section I(i)(11), provided that such
failure did not result from any actions or inactions of Citigroup or
its affiliates.
Section II: Definitions
(a) The term ``Conviction'' means the judgment of conviction
against Citicorp for violation of the Sherman Antitrust Act, 15 U.S.C.
1, entered in the District Court for the District of Connecticut (the
District Court) (Case Number 3:15-cr-78-SRU). For all purposes under
this exemption, ``conduct'' of any person or entity that is the
``subject of [a] Conviction'' encompasses the conduct described in
Paragraph 4(g)-(i) of the Plea Agreement filed in the District Court in
Case Number 3:15-cr-78-SRU;
(b) The term ``Covered Plan'' is a plan subject to Part 4 of Title
1 of ERISA (``ERISA-covered plan'') or a plan
[[Page 61881]]
subject to Section 4975 of the Code (``IRA'') with respect to which a
Citigroup Affiliated QPAM relies on PTE 84-14, or with respect to which
a Citigroup Affiliated QPAM (or any Citigroup affiliate) has expressly
represented that the manager qualifies as a QPAM or relies on the QPAM
class exemption (PTE 84-14). A Covered Plan does not include an ERISA-
covered Plan or IRA to the extent the Citigroup Affiliated QPAM has
expressly disclaimed reliance on QPAM status or PTE 84-14 in entering
into its contract, arrangement, or agreement with the ERISA-covered
plan or IRA.
(c) The terms ``ERISA-covered plan'' and ``IRA'' mean,
respectively, a plan subject to Part 4 of Title I of ERISA and a plan
subject to section 4975 of the Code.
(d) The term ``Exemption Period'' means January 10, 2018, through
January 9, 2023.
(e) The term ``Citicorp'' means Citicorp, a financial services
holding company organized and existing under the laws of Delaware and
does not include any subsidiaries or other affiliates.
(f) The term ``Citigroup Affiliated QPAM'' means a ``qualified
professional asset manager'' (as defined in Section VI(a) of PTE 84-14)
that relies on the relief provided by PTE 84-14 and with respect to
which Citigroup is a current or future ``affiliate'' (as defined in
Section VI(d)(1) of PTE 84-14). The term ``Citigroup Affiliated QPAM''
excludes Citicorp, the entity implicated in the criminal conduct that
is the subject of the Conviction.
(g) The term ``Citigroup Related QPAM'' means any current or future
``qualified professional asset manager'' (as defined in section VI(a)
of PTE 84-14) that relies on the relief provided by PTE 84-14, and with
respect to which Citigroup owns a direct or indirect five percent or
more interest, but with respect to which Citigroup is not an
``affiliate'' (as defined in Section VI(d)(1) of PTE 84-14).
Effective Date
This exemption is effective on January 10, 2018. The term of the
exemption is from January 10, 2018, through January 9, 2023 (the
Exemption Period).
Department's Comment: The Department cautions that the relief in
this exemption would terminate immediately if an entity within the
Citigroup corporate structure is convicted of a crime described in
Section I(g) of PTE 84-14 (other than the Conviction) during the
effective period of the exemption. While such an entity could apply for
a new exemption in that circumstance, the Department would not be
obligated to grant the exemption. The terms of this exemption have been
specifically designed to permit plans to terminate their relationships
in an orderly and cost effective fashion in the event of an additional
conviction or a determination that it is otherwise prudent for a plan
to terminate its relationship with an entity covered by the proposed
exemption.
Further Information
For more information on this exemption, contact Mr. Joseph Brennan
of the Department, telephone (202) 693-8456. (This is not a toll-free
number.)
Barclays Capital Inc. (BCI or the Applicant) Located in New York, New
York
[Prohibited Transaction Exemption 2017-06; Exemption Application No. D-
11910]
Discussion
On November 21, 2016, the Department of Labor (the Department)
published a notice of proposed exemption in the Federal Register at 81
FR 83427, for certain entities with specified relationships to Barclays
PLC (BPLC) to continue to rely upon the relief provided by PTE 84-14
for a period of five years,\48\ notwithstanding BPLC's criminal
conviction, as described herein. The Department is granting this
exemption in order to ensure that Covered Plans \49\ whose assets are
managed by a Barclays Affiliated QPAM or Barclays Related QPAM may
continue to benefit from the relief provided by PTE 84-14. This
exemption is effective from January 10, 2018 through January 9, 2023
(the Exemption Period).
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\48\ (49 FR 9494, March 13, 1984), as corrected at 50 FR 41430
(October 10, 1985), as amended at 70 FR 49305 (August 23, 2005) and
as amended at 75 FR 38837 (July 6, 2010), hereinafter referred to as
PTE 84-14 or the QPAM Exemption.
\49\ ``Covered Plan'' is a plan subject to Part 4 of Title 1 of
ERISA (``ERISA-covered plan'') or a plan subject to section 4975 of
the Code (``IRA'') with respect to which a Barclays Affiliated QPAM
relies on PTE 84-14, or with respect to which a Barclays Affiliated
QPAM (or any BPLC affiliate) has expressly represented that the
manager qualifies as a QPAM or relies on the QPAM class exemption
(PTE 84-14). A Covered Plan does not include an ERISA-covered Plan
or IRA to the extent the Barclays Affiliated QPAM has expressly
disclaimed reliance on QPAM status or PTE 84-14 in entering into its
contract, arrangement or agreement with the ERISA-covered plan or
IRA. See further discussion in this Preamble under the heading
Comments 9, 10 & 11--Policies and Procedures Relating to Compliance
with ERISA and the Code--Section (I)(ii)-(v).
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No relief from a violation of any other law is provided by this
exemption, including any criminal conviction described in the proposed
exemption. Furthermore, the Department cautions that the relief in this
exemption will terminate immediately if, among other things, an entity
within the BPLC corporate structure is convicted of a crime described
in Section I(g) of PTE 84-14 (other than the Conviction) during the
Exemption Period. The terms of this exemption have been specifically
designed to promote conduct that adheres to basic fiduciary standards
under ERISA and the Code. The exemption also aims to ensure that plans
and IRAs can terminate relationships in an orderly and cost effective
fashion in the event a plan or IRA fiduciary determines it is prudent
for the plan or IRA to sever its relationship with an entity covered by
the exemption.
Written Comments
The Department invited all interested persons to submit written
comments and/or requests for a public hearing with respect to the
notice of proposed exemption, published in the Federal Register at 81
FR 83427 on November 21, 2016.\50\ All comments and requests for a
hearing were due by January 5, 2017. The Department received written
comments from the Applicant and members of the U.S. Congress. After
considering these submissions, the Department has determined to grant
the exemption, with revisions, as described below.
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\50\ The Department received additional comments from Applicant,
however, after the close of the comment period.
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Comment 1--Confirmation of the Comment Period Deadline
The Applicant requests that the Department confirm that the
reference in the preamble to the proposed exemption to comments being
due within 30 days was unintentional and the deadline for comments was
January 5, 2017. The Department so confirms.
Comment 2--Term of the Exemption
The Applicant requests that the Department extend the term of the
exemption from five years to ten years from the Conviction Date, as
defined in Section II(e). The Applicant states that the five-year term
is inconsistent with precedent and that the ``conduct that is the
subject of BPLC's conviction was described by the Department of Justice
(DOJ) as `limited to a small part of [BPLC's] operations;' it involved
only two traders; and it did not involve any of BPLC's asset management
units.'' The Applicant further states that the limitation to five years
is especially problematic given that the DOJ plea
[[Page 61882]]
agreement with BPLC marked the first time that DOJ awarded a sentencing
credit for a company's compliance and remediation efforts and that DOJ
singled out BPLC for recognition and credit for its significant
improvements to its compliance program and its ``dramatic steps to
change its corporate culture.'' In addition, the Applicant states that
DOJ called BPLC ``a leader in its efforts toward remediation'' and
highlighted its ``extraordinary dedication'' to timely reporting of
potential misconduct before it was under any reporting obligation, and
that DOJ also lauded BPLC's cooperation during the investigative phase,
which it characterized as ``uniquely helpful'' and ``of critical
importance.''
Although the Applicant characterizes the conduct as involving the
isolated actions of two individuals, the Department does not agree with
the apparent suggestion that the Applicant bears little or no
responsibility for the criminal conduct. For example, the Department
considered BPLC's Plea Agreement, which includes the following
statement, under the heading Other Relevant Conduct: ``The defendant,
through its currency traders and sales staff, also engaged in other
currency trading and sales practices in conducting FX Spot Market
transactions with customers via telephone, email, and/or electronic
chat, to wit: (i) Intentionally working customers' limit orders one or
more levels, or `pips,' away from the price confirmed with the
customer; (ii) including sales markup, through the use of live hand
signals or undisclosed prior internal arrangements or communications,
to prices given to customers that communicated with sales staff on open
phone lines; (iii) accepting limit orders from customers and then
informing those customers that their orders could not be filled, in
whole or in part, when in fact the defendant was able to fill the order
but decided not to do so because the defendant expected it would be
more profitable not to do so; and (iv) disclosing non-public
information regarding the identity and trading activity of the
defendant's customers to other banks or other market participants, in
order to generate revenue for the defendant at the expense of its
customers.''
In developing this exemption, the Department also considered
relevant statements from regulators. For example, the Financial Conduct
Authority's (FCA) Final Notice states that, ``[d]uring the Relevant
Period, Barclays did not exercise adequate and effective control over
its FX business. . . . The front office failed adequately to discharge
these responsibilities with regard to obvious risks associated with
confidentiality, conflicts of interest and trading conduct.'' The
Notice further states: ``These failings occurred in circumstances where
certain of those responsible for managing front office matters were
aware of and/or at times involved in behaviours described above.''
By way of further example, the Order of the Commodities Futures
Trading Commission (CFTC) states: ``Barclays failed to adequately
assess the risks associated with its FX traders participating in the
fixing of certain FX benchmark rates. Barclays also lacked adequate
internal controls in order to prevent its FX traders from engaging in
improper communications with certain FX traders at other banks.
Barclays lacked sufficient policies, procedures and training
specifically governing participation in the trading around the FX
benchmark rates and had inadequate policies pertaining to, or
insufficient oversight of, its FX traders' use of chat rooms or other
electronic messaging.''
The Department also notes the size of relevant fines imposed by
various regulators: The Department of Justice imposed a $710 million
fine; the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve Board imposed a
$342 million fine; and the Department of Financial Services, the
Commodity Futures Trading Commission, and the FCA imposed fines of $485
million, $400 million, and [pound]284,432,000, respectively.
This exemption is not punitive. Instead, its five-year term and
protective conditions reflect the Department's intent to protect
Covered Plans that entrust substantial assets to a Barclays Affiliated
QPAM, despite the serious misconduct and supervisory failures described
above. The limited term of this exemption gives the Department the
opportunity to review the adherence by the Barclays Affiliated QPAMs to
the conditions set out herein. If the Applicant seeks an extension of
this exemption, the Department will examine whether the compliance and
oversight changes mandated by various regulatory authorities are having
their desired effect on BPLC entities.
Comment 3--Conditions Unrelated to PTE 84-14 and Imposition of Onerous
Requirements
The Department addresses this general comment more fully below in
response to certain specific issues that are related to this general
comment.
Comment 4--Description of Criminal Conduct--Section I
The prefatory language to Section I of the proposed exemption
provides, ``If the proposed five-year exemption is granted, certain
asset managers with specified relationships to BPLC (the Barclays
Affiliated QPAMs and the Barclays Related QPAMs, as defined further in
Sections II(a) and II(b), respectively) will not be precluded from
relying on the exemptive relief provided by Prohibited Transaction
Class Exemption 84-14 (PTE 84-14 or the QPAM Exemption),\51\
notwithstanding the judgment of conviction against BPLC (the
Conviction), as defined in Section II(c)),\52\ for engaging in a
conspiracy to: (1) Fix the price of, or (2) eliminate competition in
the purchase or sale of the euro/U.S. dollar currency pair exchanged in
the Foreign Exchange (FX) Spot Market, for a period of five years
beginning on the date the exemption is granted.''
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\51\ 49 FR 9494 (March 13, 1984), as corrected at 50 FR 41430
(October 10, 1985), as amended at 70 FR 49305 (August 23, 2005), and
as amended at 75 FR 38837 (July 6, 2010).
\52\ Section I(g) of PTE 84-14 generally provides that
``[n]either the QPAM nor any affiliate thereof . . . nor any owner .
. . of a 5 percent or more interest in the QPAM is a person who
within the 10 years immediately preceding the transaction has been
either convicted or released from imprisonment, whichever is later,
as a result of'' certain felonies including violation of the Sherman
Antitrust Act, Title 15 United States Code, Section 1.
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The Applicant requests that the description of the charged
conduct--the clause beginning ``for engaging in a conspiracy''--be
omitted. The Applicant states that this description is inaccurate and
incomplete, will lead to disputes with counterparties to the detriment
of plans, and will make it unlikely that plans will benefit from or be
protected by this exemption.
After consideration of the Applicant's comment, the Department has
clarified the exemption's description of BPLC's criminal conduct.
Comment 5--Knowing or Tacit Approval--Sections I(a) and I(c)
Section I(a) of the proposed five-year exemption provides, ``(a)
Other than certain individuals who: Worked for a non-fiduciary business
within BCI; had no responsibility for, and exercised no authority in
connection with, the management of plan assets; and are no longer
employed by BPLC, the Barclays Affiliated QPAMs and the Barclays
Related QPAMs (including their officers, directors, agents other than
BPLC, and employees of such QPAMs who had responsibility for, or
exercised authority in connection with the management of plan assets)
did not know of, did not have reason to know of, or participate in the
criminal conduct that is the subject of the Conviction (for purposes
[[Page 61883]]
of this paragraph (a), ``participate in'' includes the knowing or tacit
approval of the misconduct underlying the Conviction).''
Section I(c) of the proposed exemption provides, ``(c) A Barclays
Affiliated QPAM will not employ or knowingly engage any of the
individuals that participated in the criminal conduct that is the
subject of the Conviction (for purposes of this paragraph (c),
``participated in'' includes the knowing or tacit approval of the
misconduct underlying the Conviction).''
The Applicant requests that the words ``or tacit'' in the phrase
``knowing or tacit approval'' be deleted in Sections I(a) and I(c). The
Applicant states that the term ``tacit approval'' ``is undefined and
ambiguous, and potentially encompasses a broad range of conduct that
could become the subject of disputes with counterparties.'' In
addition, the Applicant states that the reference to the individuals
being ``no longer employed by BPLC'' in Section I(a) implies that the
individuals referenced in this condition were employed directly by
BPLC. However, the Applicant states that, as outlined in Applicant's
December 6, 2016 letter to the Department, the two individuals
referenced in Paragraph 4(g) of the Plea Agreement were employed by a
service company subsidiary of a BPLC subsidiary. The Applicant suggests
that Section I(a) be revised to read, ''Other than certain individuals
who: Worked for a nonfiduciary business of a BPLC subsidiary; had no
responsibility for, and exercised no authority in connection with, the
management of plan assets; and are no longer employed by the BPLC
subsidiary, the Barclays Affiliated QPAMs (including their officers,
directors, agents other than BPLC, and employees of such QPAMs who had
responsibility for, or exercised authority in connection with the
management of plan assets) did not know of, have reason to know of, or
participate in the criminal conduct that is the subject of the
Conviction (for purposes of this paragraph (a), ``participate in''
includes the knowing approval of the misconduct underlying the
Conviction).''
With respect to Condition I(a), after consideration of the
Applicant's comment, the Department has removed ``or tacit'' in the
phrase ``knowing or tacit approval'' and removed the phrase ``no longer
employed by BPLC,'' and accepted the Applicant's suggested revision to
replace ``BCI'' with ``BPLC subsidiary'' where remaining in the
condition. However, the Department has not accepted the Applicant's
suggestion to remove ``Barclays Related QPAMs'' from the condition. The
Department intends to preclude relief to the extent a Barclays Related
QPAM violates this condition. With respect to Condition I(c), the
Department has revised the exemption in the manner requested by the
Applicant.
Comment 6--Inclusion of BCI--Sections I(d), I(g), and I(h)(1)(i)
Section I(d) of the proposed five-year exemption provides, ``A
Barclays Affiliated QPAM will not use its authority or influence to
direct an ``investment fund,'' (as defined in Section VI(b) of PTE 84-
14) that is subject to ERISA or the Code and managed by such Barclays
Affiliated QPAM to enter into any transaction with BPLC or BCI, or
engage BPLC to provide any service to such investment fund, for a
direct or indirect fee borne by such investment fund, regardless of
whether such transaction or service may otherwise be within the scope
of relief provided by an administrative or statutory exemption.''
Section I(g) of the proposed five-year exemption provides, ``(g)
BPLC and BCI will not provide discretionary asset management services
to ERISA-covered plans or IRAs, nor will otherwise act as a fiduciary
with respect to ERISA-covered plan or IRA assets.''
Section I(h)(1)(i) of the proposed five-year exemption provides,
``(h)(1)(i) The asset management decisions of the Barclays Affiliated
QPAM are conducted independently of the corporate management and
business activities of BPLC and BCI.''
The Applicant requests removal of the reference to ``BCI'' in this
Section I(d), Section I(g), and Section I(h)(1)(i). Among other things,
the Applicant states that as BCI is not the party to the Conviction,
and therefore, the inclusion of BCI in this condition goes beyond the
underlying Conviction. In addition, the Applicant states that, as noted
in its December 6, 2016 letter to the Department, the two individuals
referenced in Paragraph 4(g) of the Plea Agreement were employed by a
service company subsidiary of a different BPLC subsidiary and were not
``dual-hatted'' to BCI. Further, the Applicant states that BCI was, and
in the future is likely to be, the primary U.S. registered investment
adviser of the Barclays Group, and any future investment management
mandates would likely be undertaken by BCI. Thus, the Applicant states
that not permitting an Affiliated QPAM to enter into a transaction with
BCI is tantamount to a denial of the exemption. The Applicant also
states that this condition would prevent BCI or its parent entity from
purchasing an asset manager and merging the asset manager into BCI, and
would also prevent BCI from developing new lines of business providing
asset management or securities lending businesses to plans.
In response, the Department notes that the condition was developed
based on a representation from the Applicant in a letter dated November
2, 2015. In that letter the Applicant stated that, ``the Investment
Bank division, where such conduct arose, and the Wealth and Investment
Management division both operated through BCI, one of the QPAMs, at the
time of the criminal conduct; however, as also noted above and
discussed in the Application, the Wealth and Investment Management
activities of BCI were operated separately from the Investment Bank
division and the activities of the Investment Bank division that gave
rise to the criminal conduct, and as such, it is important to
distinguish the Wealth and Investment Management employees from the
other BCI employees. The `Wealth and Investment Management employees'
were specifically mentioned because there were Investment Bank division
employees of BCI who were involved in the criminal conduct that is the
subject of the Plea Agreement.''
Notwithstanding this, given the conditions required herein as
discussed below, the Department has determined to revise the exemption
in the manner requested by the Applicant, and has also clarified that
paragraph (d) applies to an ``investment fund'' that is subject to
ERISA or the Code and managed by such Barclays Affiliated QPAM with
respect to Covered Plans.
Comment 7--Exercising Authority Over Plan Assets--Section I(f)
Section I(f) of the proposed five-year exemption provides, ``(f) A
Barclays Affiliated QPAM or a Barclays Related QPAM did not exercise
authority over the assets of any plan subject to Part 4 of Title I of
ERISA (an ERISA-covered plan) or section 4975 of the Code (an IRA) in a
manner that it knew or should have known would: Further the criminal
conduct that is the subject of the Conviction; or cause the Barclays
Affiliated QPAM or the Barclays Related QPAM or its affiliates or
related parties to directly or indirectly profit from the criminal
conduct that is the subject of the Conviction.''
The Applicant requests that the words ``related parties'' in the
phrase ``Barclays Affiliated QPAM or the Barclays Related QPAM, or its
affiliates or related parties'' be deleted, stating that the term
[[Page 61884]]
``related parties'' is undefined and could lead to confusion.
For clarity, the Department has deleted the term ``related
parties.''
Comment 8--See Comment 6 Re: Section I(g)
Section I(g) of the proposed five-year exemption provides, ``(g)
BPLC and BCI will not provide discretionary asset management services
to ERISA-covered plans or IRAs, nor will otherwise act as a fiduciary
with respect to ERISA-covered plan or IRA assets.''
The Applicant requests removal of the reference to ``BCI'' in this
Section I(g), and for the reasons discussed above, the Department has
determined to revise the exemption in the manner requested by the
Applicant. Additionally, the Department modified this condition to
clarify that BPLC will not violate this condition in the event that it
inadvertently becomes an investment advice fiduciary and that BPLC can
act as a fiduciary for plans that it sponsors for its own employees or
employees of an affiliate.
Comments 9, 10 & 11--Policies and Procedures Relating to Compliance
With ERISA and the Code--Section I(h)(1)(ii)-(v)
Section I(h)(1)(ii)-(iii) of the proposed five-year exemption
provides, ''(h)(1) Prior to a Barclays Affiliated QPAM's engagement by
any ERISA-covered plan or IRA for discretionary asset management
services, where the QPAM represents that it qualifies as a QPAM, the
Barclays Affiliated QPAM must develop, implement, maintain, and follow
written policies and procedures (the Policies) requiring and reasonably
designed to ensure that: . . . .
(ii) The Barclays Affiliated QPAM fully complies with ERISA's
fiduciary duties and with ERISA and the Code's prohibited transaction
provisions, and does not knowingly participate in any violation of
these duties and provisions with respect to ERISA-covered plans and
IRAs; and
(iii) The Barclays Affiliated QPAM does not knowingly participate
in any other person's violation of ERISA or the Code with respect to
ERISA-covered plans and IRAs;''
(iv) Any filings or statements made by the Barclays Affiliated QPAM
to regulators including, but not limited to, the Department, the
Department of the Treasury, the Department of Justice, and the Pension
Benefit Guaranty Corporation, on behalf of ERISA-covered plans or IRAs,
are materially accurate and complete, to the best of such QPAM's
knowledge at that time; [and]
(v) The Barclays Affiliated QPAM does not make material
misrepresentations or omit material information in its communications
with such regulators with respect to ERISA-covered plans or IRAs, or
make material misrepresentations or omit material information in its
communications with ERISA-covered plans and IRA clients.''
The Applicant requests that these subparagraphs be stricken as
duplicative and already mandated by statute. The Applicant states that
these conditions should apply only with regard to filings or statements
made on behalf of ERISA-covered plans or IRAs in connection with
accounts for which the Barclays Affiliated QPAM relies on the relief
provided by PTE 84-14. The Applicant states that the conditions should
be tailored to PTE 84-14 in all instances.
Subsection (iii): The Applicant requests that Section I(h)(1)(iii)
be stricken. The Applicant states that, to the extent that Subsection
I(h)(1)(iii) is intended to capture violations of ERISA or the Code
that are not described in the preceding Subsection (such as ERISA
disclosure requirements), such violations would not be within the scope
of relief provided by the proposed exemption.
Subsection (iv): The Applicant suggests that the condition be
revised to read, ``(iv) Any filings or statements made by the Barclays
Affiliated QPAM to regulators, including, but not limited to, the
Department, the Department of the Treasury, the Department of Justice,
and the Pension Benefit Guaranty Corporation, on behalf of ERISA-
covered plans or IRAs for which the Barclays Affiliated QPAM provides
asset management or other discretionary fiduciary services in reliance
on PTE 84-14, are materially accurate and complete, to the best of such
QPAM's knowledge at that time.''
Subsection (v): The Applicant requests that the condition in
Section I(h)(1)(v) incorporate language similar to Section I(h)(1)(iv),
which provides that the condition extends ``to the best of such QPAM's
knowledge at that time.''
The requirement of Section I(h) that the policies and procedures
developed by the Barclays Affiliated QPAM reflect basic fiduciary norms
is a protective measure that is amply justified by the substantial
compliance and oversight failures that resulted in the Conviction and
fines, and in the need for this exemption, as detailed above.
Accordingly, the Department has substantially retained the condition.
It has, however, revised the condition's scope to better match the
Department's protective intent. In particular, subsection (v) has been
revised to contain the ``to the best of such QPAM's knowledge at that
time'' concept found in Subsection (iv); and the applicability of
Subsections (iv) and (v) has been limited to Covered Plans. This
revision is consistent with the Department's intent to protect ERISA-
covered Plans and IRAs that may hire a Barclays Affiliated QPAM based
on the manager's express representation that it relies on or qualifies
under PTE 84-14.
As noted in more detail below, the Department will not strike a
condition merely because the condition is also a statutory requirement.
It is the express intent of the Department to preclude relief for a
Barclays Affiliated QPAM that fails to meet the requirements of this
exemption, including those derived from basic standards codified in
statute, as applicable.
The Department does not view subparagraph (iii) of Section I(h)(1),
which relates to compliance with ERISA or the Code, as duplicative of
subparagraph (ii), which relates to compliance with, and knowing
violations of, certain provisions of ERISA or the Code. However, the
Department has modified the Policies' requirement of adherence to the
fiduciary and prohibited transaction provisions of ERISA and the Code
so that the Policies expressly focus on the provisions only to the
extent those provisions are ``applicable'' under ERISA and the Code.
Comment 12--Correction of Violations and Failures to Comply--Section
I(h)(1)(vii)
Section I(h)(1)(vii) of the proposed five-year exemption provides
that, ``(h)(1) Prior to a Barclays Affiliated QPAM's engagement by any
ERISA-covered plan or IRA for discretionary asset management services,
where the QPAM represents that it qualifies as a QPAM, the Barclays
Affiliated QPAM must develop, implement, maintain, and follow written
policies and procedures (the Policies) requiring and reasonably
designed to ensure that: . . .
(vii) Any violation of, or failure to comply with, an item in
subparagraphs (ii) through (vi), is corrected promptly upon discovery,
and any such violation or compliance failure not promptly corrected is
reported, upon the discovery of such failure to promptly correct, in
writing, to appropriate corporate officers, the head of compliance, and
the General Counsel (or their functional equivalent) of the relevant
Barclays Affiliated QPAM, the independent auditor responsible for
reviewing compliance with the Policies, and an appropriate fiduciary of
any affected ERISA-covered plan or IRA that
[[Page 61885]]
is independent of BPLC; however, with respect to any ERISA-covered plan
or IRA sponsored by an `affiliate' (as defined in Section VI(d) of PTE
84-14) of BPLC or beneficially owned by an employee of BPLC or its
affiliates, such fiduciary does not need to be independent of BPLC. A
Barclays Affiliated QPAM will not be treated as having failed to
develop, implement, maintain, or follow the Policies, provided that it
corrects any instance of noncompliance promptly when discovered, or
when it reasonably should have known of the noncompliance (whichever is
earlier), and provided that it adheres to the reporting requirements
set forth in this subparagraph (vii).''
The Applicant cites this condition as an example of how the
Department made the proposed exemption ``inexplicably'' and
``arbitrarily'' more burdensome and onerous than other such exemptions
it has granted previously. More specifically, the Applicant seeks
several revisions to Section I(h)(vii), stating that its notification
requirements are overbroad and that the terms such as ``promptly,''
``appropriate corporate officers'' and ``appropriate fiduciary'' are
either vague or undefined. The Applicant requests that the
``subparagraphs (ii) through (vi)'' reference be revised to
``subparagraphs (i) through (vi),'' and that the language be revised to
provide that this condition is satisfied where the issue is reported to
the corporate officers specifically identified in the condition and, if
the plan reporting provision is not removed, to a plan fiduciary that
satisfies the requirement that it be independent of BPLC, other than
with respect to the Applicant's own plans. The Applicant requests also
that the last sentence of the subparagraph be revised since it ``does
not meaningfully provide relief in instances where a violation or
compliance failure is corrected.''
The Applicant suggests the condition in Section I(h)(1)(vii) be
revised to read, ``(vii) Any violation of, or failure to comply with,
an item in subparagraphs (i) through (vi), is corrected (or plans to
correct are initiated) upon discovery, and any such violation or
compliance failure not corrected (or a correction process initiated) is
reported, upon the discovery of such failure to initiate correction
efforts, in writing, to the head of compliance and the General Counsel
(or their functional equivalent) of the relevant Barclays Affiliated
QPAM. A Barclays Affiliated QPAM will not be treated as having failed
to develop, implement, maintain, or follow the Policies, provided that
it takes corrective action as to any instance of noncompliance when
discovered, or when it reasonably should have known of the
noncompliance (whichever is earlier), and provided that it adheres to
the reporting requirements set forth in this subparagraph (vii).''
In response to the Applicant's general comment, the Department has
based the conditions of this exemption on both the particular facts of
this case and its experience over time with previous exemptions. For
the reasons set out herein, the Department has concluded that the
specific conditions of this exemption are appropriate and give the
Department a reasonable basis for concluding that the conditions are
appropriately protective of affected plans and IRAs. As noted above, a
central aim of the exemption is to ensure that those relying upon the
exemption for relief from the prohibited transaction rules will
consistently act to promote a culture of fiduciary compliance,
notwithstanding the conduct that violated Section I(g) of PTE 84-14.
After considering the Applicant's specific requests for revisions,
however, the Department has replaced ``appropriate corporate officers''
with ``the head of compliance and the General Counsel (or their
functional equivalent) of the relevant line of business that engaged in
the violation or failure.'' The Department also will not condition the
exemption on a requirement for notification of violations to an
appropriate fiduciary of any affected Covered Plan that is independent
of BPLC.
However, the Department is not revising the ``subparagraphs (ii)
through (vi)'' reference to include ``subparagraph (i)'' because the
Department intends to preclude relief to the extent a Barclays
Affiliated QPAM fails to develop, implement, maintain, and follow
written policies and procedures. Clearly, it is not enough merely to
develop policies and procedures, without also implementing,
maintaining, and following the terms of those policies and procedures.
Covered Plans do not benefit from the creation of strong policies and
procedures, unless they are actually followed.
The Department has revised the term ``promptly'' for consistency
with the Department's intent that violations or compliance failures be
corrected ``as soon as reasonably possible upon discovery or as soon
after the QPAM reasonably should have known of the noncompliance
(whichever is earlier).'' However, contrary to the Applicant's
suggestion, the Department intends to preclude relief to the extent
violations or failures are not corrected as required by the exemption.
Therefore, the Department has not adopted the Applicant's proposed
subparagraph (vii), which requires little more than a plan for
corrective action, without any corresponding obligation to actually
implement the action.
Comment 13--Training Incorporated in Policies--Section I(h)(2)(i)
Section I(h)(2)(i) of the proposed five-year exemption provides,
``. . . The Training must: (i) Be set forth in the Policies and, at a
minimum, cover the Policies, ERISA and Code compliance (including
applicable fiduciary duties and the prohibited transaction provisions),
ethical conduct, the consequences for not complying with the conditions
of this five-year exemption (including any loss of exemptive relief
provided herein), and prompt reporting of wrongdoing.''
The Applicant requests that the requirement in Section I(h)(2)(i)
that the Training must ``[b]e set forth in the Policies'' be deleted.
The Applicant states that the requirement could present logistical
challenges as a Barclays Affiliated QPAM may update its Training and
its Policies at different points in time. The Applicant further states
that requiring that the former be incorporated into the latter merely
increases the logistical burden and serves no useful purpose.
After considering this comment, the Department has determined to
revise the condition to address the Applicant's concerns that it could
present logistical challenges.
Accordingly, the Department has revised the subsection to read that
the Training must: ``At a minimum, cover the Policies, ERISA and Code
compliance (including applicable fiduciary duties and the prohibited
transaction provisions), ethical conduct, the consequences for not
complying with the conditions of this exemption (including any loss of
exemptive relief provided herein), and prompt reporting of
wrongdoing.''
Comment 14--Training by Independent Professional--Section I(h)(2)(ii)
Section I(h)(2)(ii) of the proposed five-year exemption provides,
``The Training must: . . . (ii) Be conducted by an independent
professional who has been prudently selected and who has appropriate
technical training and proficiency with ERISA and the Code.''
The Applicant requests that Section I(h)(2)(i) be deleted, stating
that requiring an ``independent professional'' to conduct the training
is likely to be ``counterproductive, as the
[[Page 61886]]
most effective trainer may be someone with detailed knowledge of the
Barclays Affiliated QPAM's business and compliance practices that an
`independent' trainer may lack.'' Moreover, the Applicant states that
the term ``independent professional'' is undefined, leading to
potential confusion and disputes. Further, the Applicant states that
the term ``technical training'' is duplicative of ``proficiency'' and
is undefined. Therefore, the Applicant suggests eliminating that term,
and requests that Section I(h)(2)(ii) be revised to read, ``Be
conducted by an individual with significant understanding and
familiarity with asset management and trading practices and who has
appropriate proficiency with ERISA and the Code.''
The Department has partially accepted the Applicant's request as to
the suggested revision so that ``independent professional'' has been
replaced with ``individual with significant understanding and
familiarity with asset management and trading practices'' but has not
removed the requirement that such person be prudently selected.
Additionally, the Department disagrees with the Applicant's assertion
that the phrase ``technical training and proficiency'' is duplicative.
In the Department's view, the two terms are not synonymous, as a person
may have taken technical training in a given subject matter but may not
be proficient in that subject matter.
Further, while the Department does not agree with the Applicant's
characterization that hiring an appropriate independent professional,
prudently selected, would be ``counterproductive,'' the Department is
persuaded that appropriate Barclays personnel, who are prudently
selected, should be allowed to conduct the training, and has revised
the condition accordingly.
Comment 15--Audit--Section I(i)(1)
Section I(i)(1) of the proposed five-year exemption requires that
each ``Barclays Affiliated QPAM submits to an audit conducted annually
by an independent auditor, who has been prudently selected and who has
appropriate technical training and proficiency with ERISA and the Code,
to evaluate the adequacy of, and the Barclays Affiliated QPAM's
compliance with, the Policies and Training described herein. The audit
requirement must be incorporated in the Policies. Each annual audit
must cover a consecutive twelve (12) month period starting with the
twelve (12) month period that begins on the date that a Barclays
Affiliated QPAM is first engaged by any ERISA-covered plan or IRA for
discretionary asset management services reliant on PTE 84-14, and each
annual audit must be completed no later than six (6) months after the
period to which the audit applies.''
The Applicant requests that the requirement that the audit
requirement be incorporated in the Policies be deleted because it is
already a condition of exemptive relief and incorporation into the
Policies is, therefore, ``duplicative'' and appears to serve no useful
purpose. In addition, the Applicant represents that the timing of the
audit should factor into the timing of the proposed one-year exemption.
The Applicant states that it is possible that the ``date that a
Barclays Affiliated QPAM is first engaged'' could come before the
effective date of the permanent exemption, rendering the timing
unclear, and that the condition should clarify that the audit period
will commence only after the effective date of this exemption. Further,
the Applicant requests the elimination of the phrase ``technical
training,'' because the term ``technical training'' is duplicative of
``proficiency'' and is undefined.
The Department declines to make certain of the Applicant's
requested revisions. The Department views the audit requirement as an
integral component of the exemption, without which the Department would
be unable to make its finding that the exemption is protective of
Covered Plans and their participants, beneficiaries, and beneficial
owners, as applicable. A recurring, independent audit of the Barclays
Affiliated QPAMs is a critical means by which to verify the adequacy
of, and compliance with the Policies and Training mandated by this
exemption.
The Department disagrees with the Applicant's assertion that the
phrase ``technical training and proficiency'' is duplicative. In the
Department's view, the two terms are not synonymous, as a person may
have taken technical training in a given subject matter but may not be
proficient in that subject matter. The exemption requires that the
auditor be both technically trained and proficient in ERISA as well as
the Code. Accordingly, the Department declines to change the phrase
``technical training and proficiency'' as used in Section I(i)(1).
The Department also declines to delete the requirement that the
audit conditions be incorporated in the Policies. The audit requirement
provides a critical independent check on compliance with this
exemption's conditions, and helps ensure that the basic protections set
forth in the Policies are taken seriously. Accordingly, the specifics
of the audit requirement are important components of the Policies.
Their inclusion in the Policies promotes compliance and sends an
important message to the institutions' employees and agents, as well as
to Covered Plan clients, that compliance with the policies and
procedures will be subject to careful independent review.
After consideration of the Applicant's concerns regarding the
annual audit, the Department is revising the audit condition to require
an audit on a biennial basis. The Department notes that if the audit
uncovers material deficiencies with the Applicant's compliance with
this exemption, then the Applicant should consider conducting an
additional audit after making corrections to ensure that it remains in
compliance with the exemption. In any event, the Department emphasizes
that it retains the right to conduct its own investigation of
compliance based on any indicators of problems. Finally, the Department
has clarified the audit timing requirements.
Comment 16--Access to Business--Section I(i)(2)
Section I(i)(2) of the proposed five-year exemption requires that
``as permitted by law, each Barclays Affiliated QPAM and, if
applicable, BPLC, will grant the auditor unconditional access to its
business. . . .''
The Applicant requests that the access granted by Section I(i)(2)
be limited to non-privileged materials that do not contain trade
secrets. The Applicant represents that the existing limitations can be
read not to exclude such materials and, given the breadth of the
``unconditional access'' described, the absence of a specific
limitation could lead to confusion, disputes, and infringement on a
Barclays Affiliated QPAM's rights to protect its privileged
communications and trade secrets. The Applicant suggests that the
language read, ``as permitted by law, each Barclays Affiliated QPAM
and, if applicable and solely to determine if the provisions of the
exemption involving BPLC are met, BPLC will grant the auditor
unconditional access to its business. . . .''
In the Department's view, to ensure a thorough and robust audit,
the auditor must be granted access to information the auditor deems
necessary for the auditor to make sound conclusions. Access to such
information must be within the scope of the audit
[[Page 61887]]
engagement and denied only to the extent any disclosure is not
permitted by state or federal statute. Enumerating specific
restrictions on the accessibility of certain information may have a
dampening effect on the auditor's ability to perform the procedures
necessary to make valid conclusions and would therefore undermine the
effectiveness of the audit. The auditor's access to such information,
however, is limited to information relevant to the auditor's objectives
as specified by the terms of the exemption and to the extent disclosure
is not prevented by state or federal statute or involves communications
subject to attorney client privilege. In this regard, the Department
has modified Section I(i)(2) accordingly.
The Department has modified Section I(i)(2) so that it begins with
the phrase ``Within the scope of the audit.''
Comment 17--Engagement Letter--Section I(i)(3)
Section I(i)(3) of the proposed five-year exemption requires the
auditor's engagement to ``specifically require the auditor to determine
whether each Barclays Affiliated QPAM has developed, implemented,
maintained, and followed the Policies in accordance with the conditions
of this five-year exemption, if granted, and has developed and
implemented the Training, as required herein.''
The Applicant requests that Section I(i)(3) be deleted in its
entirety, stating that it is duplicative of the requirements in Section
I(i)(1) of the exemption, which also sets forth requirements as to the
auditor's skill and the prudence of the selection process. Further, the
Applicant suggests that it serves no useful purpose to mandate that the
engagement letter repeat the requirements of the exemption and that
such level of detail in the engagement is unnecessary in light of the
detailed requirements of the exemption.
The Department does not concur with the Applicant's request. By
including a statement of the audit's intended purpose and required
determinations in the auditor's agreement, the Applicant ensures that
both the auditor and the Barclays Affiliated QPAMs have a clear
understanding of the purpose and expectations of the audit process.
Therefore, the Department declines to omit Section I(i)(3) from the
exemption.
Comment 18--Auditor's Test of Operational Compliance--Section I(i)(4)
Section I(i)(4) of the proposed five-year exemption provides that,
``[t]he auditor's engagement must specifically require the auditor to
test each Barclays Affiliated QPAM's operational compliance with the
Policies and Training. In this regard, the auditor must test a sample
of each QPAM's transactions involving ERISA-covered plans and IRAs
sufficient in size and nature to afford the auditor a reasonable basis
to determine the operational compliance with the Policies and
Training.''
The Applicant requests that Section I(i)(4) be deleted in its
entirety or, in the alternative, that the second sentence of the
condition be deleted. As noted above, the Applicant states that Section
I(i)(1) sets forth the scope of the audit and contains requirements as
to the auditor's technical skill and the prudence of the selection
process. The Applicant suggests that, in light of these requirements, a
condition mandating how the auditor must perform the audit is
unnecessary. The Applicant states that there are only two firms that
hold themselves out as having the capacity to handle these audits, and
neither is a regular audit firm that can test significant data in the
very short time frames provided in these exemptions. The Applicant
represents that the Department should leave to the independent judgment
of the auditor whether and when to sample transactions. The Applicant
suggests that, if the subsection is not deleted, the condition in this
subsection should read, ``(4) The auditor's engagement must
specifically require the auditor to test each Barclays Affiliated
QPAM's operational compliance with the Policies and Training.''
The Department declines to make the Applicant's requested deletion
or revision with respect to Section I(i)(4). The inclusion of written
audit parameters in the auditor's engagement letter is necessary both
to document expectations regarding the audit work and to ensure that
the auditor can responsibly perform its important work. As stated
above, clearly defined audit parameters will minimize any potential for
dispute between the Applicant and the auditor. It is appropriate and
necessary for the exemption to require a certain amount, and type, of
audit work to be performed. Similarly, given the scope and number of
relevant transactions, proper sampling is critical to ensuring the
auditor's ability to reach reasonable conclusions.
The Department notes that Section I(i)(4) does not specify the
number of transactions that the auditor must test, but rather requires,
for each QPAM, that the auditor test a sample of each QPAM's
transactions involving Covered Plans, ``sufficient in size and nature
to afford the auditor a reasonable basis to determine operational
compliance with the Policies and Training.'' The Department has revised
this provision, however, by limiting its applicability to Covered
Plans.
Comment 19--Auditor's Determination of Compliance--I(i)(5)(i)
Section I(i)(5)(i) of the proposed five-year exemption provides:
``I(i)(5): For each audit, on or before the end of the relevant period
described in Section I(i)(1) for completing the audit, the auditor must
issue a written report (the Audit Report) to BPLC and the Barclays
Affiliated QPAM to which the audit applies that describes the
procedures performed by the auditor during the course of its
examination. The Audit Report must include the auditor's specific
determinations regarding:
(i) The adequacy of the Barclays Affiliated QPAM's Policies and
Training; the Barclays Affiliated QPAM's compliance with the Policies
and Training; the need, if any, to strengthen such Policies and
Training; and any instance of the respective Barclays Affiliated QPAM's
noncompliance with the written Policies and Training described in
Section I(h) above. Any determination by the auditor regarding the
adequacy of the Policies and Training and the auditor's recommendations
(if any) with respect to strengthening the Policies and Training of the
respective Barclays Affiliated QPAM must be promptly addressed by such
Barclays Affiliated QPAM, and any action taken by such Barclays
Affiliated QPAM to address such recommendations must be included in an
addendum to the Audit Report (which addendum is completed prior to the
certification described in Section I(i)(7) below). Any determination by
the auditor that the respective Barclays Affiliated QPAM has
implemented, maintained, and followed sufficient Policies and Training
must not be based solely or in substantial part on an absence of
evidence indicating noncompliance. In this last regard, any finding
that the Barclays Affiliated QPAM has complied with the requirements
under this Subsection must be based on evidence that demonstrates the
Barclays Affiliated QPAM has actually implemented, maintained, and
followed the Policies and Training required by this five-year
exemption. Furthermore, the auditor must not rely on the Annual Report
created by the compliance officer (the Compliance Officer) as described
in Section I(m) below in lieu of independent determinations and testing
performed by the auditor as required by Section I(i)(3) and (4)
above.''
[[Page 61888]]
The Applicant states that compliance with this provision and other
provisions involving the auditor are within the control of the auditor
rather than the Applicant, and that a violation of this provision
should therefore not result in Applicant losing the exemption. The
Applicant requests that, if the condition is not deleted or reworded as
suggested, the Department should add the following proviso to the end
of subparagraphs I(i)(4), I(i)(6) and I(i)(11): ``Any failure of the
auditor to meet the conditions associated with the Audit Report shall
not be deemed a violation of the exemption.''
In addition, the Applicant requests that the requirement that an
auditor's recommendations be ``promptly'' addressed be deleted. The
Applicant states that the term ``promptly'' is undefined and that the
ambiguity is particularly problematic in this context as addressing an
auditor's recommendation could be a lengthy process (updating
computerized trading systems, for example, could take months).
Moreover, the Applicant states that the requirement that the
auditor address the adequacy of the Annual Review required in Section
I(m) is counterproductive and requests that this provision of Section
I(i)(5) be deleted because ``the DOJ has singled out Barclays'
extensive efforts to strengthen its already extensive internal
controls.'' The Applicant further states that the Department should not
mandate how the auditor performs its work in light of the conditions in
the proposed exemption relating to the auditor's selection and
qualifications. (See Subsection I(i)(1)). The Applicant states there is
no reason to treat BPLC or the Barclays Affiliated QPAMs as
recalcitrant entities and to impose conditions that the Department has
not imposed in past cases as to applicants with extensive crimes or
faulty internal processes. Moreover, the Applicant states that the
language of this condition will interfere with the workability of the
exemption and its use by plans. To that end, the Applicant states that
if counterparties cannot understand the requirement or test whether it
has been complied with, the exemption will not be used, to the
detriment of plans and in violation of the statutory standard in
section 408(a) of ERISA and Code section 4975. Therefore, the Applicant
requests that the condition instead read:
``I(i)(5): For each audit, on or before the end of the relevant
period described in Section I(i)(1) for completing the audit, the
auditor must issue a written report (the Audit Report) to BPLC and the
Barclays Affiliated QPAM to which the audit applies that describes the
procedures performed by the auditor during the course of its
examination. Any failure of the auditor to meet the conditions
associated with the Audit Report shall not be deemed a violation of the
exemption. The Audit Report must include the auditor's specific
determinations regarding:
(i) The adequacy of the Barclays Affiliated QPAM's Policies and
Training; the Barclays Affiliated QPAM's compliance with the Policies
and Training; the need, if any, to strengthen such Policies and
Training; and any instance of the respective Barclays Affiliated QPAM's
noncompliance with the written Policies and Training described in
Section I(h) above. Any determination by the auditor regarding the
adequacy of the Policies and Training and the auditor's recommendations
(if any) with respect to strengthening the Policies and Training of the
respective Barclays Affiliated QPAM must be addressed by such Barclays
Affiliated QPAM, and any action taken by such Barclays Affiliated QPAM
to address such recommendations must be included in an addendum to the
Audit Report (which addendum is completed prior to the certification
described in Section I(i)(7) below). Any determination by the auditor
that the respective Barclays Affiliated QPAM has implemented,
maintained, and followed sufficient Policies and Training should be
based on evidence that demonstrates the Barclays Affiliated QPAM has
actually implemented, maintained, and followed the Policies and
Training required by this permanent exemption.''
The Department acknowledges that the Applicant's efforts to address
the auditor recommendations regarding any inadequacy in the Policies
and Training identified by the auditor, may take longer to implement
than the time limits mandated by the proposed exemption. Accordingly,
the Department is modifying Section I(i)(5)(i) to reflect the
possibility that the Barclays Affiliated QPAMs' efforts to address the
auditor's recommendations regarding inadequacies in the Policies and
Training identified by the auditor, may not be completed by the
submission date of the Audit Report and may require a written plan to
address such items. However, any noncompliance identified by the
auditor must be promptly addressed. The Department does not agree that
the word ``promptly'' creates ambiguity in the condition and declines
to remove the word. However, the Department has revised the exemption
such that, with the exception of Section I(i)(11), the failure of the
auditor to meet the conditions associated with the Audit Report shall
not be deemed a violation of the exemption.
The final sentence of Section I(i)(5)(i) expresses the Department's
intent that the auditor must not rely solely on the work of the
Compliance Officer and the Annual Report in formulating its conclusions
or findings. The auditor must perform its own independent testing to
formulate its conclusions. This exemption does not prohibit the auditor
from considering the Compliance Officer's Annual Report in carrying out
its audit function, including its formulation of an audit plan. This
exemption, however, does prohibit the auditor from reaching conclusions
that are exclusively based upon the contents of the Compliance
Officer's Annual Report.
The Department emphasizes that it is not mandating how the auditor
performs its work. By the express terms of this exemption, the Auditor
retains discretion as to how to perform an audit that complies with
this exemption. The audit conditions are critical to the Department's
determination to grant this exemption. As noted above, the Department
believes the audit conditions are amply justified by the substantial
compliance and oversight failures that resulted in the Conviction and
fines, and in the need for this exemption as detailed above.
The Department has modified Section I(i)(5)(i) to more clearly
reflect these views.
Comment 20--Adequacy of the Annual Review--Section I(i)(5)(ii)
Section I(i)(5)(ii) of the proposed five-year exemption provides
that ``[t]he Audit Report must include the auditor's specific
determinations regarding: . . . (ii) The adequacy of the Annual Review
described in Section I(m) and the resources provided to the Compliance
Officer in connection with such Annual Review.''
The Applicant requests deletion of this condition. The Applicant
states that the requirement that the auditor investigate the details of
resources provided to the Compliance Officer is intrusive on the
operation of the business. The Applicant further states that, assuming
the Annual Report required by Subsection I(m)(2)(ii) remains part of
the exemption, the auditor can assess the adequacy of the report
itself. In addition, the Applicant states that the proposed exemption
contains multiple conditions relating to the auditor's selection and
qualifications, and that, in light of these conditions, the auditor
should be
[[Page 61889]]
trusted to exercise appropriate judgment.
As discussed in detail below, the Department views the Compliance
officer and the Annual Review as integral to ensuring compliance with
the exemption. An independent assessment by the auditor of the adequacy
of the Annual Review is essential to providing the Department with the
assurance that the Applicant and the Barclays Affiliated QPAMs have
given these matters the utmost priority and have taken the actions
necessary to comply with the exemption. However, the Department agrees
that the QPAMs need not require the auditor to opine on the adequacy of
the resources allocated to the Compliance Officer and has modified
Section I(i)(5)(ii) accordingly. If, however, the auditor observes
compliance issues related to the Compliance Officer or available
resources, it would be appropriate to opine on these problems.
Comment 21--Auditor Notification to QPAM of Noncompliance--Section
I(i)(6)
Section I(i)(6) provides that ``[t]he auditor must notify the
respective Barclays Affiliated QPAM of any instance of noncompliance
identified by the auditor within five (5) business days after such
noncompliance is identified by the auditor, regardless of whether the
audit has been completed as of that date.''
The Applicant requests that this condition be deleted. The
Applicant states that there is no reason why the QPAM needs this
information within five business days and no indication is given as to
what it is to do with the information once it has it. The Applicant
also states that the auditor should be trusted to exercise discretion
as to the timing of notification regarding instances of noncompliance,
and asserts that requiring identification of every such instance,
however technical the misstep, could be counter-productive, consume
significant amounts of the auditor's time, and in light of the very
limited number of available auditors, cause many financial institutions
needing audits to fail to meet the deadlines imposed by these
exemptions simply because a qualified auditor is not available.
Further, the Applicant states that compliance with this provision is
within the control of the auditor rather than the Applicant. If the
condition is not deleted, the Applicant suggests that the condition
read:
``The auditor must notify the respective Barclays Affiliated QPAM
of any instance of noncompliance identified by the auditor within five
(5) business days after such noncompliance is identified by the
auditor, regardless of whether the audit has been completed as of that
date. Any failure of the auditor to meet this condition shall not be
deemed a violation of the exemption.''
In the Department's view, it is important that notice of
noncompliance be forthcoming and prompt. Accordingly, the Department
declines to delete the condition. The Department also declines to
include a statement in Section I(i)(6) that a failure on behalf of the
auditor to meet this condition will not violate the exemption. However,
the Department, as discussed below, has modified Section I(q) to
address this issue.
Comment 22--Certification of the Audit--Section I(i)(7)
Section I(i)(7) of the proposed five-year exemption provides,
``[w]ith respect to each Audit Report, the General Counsel or one of
the three most senior executive officers of the Barclays Affiliated
QPAM to which the Audit Report applies, must certify in writing, under
penalty of perjury, that the officer has: Reviewed the Audit Report and
this exemption, if granted; addressed, corrected, or remedied any
inadequacy identified in the Audit Report; and determined that the
Policies and Training in effect at the time of signing are adequate to
ensure compliance with the conditions of this proposed five-year
exemption, if granted, and with the applicable provisions of ERISA and
the Code.''
The Applicant requests that the timing of Section I(i)(7) be
clarified. In this regard, the Applicant states that the certification
must be completed within thirty days (see Subsection I(i)(9)), but that
it may take longer to remedy identified issues. The Applicant states
that this condition should clarify that ``addressing'' an inadequacy
means, not only accepting the auditor's recommendations, but can
include pointing out alternative action, or even no action, is a
preferable means of protecting ERISA plan clients and IRAs. In
addition, the Applicant represents that the condition should reflect
that the individual providing the certification may not be responsible
for addressing, correcting, or remedying any inadequacy, and should
clarify that the certification need only state that ``the officer has
caused the process for such addressing, correcting, or remedying to
commence.''
While the Department does not view Section I(i)(7) as ambiguous,
the Department acknowledges that the Applicant's efforts to address the
auditor's recommendations regarding inadequacies in the Policies and
Training identified by the auditor, may take longer to implement than
the timeframe to submit the certified Audit Report. The Department did
not intend to limit corrective actions to those that could only be
completed prior to the submission of the Audit Report. Therefore, the
Department has modified Section I(i)(7) to reflect that the senior
officer may certify that a written plan to address the inadequacies
regarding the Policies and Training identified in the auditor's Report
is in place.
Further, the conditions of this exemption do not prohibit the
Applicant from disagreeing with the auditor with respect to whether
certain practices rise to the level of noncompliance with the terms of
this exemption. However, in those circumstances where the auditor is
not persuaded to change its position on a matter the auditor considers
noncompliant, the Applicant will be responsible to correct such
matters. Nor do the conditions of this exemption prohibit the Applicant
from disagreeing with the auditor with respect to the appropriate
method for correcting or addressing issues of noncompliance. The
Department expects the Applicant and the auditor to have meaningful
communications on any such differences of opinion. In the event the
Applicant chooses to apply a corrective method that differs from that
recommended by the auditor, the Audit Report and the Addendum attached
thereto should explain in detail the noncompliance, the auditor's
recommended action, the corrective method chosen, and, if applicable,
why the Applicant chose a corrective method different from that
recommended by the auditor. Finally, while the individual providing the
certification may not be responsible for directly addressing,
correcting, or remedying any inadequacy, such individual is responsible
for ensuring that such process has indeed addressed, corrected or
remedied the identified inadequacy.
Comment 23--Review and Certification of Audit Report--Section I(i)(8)
Section I(i)(8) the proposed five-year exemption provides that
``[t]he Risk Committee of BPLC's Board of Directors is provided a copy
of each Audit Report; and a senior executive officer with a direct
reporting line to the highest ranking legal compliance officer of BPLC
must review the Audit Report for each Barclays Affiliated QPAM and must
certify in writing, under penalty of perjury, that such officer has
reviewed each Audit Report.''
[[Page 61890]]
The Applicant requests that the requirement to provide the Audit
Report to the Risk Committee of BPLC's Board of Directors be deleted.
The Applicant states that mandating the internal process by which
information is handled within the financial institution is beyond the
scope of exemptive relief and is an unwarranted intrusion into the
corporate governance processes of BPLC and the Barclays Affiliated
QPAMs that does not advance the statutory goals set forth in ERISA
section 408 and Code section 4975.
In addition, the Applicant states that the reference to the
``highest ranking legal compliance officer'' is unclear because BPLC
does not have an officer that appears to satisfy the description. The
Applicant assumes that the reference is either to the highest ranking
legal officer or the highest ranking compliance officer.
The Department notes that in its application and related materials,
the Applicant has represented that it has established, or is in the
process of establishing, comprehensive changes to processes and
procedures that are, in part, intended to change the culture at BPLC
from the top down. As also represented by the Applicant, these changes
are focused on enhancements in: (1) Supervision, controls, and
governance; (2) risk management compliance assessment; (3) transaction
monitoring and communications surveillance; (4) compliance testing; and
(5) internal audit.\53\
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\53\ See BCI Exemption Application (May 20, 2015) from pages 7
to 15.
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The Department has developed this exemption to ensure that the
highest levels of management are aware of ongoing matters concerning
BPLC, the Barclays Affiliated QPAMs, and compliance with this
exemption. Requiring the provision of the Audit Report to the Board of
Directors and certification by a senior executive officer in the
reporting line of the highest compliance officer provides assurance
that the highest levels of management within BPLC stay informed about
BPLC's and the Barclays Affiliated QPAMs' compliance with the terms of
this exemption. In the Department's view, such officials are in the
best position to ensure that any inadequacy identified by the auditor
is appropriately addressed and that necessary changes to corporate
policy are effectuated where necessary. Requiring certification under
penalty of perjury is consistent with the Department's longstanding
view that basic requirements of compliance and integrity are
fundamental to an entity's ability to qualify as a QPAM. However, in
accordance with the Applicant's request, the Department has clarified
the condition to refer to the ``highest ranking compliance officer.''
Comment 24--Availability of the Audit Report--Section I(i)(9)
Section I(i)(9) of the proposed five-year exemption provides that,
``Each Barclays Affiliated QPAM provides its certified Audit Report by
regular mail to: The Department's Office of Exemption Determinations
(OED), 200 Constitution Avenue NW, Suite 400, Washington, DC 20210, or
by private carrier to: 122 C Street NW, Suite 400, Washington, DC
20001-2109, no later than 30 days following its completion. The Audit
Report will be part of the public record regarding this five-year
exemption, if granted. Furthermore, each Barclays Affiliated QPAM must
make its Audit Report unconditionally available for examination by any
duly authorized employee or representative of the Department, other
relevant regulators, and any fiduciary of an ERISA-covered plan or IRA,
the assets of which are managed by such Barclays Affiliated QPAM.''
The Applicant states that the scope of exemption should be limited
to PTE 84-14 in all instances and requests that this condition require
that the Audit Report be available to plans managed by a QPAM in
reliance on PTE 84-14. The Applicant states that this condition can be
read to require that the Audit Report be available to asset management
plan clients, regardless of whether the Barclays Affiliated QPAM relies
on PTE 84-14 for such clients' accounts. The Applicant suggests that
the condition read: ``Each Barclays Affiliated QPAM provides its
certified Audit Report by regular mail to: The Department's Office of
Exemption Determinations (OED), 200 Constitution Avenue NW, Suite 400,
Washington, DC 20210, or by private carrier to: 122 C Street NW, Suite
400, Washington, DC 20001-2109, no later than 30 days following its
completion. The Audit Report will be part of the public record
regarding this exemption. Furthermore, each Barclays Affiliated QPAM
must make its Audit Report unconditionally available for examination by
any duly authorized employee or representative of the Department, other
relevant regulators, and any fiduciary of an ERISA-covered plan or IRA,
the assets of which are managed by such Barclays Affiliated QPAM in
reliance on PTE 84-14.''
ERISA-covered plans and IRAs, routinely rely on QPAM status before
entering into agreements with financial institutions, even if those
institutions do not rely on PTE 84-14 when managing plan and IRA
assets. Accordingly, the Department has an interest in ensuring that
the conditions of this exemption broadly protect ERISA-covered plans
and IRAs that have relied on QPAM status in deciding to enter into an
agreement with the Applicant or the Barclays Affiliated QPAMs.
Nevertheless, the Department has revised Section I(i)(9) to clarify
that the Barclays Affiliated QPAMs are required to make the documents
available to any fiduciary of a Covered Plan. The Audit Report, in any
event, will be incorporated into the public record attributable to this
exemption, under Exemption Application Number D-11910, and, therefore,
independently accessible by interested members of the public.
Accordingly, the Department has determined to revise the condition by
replacing the phrase ``an ERISA-covered plan or IRA, the assets of
which are managed by such Barclays Affiliated QPAM'' with the term
``Covered Plan'' (as defined in Section II(f)). Lastly, the Department
agrees that access to the Audit Report need only be upon request and
such access or delivery can be made electronically, and it has revised
the exemption accordingly.
Comment 25--Engagement Agreements--Section I(i)(10)
Section I(i)(10) of the proposed five-year exemption provides that,
``Each Barclays Affiliated QPAM and the auditor must submit to OED: (A)
Any engagement agreement(s) entered into pursuant to the engagement of
the auditor under this five-year exemption, if granted; and (B) any
engagement agreement entered into with any other entity retained in
connection with such QPAM's compliance with the Training or Policies
conditions of this five-year exemption, if granted, no later than six
(6) months after the Conviction Date (and one month after the execution
of any agreement thereafter).''
The Applicant requests deletion of the requirement under Section
I(i)(10)(B) which provides, ``[e]ach Barclays Affiliated QPAM and the
auditor must submit to OED . . . (B) any engagement agreement entered
into with any other entity retained in connection with such QPAM's
compliance with the Training or Policies conditions of this five-year
exemption, no later than six (6) months after the Conviction Date (and
one month after the execution of any agreement thereafter);''.
The Applicant states that the proposed exemption includes multiple
conditions for the qualifications of the trainer (Subsection
I(h)(2)(ii)), the contents of the Policies (Subsection
[[Page 61891]]
I(h)(1)) and for the auditor's review of the adequacy of the Training
and Policies (Subsection I(i)(5)(i)). The Applicant represents that
there is no reason for the Department to see and review, and make
available to the public, every service provider contract that could
cover policies, procedures or training. The Applicant states that no
reason is given for the Department's review of engagement letters for
all legal and consulting services applicable to the policies,
procedures and training. Additionally, the Applicant states that it
should be permitted to delete or redact commercial terms from any
engagement agreement submitted to the Department. Further, the
Applicant requests that the timeframe for provision of the auditor's
engagement be modified to no later than six (6) months after the
Barclays Affiliated QPAM's engagement with an ERISA-covered plan or IRA
for the provision of asset management or other discretionary fiduciary
services (and one month after the execution of any agreement
thereafter). Therefore, the Applicant suggests that the condition read:
``Each Barclays Affiliated QPAM and the auditor must submit to OED: Any
engagement agreement(s) entered into pursuant to the engagement of the
auditor under this exemption no later than six (6) months after the
Barclays Affiliated QPAM's engagement with an ERISA-covered plan or IRA
for the provision of asset management or other discretionary fiduciary
services (and one month after the execution of any agreement
thereafter). Commercial terms may be removed or redacted from the
auditor engagement.''
In coordination with the Department's modification of Section
I(h)(2)(ii) to remove the requirement that the Training must be
conducted by an independent professional, the Department has determined
to remove the requirement in Section I(i)(10)(B) to provide to the
Department the engagement agreements entered into with entities
retained in connection with compliance with the Training or Policies
conditions. Furthermore, to remove any confusion or uncertainty
regarding the timing of the submission of the auditor's engagement
agreement, the Department has modified Section I(i)(10) to require that
the auditor's engagement agreement be submitted to the Office of
Exemption Determinations no later than two (2) months after the
engagement agreement is entered into by the Applicant and the
independent auditor.
Comment 26--Auditor's Workpapers--Section I(i)(11)
Section I(i)(11) of the proposed five-year exemption provides that
the ``auditor must provide OED, upon request, all of the workpapers
created and utilized in the course of the audit, including, but not
limited to: The audit plan; audit testing; identification of any
instance of noncompliance by the relevant Barclays Affiliated QPAM; and
an explanation of any corrective or remedial action taken by the
applicable Barclays Affiliated QPAM.''
The Applicant states that, as noted above in connection with
Section I(i)(5), compliance with this provision is within the control
of the auditor rather than the Applicant. The Applicant states that a
violation of this provision should therefore not result in loss of the
exemption. The Applicant also represents that this condition is
unnecessary and duplicative. In addition, the Applicant requests that
this condition be appropriately limited to ensure that any confidential
or otherwise sensitive information is redacted prior to any disclosure
of the workpapers in a public file. The Applicant states that the
proposed exemption, as worded, requires that the auditor enjoy broad
access to a Barclays Affiliated QPAM's records. The Applicant further
states that, while such access should be appropriately cabined, the
auditor will still have access to sensitive information, such as client
information, marketing data, personal information of the QPAM's
employees, and other details.
Therefore, the Applicant requests that access be limited to allow
the auditor, and OED,\54\ to inspect such information without its being
disclosed in the public record. The Applicant suggests that this
condition read: ``The auditor must provide OED, upon request, all of
the workpapers created and utilized in the course of the audit,
provided that any confidential business or personal information of the
Barclays Affiliated QPAMs, BPLC, and their clients (or the officers,
directors, employees or agents thereof) reflected in the workpapers,
including, without limitation, client communications, shall be
redacted, and provided further that nothing herein shall be deemed to
limit any authority the Department may otherwise have to inspect such
information without making it part of the public file. Any failure of
the auditor to meet this condition shall not be deemed a violation of
the exemption.''
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\54\ OED is the Office of Exemption Determinations within the
Employee Benefits Security Administration agency of the United
States Department of Labor.
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
The Department acknowledges that certain information contained in
the workpapers may be confidential and proprietary, and having that
information in a public file may create needless or avoidable
disclosure issues. The Department has determined to modify Section
I(i)(11) to remove the requirement that the auditor provide the
workpapers to OED, and instead require that the auditor provide access
to the workpapers for the Department's review and inspection. However,
given the importance of the workpapers to the Department's own review
and the Applicant's contractual relationship with the auditor, the
Department declines to include a statement in Section I(i)(11) that a
failure on behalf of the auditor to meet this condition will not
violate the exemption.
Comment 27--Replacement of Auditor--Section I(i)(12)
Section I(i)(12) of the proposed five-year exemption provides that,
``BPLC must notify the Department at least thirty (30) days prior to
any substitution of an auditor, except that no such replacement will
meet the requirements of this paragraph unless and until BPLC
demonstrates to the Department's satisfaction that such new auditor is
independent of BPLC, experienced in the matters that are the subject of
the exemption, if granted, and capable of making the determinations
required of this exemption, if granted.''
The Applicant requests that this Section I(i)(12) be deleted,
stating that the proposed exemption contains conditions requiring the
auditor to satisfy multiple conditions and it serves no useful purpose
to impose an additional requirement to demonstrate to the Department's
satisfaction that the auditor satisfies such standards before
substitution, particularly given the timeline required for the audit
process. The Applicant requests that if the condition is not deleted,
the condition be modified to read: ``BPLC must notify the Department at
least thirty (30) days after terminating the engagement of the auditor,
the reason for the termination, and provide the Department with the
contract of the substitute auditor, the selection of which must satisfy
the requirements of subparagraph (i)(1).''
The Department notes that this exemption is not unique in requiring
the Department be notified of changes to service providers (see, e.g.,
the requirement of Schedule C of the Form 5500 Annual Return/Report for
the Plan Administrator of certain plans to report to the Department a
termination of the
[[Page 61892]]
plan's auditor and/or enrolled actuary and to provide an explanation of
the reasons for the termination, including a description of any
material disputes or matters of disagreement concerning the
termination). Furthermore, requiring the Applicant to notify the
Department of the substitution of an auditor serves to ensure that the
Barclays Affiliated QPAMs are attentive to the audit process and the
protections it provides; and that the Department has the information it
needs to review compliance. The Department has decided, however, to
modify Section I(i)(12) to remove the requirement for the Applicant to
demonstrate the independence and qualifications of the auditor,
however, and requires instead that the Applicant, no later than two
months from the engagement of the replacement auditor, notify the
Department of a change in auditor and of the reason(s) for the
substitution including any material disputes between the terminated
auditor and the Applicant. The Applicant's fiduciary obligations with
respect to the selection of the auditor, as well as the significant
role a credible selection plays in reducing the need for more extensive
oversight by the Department, should be sufficient to safeguard the
selection process.
Comments 28-29--Contracts With Plans and IRAs--Section I(j)(1)
Section I(j)(1) of the proposed five-year exemption provides:
``Effective as of the effective date of this five-year exemption, if
granted, with respect to any arrangement, agreement, or contract
between a Barclays Affiliated QPAM and an ERISA-covered plan or IRA for
which a Barclays Affiliated QPAM provides asset management or other
discretionary fiduciary services, each Barclays Affiliated QPAM agrees
and warrants: (1) To comply with ERISA and the Code, as applicable with
respect to such ERISA- covered plan or IRA, to refrain from engaging in
prohibited transactions that are not otherwise exempt (and to promptly
correct any inadvertent prohibited transactions); and to comply with
the standards of prudence and loyalty set forth in section 404 of ERISA
with respect to each such ERISA-covered plan and IRA.''
The Applicant requests that Subsection I(j) provide that the
contract requirements apply only to agreements where a QPAM provides
services in reliance on PTE 84-14. The Applicant asserts, as noted
above, that the scope of exemptive relief in the proposed exemption
should in all instances be limited in this manner. In addition, the
Applicant states that the condition should make clear that it
supersedes the analogous condition in the Temporary Exemption to avoid
imposing duplicative requirements. The Applicant suggests that this
condition read: ``This Subsection supersedes the analogous section of
PTE 2016-16, as of the date of this exemption's publication in the
Federal Register. Effective as of the publication date, with respect to
any arrangement, agreement, or contract between a Barclays Affiliated
QPAM and an ERISA-covered plan or IRA under which a Barclays Affiliated
QPAM provides asset management or other discretionary fiduciary
services in reliance on PTE 84-14, each Barclays Affiliated QPAM agrees
and warrants . . . .''
ERISA-covered plans and IRAs routinely rely on QPAM status as a
condition of entering into transactions with financial institutions,
even with respect to transactions that do not necessarily require
adherence to PTE 84-14. In addition, it may not always be clear whether
or not the Barclays Affiliated QPAM intends to rely upon PTE 84-14 for
any particular transaction. Accordingly, it is critical to ensure that
protective conditions are in place to safeguard the interests of ERISA-
covered plans and IRAs that are acting in reliance on the availability
of this exemption and QPAM status, particularly those which may not
have entered into the transaction in the first place, but for the
Department's grant of this exemption.
The Department has a clear interest in protecting such ERISA-
covered plans and IRAs that enter into an asset management agreement
with a Barclays Affiliated QPAM in reliance on the manager's
qualification as a QPAM. Moreover, when an ERISA-covered plan or IRA
terminates its relationship with an asset manager, it may incur
significant costs and expenses as its investments are unwound and as it
searches for and hires a new asset manager.
The Department has revised this condition for consistency with its
interest in protecting ERISA-covered plans and IRAs that rely upon QPAM
status. The condition now applies only to Covered Plans.
The Department rejects the view that it acts outside its authority
by protecting ERISA-covered plans and IRAs that rely on Barclay's
Affiliated QPAMs' eligibility for this exemption, and reemphasizes the
seriousness of the criminal misconduct that caused the Applicant to
need this exemption. The Department may grant an exemption under
section 408(a)(3) of ERISA or section 4975(c)(2)(C) of the Code only to
the extent the Secretary finds, among other things, that the exemption
is protective of the affected plan or IRA. As noted above, BPLC
personnel engaged in serious misconduct over an extended period and at
the expense of their own clients. This misconduct appears to have
stemmed, in part, from deficiencies in control and oversight.
Notwithstanding the misconduct, which resulted in violation of
Section I(g) of PTE 84-14, the Department has granted this exemption
based, in significant part, upon the inclusion of Section I(j)(1) in
the exemption, which protects Covered Plans by, among other things,
requiring Barclays Affiliated QPAMs to make an express commitment to
their customers to adhere to the requirements of ERISA and the Code, as
applicable. As previously indicated, the Department has concluded that
a culture of compliance, centered on adherence to basic standards of
fair dealing as set forth in this exemption, gives the Department a
compelling basis for making the required statutory findings that the
exemption is in the interests of plan and IRA investors and protective
of their rights. Absent such findings, the exemption would have been
denied.
In response to the Applicant's comments, however, the Department
has required an express commitment to comply with the fiduciary
standards and prohibited transaction rules only to the extent these
provisions are ``applicable'' under ERISA and the Code. This section,
as modified, should serve its salutary purposes of promoting a culture
of compliance and enhancing the ability of plans and IRA customers to
sever their relationships with minimal injury in the event of
noncompliance. This conclusion is reinforced, as well, by the limited
nature of the relief granted by this exemption, which generally does
not extend to transactions that involve self-dealing.
In response to the Applicant's comments, the Department also notes
that nothing in ERISA or the Code prevents the Department from
conditioning relief on express contractual commitments to adhere to the
requirements set out herein. The QPAMs always remain free to disclaim
reliance on the exemption and to avoid such express contractual
commitments. To the extent, however, that they hold themselves out as
fiduciary QPAMs, they should be prepared to make an express commitment
to their customers to adhere to the requirements of this exemption.
This commitment strengthens and reinforces the likelihood of
compliance, and helps
[[Page 61893]]
ensure that, in the event of noncompliance, customers will be insulated
from injuries caused by noncompliance. These protections also ensure
that customers will be able to extricate themselves from transactions
that become prohibited as a result of the QPAMs' misconduct, without
fear of sustaining additional losses as a result of the QPAMs' actions.
In this connection, however, the Department emphasizes that the only
claims available to the QPAMs' customers pursuant to these contractual
commitments are those separately provided by ERISA or other state and
federal laws that are not preempted by ERISA. As before, private
litigants have only those causes of action specifically authorized by
laws that exist independent of this exemption.
Comment 30--Indemnity Provision--Section I(j)(2)
Section I(j)(2) requires each Barclays Affiliated QPAM to agree and
warrant ``[t]o indemnify and hold harmless the ERISA-covered plan or
IRA for any damages resulting from a Barclays Affiliated QPAM's
violation of applicable laws, a Barclays Affiliated QPAM's breach of
contract, or any claim brought in connection with the failure of such
Barclays Affiliated QPAM to qualify for the exemptive relief provided
by PTE 84-14 as a result of a violation of Section I (g) of PTE 84-14
other than the Conviction.''
The Applicant asserts that the provision is unfair because it is
not limited to clients who are harmed through a direct, causal link to
the loss of the exemptive relief provided by PTE 84-14 and the
Applicant requests that the condition be deleted. In addition, the
Applicant represents that the condition appears to allow plans and IRAs
to seek to recover damages (i) that arise from violations and breaches
by third parties, (ii) that arise only tenuously from the manager's
conduct, (iii) that may be grossly unreasonable in amount, (iv) for
claims without merit and (v) for claims in connection with accounts
that do not rely on the relief provided by PTE 84-14. If the Department
declines to delete this condition, the Applicant requests, in the
alternative, that the Department expressly tie the requirement to
damages with a proximate causal connection to relevant conduct of the
manager by rewording the condition as follows: ``To indemnify and hold
harmless the ERISA-covered plan or IRA for any reasonable damages
involving such arrangement, agreement or contract and resulting
directly from a violation of ERISA by such Barclays Affiliated QPAM,
or, to the extent the Barclays Affiliated QPAM relies on the exemptive
relief provided by PTE 84-14 under the arrangement, agreement or
contract, the failure of such Barclays Affiliated QPAM to qualify for
the exemptive relief provided by PTE 84-14 as a result of a violation
of Section I(g) of PTE 84-14 other than as a result of the Conviction.
This condition does not require indemnification of indirect, special,
consequential or punitive damages.''
As explained above, the intended purpose of this exemption is to
protect ERISA-covered plans and IRAs that entrust the Barclays
Affiliated QPAMs with the management of their retirement assets. To
this end, it is the Department's view that the protective purpose of
this exemption is furthered by Section I(j)(2). The Department
emphasizes that this condition is not punitive, but rather ensures
that, when an ERISA-covered plan or IRA enters into an asset management
agreement with a Barclays Affiliated QPAM in reliance on the manager's
qualification as a QPAM, it may expect adherence to basic fiduciary
norms and standards of fair dealing, notwithstanding the prior
conviction. The condition also ensures that the plan or IRA will be
able to disengage from that relationship in the event that the terms of
this exemption are violated without undue injury.
However, the Department has revised the applicability of this
condition to more closely reflect these interests. In particular, the
condition applies only when the Barclays Affiliated QPAM relies on PTE
84-14 or has expressly represented that it qualifies as a QPAM or
relies on the QPAM class exemption in its dealings with the plan or
IRA. As indicated above, if the asset manager would prefer not to be
subject to these provisions as exemption conditions, it may expressly
disclaim reliance on QPAM status or PTE 84-14 in entering into its
contract with the plan or IRA (in that case, however, it could not rely
on the exemption for relief).
The Department has also made certain further changes to this
condition in consideration of the Applicant's comment. These changes
include: Renumbering the condition for clarity; replacing ``applicable
laws'' with clarifying language that conforms to the one-year
exemption; replacing ``any damages'' with ``actual losses resulting
directly from'' certain acts or omissions of the Barclays Affiliated
QPAMs; and adding language which affirms that the obligations under
this condition do not extend to damages caused by acts that are beyond
the control of the Barclays Affiliated QPAMS.
Comment 31--Limits on Liability--Section I(j)(2), I(j)(3) and I(j)(7)
\55\
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\55\ The Department has determined that Subsection (4) is
duplicative of the exemption's prohibition on exculpatory clauses,
described below. Thus, the subsection has been deleted. Section I(j)
has been renumbered for clarity.
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
Sections I(j)(2), I(j)(3) and I(j)(7) require that each Barclays
Affiliated QPAM agree and warrant:
. . . (2) To indemnify and hold harmless the ERISA-covered plan or IRA
for any damages resulting from a Barclays Affiliated QPAM's violation
of applicable laws, a Barclays Affiliated QPAM's breach of contract, or
any claim brought in connection with the failure of such Barclays
Affiliated QPAM to qualify for the exemptive relief provided by PTE 84-
14 as a result of a violation of Section I(g) of PTE 84-14 other than
the Conviction; (3) Not to require (or otherwise cause) the ERISA-
covered plan or IRA to waive, limit, or qualify the liability of the
Barclays Affiliated QPAM for violating ERISA or the Code or engaging in
prohibited transactions; [and] . . . (7) Not to include exculpatory
provisions disclaiming or otherwise limiting liability of the Barclays
Affiliated QPAM for a violation of such agreement's terms, except for
liability caused by an error, misrepresentation, or misconduct of a
plan fiduciary or other party hired by the plan fiduciary who is
independent of BPLC, and its affiliates.''
The Applicant requests that these conditions be deleted because
they contain duplicative requirements, which extend beyond the scope of
relief. The Applicant states that the indemnification provision should
be limited to ensure that it operates in a manner that is fair to the
Applicant and its affiliates and that, with that change, the condition
provides ample protection to clients. The Applicant states that Section
I(j)(3) and Section I(j)(7) do not provide any additional protection.
The Department declines to delete Section I(j)(3) from the final
exemption. The Department notes that ERISA already precludes ERISA
fiduciaries from disclaiming obligations under ERISA. See ERISA section
410 (prohibiting exculpatory clauses as void as against public policy).
To the extent the exemption condition prevents the Barclays Affiliated
QPAMs from including contractual provisions that are void as against
public policy there is no legitimate basis for objection. Such
exculpatory language should not be in the governing documents in the
first place and is potentially misleading because it suggests
disclaimer of obligations that may not be disclaimed.
[[Page 61894]]
Outside the context of ERISA section 410, the provision's
requirement that the Barclays Affiliated QPAMs retain accountability
for their adherence to the basic obligations set forth in this
exemption is more than justified by the misconduct that led to the
fines and Conviction as discussed above, and by the need to ensure that
Plan and IRA customers may readily obtain redress and exit contracts
with Barclays Affiliated QPAMs without harm in the event of violations.
The Department has modified Section I(j)(6) (formerly, Subsection
(j)(7)) to clarify that the prohibition on exculpatory provisions does
not extend to losses that arise from an act or event not caused by the
Applicant. Also, nothing in this section alters the prohibition on
exculpatory provisions set forth in ERISA section 410.
Comment 32--Termination and Withdrawal Restriction--Section I(j)(5) and
I(j)(6)
Under Sections I(j)(5) and I(j)(6) of the proposed five-year
exemption, the Barclays Affiliated QPAMs agree: ``(5) Not to restrict
the ability of such ERISA-covered plan or IRA to terminate or withdraw
from its arrangement with the Barclays Affiliated QPAM (including any
investment in a separately managed account or pooled fund subject to
ERISA and managed by such QPAM), with the exception of reasonable
restrictions, appropriately disclosed in advance, that are specifically
designed to ensure equitable treatment of all investors in a pooled
fund in the event such withdrawal or termination may have adverse
consequences for all other investors as a result of an actual lack of
liquidity of the underlying assets, provided that such restrictions are
applied consistently and in like manner to all such investors;
[and] . . . (6) Not to impose any fees, penalties, or charges for
such termination or withdrawal with the exception of reasonable fees,
appropriately disclosed in advance, that are specifically designed to
prevent generally recognized abusive investment practices or
specifically designed to ensure equitable treatment of all investors in
a pooled fund in the event such withdrawal or termination may have
adverse consequences for all other investors, provided that such fees
are applied consistently and in like manner to all such investors.''
The Applicant represents that these conditions should be deleted
because they are unnecessary. The Applicant notes that lockup
conditions are commonly used, designed to protect all investors in a
pooled fund, and applied evenhandedly to all investors. Further, the
Applicant states that the conditions, as worded, could provide ERISA
plan clients and IRAs a privileged position, to the detriment of other
investors.
The Applicant requests that, should these conditions be retained,
they be modified as follows: Under renumbered Sections I(j)(4) and
(j)(5), the Barclays Affiliated QPAMs agree: ``(4) Not to restrict the
ability of such ERISA-covered plan or IRA to terminate or withdraw from
its arrangement with the Barclays Affiliated QPAM with respect to any
investment in a separately managed account or pooled fund subject to
ERISA and managed by such QPAM, with the exception of reasonable
restrictions, appropriately disclosed in advance, that are specifically
designed to ensure equitable treatment of all investors in a pooled
fund in the event such withdrawal or termination may have adverse
consequences for all other investors. In connection with any such
arrangements involving investments in pooled funds subject to ERISA
entered into after the Conviction Date, the adverse consequences must
relate to a lack of liquidity of the pooled fund's underlying assets,
valuation issues, or regulatory reasons that prevent the fund from
immediately redeeming an ERISA-covered plan's or IRA's investment, and
such restrictions are applicable to all such investors and effective no
longer than reasonably necessary to avoid the adverse consequences;
[and] . . . (5) Not to impose any fees, penalties, or charges for such
termination or withdrawal with the exception of reasonable fees,
appropriately disclosed in advance, that are specifically designed to
ensure equitable treatment of all investors in a pooled fund in the
event such withdrawal or termination may have adverse consequences for
all other investors, provided that such fees are applied consistently
and in like manner to all such investors.''
The Department has revised renumbered Section I(j)(4) and has
revised the condition to allow exceptions for a lack of liquidity of
the pooled fund's underlying assets, valuation issues, or regulatory
reasons that prevent the fund from immediately redeeming an ERISA-
covered plan's or IRA's investment in partial satisfaction of the
Applicant's request, but has retained the parenthetical that the
restriction is not limited to a separately-managed account that is
subject to ERISA or a pooled fund that is subject to ERISA. The
Department has decided to retain Section I(i)5 as proposed.
Comment 33--Updated Investment Management Agreement--Section I(j)(7)
Section I(j)(8) of the proposed five-year exemption provides that
each Barclays Affiliated QPAM agrees and warrants: ``[w]ithin four (4)
months of the date of the Conviction, each Barclays Affiliated QPAM
must provide a notice of its obligations under this Section I(j) to
each ERISA-covered plan and IRA for which a Barclays Affiliated QPAM
provides asset management or other discretionary fiduciary services.
For all other prospective ERISA-covered plan and IRA clients for which
a Barclays Affiliated QPAM provides asset management or other
discretionary services, the Barclays Affiliated QPAM will agree in
writing to its obligations under this Section I(j) in an updated
investment management agreement between the Barclays Affiliated QPAM
and such clients or other written contractual agreement.''
The Applicant represents that it and its affiliates do not
currently provide asset management or other discretionary fiduciary
services to ERISA-covered plans or IRAs. The Applicant states that, for
that reason, the four-month notice has no purpose. The Applicant
requests that this provision be modified to reflect that Barclays
Affiliated QPAMs would in the future be required to provide notice
prior to an engagement with an ERISA-covered plan or IRA subject to
this exemption, consistent with Subsections (h)(1) and (h)(2). The
Applicant notes that the timing of the notice was correct in the
analogous provision of the Temporary Exemption. Moreover, the Applicant
submits that the condition should be limited to plans for which the
QPAM relies on PTE 84-14. Finally, the Applicant submits that a
contractual agreement is an improper vehicle as a client may attempt to
modify proposed contractual terms.
The Applicant suggests that the condition in renumbered Subsection
(j)(7) read as follows: ``Prior to a Barclays Affiliated QPAM's
engagement with an ERISA-covered plan or IRA for the provision of asset
management or other discretionary fiduciary services, such Barclays
Affiliated QPAM must provide a notice of its obligations under this
Section I(j) to such ERISA-covered plan or IRA.''
The Department has modified the condition to require that Barclays
Affiliated QPAMs provide notice prior to an engagement with an ERISA-
covered plan or IRA. Further, as noted above, the Department has an
interest in protecting a plan or IRA that enters into an asset
management agreement with a Barclays Affiliated QPAM in reliance on
[[Page 61895]]
the manager's qualification as a QPAM, regardless of whether the QPAM
relies on the class exemption when managing the plan's or IRA's assets.
The Department has revised the applicability of this condition to more
closely reflect this interest, and the condition now applies to Covered
Plans.
Comment 34--Notice to Plan Clients--Section I(k)
Section I(k) of the proposed five-year exemption provides that
``[e]ach BPLC affiliated asset manager provides each Future Covered
Client with a Federal Register copy of the proposed five-year
exemption, along with a separate summary describing the facts that led
to the Conviction (the Summary), which have been submitted to the
Department, and a prominently displayed statement that the Conviction
resulted in a failure to meet a condition of PTE 84-14. The provision
of these documents must occur prior to, or contemporaneously with, the
client's receipt of a written asset management agreement from the BPLC
affiliated asset manager. For purposes of this paragraph, a ``Future
Covered Client'' means a client of the BPLC affiliated asset manager
that, beginning after the date, if any, that a final exemption is
published in the Federal Register, has assets managed by such asset
manager, and has received a representation from the asset manager that
the asset manager is a QPAM, or qualifies for the relief provided by
PTE 84-14.''
The Applicant asserts that the condition is overbroad and should be
deleted. The Applicant states, by its terms, it extends to clients for
which the QPAM does not rely on PTE 84-14 and clients who are neither
covered by ERISA or the prohibited transaction provisions of the
Internal Revenue Code. Further, the Applicant states that, to the
extent the condition is meant to extend to clients for which the QPAM
relies on PTE 84-14, it duplicates the requirements of Subsection
I(j)(8)).
The Department declines to delete the condition. The Department
notes that ERISA-covered plans and IRAs often rely on QPAM status as a
condition of entering into transactions with financial institutions,
even with respect to transactions that do not strictly require
adherence to PTE 84-14. In addition, it may not always be clear whether
the Barclays Affiliated QPAM intends to rely upon PTE 84-14 for any
particular transaction. Accordingly, it is critical to ensure that
protective conditions are in place to safeguard the interests of plans
and IRAs that are acting in reliance on QPAM status or the availability
of this exemption, particularly those who may not have entered into the
transaction in the first place, but for the Department's grant of this
exemption. Further, the Department has an interest in protecting plans
and IRAs that enter into an asset management agreement with a Barclays
Affiliated QPAM in reliance on the manager's qualification as a QPAM.
If a plan or IRA terminates its relationship with an asset manager, it
may incur significant costs and expenses as its investments are unwound
and as it searches for and hires a new asset manager.
The Applicant also requests deletion of the requirement that a
separate summary of facts be provided, as the facts are set out in the
Federal Register notice. The Applicant suggests that the condition read
as follows: ``Notice to Future Covered Clients. Each Barclays
Affiliated QPAM provides each Future Covered Client with a Federal
Register copy of the final permanent exemption. The provision of this
document must occur prior to, or contemporaneously with, the client's
receipt of a written asset management agreement from the Barclays
Affiliated QPAM. For purposes of this paragraph, a ``Future Covered
Client'' means an ERISA-covered Plan client or IRA client of the
Barclays Affiliated QPAM that, beginning after the date, if any, that a
final exemption is published in the Federal Register, for which a
Barclays Affiliated QPAM will provide asset management or other
discretionary fiduciary services in reliance on PTE 84-14.''
The Department declines to make the requested changes. The
exemption seeks to ensure that all interested parties are aware of and
attentive to the complete facts and circumstances surrounding this
application for exemption. The required disclosure of the proposal and
grant ensures full disclosure of the relevant facts and circumstances,
and the Summary highlights the important facts that led to the
Conviction. Requiring the disclosure of the Summary, proposal, and
grant provides the opportunity for all parties to have knowledge of
these facts and circumstance. Notwithstanding this, the Department has
modified the condition to clarify that disclosures may be provided
electronically. Further, the notice requirement has been narrowed to
ERISA-covered plans and IRAs that would benefit from this knowledge
(i.e., Covered Plans). Notice does not need to be given to a client
with respect to which a Barclays Affiliated QPAM has expressly
disclaimed reliance on QPAM status or reliance on PTE 84-14.
Comment 35--QPAM Compliance with PTE 84-14 Conditions Except Section
I(g); Section I(l)
Section I(l) of the proposed five-year exemption provides that
``[t]he Barclays QPAMs must comply with each condition of PTE 84-14, as
amended, with the sole exception of the violation of Section I(g) of
PTE 84-14 that is attributable to the Conviction.''
The Applicant represents this condition contains an unintended
error as ``Barclays QPAM'' is undefined. The Applicant suggests that
the condition read: ``The Barclays Affiliated QPAMs must comply with
each condition of PTE 84-14, as amended, with the sole exception of the
violation of Section I(g) of PTE 84-14 that is attributable to the
Conviction.''
The Department has revised the exemption in the manner requested by
the Applicant.
Comment 36--Compliance Officer Appointment and Reporting Line--Section
I(m)(1)(ii)
Section I(m)(1)(ii) of the proposed five-year exemption provides,
``BPLC designates a senior compliance officer (the Compliance Officer)
who will be responsible for compliance with the Policies and Training
requirements described herein. The Compliance Officer must conduct an
annual review (the Annual Review) to determine the adequacy and
effectiveness of the implementation of the Policies and Training. With
respect to the Compliance Officer, the following conditions must be
met: . . .
(ii) The Compliance Officer must have a direct reporting line to
the highest-ranking corporate officer in charge of legal compliance
that is independent of BPLC's other business lines.''
The Applicant requests the deletion of conditions regarding
appointment of the Compliance Officer and the Annual Review. The
Applicant states that BPLC pleaded guilty to a single crime, based on
the conduct of two individuals in London who had no responsibility for
asset management. The Applicant claims that BPLC and its Affiliated
QPAMs have very robust compliance departments and that BPLC's
compliance and remediation efforts were singled out for praise by DOJ
and resulted in BPLC becoming the first corporate entity to receive
sentencing credit for such efforts. The Applicant asserts that the
Department's imposition of additional compliance requirements is, under
these circumstances, unwarranted and seemingly arbitrary. The Applicant
states that the Department has not imposed a
[[Page 61896]]
requirement like that in Subsection I(m) in granting past exemptions,
and claims that there is no basis for imposing the requirement herein.
The Applicant represents that Barclays should be trusted to determine
how to comply with the exemption and its Policies and Training
conditions, which are separately the subject of the audit requirement.
In addition, the Applicant states that the reference to the ``highest
ranking corporate officer in charge of legal compliance'' is unclear.
The Applicant requests that if the condition is not deleted, that the
condition read: ``(m)(1) BPLC designates a compliance officer (the
Compliance Officer) who will be responsible for compliance with the
Policies and Training requirements described herein: . . .
(ii) The Compliance Officer must have a direct reporting line to
the highest-ranking corporate officer in charge of legal or compliance
that is independent of BPLC's other business lines.''
The Department proposed the requirement of an internal compliance
officer because of serious concerns regarding the Applicant's
compliance regime, as discussed above. The Department's determination
to grant this exemption is based in part on the Department's view that
an internal compliance officer with responsibility over the policies
and procedures mandated by this exemption will provide a new level of
oversight necessary to ensure that such Policies and Training are
properly implemented. In response to the Applicant's comment that the
reference to the ``highest ranking corporate officer in charge of legal
compliance'' is unclear, as noted above in Section I(i)(8), the
Department has modified ``highest ranking corporate officer in charge
of legal compliance'' to ``highest ranking corporate officer in charge
of compliance for asset management.''
Comment 37--Distribution of Compliance Officer's Annual Report--Section
I(m)(2)(iv)
Section I(m)(2)(iv) of the proposed five-year exemption provides,
``[w]ith respect to each Annual Review, the following conditions must
be met: . . .
(iv) Each Annual Report must be provided to appropriate corporate
officers of BPLC and each Barclays Affiliated QPAM to which such report
relates; the head of compliance and the General Counsel (or their
functional equivalent) of the relevant Barclays Affiliated QPAM; and
must be made unconditionally available to the independent auditor
described in Section I(i) above.''
To the extent the Annual Review and Annual Report conditions are
not deleted, the Applicant requests deletion of the requirement that
the Annual Report be provided to ``appropriate corporate officers.''
The Applicant states that this term is undefined and unclear. The
Applicant states that the purpose of this condition is satisfied by
providing the Report to the General Counsel (or their functional
equivalent) who can determine what further internal distribution is
necessary. If the condition is not deleted, the Applicant suggests that
the condition read: ``Each Annual Report must be provided to the head
of compliance and the General Counsel (or their functional equivalent)
of the relevant Barclays Affiliated QPAM and the General Counsel (or
their functional equivalent) of BPLC; and must be made unconditionally
available to the independent auditor described in Section I(i) above.''
While the Department declines to delete the Annual Review and
Annual Report conditions, after consideration of the Applicant's
comment, the Department has revised the exemption in the manner
requested by the Applicant.
Comment 38--Compliance Annual Review and Timing--Section I(m)(2)(v)
Section I(m)(2)(v) of the proposed five-year exemption provides,
``[w]ith respect to each Annual Review, the following conditions must
be met: . . . (v) Each Annual Review, including the Compliance
Officer's written Annual Report, must be completed at least three (3)
months in advance of the date on which each audit described in Section
I(i) is scheduled to be completed.''
To the extent the Annual Review and Annual Report requirements are
not deleted, the Applicant requests that this condition be deleted or,
at minimum, that the timing requirement be removed. The Applicant
states that the compliance review process outlined in the proposed
exemption is an extensive undertaking, and the proposed exemption
envisions an iterative process in which the auditor communicates with
the relevant QPAM upon discovery of issues. The Applicant states that
the Department should not mandate each aspect of the Annual Review, to
the extent the Annual Review requirement remains, and, in any case, the
Annual Review should not be mandated to conclude well before the audit
is completed. If the condition is not deleted, the Applicant suggests
that the condition read: ``(v) The first Annual Review, including the
Compliance Officer's written Annual Report, must be completed within
twelve (12) months of the Effective Date and each successive Annual
Review must be completed within twelve (12) months of the prior Annual
Review.''
The Department declines to delete the Annual Review and Annual
Report conditions. The Department notes that the Annual Review and the
Annual Report are integral to the auditor's assessment of the
Applicant's compliance with the terms of the exemption. An independent
assessment by the auditor of the adequacy of the Annual Review and the
Annual Report is essential to providing appropriate assurances that the
Applicant and the Barclays Affiliated QPAMs have taken their
obligations under this exemption very seriously and have complied with
those obligations. The Department has modified the time by which the
Annual Review, including the Annual Report, is due, to three months
following the period to which it relates.
Comment 39--Deferred Prosecution Agreement/Non-Prosecution Agreement--
Section I(o)(2)
Section I(o)(2) of the proposed five-year exemption provides, with
respect to any Deferred Prosecution Agreement or Non-Prosecution
Agreement: ``During the effective period of this five-year exemption,
if granted, BPLC: (2) Immediately provides the Department any
information requested by the Department, as permitted by law, regarding
the agreement and/or conduct and allegations that led to the agreement.
After review of the information, the Department may require BPLC, its
affiliates, or related parties, as specified by the Department, to
submit a new application for the continued availability of relief as a
condition of continuing to rely on this exemption. If the Department
denies the relief requested in the new application, or does not grant
such relief within twelve (12) months of application, the relief
described herein is revoked as of the date of denial or as of the
expiration of the twelve (12) month period, whichever date is
earlier.''
The Applicant requests that the Department delete this condition.
The Applicant states that the condition does not meet the requirements
of either the Administrative Procedure Act (the APA) or the
Department's own regulations. The Applicant states that if the
Department wishes to withdraw an exemption, it must publish its intent
to withdraw for notice and comment in the Federal Register. See 5
U.S.C. 553 and 29 CFR 2570.50. The Applicant states that the proposed
rule provides that the Department, at its option, can require the
Applicant to ``reapply'' for an
[[Page 61897]]
exemption, and if the Department denies it or simply lets a year go by,
the current exemption is terminated. However, the Applicant states that
the APA and the Department's own regulation require that an exemption
may not be terminated unless the Department publishes the termination
for notice and comment.
The Applicant also objects that the condition could create risk and
uncertainty for multiple loans, leases, swaps, forwards and other
investments. In addition, the Applicant states that the timing of NPAs/
DPAs is uncertain. If the condition is not deleted, the Applicant
requests that the condition read as follows: ``During the effective
period of the permanent exemption BPLC: (1) Immediately discloses to
the Department any Deferred Prosecution Agreement (a DPA) or a Non-
Prosecution Agreement (an NPA) with the U.S. Department of Justice,
entered into by Barclays or any of its affiliates in connection with
conduct described in Section I(g) of PTE 84-14 or section 411 of ERISA;
and (2) Immediately provides the Department any information requested
by the Department, as permitted by law, regarding the agreement and/or
conduct and allegations that led to the agreement.''
The Department in no way intended that this condition to be read as
providing for an automatic revocation of the exemption and has revised
this condition accordingly. As revised, the condition simply requires
that the Applicant notify the Department if and when it or any of its
affiliates enter into a DPA or NPA with the U.S. Department of Justice
for conduct described in section I(g) of PTE 84-14 or ERISA section 411
and immediately provide the Department with any information requested
by the Department, as permitted by law, regarding the agreement and/or
conduct and allegations that led to the agreement. The Department
retains the right to propose a withdrawal of the exemption pursuant to
its procedures contained at 29 CFR 2570.50, should the circumstances
warrant such action.
Comment 40--Right to Copies of Policies and Procedures--Section I(p)
Section I(p) of the proposed five-year exemption provides that,
``[e]ach Barclays Affiliated QPAM, in its agreements with ERISA-covered
plan and IRA clients, or in other written disclosures provided to
ERISA-covered plan and IRA clients, within 60 days prior to the initial
transaction upon which relief hereunder is relied, and then at least
once annually, will clearly and prominently: inform the ERISA-covered
plan and IRA client that the client has the right to obtain copies of
the QPAM's written Policies adopted in accordance with this exemption,
if granted.''
The Applicant requests that this condition be revised to permit
clients to seek and obtain copies of the policies and procedures upon
request. The Applicant states that this condition adds to the number of
duplicative and overlapping notice requirements to clients, which is
burdensome and may lead to confusion and clients ignoring these
mailings. The Applicant also states that annual re-notification is
excessive and only adds to these risks. Further, the Applicant states
that the exemption, which the client will already have received, can
make clear that clients can request and receive the policies and
procedures upon request, removing any need for additional mailings. The
Applicant suggests that the condition read: ``ERISA-covered plan and
IRA clients whose accounts are managed in reliance on PTE 84-14 shall
be provided a copy of the QPAM's written Policies adopted in accordance
with the exemption upon request.''
The Department disagrees, in part, with the Applicant's comment.
Affording ERISA-covered plan and IRA clients a means by which to review
and understand the Policies is a vital protection that is fundamental
to this exemption's purpose. However, the Department has modified the
condition so that the QPAMs, at their election, may instead provide
Covered Plans a disclosure that accurately describes or summarizes key
components of the Policies, rather than provide the Policies in their
entirety. The Department has also determined that such disclosure may
be continuously maintained on a website, provided that the website link
to the summary of the written Policies is clearly and prominently
disclosed to those ERISA-covered plan and IRA clients to whom this
section applies. The Department also agrees with the Applicant that the
timing requirement for notice should be revised and, accordingly, has
modified the condition of Section I(p) to require notice regarding the
information on the website be provided prior to or contemporaneously
with a Barclays Affiliated QPAM's engagement by any Covered Plan. The
notice shall be provided in its agreements with, or in other written
disclosures provided to any such Covered Plan. If the Policies are
thereafter changed, each Covered Plan client must receive a new notice
within six (6) months following the end of the calendar year during
which the Policies were changed.
Comment 41--No-Fault Provision--Section I(q)
Section I(q) the proposed five-year exemption provides that, ``[a]
Barclays Affiliated QPAM or a Barclays Related QPAM will not fail to
meet the terms of this exemption, if granted, solely because a
different Barclays Affiliated QPAM or a Barclays Related QPAM fails to
satisfy a condition for relief described in Sections I(c), (d), (h),
(i), (j), (k), (n) and (p).''
The Applicant requests that this provision include references to
the conditions described in Subsections I(e), (f), (g), and (m). The
Applicant represents that it is important to advance the principle that
a QPAM should not lose exemptive relief simply because a separate QPAM
within the same corporate family has failed to satisfy a condition.
Adding the Subsections listed above will ensure that the relief is
meaningful here. Moreover, the Applicant represents that the failure of
the auditor to meet a requirement of the exemption should not
disqualify the QPAMs from using the exemption. The Applicant suggests
that the condition read: ``A Barclays Affiliated QPAM or a Barclays
Related QPAM will not fail to meet the terms of this exemption solely
because a different Barclays Affiliated QPAM or a Barclays Related QPAM
fails to satisfy a condition for relief described in Sections I(c),
(d), (e), (f), (g), (h), (i), (j), (k), (m), (n) and (p), or because
the Auditor failed to meet a requirement of this exemption.''
The Department declines to extend the relief provided under Section
I(q) to Sections I(e), (f), (g), and (m).
Section I(e) provides that any failure of a Barclays Affiliated
QPAM or Barclays Related QPAM to comply with Section I(g) of PTE 84-14
arose solely from the Conviction. As set forth in the Applicant's
materials, the Conviction is the sole reason a new exemption is
necessary for the Barclays Affiliated QPAMs. If there were a new or
additional conviction of crime described in Section I(g) of PTE 84-14,
the Department would need to assess the misconduct, its scope, and its
significance. Without such an assessment, the Department could not be
confident of the adequacy of the conditions set forth herein with
respect to the Barclays Affiliated QPAMs and Related QPAMs. Indeed,
depending on the particular facts, a subsequent conviction could be
strong evidence of the inadequacy of this exemption's conditions to
protect Covered Plans. Further, as stated above, the Department
[[Page 61898]]
is not obligated to grant further relief to the extent such a
conviction occurs.
Section I(f) provides that no Barclays Affiliated QPAM or Barclays
Related QPAM exercised authority over the assets of any ERISA-covered
plan or IRA in a manner that it knew or should have known would:
Further the criminal conduct that is the subject of the Conviction; or
cause the Barclays Affiliated QPAM or Barclays Related QPAM or its
affiliates or related parties to directly or indirectly profit from the
criminal conduct that is the subject of the Conviction. The Applicant
has represented that the conduct that is the subject of the BPLC's
conviction ``did not involve any of BLPC's asset management units.''
The Department is not persuaded that it should include relief from
Section I(f) in Section I(q).
Section I(g) requires BPLC to refrain from providing investment
management services to plans, and Section I(m) requires a Compliance
Officer to undertake various compliance and reporting obligations.
Consequently, if the relief under I(q) were extended to Sections I(g)
and I(m), it would render them virtually meaningless. There would be
little or no effective penalty for the failure to comply with the
conditions, as the Affiliated and Related QPAMs would remain free to
rely on the exemption's terms. The Department also is of the view that
the potential for disqualification of all Barclays Affiliated QPAMs
under this agreement will serve as additional incentive for these
entities to comply in good-faith with the provisions of Sections I(g)
and (m).
However, the Department has determined to extend the relief in
condition (l), which requires Barclays Affiliated QPAMs to comply with
each condition of PTE 84-14, as amended, with the sole exception of the
violation of Section I(g) of PTE 84-14 that is attributable to the
Conviction. Finally, except as noted above, the Department accepts the
Applicant's comment that the failure of the auditor to comply with any
of the conditions of the exemption should not be treated as a failure
by the Barclays Affiliated QPAMs to comply with the conditions of the
exemption, provided that such failure was not due to the actions or
inactions of the Applicant or its affiliates, and Section I(q) is
amended, accordingly, except as described above.
Comment 42--Definition of Affiliated QPAM--Section II(a)
Section II(a) of the proposed five-year exemption provides: ``[T]he
term `Barclays Affiliated QPAM' means a `qualified professional asset
manager' (as defined in Section VI(a) of PTE 84-14) that relies on the
relief provided by PTE 84-14 and with respect to which BPLC is a
current or future `affiliate' (as defined in Section VI(d)(1) of PTE
84-14). The term `Barclays Affiliated QPAM' excludes the parent entity,
BPLC and BCI's Investment Bank division.''
The Applicant states that BCI was not the subject of the
Conviction, nor was its Investment Bank division the subject of the
Conviction. The Applicant also represents that the division should not
be excluded from the exemption, because BCI is an Affiliated QPAM in
the BPLC Group, and excluding a BCI division from the benefits of PTE
84-14 would not only deter ordinary corporate transactions, such as the
purchase of an asset management entity and its merging into BCI, it
would prevent the development by BCI of new asset management lines of
business. Moreover, the Applicant states that the Justice Department
did not charge BCI, and thus did not determine that as a corporate
entity, it was culpable of a crime. By excluding BCI's Investment Bank
division from the benefits of PTE 84-14, the Applicant represents that
the Department is making that judgment in the place of the Justice
Department and effectively debarring the entity from providing any
fiduciary services at all. According to the Applicant, such a result is
arbitrary and punitive. Therefore, the Applicant requests that the
provision read as follows: ``The term `Barclays Affiliated QPAM' means
a `qualified professional asset manager'' (as defined in Section VI(a)
of PTE 84-14) that relies on the relief provided by PTE 84-14 and with
respect to which BPLC is a current or future `affiliate' (as defined in
Section VI(d)(1) of PTE 84-14). The term `Barclays Affiliated QPAM'
excludes BPLC.''
The Department agrees with this comment and has modified Section
II(a) accordingly.
Comment 43--Definition of Conviction--Section II(e)
Section II(e) of the proposed five-year exemption provides: ``The
term `Conviction' means the judgment of conviction against BPLC in the
United States District Court for the District of Connecticut (the
Court), Case No. 3:15-cr-00077-SRU-1, for participating in a
combination and conspiracy to fix, stabilize, maintain, increase or
decrease the price of, and rig bids and offers for, euro/U.S. dollar
currency pairs exchanged in the foreign currency exchange spot market
by agreeing to eliminate competition in the purchase and sale of such
currency pairs in the United States and elsewhere, in violation of the
Sherman Antitrust Act, 15 U.S.C. 1.''
The Applicant states that the language in this definition
paraphrases the Plea Agreement and expands the use of the term
Conviction far beyond the conduct that is the subject of the Plea
Agreement. The Applicant states that exemptions are narrowly construed
and it is critical that both the asset managers using the exemption and
plan counterparties understand precisely what the conditions mean. The
Applicant states that, without that precision, it is difficult to know
whether conditions regarding compensation, participation, and future
hiring are met. The Applicant represents that this overly-broad
language goes far beyond the Part I(g) disqualification and will cause
the Applicant and counterparties to conclude that it is unusable.
Finally, the Applicant states that the definition of ``Conviction'' in
Subsection II(e) was accurate in the Temporary Exemption. Therefore,
the Applicant requests that this definition read as follows: ``The term
``Conviction'' means the judgment of conviction against BPLC for
violation of the Sherman Antitrust Act, 15 U.S.C. 1, which is scheduled
to be entered in the District Court for the District of Connecticut
(the District Court), Case Number 3:15-cr-00077-SRU-1.''
After considering this comment, the Department has revised the
definition accordingly. The Department notes that Section II of the
five-year exemption has been reordered to list the defined terms
alphabetically; therefore, the term ``Conviction'' is now listed as
Subsection II(d).
Comments 44-46--Paragraph 2 of the Summary of Facts and Representations
The Applicant seeks certain clarifications to the Summary of Facts
and Representations that the Department does not view as relevant to
its determination whether to grant this exemption. Those requested
clarifications may be found as part of the public record for
Application No. D-11910, in a letter to the Department, dated January
5, 2017.
Comment--Letter from House Committee on Financial Services
The Department also received a comment letter from certain members
of Congress (the Members) regarding this exemption, as well as the
other QPAM-related exemptions published in the Federal Register today.
In the letter, the Members recognized that certain conditions contained
in these proposed exemptions are crucial to protecting the investments
of our nation's workers and retirees, referring to proposed
[[Page 61899]]
conditions which require each bank to: (a) Indemnify and hold harmless
ERISA-covered plans and IRAs for any damages resulting from the future
misconduct of such bank; and (b) disclose to the Department any
Deferred Prosecution Agreement or a Non-Prosecution Agreement with the
U.S. Department of Justice. The Members also requested that the
Department hold hearings in connection with the proposed exemptions.
The Department acknowledges the Members' concerns regarding the
need for public discourse regarding proposed exemptions. To this end,
the Department's procedures regarding prohibited transaction exemption
requests under ERISA (the Exemption Procedures) afford interested
persons the opportunity to request a hearing. Specifically, section
2570.46(a) of the Exemption Procedures provides that, ``[a]ny
interested person who may be adversely affected by an exemption which
the Department proposes to grant from the restrictions of section
406(b) of ERISA, section 4975(c)(1)(E) or (F) of the Code, or section
8477(c)(2) of FERSA may request a hearing before the Department within
the period of time specified in the Federal Register notice of the
proposed exemption.'' The Exemption Procedures provide that ``[t]he
Department will grant a request for a hearing made in accordance with
paragraph (a) of this section where a hearing is necessary to fully
explore material factual issues identified by the person requesting the
hearing.'' The Exemption Procedures also provide that ``[t]he
Department may decline to hold a hearing where: (1) The request for the
hearing does not meet the requirements of paragraph (a) of this
section; (2) the only issues identified for exploration at the hearing
are matters of law; or (3) the factual issues identified can be fully
explored through the submission of evidence in written (including
electronic) form.'' \56\
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\56\ 29 CFR part 2570, published at 76 FR 66653, October 27,
2011.
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The Department notes that while the Members' letter raises policy
issues, it does not appear to raise specific material factual issues.
The Department previously explored a wide range of legal and policy
issues regarding Section I(g) of the QPAM Exemption during a public
hearing held on January 15, 2015 in connection with the Department's
proposed exemption involving Credit Suisse AG, and has determined that
an additional hearing on these issues is not necessary.
After giving full consideration to the record, the Department has
decided to grant the exemption, as described above. The complete
application file (Application No. D-11910) is available for public
inspection in the Public Disclosure Room of the Employee Benefits
Security Administration, Room N-1515, U.S. Department of Labor, 200
Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20210.
For a more complete statement of the facts and representations
supporting the Department's decision to grant this exemption, refer to
the notice of proposed exemption published on November 21, 2016 at 81
FR 83427.
Exemption
Section I: Covered Transactions
Certain entities with specified relationships to Barclays PLC
(BPLC) (the Barclays Affiliated QPAMs and the Barclays Related QPAMs,
as defined further in Sections II(a) and II(b), respectively) will not
be precluded from relying on the exemptive relief provided by
Prohibited Transaction Class Exemption 84-14 (PTE 84-14 or the QPAM
Exemption), notwithstanding the Conviction, as defined in Section
II(d), during the Exemption Period,\57\ provided that the following
conditions are satisfied:
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\57\ Section I(g) of PTE 84-14 generally provides that
``[n]either the QPAM nor any affiliate thereof . . . nor any owner .
. . of a 5 percent or more interest in the QPAM is a person who
within the 10 years immediately preceding the transaction has been
either convicted or released from imprisonment, whichever is later,
as a result of'' certain felonies including violation of the Sherman
Antitrust Act, Title 15 United States Code, Section 1.
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(a) Other than certain individuals who: Worked for a non-fiduciary
business of a BPLC subsidiary; had no responsibility for, and exercised
no authority in connection with, the management of plan assets; and are
no longer employed by the BPLC subsidiary, the Barclays Affiliated
QPAMs and the Barclays Related QPAMs (including their officers,
directors, agents other than BPLC, and employees of such QPAMs who had
responsibility for, or exercised authority in connection with the
management of plan assets) did not know of, did not have reason to know
of, or participate in the criminal conduct that is the subject of the
Conviction. For the purposes of this paragraph (a), ``participate in''
means the knowing approval of the misconduct underlying the Conviction;
(b) Apart from a non-fiduciary line of business within BCI, the
Barclays Affiliated QPAMs and the Barclays Related QPAMs (including
their officers, directors, and agents other than BPLC, and employees of
such Barclays Affiliated QPAMs) did not receive direct compensation, or
knowingly receive indirect compensation, in connection with the
criminal conduct that is the subject of the Conviction;
(c) The Barclays Affiliated QPAM will not employ or knowingly
engage any of the individuals that participated in the criminal conduct
that is the subject of the Conviction. For the purposes of this
paragraph (c), ``participated in'' means the knowing approval of the
misconduct underlying the Conviction;
(d) At all times during the Exemption Period, no Barclays
Affiliated QPAM will use its authority or influence to direct an
``investment fund'' (as defined in Section VI(b) of PTE 84-14), that is
subject to ERISA or the Code and managed by such Barclays Affiliated
QPAM in reliance on PTE 84-14, or with respect to which a Barclays
Affiliated QPAM has expressly represented to an ERISA-covered plan or
IRA with assets invested in such ``investment fund'' that it qualifies
as a QPAM or relies on the QPAM class exemption, to enter into any
transaction with BPLC, or to engage BPLC to provide any service to such
investment fund, for a direct or indirect fee borne by such investment
fund, regardless of whether such transaction or service may otherwise
be within the scope of relief provided by an administrative or
statutory exemption;
(e) Any failure of a Barclays Affiliated QPAM or a Barclays Related
QPAM to satisfy Section I(g) of PTE 84-14 arose solely from the
Conviction;
(f) A Barclays Affiliated QPAM or a Barclays Related QPAM did not
exercise authority over the assets of any plan subject to Part 4 of
Title I of ERISA (an ERISA-covered plan) or section 4975 of the Code
(an IRA) in a manner that it knew or should have known would: Further
the criminal conduct that is the subject of the Conviction; or cause
the Barclays Affiliated QPAM, the Barclays Related QPAM or their
affiliates to directly or indirectly profit from the criminal conduct
that is the subject of the Conviction;
(g) Other than with respect to employee benefit plans maintained or
sponsored for its own employees or the employees of an affiliate, BPLC
will not act as a fiduciary within the meaning of section 3(21)(A)(i)
or (iii) of ERISA, or section 4975(e)(3)(A) and (C) of the Code, with
respect to ERISA-covered plan and IRA assets; provided, however, that
BPLC will not be treated as violating the conditions of this exemption
solely because it acted as an investment advice fiduciary within the
meaning of section 3(21)(A)(ii) or section 4975(e)(3)(B) of the Code;
[[Page 61900]]
(h)(1) Prior to a Barclays Affiliated QPAM's engagement by an
ERISA-covered plan or IRA for discretionary asset management services,
where the QPAM relies upon PTE 84-14 or the QPAM represents that it
qualifies as a QPAM, the Barclays Affiliated QPAM must develop,
implement, maintain, and follow written policies and procedures (the
Policies). The Policies must require and must be reasonably designed to
ensure that:
(i) The asset management decisions of the Barclays Affiliated QPAM
are conducted independently of the corporate management and business
activities of BPLC;
(ii) The Barclays Affiliated QPAM fully complies with ERISA's
fiduciary duties, and with ERISA and the Code's prohibited transaction
provisions, as applicable with respect to each Covered Plan, and does
not knowingly participate in any violation of these duties and
provisions with respect to Covered Plans;
(iii) The Barclays Affiliated QPAM does not knowingly participate
in any other person's violation of ERISA or the Code with respect to
Covered Plans;
(iv) Any filings or statements made by the Barclays Affiliated QPAM
to regulators, including, but not limited to, the Department, the
Department of the Treasury, the Department of Justice, and the Pension
Benefit Guaranty Corporation, on behalf of or in relation to Covered
Plans, are materially accurate and complete, to the best of such QPAM's
knowledge at that time;
(v) To the best of the Barclays Affiliated QPAM's knowledge at the
time, the Barclays Affiliated QPAM does not make material
misrepresentations or omit material information in its communications
with such regulators with respect to Covered Plans;
(vi) The Barclays Affiliated QPAM complies with the terms of this
exemption; and
(vii) Any violation of, or failure to comply with an item in
subparagraphs (ii) through (vi), is corrected as soon as reasonably
possible upon discovery, or as soon after the QPAM reasonably should
have known of the noncompliance (whichever is earlier), and any such
violation or compliance failure not so corrected is reported, upon the
discovery of such failure to so correct, in writing, to the head of
compliance and the General Counsel (or their functional equivalent) of
the relevant line of business that engaged in the violation or failure,
and the independent auditor responsible for reviewing compliance with
the Policies. A Barclays Affiliated QPAM will not be treated as having
failed to develop, implement, maintain, or follow the Policies,
provided that it corrects any instance of noncompliance as soon as
reasonably possible upon discovery, or as soon as reasonably possible
after the QPAM reasonably should have known of the noncompliance
(whichever is earlier), and provided that it adheres to the reporting
requirements set forth in this subparagraph (vii);
(2) Prior to a Barclays Affiliated QPAM's engagement by a Covered
Plan, each Barclays Affiliated QPAM must develop a program of training
(the Training), to be conducted at least annually, for all relevant
Barclays Affiliated QPAM asset/portfolio management, trading, legal,
compliance, and internal audit personnel. The First Training under this
exemption must be completed by all relevant Barclays personnel within
eighteen months of the Barclay's Affiliated QPAM's engagement or
representation, as described in this provision. The Training must:
(i) At a minimum, cover the Policies, ERISA and Code compliance
(including applicable fiduciary duties and the prohibited transaction
provisions), ethical conduct, the consequences for not complying with
the conditions of this exemption (including any loss of exemptive
relief provided herein), and prompt reporting of wrongdoing; and
(ii) Be conducted by an individual with significant understanding
and familiarity with asset management and trading practices who has
been prudently selected and who has appropriate technical training and
proficiency with ERISA and the Code;
(i)(1) Each Barclays Affiliated QPAM submits to an audit conducted
every two years by an independent auditor, who has been prudently
selected and who has appropriate technical training and proficiency
with ERISA and the Code, to evaluate the adequacy of, and each Barclays
Affiliated QPAM's compliance with, the Policies and Training described
herein. The audit requirement must be incorporated in the Policies.
Each audit must cover a consecutive twelve (12) month period starting
with the twelve (12) month period that begins on the date that a
Barclays Affiliated QPAM is first engaged on or after January 10, 2018,
by any Covered Plan. The second audit must cover a consecutive twelve
month period that begins on the date that is twelve months after the
date the first audit period ends. The third audit period must cover a
consecutive twelve month period that begins on the date that is twelve
months after the date the second audit period ends. Each biennial audit
must be completed no later than six (6) months after the period to
which the audit applies. No audit period is required to extend past
July 9, 2023, and each biennial audit must be completed no later than
six (6) months after the period to which the audit applies;
(2) Within the scope of the audit and to the extent necessary for
the auditor, in its sole opinion, to complete its audit and comply with
the conditions for relief described herein, and only to the extent such
disclosure is not prevented by state or federal statute, or involves
communications subject to attorney client privilege, each Barclays
Affiliated QPAM and, if applicable, BPLC, will grant the auditor
unconditional access to its business, including, but not limited to:
its computer systems; business records; transactional data; workplace
locations; training materials; and personnel. Such access is limited to
information relevant to the auditor's objectives as specified by the
terms of this exemption;
(3) The auditor's engagement must specifically require the auditor
to determine whether each Barclays Affiliated QPAM has developed,
implemented, maintained, and followed the Policies in accordance with
the conditions of this exemption, and has developed and implemented the
Training, as required herein;
(4) The auditor's engagement must specifically require the auditor
to test each Barclays Affiliated QPAM's operational compliance with the
Policies and Training. In this regard, the auditor must test for each
QPAM, a sample of such QPAM's transactions involving Covered Plans,
sufficient in size and nature to afford the auditor a reasonable basis
to determine such QPAM's operational compliance with the Policies and
Training;
(5) For each audit, on or before the end of the relevant period
described in Section I(i)(1) for completing the audit, the auditor must
issue a written report (the Audit Report) to BPLC and the Barclays
Affiliated QPAM to which the audit applies that describes the
procedures performed by the auditor during the course of its
examination. The auditor, at their discretion, may issue a single
consolidated Audit Report which covers all the Barclays Affiliated
QPAMs. The Audit Report must include the auditor's specific
determinations regarding:
(i) The adequacy of each Barclays Affiliated QPAM's Policies and
Training; each Barclays Affiliated QPAM's compliance with the Policies
and Training; the need, if any, to strengthen such Policies and
Training; and any instance of the respective Barclays Affiliated QPAM's
noncompliance with the written
[[Page 61901]]
Policies and Training described in Section I(h) above. The Barclays
Affiliated QPAM must promptly address any noncompliance. The Barclays
Affiliated QPAM must promptly address or prepare a written plan of
action to address any determination by the auditor regarding the
Policies and Training and the auditor's recommendations (if any) with
respect to strengthening the Policies and Training of the respective
Barclays QPAM. Any action taken or the plan of action to be taken by
the respective Barclays Affiliated QPAM must be included in an addendum
to the Audit Report (which addendum must be completed prior to the
certification described in Section I(i)(7) below). In the event such a
plan of action to address the auditor's recommendation regarding the
adequacy of the Policies and Training is not completed by the time of
submission of the Audit Report, the following period's Audit Report
must state whether the plan was satisfactorily completed. Any
determination by the auditor that the respective Barclays Affiliated
QPAM has implemented, maintained, and followed sufficient Policies and
Training must not be based solely or in substantial part on an absence
of evidence indicating noncompliance. In this last regard, any finding
that a Barclays Affiliated QPAM has complied with the requirements
under this subparagraph must be based on evidence that the particular
Barclays Affiliated QPAM has actually implemented, maintained, and
followed the Policies and Training required by this exemption.
Furthermore, the auditor must not solely rely on the Annual Report
created by the compliance officer (the Compliance Officer) as described
in Section I(m) below as the basis for the auditor's conclusions in
lieu of independent determinations and testing performed by the auditor
as required by Section I(i)(3) and (4) above; and
(ii) the adequacy of the most recent Annual Review described in
Section I(m);
(6) The auditor must notify the respective Barclays Affiliated QPAM
of any instance of noncompliance identified by the auditor within five
(5) business days after such noncompliance is identified by the
auditor, regardless of whether the audit has been completed as of that
date.;
(7) With respect to each Audit Report, the General Counsel, or one
of the three most senior executive officers of the Barclays Affiliated
QPAM to which the Audit Report applies, must certify in writing, under
penalty of perjury, that the officer has reviewed the Audit Report and
this exemption; that such Barclays Affiliated QPAM has addressed,
corrected or remedied, any noncompliance and inadequacy, or has an
appropriate written plan to address any inadequacy regarding the
Policies and Training identified in the Audit Report. Such
certification must also include the signatory's determination that the
Policies and Training in effect at the time of signing are adequate to
ensure compliance with the conditions of this exemption, and with the
applicable provisions of ERISA and the Code;
(8) The Risk Committee of BPLC's Board of Directors is provided a
copy of each Audit Report; and a senior executive officer with a direct
reporting line to the highest ranking compliance officer of BPLC must
review the Audit Report for each Barclays Affiliated QPAM and must
certify in writing, under penalty of perjury, that such officer has
reviewed each Audit Report;
(9) Each Barclays Affiliated QPAM provides its certified Audit
Report, by regular mail to: Office of Exemption Determinations (OED),
200 Constitution Avenue NW, Suite 400, Washington, DC 20210, or by
private carrier to: 122 C Street NW, Suite 400, Washington, DC 20001-
2109, no later than 30 days following its completion of the Audit
Report. The Audit Report will be part of the public record regarding
this exemption. Furthermore, each Barclays Affiliated QPAM must make
its Audit Report unconditionally available, electronically or
otherwise, for examination upon request by any duly authorized employee
or representative of the Department, other relevant regulators, and any
fiduciary of a Covered Plan;
(10) Each Barclays Affiliated QPAM and the auditor must submit to
OED: Any engagement agreement(s) entered into pursuant to the
engagement of the auditor under this exemption, no later than two (2)
months after the execution of any such engagement agreement;
(11) The auditor must provide the Department, upon request, for
inspection and review, access to all the workpapers created and
utilized in the course of the audit provided such access and inspection
is otherwise permitted by law; and
(12) BPLC must notify the Department of a change in the independent
auditor no later than two (2) months after the engagement of a
substitute or subsequent auditor and must provide an explanation for
the substitution or change including a description of any material
disputes between the terminated auditor and BPLC;
(j) As of January 10, 2018 and throughout the Exemption Period,
with respect to any arrangement, agreement, or contract between a
Barclays Affiliated QPAM and a Covered Plan, the Barclays Affiliated
QPAM agrees and warrants:
(1) To comply with ERISA and the Code, as applicable, with respect
to such Covered Plan; to refrain from engaging in prohibited
transactions that are not otherwise exempt (and to promptly correct any
inadvertent prohibited transactions); and to comply with the standards
of prudence and loyalty set forth in section 404 of ERISA with respect
to each such ERISA-covered plan and IRA to the extent that section is
applicable;
(2) To indemnify and hold harmless the Covered Plan for any actual
losses resulting directly from a Barclays Affiliated QPAM's violation
of ERISA's fiduciary duties, as applicable, and of the prohibited
transaction provisions of ERISA and the Code, as applicable; a breach
of contract by the QPAM; or any claim arising out of the failure of
such Barclays Affiliated QPAM to qualify for the exemptive relief
provided by PTE 84-14 as a result of a violation of Section I(g) of PTE
84-14 other than the Conviction. This condition applies only to actual
losses caused by the Barclays Affiliated QPAM's violations;
(3) Not to require (or otherwise cause) the Covered Plan to waive,
limit, or qualify the liability of the Barclays Affiliated QPAM for
violating ERISA or the Code or engaging in prohibited transactions;
(4) Not to restrict the ability of such Covered Plan to terminate
or withdraw from its arrangement with the Barclays Affiliated QPAM with
respect to any investment in a separately managed account or pooled
fund subject to ERISA and managed by such QPAM, with the exception of
reasonable restrictions, appropriately disclosed in advance, that are
specifically designed to ensure equitable treatment of all investors in
a pooled fund in the event such withdrawal or termination may have
adverse consequences for all other investors. In connection with any
such arrangements involving investments in pooled funds subject to
ERISA entered into after the effective date of this exemption, the
adverse consequences must relate to of a lack of liquidity of the
underlying assets, valuation issues, or regulatory reasons that prevent
the fund from promptly redeeming an ERISA-covered plan's or IRA's
investment, and such restrictions must be applicable to all such
investors and effective no longer than reasonably necessary to avoid
the adverse consequences;
[[Page 61902]]
(5) Not to impose any fees, penalties, or charges for such
termination or withdrawal with the exception of reasonable fees,
appropriately disclosed in advance, that are specifically designed to
prevent generally recognized abusive investment practices or
specifically designed to ensure equitable treatment of all investors in
a pooled fund in the event such withdrawal or termination may have
adverse consequences for all other investors, provided that such fees
are applied consistently and in like manner to all such investors; and
(6) Not to include exculpatory provisions disclaiming or otherwise
limiting liability of the Barclays Affiliated QPAM for a violation of
such agreement's terms. To the extent consistent with Section 410 of
ERISA, however, this provision does not prohibit disclaimers for
liability caused by an error, misrepresentation, or misconduct of a
plan fiduciary or other party hired by the plan fiduciary who is
independent of BPLC, and its affiliates, or damages from acts outside
the control of the Barclays Affiliated QPAM;
(7) Prior to a Barclays Affiliated QPAM's engagement with an ERISA-
covered plan or IRA for the provision of asset management or other
discretionary fiduciary services, such Barclays Affiliated QPAM must
provide a notice of its obligations under this Section I(j) to each
Covered Plan;
(k) Any client for which a Barclays Affiliated QPAM relies on PTE
84-14 or has expressly represented that the manager qualifies as a QPAM
or relies on the QPAM class exemption must receive the proposed and
final exemptions, along with a separate summary describing the facts
that led to the Conviction (the Summary), which have been submitted to
the Department, and a prominently displayed statement (the Statement)
that the Conviction results in a failure to meet a condition in PTE 84-
14, prior to, or contemporaneously with, the client's receipt of a
written asset management agreement from the Barclays Affiliated QPAM.
Disclosures may be delivered electronically;
(l) The Barclays Affiliated QPAMs must comply with each condition
of PTE 84-14, as amended, with the sole exception of the violation of
Section I(g) of PTE 84-14 that is attributable to the Conviction;
(m)(1) Within six months following the date of a Barclays
Affiliated QPAM's engagement by an ERISA-covered plan or IRA for
discretionary asset management services, with respect to which the QPAM
has represented that it qualifies as a QPAM or will rely on PTE 84-14,
BPLC designates a senior compliance officer (the Compliance Officer)
who will be responsible for compliance with the Policies and Training
requirements described herein. The Compliance Officer must conduct an
annual review for each annual period beginning with the date of such
engagement and the anniversary of such date (the Annual Review) to
determine the adequacy and effectiveness of the implementation of the
Policies and Training. With respect to the Compliance Officer, the
following conditions must be met:
(i) The Compliance Officer must be a professional who has extensive
experience with, and knowledge of, the regulation of financial services
and products, including under ERISA and the Code; and
(ii) The Compliance Officer must have a direct reporting line to
the highest-ranking corporate officer in charge of compliance for asset
management;
(2) With respect to each Annual Review, the following conditions
must be met:
(i) The Annual Review includes a review of: Any compliance matter
related to the Policies or Training that was identified by, or reported
to, the Compliance Officer or others within the compliance and risk
control function (or its equivalent) during the previous year; any
material change in the relevant business activities of the Barclays
Affiliated QPAMs; and any change to ERISA, the Code, or regulations
related to fiduciary duties and the prohibited transaction provisions
that may be applicable to the activities of the Barclays Affiliated
QPAMs;
(ii) The Compliance Officer prepares a written report for each
Annual Review (each, an Annual Report) that: (A) Summarizes his or her
material activities during the preceding year; (B) sets forth any
instance of noncompliance discovered during the preceding year, and any
related corrective action; (C) details any change to the Policies or
Training to guard against any similar instance of noncompliance
occurring again; and (D) makes recommendations, as necessary, for
additional training, procedures, monitoring, or additional and/or
changed processes or systems, and management's actions on such
recommendations;
(iii) In each Annual Report, the Compliance Officer must certify in
writing that to his or her knowledge: (A) The report is accurate; (B)
the Policies and Training are working in a manner which is reasonably
designed to ensure that the Policies and Training requirements
described herein are met; (C) any known instance of noncompliance
during the preceding year and any related correction taken to date have
been identified in the Annual Report; and (D) the Barclays Affiliated
QPAMs have complied with the Policies and Training, and/or corrected
(or is correcting) any instances of noncompliance in accordance with
Section I(h) above;
(iv) Each Annual Report must be provided to the appropriate
corporate officers of BPLC and each Barclays Affiliated QPAM to which
such report relates; the head of compliance and the General Counsel (or
their functional equivalent) of the relevant Barclays Affiliated QPAM
and the General Counsel (or their functional equivalent) of BPLC; and
must be made unconditionally available to the independent auditor
described in Section I(i) above;
(v) Each Annual Review, including the Compliance Officer's written
Annual Report, must be completed no more than three (3) months
following the end of the period to which it relates;
(n) Each Barclays Affiliated QPAM will maintain records necessary
to demonstrate that the conditions of this exemption have been met, for
six (6) years following the date of any transaction for which such
Barclays Affiliated QPAM relies upon the relief in the exemption;
(o) During the Exemption Period, BPLC: (1) Immediately discloses to
the Department any Deferred Prosecution Agreement (a DPA) or a Non-
Prosecution Agreement (an NPA) with the U.S. Department of Justice,
entered into by BPLC or any of its affiliates in connection with
conduct described in Section I(g) of PTE 84-14 or section 411 of ERISA;
and (2) immediately provides the Department any information requested
by the Department, as permitted by law, regarding the agreement and/or
conduct and allegations that led to the agreement;
(p) Prior to or contemporaneously with a Barclays Affiliated QPAM's
engagement by any Covered Plan, each Barclays Affiliated QPAM will, in
its agreements with, or in other written disclosures provided to any
such Covered Plan, clearly and prominently inform such Covered Plan
client of the right to obtain a copy of the Policies or a description
(``Summary Policies'') which accurately summarizes key components of
the QPAM's written Policies developed in connection with this
exemption. If the Policies are thereafter changed, each Covered Plan
client must receive a new disclosure within six (6) months following
the end of the calendar year during which the
[[Page 61903]]
Policies were changed.\58\ With respect to this requirement, the
description may be continuously maintained on a website, provided that
such website link to the Policies or the Summary Policies is clearly
and prominently disclosed to each Covered Plan; and
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\58\ In the event Applicant meets this disclosure requirement
through Summary Policies, changes to the Policies shall not result
in the requirement for a new disclosure unless, as a result of
changes to the Policies, the Summary Policies are no longer
accurate.
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(q) A Barclays Affiliated QPAM or a Barclays Related QPAM will not
fail to meet the terms of this exemption solely because a different
Barclays Affiliated QPAM or Barclays Related QPAM fails to satisfy a
condition for relief described in Sections I(c), (d), (h), (i), (j),
(k), (l), (n) and (p); or the independent auditor described in Section
I(i) fails a provision of the exemption other than the requirement
described in Section I(i)(11), provided that such failure did not
result from any actions or inactions of BPLC or its affiliates.
Section II: Definitions
(a) The term ``BPLC'' means, Barclays PLC, the parent entity, but
does not include any subsidiaries or other affiliates.
(b) The term ``Barclays Affiliated QPAM'' means a ``qualified
professional asset manager'' (as defined in Section VI(a) of PTE 84-14)
that relies on the relief provided by PTE 84-14 and with respect to
which Barclays is a current or future ``affiliate'' (as defined in
Section VI(d)(1) of PTE 84-14). The term ``Barclays Affiliated QPAM''
excludes the parent entity, BPLC;
(c) The term ``Barclays Related QPAM'' means any current or future
``qualified professional asset manager'' (as defined in section VI(a)
of PTE 84-14) that relies on the relief provided by PTE 84-14, and with
respect to which BPLC owns a direct or indirect five percent or more
interest, but with respect to which BPLC is not an ``affiliate'' (as
defined in Section VI(d)(1) of PTE 84-14).
(d) The term ``Conviction'' means the judgment of conviction
against BPLC for violation of the Sherman Antitrust Act, 15 U.S.C. 1,
which is scheduled to be entered in the District Court for the District
of Connecticut (the District Court), Case Number 3:15-cr-00077-SRU-1;
(e) The term ``Conviction Date'' means the date of the judgment of
the trial court. For avoidance of confusion, the Conviction Date is
January 10, 2017, as set forth in Case Number 3:15-cr-00077-SRU;
(f) The term ``Covered Plan'' means a plan subject to Part 4 of
Title 1 of ERISA (``ERISA-covered plan'') or a plan subject to Section
4975 of the Code (``IRA'') with respect to which a Barclays Affiliated
QPAM relies on PTE 84-14, or with respect to which a Barclays
Affiliated QPAM (or any BPLC affiliate) has expressly represented that
the manager qualifies as a QPAM or relies on the QPAM class exemption
(PTE 84-14). A Covered Plan does not include an ERISA-covered Plan or
IRA to the extent the Barclays Affiliated QPAM has expressly disclaimed
reliance on QPAM status or PTE 84-14 in entering into its contract,
arrangement or agreement with the ERISA-covered plan or IRA;
(g) The terms ``ERISA-covered plan'' and ``IRA'' mean,
respectively, a plan subject to Part 4 of Title I of ERISA and a plan
subject to section 4975 of the Code; and
(h) The term ``Exemption Period'' means January 10, 2018, through
January 9, 2023.
Effective Date
This exemption is effective on January 10, 2018. The term of the
exemption is from January 10, 2018, through January 9, 2023 (the
Exemption Period).
Department's Comment: The Department cautions that the relief in
this exemption will terminate immediately if, among other things, an
entity within the BPLC corporate structure is convicted of a crime
described in Section I(g) of PTE 84-14 (other than the Conviction)
during the Exemption Period. Although the Applicant could apply for a
new exemption in that circumstance, the Department would not be
obligated to grant the exemption. The terms of this exemption have been
specifically designed to permit plans to terminate their relationships
in an orderly and cost effective fashion in the event of an additional
conviction or a determination that it is otherwise prudent for a plan
to terminate its relationship with an entity covered by the exemption.
Further Information
For more information on this exemption, contact Ms. Anna Vaughan of
the Department, telephone (202) 693-8565. (This is not a toll-free
number.)
UBS Assets Management (Americas) Inc.; UBS Realty Investors LLC; UBS
Hedge Fund Solutions LLC; UBS O'Connor LLC; and Certain Future
Affiliates in UBS's Asset Management and Wealth Management Americas
Divisions (collectively, the Applicants or the UBS QPAMs) Located in
Chicago, Illinois; Hartford, Connecticut; New York, New York; and
Chicago, Illinois, Respectively
[Prohibited Transaction Exemption 2017-07; Exemption Application No. D-
11907]
Discussion
On November 21, 2016, the Department of Labor (the Department)
published a notice of proposed exemption in the Federal Register at 81
FR 83385, for certain entities with specified relationships to UBS AG
(hereinafter, the UBS QPAMs) to continue to rely on the relief provided
by PTE 84-14 for a period of five years,\59\ notwithstanding the ``2013
Conviction'' of UBS Securities Japan Co., Ltd. and the ``2017
Conviction'' of UBS, AG (UBS) (collectively, the Convictions), as
described herein.
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\59\ 49 FR 9494 (March 13, 1984), as corrected at 50 FR 41430
(October 10, 1985), as amended at 70 FR 49305 (August 23, 2005) and
as amended at 75 FR 38837 (July 6, 2010), hereinafter referred to as
PTE 84-14 or the QPAM exemption.
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The Department is granting this exemption to ensure that Covered
Plans \60\ with assets managed by a UBS QPAM may continue to benefit
from the relief provided by PTE 84-14. The effective date is January
10, 2018, and the exemption is effective from January 10, 2018 through
January 9, 2021 (the Exemption Period).
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\60\ ``Covered Plan'' is a plan subject to Part 4 of Title 1 of
ERISA (``ERISA-covered plan'') or a plan subject to section 4975 of
the Code (``IRA'') with respect to which a UBS QPAM relies on PTE
84-14, or with respect to which a UBS QPAM (or any UBS affiliate)
has expressly represented that the manager qualifies as a QPAM or
relies on the QPAM class exemption (PTE 84-14). A Covered Plan does
not include an ERISA-covered plan or IRA to the extent the UBS QPAM
has expressly disclaimed reliance on the QPAM status or PTE 84-14 in
entering into its contract, arrangement, or agreement with the
ERISA-covered plan or IRA. See further discussion in this Preamble
under the heading Comment III A & B--Scope of Section I(j) &
Covenants Regarding Compliance with ERISA--Section I(j)(1).
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No relief from a violation of any other law is provided by this
exemption, including any criminal conviction described in the proposed
exemption. Furthermore, the Department cautions that the relief in this
exemption will terminate immediately if, among other things, an entity
within the UBS corporate structure is convicted of a crime described in
Section I(g) of PTE 84-14 (other than the Convictions) during the
Exemption Period. The terms
[[Page 61904]]
of this exemption have been specifically designed to promote conduct
that adheres to basic fiduciary standards under ERISA and the Code. The
exemption also aims to ensure that Covered Plans can terminate
relationships in an orderly and cost effective fashion in the event a
Covered Plan fiduciary determines it is prudent to sever the
relationship with a UBS QPAM.
Written Comments
The Department invited all interested persons to submit written
comments and/or requests for a public hearing with respect to the
notice of proposed exemption, published in the Federal Register at 81
FR 83385 on November 21, 2016. All comments and requests for hearing
were due by January 5, 2016.\61\ The Department received written
comments from UBS and members of the U.S. Congress. After considering
these submissions, the Department has determined to grant the
exemption, with revisions, as described below.
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\61\ UBS requested and the Department granted an extension until
January 23, 2017 to provide the Notice to Interested Persons. The
comment period was therefore extended until February 27, 2017. The
Department received additional comments from Applicant, however,
after the close of the comment period.
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Comment I--The Term of the Exemption
The Applicant requests that the Department extend the term of the
exemption from five years to nine years. UBS states that an exemption
for less than nine years results in a reapplication requirement without
additional meaningful protections. UBS states that if at any time the
UBS QPAMs do not comply with all of the conditions under a nine year
exemption, the relief provided will be lost. Hence, according to UBS, a
nine year exemption is protective of affected ERISA-covered plans and
IRAs. UBS also states that a five-year exemption period is not in the
interest of the UBS QPAMs' clients or participants and beneficiaries.
UBS states that a five-year exemption period creates uncertainty for
fiduciaries with the result that such fiduciaries may spend time and
money to prepare for a change in investment managers in the event that
UBS does not receive another exemption. UBS claims the record does not
support a conclusion that a nine year exemption period is inconsistent
with ERISA Section 408(a) and neither has the Department conveyed a
basis for findings that warrant an exemption for less than nine years.
UBS points to precedent established by previous individual QPAM
exemptions in which the Department placed ``particular importance'' on
the ``degree to which the investment and compliance operations of the
QPAM can be sufficiently isolated from the influence of `bad actors'.''
(80 FR 20262, April 15, 2015). UBS states that ``UBS QPAMs were not
involved in the FX Misconduct or the misconduct that is subject of the
Convictions.'' UBS requests that, if the five-year exemption period is
retained, the Department clarify the timing for an application to
extend the relief, and for the Department to act on that application
taking into account the notice-and-comment period. UBS also requests
that the Department modify the exemption to allow for the continued
reliance on the relief provided by a final exemption while any
application to extend that relief beyond the initial 5-year period is
pending.
In developing this exemption, the Department considered the Non-
Prosecution Agreement between UBS and the U.S. Department of Justice
(DOJ) dated December 18, 2012 (LIBOR NPA) and the Plea Agreement. When
UBS entered into the LIBOR NPA, it agreed, among other things, not to
commit any crime in violation of U.S. laws for a period of two years
from the date of the LIBOR NPA in exchange for the DOJ agreeing not to
prosecute UBS for any crimes related to the submission benchmark
interest rates between 2001 and 2010. UBS also agreed to pay a monetary
penalty of $500,000,000 and to take steps to further strengthen its
internal controls, as required by certain other U.S. and non-U.S.
regulatory agencies that had addressed the misconduct described in the
LIBOR NPA.
While UBS entered into the LIBOR NPA avoiding prosecution, UBS
Securities Japan, a wholly owned subsidiary of UBS, pled guilty and was
convicted (2013 Conviction) of one count of wire fraud in violation of
Title 18, U.S. Code, sections 1343 and 2 \62\ arising out of UBS
Security Japan's fraudulent submission of Yen LIBOR rates between 2006
and 2009, and its participation in a scheme to defraud counterparties
to interest rate derivatives trades executed on its behalf by secretly
manipulating certain benchmark interest rates to which the
profitability of those trades was tied. As a result of the 2013
Conviction, QPAMs with certain corporate relationships to UBS and UBS
Securities Japan were no longer able to rely on PTE 84-14. Following
the publication of a notice of proposed exemption in the Federal
Register and after a period of notice and comment, the Department
published a final exemption on September 13, 2013 (PTE 2013-09).\63\
PTE 2013-09 among other conditions, required UBS to comply with each
condition of PTE 84-14, as amended.\64\
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\62\ Section 1343 generally imposes criminal liability for
fraud, including fines and/or imprisonment, when a person uses wire,
radio, or television communication in interstate or foreign
commerce. Section 2 generally imposes criminal liability on a person
as a principal if that person aids, counsels, commands, induces, or
willfully causes another person to engage in criminal activity.
\63\ 78 FR 56740 (September 13, 2013).
\64\ Section I(h) of PTE 2013-09, at 78 FR 56741 (September 18,
2013).
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Both the LIBOR NPA and the Plea Agreement contain a Statement of
Facts (SOF) that describes the circumstances of UBS's scheme to defraud
counterparties to interest rate derivatives transactions by secretly
manipulating benchmark interest rates to which the profitability of
those transactions was tied. The SOF describes the wide-ranging and
systematic efforts, practiced nearly on a daily basis, by several UBS
employees (a) to manipulate the YEN LIBOR in order to benefit UBS's
trading positions; (b) to use cash brokers to influence other
Contributor Panel banks' Yen LIBOR submissions; and (c) to collude
directly with employees at other Contributor Panel banks to influence
those banks' Yen LIBOR submissions.
DOJ determined UBS subsequently breached the LIBOR NPA when certain
employees engaged in fraudulent and deceptive trading and sales
practices in certain foreign exchange (FX) market transactions via
telephone, email and/or electronic chat, to the detriment of UBS
customers.\65\ These employees also colluded with other actors in
certain FX markets in order to manipulate those markets.
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\65\ The circumstances of UBS's violation of the terms of the
LIBOR NPA are described in detail in Exhibit 1 to the Plea
Agreement, entitled ``The Factual Basis for Breach of the Non-
Prosecution Agreement'' (the Factual Basis for Breach).
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The Department considered the Factual Basis for Breach attached to
the Plea Agreement which details that conduct (the FX Misconduct as
defined in Section II(e)). That conduct included the following actions:
Sales staff misrepresented to customers that markups were not added,
when in fact they were; UBS personnel used a price level to ``track''
certain limit orders that was different from customer specified prices;
UBS traders and salespeople used hand signals to fraudulently conceal
markups from certain customers on ``open-line'' phone calls; and a UBS
FX trader conspired with other financial
[[Page 61905]]
services firms acting as dealers in the FX spot market by agreeing to
restrain competition in the purchase and sale of the Euro/U.S. dollar
currency pair. The Factual Basis for Breach takes into account UBS's
three recent prior criminal resolutions: The 2012 LIBOR NPA; a February
2009 DOJ Tax Division deferred prosecution agreement for conspiracy to
defraud the U.S. of tax revenue through secret Swiss bank accounts for
U.S. taxpayers (in connection therewith, UBS agreed to pay a penalty of
$780 million); a May 2011 DOJ non-prosecution agreement with the DOJ
Antitrust Division to resolve allegations of bid-rigging in the
municipal bond derivatives market (in connection therewith, UBS agreed
to pay a penalty of $160 million). DOJ also noted that UBS's compliance
programs and remedial efforts following the LIBOR NPA failed to detect
the collusive and deceptive conduct in the FX markets until a published
article in the news media called attention to the matter. As a result
of its breach of the LIBOR NPA and the resulting 2017 Conviction, UBS
lost exemptive relief under both PTE 84-14 and its individual
exemption, PTE 2013-09.
In developing this exemption, the Department also considered
statements from a number of regulators about the FX Misconduct. The
Financial Conduct Authority's (FCA) Final Notice dated November 11,
2014 states: ``During the Relevant Period, UBS did not exercise
adequate and effective control over its G10 spot FX trading business. .
. . The front office failed adequately to discharge these
responsibilities with regard to obvious risks associated with
confidentiality, conflicts of interest and trading conduct.'' That
notice also states: ``These failings occurred in circumstances where
certain of those responsible for managing front office matters were
aware of and/or at times involved in behaviors described above.'' The
Unites States Commodity and Futures Trading Commission's (CFTC) Order
dated November 11, 2014 states: ``During the Relevant Period, UBS
failed to adequately address the risks associated with its FX traders
participating in the fixing of certain FX benchmark rates. UBS also
lacked adequate internal controls in order to prevent its FX traders
from engaging in improper communications with certain FX traders at
other banks. UBS lacked sufficient policies, procedures and training
specifically governing participation in trading around the FX benchmark
rates. . . .''
The Department also considered the size of relevant fines imposed:
The Department of Justice imposed $500 million and $203 million fines;
the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve Board imposed a $324
million fine; and the CFTC and the FCA imposed fines of $290 million
and [pound]223,814,000, respectively.
In light of the severity of the misconduct, the repeated criminal
violations, and the breach of a previous exemption, which was itself
necessitated by criminal conduct, the Department has concluded that it
is appropriate to grant a more limited term of relief than the five-
year period it originally proposed. As a result, the Department has
concluded that a three-year term is appropriate for this exemption. A
three-year term and the exemption's protective conditions reflect the
Department's intent to protect Covered Plans that entrust substantial
assets with a UBS QPAM, following serious misconduct, supervisory
failures, repeated criminal convictions, and a violation of a previous
exemption granted under similar circumstances (PTE 2013-09). The
Department intends that the three-year term will give the Department
the opportunity to review the adherence by the UBS QPAMs to the
conditions set out herein. The shortened three-year period reflects the
fundamental importance of the Applicants' prompt efforts to adopt
supervisory mechanisms, policies, and procedures that safeguard plans
and IRAs, and guard against the risk of further misconduct. The
Applicants may apply for an additional extension at such time as they
believe appropriate. Before granting an extension, however, the
Department expects to consider carefully the efficacy of this exemption
and any public comments on additional extensions, particularly
including comments on how well the exemption has or has not worked to
safeguard the interests of Covered Plans.
Comment II--Non-Prosecution and Deferred-Prosecution Agreements--
Section I(q)
Section I(q) of the proposed exemption provides that ``[d]uring the
effective period of this five-year exemption UBS: (1) Immediately
discloses to the Department any Deferred Prosecution Agreement (a DPA)
or Non-Prosecution Agreement (an NPA) that UBS or any of its affiliates
enters into with the U.S. Department of Justice, to the extent such DPA
or NPA involves conduct described in Section I(g) of PTE 84-14 or
section 411 of ERISA; and (2) immediately provides the Department any
information requested by the Department, as permitted by law, regarding
the agreement and/or the conduct and allegations that led to the
agreement. After review of the information, the Department may require
UBS, its affiliates, or related parties, as specified by the
Department, to submit a new application for the continued availability
of relief as a condition of continuing to rely on this exemption. If
the Department denies the relief requested in the new application, or
does not grant such relief within twelve months of application, the
relief described herein is revoked as of the date of denial or as of
the expiration of the twelve month period, whichever date is earlier.''
UBS requests that section I(q) be deleted or revised to omit the
paragraph regarding possible revocation of the exemption due to a new
NPA or DPA. UBS states that this condition is unprecedented, highly
problematic, and inappropriate for several reasons. The first reason is
that the condition treats an NPA or a DPA as equivalent to a criminal
conviction under PTE 84-14, Section I(g) in contradiction of guidance
in Advisory Opinion Number 2013-05A, which confirms that the ``sole
judicial action'' that triggers the disqualification under Section I(g)
is a ``criminal conviction.'' UBS notes that Section I(g) of this
exemption provides that the Department may require UBS to submit a new
application for relief following an NPA or a DPA and the condition
provides for the automatic revocation of the exemption if the
Department fails to grant the new application within twelve months of
its submission. According to UBS, this creates the situation where
exemptive relief could be lost irrespective of the merits of the new
application solely as a result of the Department's failure to timely
act. UBS states this outcome would be arbitrary and could cause the UBS
QPAMs' plan clients to make substantial expenditures to immediately
replace the UBS QPAMs if the Department fails to timely act on a new
application. UBS asserts that this result is not reconcilable with the
statement in the Proposed Exemption that the Department designed
certain conditions that would ``permit plans to terminate their
relationships in an orderly and cost effective fashion.''
Additionally, according to UBS, such a revocation of a previously-
granted exemption would be in direct violation of the Department's
exemption regulations at 29 CFR 2570.50(b). Those regulations provide
that before revoking or modifying an exemption the Department must: (1)
Publish a notice of proposed action in the Federal Register; (2)
provide interested persons with an opportunity to comment on the
[[Page 61906]]
proposed revocation or modification; (3) notify the applicant of the
proposed action and the reasons therefore before publishing such
notice; and (4) provide the applicant the opportunity to comment on the
proposed revocation or modification subsequent to the publication of
the notice. UBS argues that these procedural protections would not be
available to the UBS QPAMs as a result of a revocation due to the
Department's failure to act on the ``new'' application.
Finally, UBS states that the Department failed to identify any
substantive standard that would apply to the evaluation of such a new
application. UBS suggests that the revocation of the exemption
therefore could be based on a UBS QPAM affiliate's NPA or DPA that does
not relate to conduct involving the UBS QPAMs or their personnel or
does not raise concerns regarding the QPAMs' independence from such
affiliate. UBS is concerned this condition authorizes revocation of the
exemption regardless of whether the underlying conduct or circumstances
surrounding such an NPA or DPA calls into question the Department's
original findings made under Section 408 of ERISA. Finally, UBS states
that this condition is unnecessary because the Department already has
the authority to modify or revoke the exemption if its original
findings were called into question due to a UBS QPAM affiliate's DPA or
NPA.
UBS requests that if the condition is not omitted from the
exemption, that word ``immediately'' be deleted and replaced with the
insertion of the phrase ``as soon as reasonably practicable, the entry
into'' before the term ``any Deferred Prosecution Agreement (a DPA).''
UBS also requests that the parenthetical ``(as defined in Section VI(d)
of PTE 84-14)'' be added after the word ``affiliate.'' Additionally,
UBS requests that the term ``non-privileged'' be placed before the word
``information'' and the phrase as soon ``as reasonably practicable'' be
inserted before ``as permitted by law.'' Lastly, UBS requests that the
phrase ``and allegations that led to'' be deleted and replaced by
inserting the word ``underlying'' before the phrase ``the agreement''
at the end of the Section.
The Department in no way intended to provide for an automatic
revocation of this exemption and, in light of UBS's comments, has
revised the condition accordingly. As revised, the condition simply
requires UBS to notify the Department if and when it or any of its
affiliates enter into a DPA or a NPA with the U.S. Department of
Justice for conduct described in section I(g) of PTE 84-14 or ERISA
section 411 and immediately provide the Department with any information
requested by the Department, as permitted by law, regarding the
agreement and/or conduct and allegations that led to the agreement. The
Department retains the right to propose a withdrawal of this exemption
pursuant to its procedures contained at 29 CFR 2570.50, should the
circumstances warrant such action. Additionally, as requested by the
applicant, the Department has added the parenthetical ``(as defined in
Section VI(d) of PTE 84-14)'' to clarify the term ``affiliate.''
Comment III A & B--Scope of Section I(j) & Covenants Regarding
Compliance with ERISA--Section I(j)(1)
Section I(j) of the proposed exemption provides that: ``Effective
as of the effective date of this five-year exemption, with respect to
any arrangement, agreement, or contract between a UBS QPAM and an
ERISA-covered plan or IRA for which such UBS QPAM provides asset
management or other discretionary fiduciary services, each UBS QPAM
agrees and warrants:
(1) [t]o comply with ERISA and the Code, as applicable with respect
to such ERISA-covered plan or IRA; to refrain from engaging in
prohibited transactions that are not otherwise exempt (and to promptly
correct any inadvertent prohibited transactions); and to comply with
the standards of prudence and loyalty set forth in section 404 of
ERISA, as applicable;
(2) Not to require (or otherwise cause) the ERISA-covered plan or
IRA to waive, limit, or qualify the liability of the UBS QPAM for
violating ERISA or the Code or engaging in prohibited transactions;
(3) Not to require the ERISA-covered plan or IRA (or sponsor of
such ERISA-covered plan or beneficial owner of such IRA) to indemnify
the UBS QPAM for violating ERISA or engaging in prohibited
transactions, except for violations or prohibited transactions caused
by an error, misrepresentation, or misconduct of a plan fiduciary or
other party hired by the plan fiduciary who is independent of UBS;
(4) Not to restrict the ability of such ERISA-covered plan or IRA
to terminate or withdraw from its arrangement with the UBS QPAM
(including any investment in a separately managed account or pooled
fund subject to ERISA and managed by such QPAM), with the exception of
reasonable restrictions, appropriately disclosed in advance, that are
specifically designed to ensure equitable treatment of all investors in
a pooled fund in the event such withdrawal or termination may have
adverse consequences for all other investors as a result of an actual
lack of liquidity of the underlying assets, provided that such
restrictions are applied consistently and in like manner to all such
investors;
(5) Not to impose any fees, penalties, or charges for such
termination or withdrawal with the exception of reasonable fees,
appropriately disclosed in advance, that are specifically designed to
prevent generally recognized abusive investment practices or
specifically designed to ensure equitable treatment of all investors in
a pooled fund in the event such withdrawal or termination may have
adverse consequences for all other investors, provided that such fees
are applied consistently and in like manner to all such investors;
(6) Not to include exculpatory provisions disclaiming or otherwise
limiting liability of the UBS QPAM for a violation of such agreement's
terms, except for liability caused by an error, misrepresentation, or
misconduct of a plan fiduciary or other party hired by the plan
fiduciary who is independent of UBS and its affiliates; and
(7) To indemnify and hold harmless the ERISA-covered plan and IRA
for any damages resulting from a violation of applicable laws, a UBS
QPAM's breach of contract, or any claim arising out of the failure of
such UBS QPAM to qualify for the exemptive relief provided by PTE 84-14
as a result of a violation of Section I(g) of PTE 84-14 other than the
Convictions;
(8) Within four (4) months of the effective date of this proposed
five-year exemption, each UBS QPAM must provide a notice of its
obligations under this Section I(j) to each ERISA-covered plan and IRA
for which the UBS QPAM provides asset management or other discretionary
fiduciary services. For all other prospective ERISA-covered plan and
IRA clients for which a UBS QPAM provides asset management or other
discretionary fiduciary services, the UBS QPAM will agree in writing to
its obligations under this Section I(j) in an updated investment
management agreement or advisory agreement between the UBS QPAM and
such clients or other written contractual agreement.''
According to UBS, extending Section I(j) and other conditions to
circumstances in which the QPAMs do not rely on PTE 84-14 would exceed
the proper scope of Section 408 of ERISA and the Department's exemption
regulations, which are properly limited to protecting plans or IRAs
involved in transactions that require use of PTE 84-14. Accordingly,
UBS requests that
[[Page 61907]]
Section I(j) be revised to include the phrases ``pursuant to'' and ``in
reliance on PTE 84-14.''
UBS also states that it interprets the clause ``to comply with the
standards of prudence and loyalty set forth in section 404 of ERISA, as
applicable'' to have the same meaning as the same condition in PTE
2016-17,\66\ which was previously granted to the UBS QPAMs. UBS
interprets the language of Section I(j)(1) as ``requiring the UBS QPAMs
to agree to comply with Section 404 of ERISA only to the extent that
Section 404 is otherwise ``applicable'' to the ERISA-covered plan or
IRA, such that most IRAs would not be subject to this provision because
they are not subject to Title I of ERISA.'' UBS also states that if the
Department contemplates that this clause would require the UBS QPAMs to
contractually agree to comply with the duties set forth in Section 404
of ERISA with respect to all IRAs, such a requirement would be
inappropriate. UBS represents that ``including such a requirement in a
final exemption would introduce significant uncertainty as to what
standards should apply to IRAs not subject to Title I of ERISA.'' UBS
argues that ``requiring the UBS QPAMs to contractually agree to treat
IRAs as possessing rights that do not apply to them under ERISA would
also be inconsistent with the requirements for exemptions under ERISA
Section 408.'' According to UBS, section 408 of ERISA requires that the
Department make a determination that an exemption is protective of the
``existing'' rights of participants and beneficiaries. Additionally,
UBS claims that the last clause of Section I(j)(1) of PTE 2016-17 which
states ``with respect to each such ERISA-covered plan and IRA'' is
redundant of the first clause of Section I(j)(1) of PTE 2016-17 and
has, accordingly, requested deletion of the clause.
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\66\ 81 FR 94049 (December 22, 2016). PTE 2016-17 is a temporary
exemption in respect of Exemption Application No. D-11863 for UBS
QPAMs to rely on the exemptive relief provided by PTE 84-14,
notwithstanding the Convictions, for up to twelve months from
January 5, 2017.
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
ERISA-covered plans and IRAs routinely rely on QPAM status as a
condition of entering into transactions with financial institutions,
even with respect to transactions which do not strictly require
adherence to PTE 84-14. According to the Applicant's own application,
``[e]ven where the QPAM exemption is not strictly required (e.g., for
most purchases of publicly-traded stocks), many ERISA plan fiduciaries
take great comfort in their managers qualifying for QPAM status and
will not use managers that do not so qualify.'' Furthermore, in the
report dated August 26, 2015 prepared by John Minahan, Ph.D. and
provided to the Department by UBS in support of UBS QPAMs' application
for exemption, Dr. Minahan states that ``[b]ecause of the importance of
the QPAM designation, if the UBS QPAMs are denied an exemption and can
longer act as QPAMs, plan fiduciaries are likely to conclude that they
have no choice but to change managers. This is also true for plan
clients with investment strategies that do not depend on the QPAM
exemption. Fiduciaries of either category of plans are likely to view a
denial of an exemption as reflective of the Department's view that the
UBS QPAMS should not be trusted to act as an investment manager for
benefit plan assets, regardless of whether other prohibited transaction
exemptions may be available.''
The Department notes that it may not always be clear whether or not
a UBS QPAM intends to rely upon PTE 84-14 for any particular
transaction. Accordingly, it is critical to ensure that protective
conditions are in place to safeguard the interests of ERISA-covered
plans and IRAs that are acting in reliance on the availability of this
exemption, particularly those who may not have entered into the
transaction in the first place, but for the Department's grant of this
exemption.
The Department has a clear interest in protecting ERISA-covered
plans and IRAs that enter into an asset management agreement with a UBS
QPAM in reliance of the manager's qualification as a QPAM. Moreover,
when an ERISA-covered plan or IRA terminates its relationship with an
asset manager, it may incur significant costs and expenses as its
investments are unwound and as it works to place investments with a new
asset manager.
After considering UBS's comments, the Department has revised this
condition. The condition now applies to ERISA-covered plans and IRAs
only when the UBS asset manager relies on PTE 84-14 or has expressly
represented that it qualifies as a QPAM or relies on the QPAM class
exemption in its dealings with the ERISA-covered plan or IRA
(hereinafter, a Covered Plan). To the extent a UBS QPAM would prefer
not to be subject to these conditions, however, it may expressly
disclaim reliance on QPAM status or PTE 84-14 in entering into its
contract with an ERISA-covered plan or IRA. In that case, the plan or
IRA is not a Covered Plan.\67\
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
\67\ Of course, the UBS QPAM could not claim exemptive relief
under PTE 84-14 or this exemption with respect to any ERISA-covered
plan or IRA for which it so expressly disclaims reliance on QPAM
status or PTE 84-14.
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
The Department rejects the view that it acts outside the scope of
its authority by protecting ERISA-covered plans and IRAs that rely on
UBS QPAMs' eligibility for this exemption, and reemphasizes the
seriousness of the criminal misconduct that caused the UBS QPAMs to
need this exemption as well as the FX Misconduct. The Department may
grant an exemption under Section 408(a) of ERISA or Code section
4975(c)(2)(C) only to the extent the Secretary finds, among other
things, that the exemption is protective of the affected plan(s) or
IRA(s). As noted by regulators, personnel at UBS engaged in serious
misconduct over an extended period of time at the expense of their own
clients. This misconduct appears to have stemmed, in part, from
deficiencies in control and oversight.
Notwithstanding the misconduct, which resulted in violation of
Section I(g) of PTE 84-14, the Department has determined that this
exemption is protective of Covered Plans and in the interest of
participants, beneficiaries, and beneficial owners of such Covered
Plans. The Department made this determination based, in significant
part, upon the protections of Section I(j) that require UBS QPAMs to
make an express commitment to Covered Plans to adhere to the
requirements of ERISA and the Code, as applicable. As previously
indicated, the Department has concluded that a culture of compliance,
centered on adherence to basic standards of fair dealing as set forth
in this exemption, gives the Department a compelling basis for making
the required statutory findings that the exemption is in the interest
of, and protects the rights of participants, beneficiaries, and
beneficial owners of Covered Plans. Absent such a compelling basis, the
exemption would have been denied.
In response to UBS's comments, however, the Department required an
express commitment to comply with the fiduciary standards and
prohibited transaction rules only to the extent these provisions are
``applicable'' under ERISA and the Code. The revised terms, together
with this exemption's limited relief (e.g., this exemption generally
does not extend to transactions that involve self-dealing) should serve
to promote a culture of compliance and protect Covered Plans and their
participants, beneficiaries, and beneficial owners.
In response to UBS's comments, the Department also notes that
nothing in ERISA or the Code prevents the
[[Page 61908]]
Department from conditioning relief on express contractual commitments
to adhere to the requirements set out herein. The QPAMs remain free to
disclaim reliance on the exemption and to avoid such express
contractual commitments. To the extent, however, that they hold
themselves out as fiduciary QPAMs, they should be prepared to make an
express commitment to their customers to adhere to the requirements of
this exemption. This commitment strengthens and reinforces the
likelihood of compliance, and helps ensure that, in the event of
noncompliance, Covered Plans are insulated from injuries caused by
noncompliance. These protections also ensure that Covered Plans are
able to extricate themselves from transactions that become prohibited
as a result of the QPAMs' misconduct, without fear of sustaining
additional losses as a result of the QPAMs' actions. In this
connection, however, the Department emphasizes that the only claims
available to the QPAMs' Covered Plan customers pursuant to these
contractual commitments are those separately provided by ERISA or other
state and federal laws that are not preempted by ERISA.
Comment III C--Indemnification Requirements--Section I(j)(6) and
Revision to Sections I(j)(5) and (3)
Section I(j)(7) of the proposed exemption provides that:
``Effective as of the effective date of this five-year exemption, with
respect to any arrangement, agreement, or contract between a UBS QPAM
and an ERISA-covered plan or IRA for which such UBS QPAM provides asset
management or other discretionary fiduciary services, each UBS QPAM
agrees and warrants: . . . (7)[t]o indemnify and hold harmless the
ERISA-covered plan and IRA for any damages resulting from a violation
of applicable laws, a UBS QPAM's breach of contract, or any claim
arising out of the failure of such UBS QPAM to qualify for the
exemptive relief provided by PTE 84-14 as a result of a violation of
Section I(g) of PTE 84-14 other than the Convictions.''
UBS states that Section I(j)(7) of the proposed exemption is
overbroad because it could be interpreted to require the UBS QPAMs to
indemnify plans for types of damages, such as punitive or consequential
damages, that are impermissible under ERISA and/or that are not
attributable to any act or omission of UBS or the QPAMs. Thus, UBS
requests clarification that any such damages must be reasonable;
related to the arrangement, agreement or contract; exclude indirect,
special, consequential, or punitive damages; and result directly from
the failure of the UBS QPAM. Additionally, UBS has requested that the
phrase ``applicable laws'' in Section I(j)(7) of the proposed exemption
be replaced with ``ERISA's fiduciary duties and of ERISA and Code's
prohibited transaction provisions.''
As explained above, the purpose of this exemption is to protect
Covered Plans. Section I(j)(6) (this Section has been renumbered so
that Section I(j)(7) of the proposed exemption is now Section I(j)(6)
in this exemption) is essential to achieving that purpose. Section
I(j)(6) ensures that a Covered Plan may expect a UBS QPAM to adhere to
basic fiduciary norms and standards of fair dealing, notwithstanding
the Conviction. The condition also ensures that Covered Plans have the
ability to disengage from a relationship with a UBS QPAM without undue
injury if UBS violates the terms of this exemption. Accordingly, the
Department has revised the applicability of this condition to more
closely reflect this interest. In particular, the condition applies
only to Covered Plans. As indicated above, if the asset manager would
prefer not to be subject to these provisions as exemption conditions,
it may expressly disclaim reliance on QPAM status or PTE 84-14 in
entering into its contract with the Plan or IRA (in that case, however,
it could not rely on the exemption for relief).
The Department made further changes upon consideration of UBS's
comments, however. These changes include: Renumbering the condition for
clarity; replacing ``applicable laws'' with clarifying language that
conforms to the one-year exemption, PTE 2016-17; and replacing ``any
damages'' with ``actual losses resulting directly from'' certain acts
or omissions of the UBS QPAMs. Because Section I(j)(6) extends only to
actual losses resulting directly from the actions of the UBS QPAMs, it
does not encompass losses solely caused by other parties, events, or
acts of God.
Section I(j)(6) of the proposed exemption provides ``Effective as
of the effective date of this five-year exemption, with respect to any
arrangement, agreement, or contract between a UBS QPAM and an ERISA-
covered plan or IRA for which such UBS QPAM provides asset management
or other discretionary fiduciary services, each UBS QPAM agrees and
warrants: . . . Not to include exculpatory provisions disclaiming or
otherwise limiting liability of the UBS QPAM for a violation of such
agreement's terms, except for liability caused by an error,
misrepresentation, or misconduct of a plan fiduciary or other party
hired by the plan fiduciary who is independent of UBS, and its
affiliates.''
In coordination with the modifications to Section I(j)(6) (formerly
Section I(j)(7)) discussed above, the Department modified Section
I(j)(5) (formerly I(j)(6) in the proposed exemption) to clarify that
the prohibition on exculpatory provisions does not extend to losses
that arise from an act or event not caused by UBS and that nothing in
this section alters the prohibition on exculpatory provisions set forth
in ERISA Section 410.
Section I(j)(3) of the proposed exemption provides that ``Effective
as of the effective date of this five-year exemption, with respect to
any arrangement, agreement, or contract between a UBS QPAM and an
ERISA-covered plan or IRA for which such UBS QPAM provides asset
management or other discretionary fiduciary services, each UBS QPAM
agrees and warrants: . . . (3) [n]ot to require the ERISA-covered plan
or IRA (or sponsor of such ERISA-covered plan or beneficial owner of
such IRA) to indemnify the UBS QPAM for violating ERISA or engaging in
prohibited transactions, except for violations or prohibited
transactions caused by an error, misrepresentation, or misconduct of a
plan fiduciary or other party hired by the plan fiduciary who is
independent of UBS.''
The Department determined that Section I(j)(3), as proposed, is
duplicative of the exemption's prohibition on exculpatory clauses in
Section I(j)(5) (previously Section I(j)(6) in the proposed exemption)
and, accordingly, has deleted the condition. Therefore, as previously
stated, Section I(j) has been renumbered accordingly.
Comment IV--Definition of FX Misconduct--Section II(e)
Section I(e) of the proposed exemption provides: ``The term ``FX
Misconduct'' means the conduct engaged in by UBS personnel described in
Exhibit 1 of the Plea Agreement (Factual Basis for Breach) entered into
between UBS AG and the Department of Justice Criminal Division, on May
20, 2015 in connection with Case Number 3:15-cr-00076-RNC filed in the
US District Court for the District of Connecticut.'' UBS represents
that the proposed exemption's definition of FX Misconduct should be
limited to the collusive conduct described in Paragraph 15 of Exhibit 1
to the May 20, 2015 Plea Agreement. The Applicant argues that ``UBS was
not charged with the other conduct described in Exhibit 1--referred to
as the `unilateral' or `sales' conduct and was not required to
[[Page 61909]]
admit this conduct was criminal in nature.'' UBS claims that an
individual QPAM exemption applicant has never been required to make
representations regarding this type of conduct. UBS further argues that
in excluding the ``unilateral'' conduct from the temporary exemptions
granted to each of the other banks which were charged with FX-related
crimes, unlike UBS, the Department determined that including such
conduct would improperly expand the definition ``beyond that which is
described as criminal in the Plea Agreement.'' Therefore, UBS argues
that references to the ``unilateral'' conduct should be deleted from
the UBS final exemption and from the definition of FX Misconduct.
The Department declines to make the requested change to the
definition of FX Misconduct. As stated in the Factual Basis for Breach
(Exhibit 1 to the May 20, 2015 Plea Agreement), DOJ determined that UBS
violated the 2012 Non-Prosecution Agreement (the LIBOR NPA) relating to
UBS's fraudulent submission of LIBOR rates and declared a breach of the
LIBOR NPA due to a finding that certain UBS employees engaged in
fraudulent and deceptive currency trading and sales practices, as well
as collusive conduct in certain FX markets. Limiting the definition of
the FX Misconduct to include only the collusive behavior specifically
described in paragraph 15 of Exhibit 1 of the Plea Agreement would not
appropriately reflect the misconduct of UBS employees in regard to the
FX markets that DOJ considered in determining there was a breach of the
LIBOR NPA which led to the Plea Agreement and the 2017 Conviction. Just
as important, the Department believes the FX Misconduct, along with the
criminal conduct that is the subject of the Convictions, is relevant to
a determination of the protections necessary to assure that the
interests of Covered Plans (and their participants, beneficiaries, and
beneficial owners) are protected. This exemption is designed to protect
Covered Plans and is based on the entirety of the record that describes
in detail the FX misconduct, not just part.
Comment V--Deadlines for Completion of the Annual Audits and Annual
Reviews--Section I(i)(1) and I(m)(v)
Section I(i)(1) of the proposed exemption provides in part that
``[e]ach annual audit must cover a consecutive twelve month period
starting with the twelve month period that begins on the date of the
Conviction Date (the Initial Audit Period)'' and that ``[e]ach annual
audit must be completed no later than six (6) months after the period
to which the audit applies.'' Section I(m)(v) of the Proposed Exemption
provides that ``[e]ach annual review, including the Compliance
Officer's written Annual Report, must be completed at least three (3)
months in advance of the date on which each audit described in Section
I(i) is scheduled to be completed.''
UBS represents that while it supports the notion of providing
sufficient time in between the completion of the Annual Review and the
Annual Audit to allow for the auditor to review the report on the
Annual Review, the timing for the Audit and Annual Review would require
UBS to conduct the Annual Reviews on a different time schedule than the
UBS QPAMs currently follow for the completion of a similar internal
review required by the Investment Advisors Act. UBS states that review
for the Investment Advisors Act is generally completed on or around the
beginning of June of each year. UBS contends that conducting both
annual reviews on the same schedule would improve the effectiveness of
the Annual Review and achieve substantial efficiencies. Therefore, UBS
requests that Section I(i)(1) be revised to provide that (a) the
Initial Audit Period cover the fourteen-month period from January 10,
2017 through March 9, 2018, with the audit to be completed six months
later (i.e., by September 9, 2018), and (b) the first Annual Review is
to be completed three months before the completion of that audit (i.e.,
by June 9, 2018). UBS states that, thereafter, the annual audits should
cover consecutive twelve-month periods (e.g., March 10, 2018 through
March 9, 2019), with the same deadlines for completion of the audits
and Annual Reviews (i.e., by September 9th and June 9th, respectively,
of each year).
The Department agrees that it would be beneficial and efficient for
the time frame for the Annual Review to coordinate with the time frame
for the compliance review conducted by the UBS QPAMs for other
regulators. Therefore, the Department has modified Section I(i)(1) to
provide that the Initial Audit Period is the consecutive fourteen-month
period beginning on January 10, 2017. Each subsequent audit must cover
consecutive twelve-month periods beginning at the end of the Initial
Audit Period. Section I(i)(1) has also been modified, as requested, to
confirm that for the time period from September 18, 2016 until the
January 10, 2017 conviction date, the audit requirements in Section (g)
of PTE 2013-09 remained in effect. Accordingly, the audit of such final
time period under PTE 2013-09 had to have been completed and submitted
within six (6) months of January 10, 2017 (that is, by July 9, 2017).
This final audit required under PTE 2013-09 has been completed and the
corresponding Audit Report has been submitted to the Department.
Comment VI--Deadline for Implementation of the Required Policies and
Training--Sections: I(h)(1) and (2)
Section I(h)(1) of the proposed exemption provides that: ``[E]ach
UBS QPAM must immediately develop, implement, maintain, and follow
written policies and procedures (the Policies) requiring and reasonably
designed to ensure that: . . .'' Section I(h)(2) provides: ``[E]ach UBS
QPAM must immediately develop and implement a program of training (the
Training), conducted at least annually, for all relevant UBS QPAM
asset/portfolio management, trading, legal, compliance, and internal
audit personnel. The Training must:''
UBS represents that PTE 2016-17 requires the UBS QPAMs to develop
and implement the required policies, procedures, and training program
within 6 months of the date of conviction while the proposed exemption
requires the UBS QPAMs to ``immediately'' comply with these conditions
which are substantially similar to those in the PTE 2016-17. UBS
requests that Sections I(h)(1) and (2) in a final exemption be revised
to require compliance by the dates set forth in Sections I(h)(1) and
(2) of PTE 2016-17 in order to avoid any conflict between the
conditions in PTE 2016-17 and the final exemption in the event a final
exemption is granted before the occurrence of the 6-month deadline
provided for in the PTE 2016-17.
The Department emphasizes that the UBS QPAMs must comply with the
Policies and Training requirements within both PTE 2016-17 and this
exemption. The Department has determined not to revise Section I(h)(1)
and I(h)(2) as requested by UBS. However, the Department has made minor
revisions to reflect the fact that UBS QPAMs may already have Policies
and Training under the previous exemption, in which case, they are
required to ``maintain'' such Policies or Training.
Comment VII A--Notices to Plan Clients and Notices to Interested
Persons--Section I(k)(1)
Section I(k)(1) of the proposed exemption provides that: ``Notice
to ERISA-covered plan and IRA clients. Within fifteen (15) days of the
publication of this proposed five-year exemption in the Federal
Register,
[[Page 61910]]
each UBS QPAM will provide a notice of the proposed five-year
exemption, along with a separate summary describing the facts that led
to the Convictions (the Summary), which have been submitted to the
Department, and a prominently displayed statement (the Statement) that
each Conviction separately results in a failure to meet a condition in
PTE 84-14, to each sponsor of an ERISA-covered plan and each beneficial
owner of an IRA for which a UBS QPAM provides asset management or other
discretionary fiduciary services, or the sponsor of an investment fund
in any case where a UBS QPAM acts only as a sub-advisor to the
investment fund in which such ERISA-covered plan and IRA invests. In
the event that this proposed five-year exemption is granted, the
Federal Register copy of the notice of final five-year exemption must
be delivered to such clients within sixty (60) days of its publication
in the Federal Register, and may be delivered electronically (including
by an email that has a link to the five-year exemption). Any
prospective clients for which a UBS QPAM provides asset management or
other discretionary fiduciary services must receive the proposed and
final five-year exemptions with the Summary and the Statement prior to,
or contemporaneously with, the client's receipt of a written asset
management agreement from the UBS QPAM.''
UBS requests that Section I(k)(1) be revised to require the notice
only be provided to each sponsor of an ERISA-covered plan and each
beneficial owner of an IRA for which the UBS QPAMS provides asset
management or discretionary fiduciary services in reliance on PTE 84-
14. UBS also requests that Section I(k)(1) of the Exemption be revised
to reflect the later date by which a certain number of plans and IRAs
were provided with notice of the Proposed Exemption, as agreed to by
the Department. Lastly, UBS requests that the Department confirm that
the declaration required by 29 CFR 2570.43(c) will reflect that later
date.
The Department has narrowed the notice requirement to include only
ERISA-covered plans and IRAs that would benefit from this knowledge
(i.e. Covered Plans). The Department confirms that the UBS QPAMs had 63
days after the proposed exemption was published in the Federal Register
to notify interested persons and the declaration required by 29 CFR
2570.43(c) should reflect the January 23, 2017 date.
Comment VII B--Notices to ``Non-Plan Clients''--Section I(k)(2)
Section I(k)(2) of the proposed exemption provides that: ``Each UBS
QPAM will provide a Federal Register copy of the proposed five-year
exemption, a Federal Register copy of the final five-year exemption;
the Summary; and the Statement to each: (A) Current Non-Plan Client
within four (4) months of the effective date, if any, of a final five-
year exemption; and (B) Future Non-Plan Client prior to, or
contemporaneously with, the client's receipt of a written asset
management agreement, or other written contractual agreement, from the
UBS QPAM. For purposes of this subparagraph (2), a Current Non-Plan
Client means a client of a UBS QPAM that: Is neither an ERISA-covered
plan nor an IRA; has assets managed by the UBS QPAM as of the effective
date, if any, of a final five-year exemption; and has received a
written representation (qualified or otherwise) from the UBS QPAM that
such UBS QPAM qualifies as a QPAM or qualifies for the relief provided
by PTE 84-14. . . .''
UBS requests that the Department omit this requirement. UBS
represents that the scope of exemptive relief, as contemplated by
Section 408 of ERISA and the Department's regulations, is limited to
plans and IRAs that are affected by the exemption. Therefore, it
argues, a condition requiring notice be provided to UBS QPAM clients
that are not ERISA-covered plans or IRAs and do not utilize PTE 84-14
would be outside the scope of Section 408 of ERISA.
Given the breadth of the notice requirement otherwise mandated by
the exemption, and its decision to restrict the requirement to those
arrangements for which QPAM status plays an integral role (i.e., the
QPAM represents or relies upon its QPAM status), the Department has
decided to delete this provision.
Comment VIII--Distribution of Audit Reports to Board Committees--
Section I(i)(8)
Section I(i)(8) of the proposed exemption provides that: ``The Risk
Committee, the Audit Committee, and the Corporate Culture and
Responsibility Committee of UBS's Board of Directors are provided a
copy of each Audit Report; and a senior executive officer of UBS's
Compliance and Operational Risk Control function must review the Audit
Report for each UBS QPAM and must certify in writing, under penalty of
perjury, that such officer has reviewed each Audit Report;''
UBS requests that the Department revise this condition to allow
UBS's Board of Directors to select which committee (or committees) is
provided a copy of each Audit Report. UBS agrees that the results of
the annual audit should be communicated to the highest level of UBS's
governance structure, but which committee receives the Audit Report is
a matter of internal governance best determined by the UBS Board of
Directors. UBS claims that this condition could become unworkable if
the Board's committee structure and/or the responsibilities of the
Board's committees were to change. Alternatively, UBS requests that
Section I(i)(8) be modified to limit the requirement to provide a copy
of the Audit Report to the Risk Committee of UBS's Board of Directors.
In light of the importance of ensuring proper review of the Audit
Report, the Department declines to alter this provision to permit UBS's
Board of Directors to decide, in its discretion, which committee
receives the Audit Report. However, after review of the record, the
Department has revised Section I(i)(8) to reflect that only the Risk
Committee of the UBS Board Directors must be provided a copy of the
Audit Report.
Section I(i)(4)--Auditor Testing Operational Compliance
Section I(i)(4) of the proposed exemption requires the auditor to
``test each UBS QPAM's operational compliance with the Policies and
Training. In this regard, the auditor must test a sample of each QPAM's
transactions involving ERISA-covered plans and IRAs sufficient in size
and nature to afford the auditor a reasonable basis to determine the
operational compliance with the Policies and Training.'' UBS has
requested that this Section be modified to include the phrase ``in
reliance on PTE 84-14'' following the phrase ``involving ERISA-covered
plans and IRAs.''
The Department revised this condition for consistency with other
conditions of this exemption that are tailored to the Department's
interest in protecting Covered Plans.
Additional Audit Requirement Revisions--Sections I(i)(2), I(i)(5),
I(i)(7), I(i)(9), I(i)(11), I(i)(12)
In addition to the revisions to the audit requirement for Section
I(i)(1), I(i)(4), and i(i)(8) described above, the Department, on its
own motion, determined to make revisions to the following Sections to
enhance the workability of the audit and the exemption:
[[Page 61911]]
Section I(i)(2) of the proposed exemption provides that ``[t]o the
extent necessary for the auditor, in its sole opinion, to complete its
audit and comply with the conditions for relief described herein, and
as permitted by law, each UBS QPAM and, if applicable, UBS, will grant
the auditor unconditional access to its business, including, but not
limited to: Its computer systems; business records; transactional data;
workplace locations; training materials; and personnel.'' In the
Department's view, to ensure a thorough and robust audit, the
independent auditor must be granted access to information it deems
necessary to make sound conclusions. However, access to such
information must be within the scope of the audit engagement and
limited to information relevant to the auditor's objectives as
specified by the terms of this exemption and denied only to the extent
any disclosure is not permitted by state or federal statute or involves
communications subject to attorney client privilege. The Department has
modified Section I(i)(2)accordingly.
Section I(i)(5) of the proposed exemption provides that ``[f]or
each audit, on or before the end of the relevant period described in
Section I(i)(1) for completing the audit, the auditor must issue a
written report (the Audit Report) to UBS and the UBS QPAM to which the
audit applies that describes the procedures performed by the auditor
during the course of its examination. The Audit Report must include the
auditor's specific determinations regarding:
(i) The adequacy of the UBS QPAM's Policies and Training; the UBS
QPAM's compliance with the Policies and Training; the need, if any, to
strengthen such Policies and Training; and any instance of the
respective UBS QPAM's noncompliance with the written Policies and
Training described in Section I(h) above. Any determination by the
auditor regarding the adequacy of the Policies and Training and the
auditor's recommendations (if any) with respect to strengthening the
Policies and Training of the respective UBS QPAM must be promptly
addressed by such UBS QPAM, and any action taken by such UBS QPAM to
address such recommendations must be included in an addendum to the
Audit Report (which addendum is completed prior to the certification
described in Section I(i)(7) below). Any determination by the auditor
that the respective UBS QPAM has implemented, maintained, and followed
sufficient Policies and Training must not be based solely or in
substantial part on an absence of evidence indicating noncompliance. In
this last regard, any finding that the UBS QPAM has complied with the
requirements under this subsection must be based on evidence that
demonstrates the UBS QPAM has actually implemented, maintained, and
followed the Policies and Training required by this five-year
exemption. Furthermore, the auditor must not rely on the Annual Report
created by the Compliance Officer as described in Section I(m) below in
lieu of independent determinations and testing performed by the auditor
as required by Section I(i)(3) and (4) above; and
(ii) The adequacy of the Annual Review described in Section I(m)
and the resources provided to the Compliance officer in connection with
such Annual Review;
The Department modified Section I(i)(5) to clarify that the auditor
may issue one consolidated Audit Report covering all the UBS QPAMS for
the period of time being audited.
The Department acknowledges that the UBS QPAMs' efforts to address
the auditor's recommendations regarding any inadequacy in the Policies
and Training identified by the auditor may take longer to implement
than the time limits mandated by the proposed exemption. Accordingly,
the Department is modifying Section I(i)(5)(i) to reflect the
possibility that the UBS QPAMs' efforts to address the auditor's
recommendations regarding any inadequacy in the Policies and Training
may not be completed by the submission date of the Audit Report and may
involve a written plan to address such items. However, any
noncompliance identified by the auditor must be promptly addressed. The
revised Section also requires that if such a plan of action to address
the auditor's recommendation as to the adequacy of the Policies and
Training is not completed by the submission of the Audit Report, the
following period's Audit Report, must state whether the plan was
satisfactorily completed. Additionally, the Department has modified the
final sentence in Section I(i)(5)(i) to more clearly express the
Department's intent that the auditor must not rely solely on the work
of the Compliance Officer and the Annual Report in formulating its
conclusions or findings. The Auditor must perform its own independent
testing to formulate its conclusions. This exemption does not prohibit
the auditor from considering the Compliance Officer's Annual Report in
carrying out its audit function, including its formulation of an audit
plan. This exemption, however, does prohibit the auditor from reaching
conclusions that are exclusively based upon the contents of the
Compliance Officer's Annual Report.
While an independent assessment by the auditor of the adequacy of
the Annual Review is essential to providing the Department with the
assurance that the Applicant and the UBS QPAMs have given these matters
the utmost priority and have taken the necessary actions to comply with
the exemption, the Department has determined that the auditor should
not be responsible for opining on the adequacy of the resources
allocated to the Compliance Officer and on its own motion, has modified
Section I(i)(5)(ii) accordingly.
Section I(i)(7) of the proposed exemption provides that ``[w]ith
respect to each Audit Report, the General Counsel, or one of the three
most senior executive officers of the UBS QPAM to which the Audit
Report applies, must certify in writing, under penalty of perjury, that
the officer has reviewed the Audit Report and this five-year exemption;
addressed, corrected, or remedied any inadequacy identified in the
Audit Report; and determined that the Policies and Training in effect
at the time of signing are adequate to ensure compliance with the
conditions of this proposed five-year exemption and with the applicable
provisions of ERISA and the Code.'' UBS requested that the Department
add the phrase ``to the best of such officer's knowledge at the time''
to this condition. The Department has revised Section I(i)(7) as
requested by clarifying that the certification be made to the best of
such officer's knowledge at the time.
Furthermore, in coordination with the changes to Section I(i)(5)(i)
discussed above, the Department revised Section I(i)(7) to acknowledge
that the Applicant's efforts to address the auditor's recommendations
regarding inadequacies in the Policies and Training identified by the
auditor, may take longer to implement than the timeframe to submit the
certified Audit Report. With respect to this issue, the Department did
not intend to limit corrective actions to those that could only be
completed prior to the submission of the Audit Report. Therefore, the
Department has modified Section I(i)(7) to reflect that the senior
officer may certify that a written plan to address the inadequacies
regarding the Policies and Training identified in the Audit Report is
in place.
Section I(i)(9) of the proposed exemption provides that ``[e]ach
UBS QPAM must provide its certified Audit Report, by regular mail to:
the Department's Office of Exemption Determinations (OED), 200
Constitution
[[Page 61912]]
Avenue NW, Suite 400, Washington DC 20210, or by private carrier to:
122 C Street NW, Suite 400, Washington, DC 20001-2109, no later than 45
days following its completion. The Audit Report will be part of the
public record regarding this five-year exemption. Furthermore, each UBS
QPAM must make its Audit Report unconditionally available for
examination by any duly authorized employee or representative of the
Department, other relevant regulators, and any fiduciary of an ERISA-
covered plan or IRA, the assets of which are managed by such UBS
QPAM.'' While the Department has an interest in ensuring that the
conditions of this exemption broadly protect ERISA-covered plans and
IRAs that have relied on QPAM status in deciding to enter into an
agreement with the UBS QPAMs, the Department has revised Section
I(i)(9) to clarify that the UBS QPAMs are required to make the
documents available to any fiduciary of a Covered Plan. Additionally,
the Department decided to require that the Audit Report be provided to
the Department within 30 days following its completion. The Audit
Report, in any event, will be incorporated into the public record
attributable to this exemption, under Exemption Application Number D-
11907, and, therefore, independently accessible by members of the
public. Accordingly, the Department has decided to revise the condition
by replacing the phrase ``an ERISA-covered plan or IRA, the assets of
which are managed by such UBS QPAM'' with the term ``Covered Plan'' (as
defined in Section II(b)). Lastly, the Department agrees that access to
the Audit Report need only be upon request and such access can be
electronic, and has revised the exemption accordingly.
Section I(i)(10) of the proposed exemption provides that ``[e]ach
UBS QPAM and the auditor must submit to OED: (A) any engagement
agreement entered into pursuant to the engagement of the auditor under
this five-year exemption; and (B) any engagement agreement entered into
with any other entity retained in connection with such QPAM's
compliance with the Training or Policies conditions of this proposed
five-year exemption, no later than six (6) months after the effective
date of this five-year exemption (and one month after the execution of
any agreement thereafter).'' To remove any confusion and uncertainty
regarding the timing of the submission of the auditor's and other
entity's engagement agreements, the Department has modified Section
I(i)(10) to require that the auditor's engagement agreement and the
engagement agreements with other entities retained in connection with
such UBS QPAM's compliance with the Training or Policies be submitted
to the OED no later than two (2) months after the engagement agreement
is entered into by the Applicant and the independent auditor or other
entity.
Section I(i)(11) of the proposed exemption requires that, ``[t]he
auditor must provide OED, upon request, all of the workpapers created
and utilized in the course of the audit, including, but not limited to:
The audit plan; audit testing; identification of any instance of
noncompliance by the relevant UBS QPAM; and an explanation of any
corrective or remedial action taken by the applicable UBS QPAM.'' The
Department acknowledges that certain information contained in the audit
workpapers may be confidential and proprietary, and having that
information in the public file may create needless or avoidable
disclosure issues. Therefore, the Department has determined to modify
Section I(i)(11) to remove the requirement that the auditor provide the
workpapers to OED, and instead require that the auditor provide access
to the workpapers for the Department's review and inspection.
Section I(i)(12) of the proposed five-year exemption requires that
``UBS must notify the Department at least 30 days prior to any
substitution of an auditor, except that no such replacement will meet
the requirements of this paragraph unless and until UBS demonstrates to
the Department's satisfaction that such new auditor is independent of
UBS, experienced in the matters that are the subject of the five-year
exemption and capable of making the determinations required of this
five-year exemption.''
The Department decided to remove the requirement for UBS to
demonstrate the independence and qualifications of the auditor to the
Department. The exemption requires instead that UBS, no later than two
(2) months from the engagement of the replacement auditor, notify the
Department of a change in auditor and of the reason(s) for the
substitution including any material disputes between the terminated
auditor and UBS. UBS's fiduciary obligations with respect to the
selection of the auditor, as well as the significant role a credible
selection plays in reducing the need for more extensive oversight by
the Department, should be sufficient to safeguard the selection
process.
No-Fault Provision--Failure of Auditor--Section I(s)
Section I(s) of the proposed exemption provides that ``[a] UBS QPAM
will not fail to meet the terms of this five-year exemption, solely
because a different UBS QPAM fails to satisfy a condition for relief
under this five-year exemption described in Sections I(c), (d), (h),
(i), (j), (k), (l), (p), and (r).'' The Department modified this
condition so the failure of the auditor to comply with any of the
conditions of the exemption, with the exception of Section I(i)(11)
regarding access to the auditor's workpapers, will not be treated as a
failure by the UBS QPAMs to comply with the conditions of the exemption
provided that such failure was not due to the actions or inactions of
UBS or its affiliates.
Comment IX--Additional Requested Revisions
In granting PTE 2016-17, the Department made several modifications
to the proposed temporary exemption both at the request of UBS and on
the Department's own initiative. UBS requested that the Department make
the revisions that were made in PTE 2016-17 to the corresponding
conditions in this exemption and additional revisions to certain of
these Sections. The Department has addressed these requests as follows:
Knowing or Tacit Approval--Section I(a) and I(c)
Section I(a) of the proposed exemption provides, ``[t]he UBS QPAMs
(including their officers, directors, agents other than UBS, and
employees of such UBS QPAMs) did not know of, have reason to know of,
or participate in: (1) the FX Misconduct; or (2) the criminal conduct
that is the subject of the Convictions (for the purposes of this
Section I(a), ``participate in'' includes the knowing or tacit approval
of the FX Misconduct or the misconduct that is the subject of the
Convictions).''
Section I(c) of the proposed exemption provides, ``[t]he UBS QPAMs
will not employ or knowingly engage any of the individuals that
participated in: (1) the FX Misconduct or (2) the criminal conduct that
is the subject of the Convictions (for the purposes of this Section
I(c), ``participated in'' includes the knowing or tacit approval of the
FX Misconduct or the misconduct that is the subject of the
Convictions).''
UBS requests that the words ``or tacit'' in the phrase ``knowing or
tacit approval'' be deleted in Sections I(a) and I(c) and be replaced
with ``knowing approval'' in a final exemption, to avoid any ambiguity
or confusion as to the definition of ``participate in.''
After consideration of UBS's comments, the Department revised the
condition in the manner requested by the Applicant.
[[Page 61913]]
Receipt of Compensation--Section I(b)
Section I(b) of the proposed exemption provides, ``[t]he UBS QPAMs
(including their officers, directors, agents other than UBS, and
employees of such UBS QPAMs) did not receive direct compensation, or
knowingly receive indirect compensation, in connection with: (1) the FX
Misconduct; or (2) the criminal conduct that is the subject of the
Convictions.''
UBS requests that the Department replace ``receive direct
compensation, or knowingly receive indirect compensation'' with
``knowingly receive compensation.'' UBS claims this change is
consistent with the underlying purpose of the condition and avoids any
ambiguity or confusion regarding the meaning of ``direct'' and
``indirect compensation.''
The Department does not agree that the terms ``direct and
``indirect'' create ambiguity or confusion and has not made the
requested revision. It is the Department's intent to preclude relief
herein if any asset management personnel of the UBS QPAMs received
direct compensation, or knowingly received indirect compensation, in
connection with the FX Misconduct or the criminal conduct that is the
subject of the Convictions and therefore has not revised Section I(b).
UBS QPAM Will Not Use Its Authority or Influence--Section I(d)
Section I(d) of the proposed exemption provides that ``[a] UBS QPAM
will not use its authority or influence to direct an ``investment
fund'' (as defined in Section VI(b) of PTE 84-14), that is subject to
ERISA or the Code and managed by such UBS QPAM to enter into any
transaction with UBS or UBS Securities Japan or engage UBS or UBS
Securities Japan to provide any service to such investment fund, for a
direct or indirect fee borne by such investment fund, regardless of
whether such transaction or service may otherwise be within the scope
of relief provided by an administrative or statutory exemption.'' UBS
has requested that the phrase ``in reliance on PTE 84-14'' be added to
this condition following the phrase ``managed by such UBS QPAM.''
After considering the Applicant's comment, the Department has
revised the exemption to clarify that Section I(d) applies to
``investment funds'' managed by the UBS QPAM with respect to Covered
Plans.
Provision of Asset Management Services--Section I(g)
Section I(g) provides that ``UBS and UBS Securities Japan will not
provide discretionary asset management services to ERISA-covered plans
or IRAs, nor will otherwise act as a fiduciary with respect to ERISA-
covered plan or IRA assets.'' UBS requested that the Department modify
Section I(g) in conformity with PTE 2016-17 to clarify that UBS and UBS
Securities Japan will not violate this condition in the event that they
inadvertently become investment advice fiduciaries and that UBS can act
as a fiduciary for plans that it sponsors for its own employees or
employees of an affiliate. The Department has modified Section I(g)
accordingly.
Termination and Withdrawal Restrictions--Section I(j)(3)
Under Section I(j)(4) of the proposed exemption, the UBS QPAMs
agree: ``[n]ot to restrict the ability of such ERISA-covered plan or
IRA to terminate or withdraw from its arrangement with the UBS QPAM
(including any investment in a separately managed account or pooled
fund subject to ERISA and managed by such QPAM), with the exception of
reasonable restrictions, appropriately disclosed in advance, that are
specifically designed to ensure equitable treatment of all investors in
a pooled fund in the event such withdrawal or termination may have
adverse consequences for all other investors as a result of an actual
lack of liquidity of the underlying assets, provided that such
restrictions are applied consistently and in like manner to all such
investors.''
UBS requested that the Department revise Section I(j)(3) (formerly
Section I(j)(4) in the proposed exemption) to be consistent with the
language used for this condition in PTE 2016-17. Consistent with PTE
2016-17, the Department has revised Section I(j)(4) clarifying the
circumstances under which reasonable restrictions are necessary to
protect the remaining investors in a pooled fund and to also clarify
that in any such event the restrictions must be reasonable and last no
longer than reasonably necessary to remedy the adverse consequences.
Notice of Obligations--Section I(j)(7)
Section I(j)(8) of the proposed exemption provides that ``[w]ithin
four (4) months of the effective date of this proposed five-year
exemption, each UBS QPAM must provide a notice of its obligations under
this Section I(j) to each ERISA-covered plan and IRA for which the UBS
QPAM provides asset management or other discretionary fiduciary
services. For all other prospective ERISA-covered plan and IRA clients
for which a UBS QPAM provides asset management or other discretionary
fiduciary services, the UBS QPAM will agree in writing to its
obligations under this Section I(j) in an updated investment management
agreement or advisory agreement between the UBS QPAM and such clients
or other written contractual agreement.'' In addition to requesting
that Section I(j)(8) of the proposed exemption be revised to reflect
the changes made in PTE 2016-17, UBS requests that that the requirement
in Section I(j)(8) be limited to ERISA-covered plans and IRAs for which
the UBS QPAM provides asset management or other discretionary fiduciary
services in reliance on PTE 84-14 and that the phrase ``all other
prospective'' be replaced with the word ``new.''
As previously noted, this Section has been renumbered so that
Section I(j)(8) of the proposed exemption is now Section I(j)(7) in
this exemption.
As noted above, the Department has an interest in protecting an
ERISA-covered plan or IRA that enters into an asset management
agreement with a UBS QPAM in reliance on the manager's qualification as
a QPAM, regardless of whether the QPAM relies on the class exemption
when managing the assets of the ERISA-covered plan or IRA. The
Department has revised the applicability of this condition to more
closely reflect this interest, and the condition now applies to Covered
Plans. The Department has also modified the condition so that a UBS
QPAM will not violate the condition solely because a Covered Plan
refuses to sign an updated investment management agreement.
Furthermore, the condition has been modified to coordinate with PTE
2016-17, so that a notice that satisfies Section I(j)(8) of that
exemption will satisfy renumbered Section I(j)(7) of this exemption,
unless the notice contains any language that limits, or is inconsistent
with, the scope of this exemption. The Department declines to replace
the phrase ``all other prospective'' with the word ``new.'' The
Department's intention for the sentence beginning ``[f]or all other
prospective'' in Section I(j)(8) of the proposed exemption was to
ensure that prospective clients for which a UBS QPAM does not yet
provide asset management of other fiduciary services are informed of
the UBS QPAM's obligations under Section I(j). Consistent with the
request by UBS, the condition has been modified so that the notice must
be provided July 9, 2018.
[[Page 61914]]
Policies and Procedures Relating to Compliance With ERISA and the
Code--Sections I(h)(I)(1)(ii)-(v)
Section I(h)(1)(ii)-(v) of the proposed exemption provide, ``(h)(1)
[e]ach UBS QPAM must immediately develop, implement, maintain, and
follow written policies and procedures (the Policies) requiring and
reasonably designed to ensure that: . . .
(ii) The UBS QPAM fully complies with ERISA's fiduciary duties, and
with ERISA and the Code's prohibited transaction provisions, and does
not knowingly participate in any violation of these duties and
provisions with respect to ERISA-covered plans and IRAs;
(iii) The UBS QPAM does not knowingly participate in any other
person's violation of ERISA or the Code with respect to ERISA-covered
plans and IRAs;
(iv) Any filings or statements made by the UBS QPAM to regulators,
including but not limited to, the Department of Labor, the Department
of the Treasury, the Department of Justice, and the Pension Benefit
Guaranty Corporation, on behalf of ERISA-covered plans or IRAs are
materially accurate and complete, to the best of such QPAM's knowledge
at that time;
(v)[t]he UBS QPAM does not make material misrepresentations or omit
material information in its communications with such regulators with
respect to ERISA-covered plans or IRAs, or make material
misrepresentations or omit material information in its communications
with ERISA-covered plan and IRA clients.''
UBS requests that Section I(h)(1)(v) be revised to add language
similar to that found in Section I(h)(1)(iv), indicating that the UBS
QPAMs must implement policies designed to avoid any such
misrepresentations ``to the best of such QPAM's knowledge at the
time.''
The Department has modified the Policies' requirement of adherence
to the fiduciary and prohibited transaction provisions of ERISA and the
Code so that the Policies expressly focus on the provisions only to the
extent ``applicable'' under ERISA and the Code. In general, however,
the Department has otherwise retained the stringency and breadth of the
Policies requirement, which is more than justified by the repeated
compliance and oversight failures exhibited by UBS throughout the
period of time during which the criminal misconduct persisted.
The specific elements of the Policies requirement as set forth in
this exemption are essential to its protective purposes. In approving
this exemption, the Department significantly relies upon conditions
designed to ensure that those relying upon its term for prohibited
transaction relief will adopt a culture of compliance centered on the
basic principles and obligations set forth in the Policies requirement.
These standards are core protections of this exemption.
The Department has made some additional changes, however, which
should not detract from the Policies' protective purpose. Thus, as
requested by UBS, subsection (v) has been revised to contain the ``to
the best of QPAM's knowledge at the time'' concept found in subsection
(iv). Additionally, the applicability of subsections (iv) and (v) has
been narrowed to Covered Plans. To the extent a UBS QPAM would prefer
not to be subject to this provision, however, it may expressly disclaim
reliance on QPAM status or PTE 84-14 in entering into its contract with
the Covered Plan. This revision is consistent with the Department's
intent to protect ERISA-covered plans and IRAs that have hired a UBS
QPAM in reliance on PTE 84-14 or based on the manager's express
representation that it relies on or qualifies under PTE 84-14.
Correction of Violations and Failures To Comply--Section I(h)(vii)
Section I(h)(1)(vii) of the proposed exemption provides that
``[a]ny violation of, or failure to comply with, an item in
subparagraphs (ii) through (vi), is corrected promptly upon discovery,
and any such violation or compliance failure not promptly corrected is
reported, upon discovery of such failure to promptly correct, in
writing, to appropriate corporate officers, the head of compliance and
the General Counsel (or their functional equivalent) of the relevant
UBS QPAM, the independent auditor responsible for reviewing compliance
with the Policies, and an appropriate fiduciary of any affected ERISA-
covered plan or IRA that is independent of UBS; however, with respect
to any ERISA-covered plan or IRA sponsored by an ``affiliate'' (as
defined in Section VI(d) of PTE 84-14) of UBS or beneficially owned by
an employee of UBS or its affiliates, such fiduciary does not need to
be independent of UBS. A UBS QPAM will not be treated as having failed
to develop, implement, maintain, or follow the Policies, provided that
it corrects any instance of noncompliance promptly when discovered, or
when it reasonably should have known of the noncompliance (whichever is
earlier), and provided that it adheres to the reporting requirements
set forth in this subparagraph (vii).''
UBS requests that this section be revised to clarify that any
compliance failures that are discovered must be promptly corrected ``to
the extent possible'' and to limit the second clause of the last
sentence to any ``material'' ``instance of non-compliance'' that the
UBS QPAM ``reasonably should have known about.''
The Department has based the conditions of this exemption on both
the particular facts of the UBS cases and its experience over time with
previous exemptions. For the reasons set out herein, the Department has
concluded that the specific conditions of this exemption are
appropriate and give the Department a reasonable basis for concluding
that the exemptions are appropriately protective of affected plans and
IRAs. As noted above, a central aim of the exemption is to ensure that
those relying upon the exemption for relief from the prohibited
transaction rules will consistently act to promote a culture of
fiduciary compliance, notwithstanding the conduct that violated Section
I(g) of PTE 84-14.
While the Department declines to narrow and qualify this
subparagraph (vii) with the specific language revision requested by
UBS, after consideration, the Department will not condition the
exemption on a requirement for notification of violations to an
appropriate fiduciary of any affected ERISA-covered plan or IRA that is
independent of UBS. Additionally, the Department has revised the term
``corrected promptly'' for consistency with the Department's intent
that violations or compliance failures be corrected ``as soon as
reasonably possible upon discovery or as soon after the QPAM reasonably
should have known of the noncompliance (whichever is earlier).''
However, the Department intends to preclude relief to the extent
violations or failures are not corrected as required by the exemption.
Compliance Officer Certification--Section I(m)(2)(iii)
Section I(m)(2)(iii) of the proposes exemption provides: ``In each
Annual Report, the Compliance Officer must certify in writing that to
his or her knowledge: (A) The report is accurate; (B) the Policies and
Training are working in a manner which is reasonably designed to ensure
that the Policies and Training requirements described herein are met;
(C) any known instance of noncompliance during the preceding year and
any related correction taken to date have been
[[Page 61915]]
identified in the Annual Report; (D) the UBS QPAMs have complied with
the Policies and Training in all respects, and/or corrected any
instances of noncompliance in accordance with Section I(h) above; and
(E) UBS has provided the Compliance Officer with adequate resources,
including, but not limited to, adequate staffing.'' UBS seeks to have
Section I(m)(2)(iii) revised to clarify that the certifications must be
made to the best of the Compliance Officer's knowledge at the time
based on the Annual Review. UBS also requests that Section
I(m)(2)(iii)(D) be revised to require the Compliance Officer certify
that the UBS QPAM has corrected ``to the extent possible'' any
``known'' instances of noncompliance.
The Department has accepted UBS's request in part and has revised
this condition accordingly. Accordingly, Section I(m)(iii) has been
modified to require the Compliance Officer to certify in writing ``to
the best of his or her knowledge at the time'' and Section
I(m)(2)(iii)(D) has be modified to add the word ``known'' before the
word ``instances.'' However, the Department has declined to narrow
Section I(m)(iii)(D) by adding the phrase ``to the extent'' possible.
The Department notes this subparagraph requires that the noncompliance
is corrected in accordance with Section I(h) and Section I(h) has been
revised to allow for such correction to occur ``as soon as reasonably
possible upon discovery or as soon after the QPAM reasonably should
have known of the noncompliance (whichever is earlier).''
Notice of Right To Obtain Copy of Policies--Section I(r)
Section I(r) of the proposed exemption provides that, ``[e]ach UBS
QPAM, in its agreements with ERISA-covered plan and IRA clients, or in
other written disclosures provided to ERISA-covered plan and IRA
clients, within 60 days prior to the initial transaction upon which
relief hereunder is relied, and then at least once annually, will
clearly and prominently: inform the ERISA-covered plan or IRA client
that the client has the right to obtain copies of the QPAM's written
Policies adopted in accordance with this five-year exemption.''
UBS argues that the requirement to provide the disclosure in
Section I(r) sixty (60) days prior to a transaction entered into in
reliance on this exemption is not in the interest of UBS's current or
future ERISA-covered plan and IRA clients. UBS therefore requests that
Section I(r) be revised to remove the requirement that the notification
be made 60 days prior to the initial transaction that is conducted in
reliance on the exemption. UBS represents that the 60 advance notice
would effectively place a ``freeze'' on the management of new clients
accounts and therefore could deprive ERISA-covered Plans and IRA
clients the opportunity to enter into beneficial transactions during
the 60-day period, such as time-sensitive transactions to transition
new clients' existing investments to new investments or transactions
designed to reduce clients' risk exposure. UBS also claims that
complying with a 60-day advance notice requirement would be impossible
with regard to existing UBS QPAM clients who may have committed to or
entered into transactions in reliance on this exemption. For example,
UBS represents that some clients may have entered into transactions
which are scheduled to occur simultaneously with the granting of this
exemption, rendering it impossible for a QPAM to give sixty (60) days
prior notice. Additionally, UBS requests that the phrase ``to which
such UBS QPAM intends to provide services in reliance upon this
exemption'' be added to this condition.
Affording Covered Plans a means by which to review and understand
the Policies implemented in connection with this exemption is a vital
protection that is fundamental to this exemption's purpose. However,
the Department has modified the condition so that the UBS QPAMs, at
their election, may instead provide Covered Plans a disclosure that
accurately describes or summarizes key components of the Policies,
rather than provide the Policies in their entirety. The Department has
also determined that such disclosure may be continuously maintained on
a website, provided that the website link to the summary of the written
Policies is clearly and prominently disclosed to those Covered Plan
clients to whom this section applies. The Department also agrees with
the Applicant that the timing requirement for disclosure should be
revised and, accordingly, has modified the condition of Section I(p) to
require notice regarding the information on the website within 60 days
of the effective date of this exemption, and thereafter to the extent
certain material changes are made to the Policies.
Definition of ``Convictions'' and ``Conviction Date''--Section II(a)
and II(d)
Section II(a) of the proposed exemption provides that ``The term
`Convictions' means the 2013 Conviction and the 2016 Conviction. The
term ``2013 Conviction'' means the judgment of conviction against UBS
Securities Japan Co. Ltd. in Case Number 3:12-cr-00268-RNC in the U.S.
District Court for the District of Connecticut for one count of wire
fraud in violation of Title 18, United Sates Code, sections 1343 and 2
in connection with submission of YEN London Interbank Offered Rates and
other benchmark interest rates. The term `2016 Conviction' means the
anticipated judgment of conviction against UBS AG in Case Number 3:15-
cr-00076-RNC in the U.S. District Court for the District of Connecticut
for one count of wire fraud in violation of Title 18, United States
Code, Sections 1343 and 2 in connection with UBS's submission of Yen
London Interbank Offered Rates and other benchmark interest rates
between 2001 and 2010. For all purposes under this proposed five-year
exemption, `conduct' of any person or entity that is the `subject of
[a] Conviction' encompasses any conduct of UBS and/or their personnel,
that is described in the Plea Agreement, (including Exhibits 1 and 3
attached thereto), and other official regulatory or judicial factual
findings that are a part of this record.'' UBS has requested the
definition of ``convictions'' in Section II(a) be revised to reflect
the corresponding changes made in PTE 2016-17 and to reflect that the
``2016 Conviction'' occurred in 2017 and should therefore be referred
to as the ``2017 Conviction.'' UBS also requested that the definition
of ``Conviction Date'' in Section II(d) be revised to ``January 5,
2017.''
The Department concurs with UBS and has revised the definition of
the term ``Convictions'' in Section II(a) to be consistent with the
definition provided in Section II(a) of PTE 2016-17 and has revised
Sections II(a) and II(d) to replace the phrase ``2016 Conviction'' with
``2017 Conviction.'' Additionally, the Department has deleted the
references to ``Conviction Date'' within the exemption. The Department
notes that PTE 84-14 references the ``the date of the judgment of the
trial court.'' Because that date is January 10, 2017, the compliance
dates in this exemption are determined with reference to January 10,
2017.
Definition of ``UBS QPAM''--Section II(b)
Section II(b) of the proposed exemption provides in part that
``[t]he term `UBS QPAM' excludes the parent entity, UBS AG and UBS
Securities Japan.'' UBS has requested that the term ``the parent
entity'' be deleted from this Section. The Department has made the
requested revision and removed the
[[Page 61916]]
term ``the parent entity'' from Section II(B).
Comment--Letter from House Committee on Financial Services
The Department also received a comment letter from certain members
of Congress (the Members) regarding this exemption, as well as
regarding other QPAM-related proposed one year exemptions. In the
letter, the Members stated that certain conditions contained in these
proposed exemptions are crucial to protecting the investments of our
nation's workers and retirees, referring to proposed conditions which
require each bank to: (a) Indemnify and hold harmless ERISA-covered
plans and IRAs for any damages resulting from the future misconduct of
such bank; and (b) disclose to the Department any Deferred Prosecution
Agreement or a Non-Prosecution Agreement with the U.S. Department of
Justice. The Members also requested that the Department hold hearings
in connection with the proposed exemptions.
The Department acknowledges the Members' concerns regarding the
need for public discourse regarding proposed exemptions. To this end,
the Department's procedures regarding prohibited transaction exemption
requests under ERISA (the Exemption Procedures) afford interested
persons the opportunity to request a hearing. Specifically, section
2570.46(a) of the Exemption Procedures provides that, ``[a]ny
interested person who may be adversely affected by an exemption which
the Department proposes to grant from the restrictions of section
406(b) of ERISA, section 4975(c)(1)(E) or (F) of the Code, or section
8477(c)(2) of FERSA may request a hearing before the Department within
the period of time specified in the Federal Register notice of the
proposed exemption.'' The Exemption Procedures provide that ``[t]he
Department will grant a request for a hearing made in accordance with
paragraph (a) of this section where a hearing is necessary to fully
explore material factual issues identified by the person requesting the
hearing.'' The Exemption Procedures also provide that ``[t]he
Department may decline to hold a hearing where: (1) The request for the
hearing does not meet the requirements of paragraph (a) of this
section; (2) the only issues identified for exploration at the hearing
are matters of law; or (3) the factual issues identified can be fully
explored through the submission of evidence in written (including
electronic) form.'' \68\
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\68\ 29 CFR part 2570, published at 76 FR 66653 (October 27,
2011).
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While the Members' letter raises important policy issues, it does
not appear to raise specific material factual issues. The Department
previously explored a wide range of legal and policy issues regarding
Section I(g) of the QPAM Exemption during a public hearing held on
January 15, 2015 in connection with the Department's proposed exemption
involving Credit Suisse AG, and has determined that an additional
hearing on these issues is not necessary.
After giving full consideration to the record, the Department has
decided to grant the exemption, as described above. The complete
application file (Application No. D-11907) is available for public
inspection in the Public Disclosure Room of the Employee Benefits
Security Administration, Room N-1515, U.S. Department of Labor, 200
Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20210.
For a more complete statement of the facts and representations
supporting the Department's decision to grant this exemption, refer to
the notice of proposed exemption published on November 21, 2016 at 81
FR 83385.
Exemption
Section I: Covered Transactions
Certain entities with specified relationships to UBS, AG
(hereinafter, the UBS QPAMs as defined in Section II(h)) will not be
precluded from relying on the exemptive relief provided by Prohibited
Transaction Class Exemption 84-14 (PTE 84-14 or the QPAM
Exemption),\69\ notwithstanding the 2013 Conviction against UBS
Securities Japan Co., Ltd. and the 2017 Conviction against UBS, AG
(collectively the Convictions, as defined in Section II(a)),\70\ during
the Exemption Period, provided that the following conditions are
satisfied:
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\69\ 49 FR 9494 (March 13, 1984), as corrected at 50 FR 41430
(October 10, 1985), as amended at 70 FR 49305 (August 23, 2005), and
as amended at 75 FR 38837 (July 6, 2010).
\70\ Section I(g) of PTE 84-14 generally provides that
``[n]either the QPAM nor any affiliate thereof . . . nor any owner .
. . of a 5 percent or more interest in the QPAM is a person who
within the 10 years immediately preceding the transaction has been
either convicted or released from imprisonment, whichever is later,
as a result of'' certain criminal activity therein described.
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(a) The UBS QPAMs (including their officers, directors, agents
other than UBS, and employees of such UBS QPAMs) did not know of, did
not have reason to know of, or participate in: (1) The FX Misconduct;
or (2) the criminal conduct that is the subject of the Convictions (for
the purposes of this Section I(a), ``participate in'' includes the
knowing approval of the FX Misconduct or the misconduct that is the
subject of the Convictions);
(b) The UBS QPAMs (including their officers, directors, agents
other than UBS, and employees of such UBS QPAMs) did not receive direct
compensation, or knowingly receive indirect compensation, in connection
with: (1) The FX Misconduct; or (2) the criminal conduct that is the
subject of the Convictions;
(c) The UBS QPAMs will not employ or knowingly engage any of the
individuals that participated in: (1) The FX Misconduct or (2) the
criminal conduct that is the subject of the Convictions (for the
purposes of this Section I(c), ``participated in'' includes the knowing
approval of the FX Misconduct or the misconduct that is the subject of
the Convictions);
(d) At all times during the Exemption Period, no UBS QPAM will use
its authority or influence to direct an ``investment fund'' (as defined
in Section VI(b) of PTE 84-14) that is subject to ERISA or the Code and
managed by such UBS QPAM with respect to one of more Covered Plans, to
enter into any transaction with UBS or UBS Securities Japan or engage
UBS or UBS Securities Japan to provide any service to such investment
fund, for a direct or indirect fee borne by such investment fund,
regardless of whether such transaction or service may otherwise be
within the scope of relief provided by an administrative or statutory
exemption;
(e) Any failure of the UBS QPAMs to satisfy Section I(g) of PTE 84-
14 arose solely from the Convictions;
(f) A UBS QPAM did not exercise authority over the assets of any
plan subject to Part 4 of Title I of ERISA (an ERISA-covered plan) or
section 4975 of the Code (an IRA) in a manner that it knew or should
have known would: Further the FX Misconduct or the criminal conduct
that is the subject of the Convictions; or cause the UBS QPAM, its
affiliates or related parties to directly or indirectly profit from the
FX Misconduct or the criminal conduct that is the subject of the
Convictions;
(g) Other than with respect to employee benefit plans maintained or
sponsored for its own employees or the employees of an affiliate, UBS
and UBS Securities Japan will not act as a fiduciary within the meaning
of section 3(21)(A)(i) or (iii) of ERISA, or section 4975(e)(3)(A) and
(C) of the Code, with respect to ERISA-covered plan and IRA assets;
provided, however, that UBS and UBS Securities Japan will not be
treated as violating the conditions of this exemption solely because it
acted as an
[[Page 61917]]
investment advice fiduciary within the meaning of section 3(21)(A)(ii)
or section 4975(e)(3)(B) of the Code;
(h)(1) Each UBS QPAM must continue to maintain or immediately
implement and follow written policies and procedures (the Policies).
The Policies must require, and must be reasonably designed to ensure
that:
(i) The asset management decisions of the UBS QPAM are conducted
independently of UBS's corporate management and business activities,
including the corporate management and business activities of the
Investment Bank division and UBS Securities Japan;
(ii) The UBS QPAM fully complies with ERISA's fiduciary duties, and
with ERISA and the Code's prohibited transaction provisions, in such
case as applicable, and does not knowingly participate in any violation
of these duties and provisions with respect to Covered Plans;
(iii) The UBS QPAM does not knowingly participate in any other
person's violation of ERISA or the Code with respect to Covered Plans;
(iv) Any filings or statements made by the UBS QPAM to regulators,
including, but not limited to, the Department of Labor, the Department
of the Treasury, the Department of Justice, and the Pension Benefit
Guaranty Corporation, on behalf of or in relation to Covered Plans, are
materially accurate and complete, to the best of such QPAM's knowledge
at that time;
(v) To the best of the UBS QPAM's knowledge at that time, the UBS
QPAM does not make material misrepresentations or omit material
information in its communications with such regulators with respect to
Covered Plans;
(vi) The UBS QPAM complies with the terms of this exemption; and
(vii) Any violation of, or failure to comply with an item in
subparagraphs (ii) through (vi), is corrected as soon as reasonably
possible upon discovery, or as soon after the QPAM reasonably should
have known of the noncompliance (whichever is earlier), and any such
violation or compliance failure not so corrected is reported, upon the
discovery of such failure to so correct, in writing, to appropriate
corporate officers, the head of compliance and the General Counsel (or
their functional equivalent) of the relevant UBS QPAM, and the
independent auditor responsible for reviewing compliance with the
Policies. A UBS QPAM will not be treated as having failed to develop,
implement, maintain, or follow the Policies, provided that it corrects
any instance of noncompliance as soon as reasonably possible upon
discovery, or as soon as reasonably possible after the QPAM reasonably
should have known of the noncompliance (whichever is earlier), and
provided that it adheres to the reporting requirements set forth in
this subparagraph (vii);
(2) Each UBS QPAM must develop and implement a program of training
(the Training), conducted at least annually, for all relevant UBS QPAM
asset/portfolio management, trading, legal, compliance, and internal
audit personnel. The Training must:
(i) At a minimum, cover the Policies, ERISA and Code compliance
(including applicable fiduciary duties and the prohibited transaction
provisions), ethical conduct, the consequences for not complying with
the conditions of this exemption (including any loss of exemptive
relief provided herein), and prompt reporting of wrongdoing; and
(ii) Be conducted by an independent professional who has been
prudently selected and who has appropriate technical training and
proficiency with ERISA and the Code;
(i)(1) Each UBS QPAM submits to an audit conducted annually by an
independent auditor, who has been prudently selected and who has
appropriate technical training and proficiency with ERISA and the Code,
to evaluate the adequacy of, and each UBS QPAM's compliance with, the
Policies and Training described herein. The audit requirement must be
incorporated in the Policies. The first annual audit must cover a
fourteen-month period that begins on January 10, 2017 (the Initial
Audit Period) and all subsequent audits must cover consecutive twelve
month periods commencing upon the end of the Initial Audit Period.\71\
The Initial Audit Period shall cover the period of time during which
PTE 2016-17 \72\ is effective and a portion of the time during which
this exemption is effective and the audit terms contained in this
Section I(i) will supersede the terms of Section I(i) of PTE 2016-17
except as otherwise provided in this exemption. In determining
compliance with the conditions for relief in PTE 2016-17 and this
exemption, including the Policies and Training requirements, for
purposes of conducting the audit, the auditor will rely on the
conditions for exemptive relief as then applicable to the respective
periods under audit. Additionally, the Department confirms that, for
the final audit under PTE 2013-9 covering the time period from
September 18, 2016 until the January 10, 2017 conviction date, the
audit requirements in Section(g) of PTE 2013-09 remained in effect.
Accordingly, the audit of such final time period under PTE 2013-09 had
to have been completed and submitted within six (6) months of January
10, 2017, and it has, in fact, been submitted to the Department;
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\71\ The final audit under this exemption would not have to be
completed until after the Exemption Period expires. If the
Department ultimately decides to grant relief for an additional
period, it could decide to alter the terms of the exemption,
including the audit conditions (and the timing of the audit
requirements). Nevertheless, the Applicant should anticipate that
the Department will insist on strict compliance with the audit terms
and schedule set forth above. As it considers any new exemption
application, the Department may also contact the auditor for any
information relevant to its determination.
\72\ 81 FR 94049 (December 22, 2016). PTE 2016-17 is a temporary
exemption in respect of Exemption Application No. D-11863 that
permits UBS QPAMs to rely on the exemptive relief provided by PTE
84-14, notwithstanding the Convictions, for up to twelve months from
Conviction Date.
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(2) Within the scope of the audit and to the extent necessary for
the auditor, in its sole opinion, to complete its audit and comply with
the conditions for relief described herein, and only to the extent such
disclosure is not prevented by state or federal statute, or involves
communications subject to attorney client privilege, each UBS QPAM and,
if applicable, UBS, will grant the auditor unconditional access to its
business, including, but not limited to: Its computer systems; business
records; transactional data; workplace locations; training materials;
and personnel. Such access is limited to information relevant to the
auditor's objectives as specified by the terms of this exemption;
(3) The auditor's engagement must specifically require the auditor
to determine whether each UBS QPAM has developed, implemented,
maintained, and followed the Policies in accordance with the conditions
of this exemption, and has developed and implemented the Training, as
required herein;
(4) The auditor's engagement must specifically require the auditor
to test each UBS QPAM's operational compliance with the Policies and
Training. In this regard, the auditor must test, for each UBS QPAM, a
sample of such QPAM's transactions involving Covered Plans, sufficient
in size and nature to afford the auditor a reasonable basis to
determine such QPAM's operational compliance with the Policies and
Training;
(5) For each audit, on or before the end of the relevant period
described in Section I(i)(1) for completing the audit, the auditor must
issue a written report (the Audit Report) to UBS and the UBS QPAM to
which the audit applies that describes the procedures performed by the
auditor during the course of its
[[Page 61918]]
examination. The auditor, at its discretion, may issue a single
consolidated Audit Report that covers all the UBS QPAMs. The Audit
Report must include the auditor's specific determinations regarding:
(i) The adequacy of each UBS QPAM's Policies and Training; each UBS
QPAM's compliance with the Policies and Training; the need, if any, to
strengthen such Policies and Training; and any instance of the
respective UBS QPAM's noncompliance with the written Policies and
Training described in Section I(h) above. The UBS QPAM must promptly
address any noncompliance. The UBS QPAM must promptly address or
prepare a written plan of action to address any determination of
inadequacy by the auditor regarding the adequacy of the Policies and
Training and the auditor's recommendations (if any) with respect to
strengthening the Policies and Training of the respective UBS QPAM. Any
action taken or the plan of action to be taken by the respective UBS
QPAM must be included in an addendum to the Audit Report (such addendum
must be completed prior to the certification described in Section
I(i)(7) below). In the event such a plan of action to address the
auditor's recommendation regarding the adequacy of the Policies and
Training is not completed by the time of submission of the Audit
Report, the following period's Audit Report must state whether the plan
was satisfactorily completed. Any determination by the auditor that the
respective UBS QPAM has implemented, maintained, and followed
sufficient Policies and Training must not be based solely or in
substantial part on an absence of evidence indicating noncompliance. In
this last regard, any finding that a UBS QPAM has complied with the
requirements under this subparagraph must be based on evidence that the
particular UBS QPAM has actually implemented, maintained, and followed
the Policies and Training required by this exemption. Furthermore, the
auditor must not solely rely on the Annual Report created by the
compliance officer (the Compliance Officer), as described in Section
I(m) below, as the basis for the auditor's conclusions in lieu of
independent determinations and testing performed by the auditor as
required by Section I(i)(3) and (4) above; and
(ii) The adequacy of the Annual Review described in Section I(m);
(6) The auditor must notify the respective UBS QPAM of any instance
of noncompliance identified by the auditor within five (5) business
days after such noncompliance is identified by the auditor, regardless
of whether the audit has been completed as of that date;
(7) With respect to each Audit Report, the General Counsel, or one
of the three most senior executive officers of the UBS QPAM to which
the Audit Report applies, must certify in writing, under penalty of
perjury, that the officer has reviewed the Audit Report and this
exemption; that, such UBS QPAM has addressed, corrected, remedied any
noncompliance and inadequacy or has an appropriate written plan to
address any inadequacy regarding the Policies and Training identified
in the Audit Report. Such certification must also include the
signatory's determination, that the Policies and Training in effect at
the time of signing are adequate to ensure compliance with the
conditions of this exemption and with the applicable provisions of
ERISA and the Code;
(8) The Risk Committee of UBS's Board of Directors is provided a
copy of each Audit Report; and a senior executive officer of UBS's
Compliance and Operational Risk Control function must review the Audit
Report for each UBS QPAM and must certify in writing, under penalty of
perjury, that such officer has reviewed each Audit Report;
(9) Each UBS QPAM provides its certified Audit Report, by regular
mail to: Office of Exemption Determinations (OED), 200 Constitution
Avenue NW, Suite 400, Washington, DC 20210; or by private carrier to:
122 C Street NW, Suite 400, Washington, DC 20001-2109. This delivery
must take place no later than 30 days following completion of the Audit
Report. The Audit Report will be made part of the public record
regarding this exemption. Furthermore, each UBS QPAM must make its
Audit Report unconditionally available, electronically or otherwise,
for examination upon request by any duly authorized employee or
representative of the Department, other relevant regulators, and any
fiduciary of a Covered Plan;
(10) Each UBS QPAM and the auditor must submit to OED any
engagement agreement(s) entered into pursuant to the engagement of the
auditor under this exemption. Further, each UBS QPAM must submit to OED
any engagement entered into with any other person or entity retained in
connection with such QPAM's compliance with the Training or Policies
conditions of this exemption no later than two (2) months after the
execution of any such engagement agreement;
(11) The auditor must provide the Department, upon request, for
inspection and review, access to all the workpapers created and
utilized in the course of the audit, provided such access and
inspection is otherwise permitted by law; and
(12) UBS must notify the Department of a change in the independent
auditor no later than two (2) months after the engagement of a
substitute or subsequent auditor and must provide an explanation for
the substitution or change including a description of any material
disputes between the terminated auditor and UBS;
(j) As of January 10, 2018 and throughout the Exemption Period,
with respect to any arrangement, agreement, or contract between a UBS
QPAM and a Covered Plan, the UBS QPAM agrees and warrants:
(1) To comply with ERISA and the Code, as applicable with respect
to such Covered Plan; to refrain from engaging in prohibited
transactions that are not otherwise exempt (and to promptly correct any
inadvertent prohibited transactions); and to comply with the standards
of prudence and loyalty set forth in section 404 of ERISA with respect
to each such ERISA-covered plan and IRA to the extent that section 404
is applicable;
(2) Not to require (or otherwise cause) the Covered Plan to waive,
limit, or qualify the liability of the UBS QPAM for violating ERISA or
the Code or engaging in prohibited transactions;
(3) Not to restrict the ability of such Covered Plan to terminate
or withdraw from its arrangement with the UBS QPAM with respect to any
investment in a separately managed account or pooled fund subject to
ERISA and managed by such QPAM, with the exception of reasonable
restrictions, appropriately disclosed in advance, that are specifically
designed to ensure equitable treatment of all investors in a pooled
fund in the event such withdrawal or termination may have adverse
consequences for all other investors. In connection with any such
arrangements involving investments in pooled funds subject to ERISA
entered into after the effective date of this exemption, the adverse
consequences must relate to of a lack of liquidity of the underlying
assets, valuation issues, or regulatory reasons that prevent the fund
from promptly redeeming an ERISA-covered plan's or IRA's investment,
and such restrictions must be applicable to all such investors and
effective no longer than reasonably necessary to avoid the adverse
consequences;
(4) Not to impose any fees, penalties, or charges for such
termination or withdrawal with the exception of
[[Page 61919]]
reasonable fees, appropriately disclosed in advance, that are
specifically designed to prevent generally recognized abusive
investment practices or specifically designed to ensure equitable
treatment of all investors in a pooled fund in the event such
withdrawal or termination may have adverse consequences for all other
investors, provided that such fees are applied consistently and in like
manner to all such investors;
(5) Not to include exculpatory provisions disclaiming or otherwise
limiting liability of the UBS QPAM for a violation of such agreement's
terms. To the extent consistent with Section 410 of ERISA, however,
this provision does not prohibit disclaimers for liability caused by an
error, misrepresentation, or misconduct of a plan fiduciary or other
party hired by the plan fiduciary who is independent of UBS, and its
affiliates, or damages arising from acts outside the control of the UBS
QPAM; and
(6) To indemnify and hold harmless the Covered Plan for any actual
losses resulting directly from a UBS QPAM's violation of ERISA's
fiduciary duties, as applicable, and of the prohibited transaction
provisions of ERISA and the Code, as applicable; a breach of contract
by the QPAM, or any claim arising out of the failure of such UBS QPAM
to qualify for the exemptive relief provided by PTE 84-14 as a result
of a violation of Section I(g) of PTE 84-14 other than the Conviction.
This condition applies only to actual losses caused by the UBS QPAM's
violations;
(7) By July 9, 2018, each UBS QPAM must provide a notice of its
obligations under this Section I(j) to each Covered Plan. For all other
prospective Covered Plans, the UBS QPAM will agree to its obligations
under this Section I(j) in an updated investment management agreement
between the UBS QPAM and such clients or other written contractual
agreement. This condition will be deemed met for each Covered Plan that
received a notice pursuant to PTE 2016-17 that meets the terms of this
condition. Notwithstanding the above, a UBS QPAM will not violate the
condition solely because a Plan or IRA refuses to sign an updated
investment management agreement.
(k) By March 10, 2018, each UBS QPAM will provide a notice of the
exemption, along with a separate summary describing the facts that led
to the Convictions (the Summary), which have been submitted to the
Department, and a prominently displayed statement (the Statement) that
each Conviction separately results in a failure to meet a condition in
PTE 84-14, to each sponsor and beneficial owner of a Covered Plan, or
the sponsor of an investment fund in any case where a UBS QPAM acts as
a sub-advisor to the investment fund in which such ERISA-covered plan
and IRA invests. Any prospective client for which a UBS QPAM relies on
PTE 84-14 or has expressly represented that the manager qualifies as a
QPAM or relies on the QPAM class exemption must receive the proposed
and final exemptions with the Summary and the Statement prior to, or
contemporaneously with, the client's receipt of a written asset
management agreement from the UBS QPAM. Disclosures may be delivered
electronically;
(l) The UBS QPAMs must comply with each condition of PTE 84-14, as
amended, with the sole exceptions of the violations of Section I(g) of
PTE 84-14 that are attributable to the Convictions;
(m)(1) By July 9, 2018, UBS designates a senior compliance officer
(the Compliance Officer) who will be responsible for compliance with
the Policies and Training requirements described herein. The Compliance
Officer must conduct an annual review for each period corresponding to
the audit periods set forth in Section I(i)(1) (including the Initial
Audit Period) (the Annual Review) \73\ to determine the adequacy and
effectiveness of the implementation of the Policies and Training. With
respect to the Compliance Officer, the following conditions must be
met:
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\73\ Note that such Annual Review must be completed with respect
to the annual periods ending January 9, 2019; January 9, 2020; and
January 9, 2021.
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(i) The Compliance Officer must be a legal professional who has
extensive experience with, and knowledge of, the regulation of
financial services and products, including under ERISA and the Code;
and
(ii) The Compliance Officer has a dual-reporting line within UBS's
Compliance and Operational Risk Control (C&ORC) function: (A) A
divisional reporting line to the Head of Compliance and Operational
Risk Control, Asset Management, and (B) a regional reporting line to
the Head of Americas Compliance and Operational Risk Control. The C&ORC
function will be organizationally independent of UBS's business
divisions--including Asset Management and the Investment Bank--and is
led by the Global Head of C&ORC, who will report directly to UBS's
Chief Risk Officer;
(2) With respect to each Annual Review, the following conditions
must be met:
(i) The Annual Review includes a review of: Any compliance matter
related to the Policies or Training that was identified by, or reported
to, the Compliance Officer or others within the C&ORC function during
the previous year; any material change in the relevant business
activities of the UBS QPAMs; and any change to ERISA, the Code, or
regulations related to fiduciary duties and the prohibited transaction
provisions that may be applicable to the activities of the UBS QPAMs;
(ii) The Compliance Officer prepares a written report for each
Annual Review (each, an Annual Report) that (A) summarizes his or her
material activities during the preceding year; (B) sets forth any
instance of noncompliance discovered during the preceding year, and any
related corrective action; (C) details any change to the Policies or
Training to guard against any similar instance of noncompliance
occurring again; and (D) makes recommendations, as necessary, for
additional training, procedures, monitoring, or additional and/or
changed processes or systems, and management's actions on such
recommendations;
(iii) In each Annual Report, the Compliance Officer must certify in
writing that to the best of his or her knowledge at the time: (A) The
report is accurate; (B) the Policies and Training are working in a
manner which is reasonably designed to ensure that the Policies and
Training requirements described herein are met; (C) any known instance
of noncompliance during the preceding year and any related correction
taken to date have been identified in the Annual Report; and (D) the
UBS QPAMs have complied with the Policies and Training, and/or
corrected (or are correcting) any known instances of noncompliance in
accordance with Section I(h) above;
(iv) Each Annual Report must be provided to appropriate corporate
officers of UBS and each UBS QPAM to which such report relates; the
head of Compliance and the General Counsel (or their functional
equivalent) of the relevant UBS QPAM; and must be made unconditionally
available to the independent auditor described in Section I(i) above;
(v) Each Annual Review, including the Compliance Officer's written
Annual Report, must be completed within at least three (3) months
following the end of the period to which it relates;
(n) UBS imposes its internal procedures, controls, and protocols on
UBS Securities Japan to: (1) Reduce the likelihood of any recurrence of
conduct that that is the subject of the 2013
[[Page 61920]]
Conviction, and (2) comply in all material respects with the Business
Improvement Order, dated December 16, 2011, issued by the Japanese
Financial Services Authority;
(o) UBS complies in all material respects with the audit and
monitoring procedures imposed on UBS by the U.S. Commodity Futures
Trading Commission Order, dated December 19, 2012;
(p) Each UBS QPAM will maintain records necessary to demonstrate
that the conditions of this exemption have been met, for six (6) years
following the date of any transaction for which such UBS QPAM relies
upon the relief in the exemption;
(q) During the Exemption Period, UBS: (1) Immediately discloses to
the Department any Deferred Prosecution Agreement (a DPA) or Non-
Prosecution Agreement (an NPA) with the U.S. Department of Justice,
entered into by UBS or any of its affiliates (as defined in Section
VI(d) of PTE 84-14) in connection with conduct described in Section
I(g) of PTE 84-14 or section 411 of ERISA; and (2) immediately provides
the Department any information requested by the Department, as
permitted by law, regarding the agreement and/or conduct and
allegations that led to the agreement;
(r) By July 09, 2018, each UBS QPAM, in its agreements with, or in
other written disclosures provided to Covered Plans, will clearly and
prominently inform Covered Plan clients of their right to obtain a copy
of the Policies or a description (Summary Policies) which accurately
summarizes key components of the UBS QPAM's written Policies developed
in connection with this exemption. If the Policies are thereafter
changed, each Covered Plan client must receive a new disclosure within
six (6) months following the end of the calendar year during which the
Policies were changed.\74\ With respect to this requirement, the
description may be continuously maintained on a website, provided that
such website link to the Policies or Summary Policies is clearly and
prominently disclosed to each Covered Plan; and
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\74\ In the event Applicant meets this disclosure requirement
through Summary Policies, changes to the Policies shall not result
in the requirement for a new disclosure unless, as a result of
changes to the Policies, the Summary Policies are no longer
accurate.
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(s) A UBS QPAM will not fail to meet the terms of this exemption,
solely because a different UBS QPAM fails to satisfy a condition for
relief described in Sections I(c), (d), (h), (i), (j), (k), (l), (p),
and (r); or if the independent auditor described in Section I(i) fails
a provision of the exemption other than the requirement described in
Section I(i)(11), provided that such failure did not result from any
actions or inactions of UBS or its affiliates.
Section II: Definitions
(a) The term ``Convictions'' means the 2013 Conviction and the 2017
Conviction. The term ``2013 Conviction'' means the judgment of
conviction against UBS Securities Japan Co. Ltd. in case number 3:12-
cr-00268-RNC in the U.S. District Court for the District of Connecticut
for one count of wire fraud in violation of Title 18, United States
Code, sections 1343 and 2 in connection with submission of YEN London
Interbank Offered Rates and other benchmark interest rates. The term
``2017 Conviction'' means the judgment of conviction against UBS, AG in
case number 3:15-cr-00076-RNC in the U.S. District Court for the
District of Connecticut for one count of wire fraud in violation of
Title 18, United States Code, Sections 1343 and 2 in connection with
UBS's submission of Yen London Interbank Offered Rates and other
benchmark interest rates between 2001 and 2010. For all purposes under
this exemption, ``conduct'' of any person or entity that is the
``subject of the Convictions'' encompasses any conduct of UBS and/or
their personnel, that is described in (i) Exhibit 3 to the Plea
Agreement entered into between UBS, AG and the Department of Justice
Criminal Division, on May 20, 2015, in connection with case number
3:15-cr-00076-RNC, and (ii) Exhibits 3 and 4 to the Plea Agreement
entered into between UBS Securities Japan and the Department of Justice
Criminal Division, on December 19, 2012, in connection with case number
3:12-cr-00268-RNC;
(b) The term ``Covered Plan'' means an ERISA-covered plan or an IRA
with respect to which a UBS QPAM relies on PTE 84-14, or with respect
to which a UBS QPAM (or any UBS affiliate) has expressly represented
that the manager qualifies as a QPAM or relies on the QPAM class
exemption, but not with respect to any arrangement, agreement, or
contract between a UBS QPAM and an ERISA-covered plan or IRA with
respect to which the UBS QPAM has expressly disclaimed reliance on the
QPAM status or PTE 84-14 in entering into its contract with the ERISA
covered plan or IRA.
(c) The terms ``ERISA-covered plan'' and ``IRA'' mean,
respectively, a plan subject to Part 4 of Title I of ERISA and a plan
subject to section 4975 of the Code.
(d) The term ``Exemption Period'' means January 10, 2018, through
January 9, 2021;
(e) The term ``FX Misconduct'' means the conduct engaged in by UBS
personnel described in Exhibit 1 of the Plea Agreement (Factual Basis
for Breach) entered into between UBS, AG and the Department of Justice
Criminal Division, on May 20, 2015 in connection with Case Number 3:15-
cr-00076-RNC filed in the US District Court for the District of
Connecticut.
(f) The term ``Plea Agreement'' means the Plea Agreement (including
Exhibits 1 and 3 attached thereto) entered into between UBS, AG and the
Department of Justice Criminal Division, on May 20, 2015 in connection
with Case Number 3:15-cr-00076-RNC filed in the US District Court for
the District of Connecticut.
(g) The term ``UBS'' means UBS, AG.
(h) The term ``UBS QPAM'' means UBS Asset Management (Americas)
Inc., UBS Realty Investors LLC, UBS Hedge Fund Solutions LLC, UBS
O'Connor LLC, and any future entity within the Asset Management or the
Wealth Management Americas divisions of UBS, AG that qualifies as a
``qualified professional asset manager'' (as defined in Section VI(a)
\75\ of PTE 84-14) and that relies on the relief provided by PTE 84-14
or represents to ERISA-covered plans and IRAs that it qualifies as a
QPAM and with respect to which UBS, AG is an ``affiliate'' (as defined
in Part VI(d) of PTE 84-14). The term ``UBS QPAM'' excludes UBS, AG and
UBS Securities Japan.
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\75\ In general terms, a QPAM is an independent fiduciary that
is a bank, savings and loan association, insurance company, or
investment adviser that meets certain equity or net worth
requirements and other licensure requirements and that has
acknowledged in a written management agreement that it is a
fiduciary with respect to each plan that has retained the QPAM.
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(i) The term ``UBS Securities Japan'' means UBS Securities Japan
Co. Ltd, a wholly-owned subsidiary of UBS incorporated under the laws
of Japan.
Effective Date
This exemption is effective January 10, 2018, and the term of the
exemption is from January 10, 2018, through January 9, 2021 (the
Exemption Period).
Department's Comment: The Department cautions that the relief in
this exemption will terminate immediately if, among other things, an
entity within the UBS corporate structure is convicted of a crime
described in Section I(g) of PTE 84-14 (other than the Convictions)
during the Exemption Period. Although UBS could apply for a new
exemption in that
[[Page 61921]]
circumstance, the Department would not be obligated to grant the
exemption. The terms of this exemption have been specifically designed
to permit plans to terminate their relationships in an orderly and cost
effective fashion in the event of an additional conviction or a
determination that it is otherwise prudent for a plan to terminate its
relationship with an entity covered by the exemption.
Further Information
For more information on this exemption, contact Brian Mica,
telephone (202) 693-8402, Office of Exemption Determinations, Employee
Benefits Security Administration, U.S. Department of Labor (this is not
a toll-free number).
General Information
The attention of interested persons is directed to the following:
(1) The fact that a transaction is the subject of an exemption
under section 408(a) of the Act and/or section 4975(c)(2) of the Code
does not relieve a fiduciary or other party in interest or disqualified
person from certain other provisions to which the exemption does not
apply and the general fiduciary responsibility provisions of section
404 of the Act, which among other things require a fiduciary to
discharge his duties respecting the plan solely in the interest of the
participants and beneficiaries of the plan and in a prudent fashion in
accordance with section 404(a)(1)(B) of the Act; nor does it affect the
requirement of section 401(a) of the Code that the plan must operate
for the exclusive benefit of the employees of the employer maintaining
the plan and their beneficiaries;
(2) These exemptions are supplemental to and not in derogation of,
any other provisions of the Act and/or the Code, including statutory or
administrative exemptions and transactional rules. Furthermore, the
fact that a transaction is subject to an administrative or statutory
exemption is not dispositive of whether the transaction is in fact a
prohibited transaction; and
(3) The availability of these exemptions is subject to the express
condition that the material facts and representations contained in the
application accurately describes all material terms of the transaction
which is the subject of the exemption.
Signed at Washington, DC, this 21st day of December, 2017.
Lyssa E. Hall,
Director of Exemption Determinations, Employee Benefits Security
Administration, U.S. Department of Labor.
[FR Doc. 2017-27977 Filed 12-28-17; 8:45 am]
BILLING CODE 4510-29-P