Proposed Amendment to Prohibited Transaction Exemption (PTE) 84-14 for Plan Asset Transactions Determined by Independent Qualified Professional Asset Managers, 49312-49317 [05-16681]
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policies of a person other than an
individual.
(f) The term ‘‘party in interest’’ means
a person described in ERISA section
3(14) and includes a ‘‘disqualified
person,’’ as defined in Code section
4975(e)(2).
(g) The term ‘‘relative’’ means a
relative as that term is defined in ERISA
section 3(15), or a brother, a sister, or a
spouse of a brother or sister.
(h) A QPAM is ‘‘related’’ to a party in
interest for purposes of section I(d) of
this exemption if, as of the last day of
its most recent calendar quarter: (i) the
QPAM owns a ten percent or more
interest in the party in interest; (ii) a
person controlling, or controlled by, the
QPAM owns a twenty percent or more
interest in the party in interest; (iii) the
party in interest owns a ten percent or
more interest in the QPAM; or (iv) a
person controlling, or controlled by, the
party in interest owns a twenty percent
or more interest in the QPAM.
Notwithstanding the foregoing, a party
in interest is ‘‘related’’ to a QPAM if: (i)
a person controlling, or controlled by,
the party in interest has an ownership
interest that is less than twenty percent
but greater than ten percent in the
QPAM and such person exercises
control over the management or policies
of the QPAM by reason of its ownership
interest; (ii) a person controlling, or
controlled by, the QPAM has an
ownership interest that is less than
twenty percent but greater than ten
percent in the party in interest and such
person exercises control over the
management or policies of the party in
interest by reason of its ownership
interest. For purposes of this definition:
(1) The term ‘‘interest’’ means with
respect to ownership of an entity—
(A) The combined voting power of all
classes of stock entitled to vote or the
total value of the shares of all classes of
stock of the entity if the entity is a
corporation,
(B) The capital interest or the profits
interest of the entity if the entity is a
partnership, or
(C) The beneficial interest of the
entity if the entity is a trust or
unincorporated enterprise; and
(2) A person is considered to own an
interest if, other than in a fiduciary
capacity, the person has or shares the
authority—
(A) To exercise any voting rights or to
direct some other person to exercise the
voting rights relating to such interest, or
(B) To dispose or to direct the
disposition of such interest.
(i) The time as of which any
transaction occurs is the date upon
which the transaction is entered into. In
addition, in the case of a transaction
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that is continuing, the transaction shall
be deemed to occur until it is
terminated. If any transaction is entered
into on or after December 21, 1982, or
a renewal that requires the consent of
the QPAM occurs on or after December
21, 1982 and the requirements of this
exemption are satisfied at the time the
transaction is entered into or renewed,
respectively, the requirements will
continue to be satisfied thereafter with
respect to the transaction.
Notwithstanding the foregoing, this
exemption shall cease to apply to a
transaction exempt by virtue of Part I or
Part II at such time as the percentage
requirement contained in section I(e) is
exceeded, unless no portion of such
excess results from an increase in the
assets transferred for discretionary
management to a QPAM. For this
purpose, assets transferred do not
include the reinvestment of earnings
attributable to those plan assets already
under the discretionary management of
the QPAM. Nothing in this paragraph
shall be construed as exempting a
transaction entered into by an
investment fund which becomes a
transaction described in section 406 of
ERISA or section 4975 of the Code while
the transaction is continuing, unless the
conditions of this exemption were met
either at the time the transaction was
entered into or at the time the
transaction would have become
prohibited but for this exemption.
(j) The term ‘‘goods’’ includes all
things which are movable or which are
fixtures used by an investment fund but
does not include securities,
commodities, commodities futures,
money, documents, instruments,
accounts, chattel paper, contract rights
and any other property, tangible or
intangible, which, under the relevant
facts and circumstances, is held
primarily for investment.
(k) For purposes of section V(a)(1) and
(2), the term ‘‘equity capital’’ means
stock (common and preferred), surplus,
undivided profits, contingency reserves
and other capital reserves.
(l) For purposes of section V(a)(3), the
term ‘‘net worth’’ means capital, paid-in
and contributed surplus, unassigned
surplus, contingency reserves, group
contingency reserves, and special
reserves.
(m) For purposes of section V(a)(4),
the term ‘‘shareholders’ or partners’
equity’’ means the equity shown in the
most recent balance sheet prepared
within the two years immediately
preceding a transaction undertaken
pursuant to this exemption, in
accordance with generally accepted
accounting principles.
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(n) The terms ‘‘employee benefit
plan’’ and ‘‘plan’’ refer to an employee
benefit plan described in section 3(3) of
ERISA and/or a plan described in
section 4975(e)(1) of the Code.
(o) For purposes of section V(a), the
term ‘‘independent fiduciary’’ means a
fiduciary managing the assets of a plan
in an investment fund that is
independent of and unrelated to the
employer sponsoring such plan. For
purposes of this exemption, the
independent fiduciary will not be
deemed to be independent of and
unrelated to the employer sponsoring
the plan if such fiduciary directly or
indirectly controls, is controlled by, or
is under common control with the
employer sponsoring the plan.
Notwithstanding the foregoing, for the
period from December 21, 1982, through
the date on which the Department
grants a final amendment which
addresses relief for financial institutions
that serve as investment managers for
their own plans, a QPAM managing the
assets of a plan in an investment fund
will not fail to satisfy the requirements
of section V(a) solely because such
fiduciary is the employer sponsoring the
plan or directly or indirectly controls, is
controlled by, or is under common
control with the employer sponsoring
the plan.
Signed at Washington, DC, this 11th day of
August, 2005.
Ivan L. Strasfeld,
Director, Office of Exemption,
Determinations, Employee Benefits Security
Administration, Department of Labor.
[FR Doc. 05–16702 Filed 8–22–05; 8:45 am]
BILLING CODE 4510–29–P
DEPARTMENT OF LABOR
Employee Benefits Security
Administration
[Application Number D–11270]
Proposed Amendment to Prohibited
Transaction Exemption (PTE) 84–14 for
Plan Asset Transactions Determined
by Independent Qualified Professional
Asset Managers
Employee Benefits Security
Administration, DOL.
ACTION: Notice of proposed amendment
to PTE 84–14.
AGENCY:
SUMMARY: This document contains a
notice of pendency before the
Department of Labor (the Department) of
a proposed amendment to PTE 84–14.
The exemption permits various parties
that are related to employee benefit
plans to engage in transactions
involving plan assets if, among other
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conditions, the assets are managed by
‘‘qualified professional asset managers’’
(QPAMs), which are independent of the
parties in interest and which meet
specified financial standards.
Additional exemptive relief is provided
for employers to furnish limited
amounts of goods and services to a
managed fund in the ordinary course of
business. Limited relief is also provided
for leases of office or commercial space
between managed funds and QPAMs or
contributing employers. Finally, relief is
provided for transactions involving
places of public accommodation owned
by a managed fund.
Currently, PTE 84–14 requires the
QPAM managing the assets of a plan in
an investment fund to be independent
of, and unrelated to, the employer
sponsoring such plan. However, as
described in the notice of final
amendment to PTE 84–14 contained in
this issue of the Federal Register,
limited retroactive and transitional
relief is provided for financial service
entities to act as QPAMS for their own
plans. If this proposed amendment is
granted, a QPAM may prospectively
manage an investment fund containing
the assets of its own plan or the plan of
an affiliate, to the extent the conditions
of the proposal are met.
The proposed amendment would
affect participants and beneficiaries of
employee benefit plans, the sponsoring
employers of such plans, and other
persons engaging in the described
transactions.
DATES: Written comments must be
received by the Department on or before
October 7, 2005.
ADDRESSES: All written comments
(preferably three copies) should be
addressed to the U.S. Department of
Labor, Office of Exemption
Determinations, Employee Benefits
Security Administration, Room N–5649,
200 Constitution Avenue, NW.,
Washington, DC 20210 (attention: PTE
84–14 Amendment). Interested persons
are also invited to submit comments to
EBSA via e-mail or fax. Any such
comments should be sent either by email to motta.christopher@dol.gov or by
fax to (202) 219–0204 by the end of the
scheduled comment period. All
comments received will be available for
public inspection at the Public
Documents Room, Employee Benefits
Security Administration, Room N–1513,
200 Constitution Avenue, NW.,
Washington, DC 20210.
FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:
Christopher Motta, Office of Exemption
Determinations, Employee Benefits
Security Administration, U.S.
Department of Labor, Room N–5649,
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200 Constitution Avenue, NW.,
Washington DC 20210, (202) 693–8540
(not a toll-free number).
SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION: Notice is
hereby given of the pendency before the
Department of a proposed amendment
to PTE 84–14 (49 FR 9494, March 13,
1984, as corrected at 50 FR 41430,
October 10, 1985, and amended
elsewhere in this issue of the Federal
Register). PTE 84–14 provides an
exemption from certain of the
restrictions of section 406 of ERISA, and
from certain taxes imposed by section
4975(a) and (b) of the Code, by reason
of section 4975(c)(1) of the Code. The
Department is proposing this
amendment to PTE 84–14 on its own
motion, pursuant to section 408(a) of
ERISA and section 4975(c)(2) of the
Code, and in accordance with the
procedures set forth in 29 CFR part
2570, subpart B (55 FR 32836, 32847,
August 10, 1990).1
Economic Analysis
Executive Order 12866 Statement
Under Executive Order 12866, the
Department must determine whether the
regulatory action is ‘‘significant’’ and
therefore subject to the requirements of
the Executive Order and subject to
review by the Office of Management and
Budget (OMB). Under section 3(f), the
order defines a ‘‘significant regulatory
action’’ as an action that is likely to
result in a rule: (1) Having an annual
effect on the economy of $100 million
or more, or adversely and materially
affecting a sector of the economy,
productivity, competition, jobs, the
environment, public health or safety, or
State, local or tribal governments or
communities (also referred to as
‘‘economically significant’’); (2) creating
serious inconsistency or otherwise
interfering with an action taken or
planned by another agency; (3)
materially altering the budgetary
impacts of entitlement grants, user fees,
or loan programs or the rights and
obligations of recipients thereof; or (4)
raising novel legal or policy issues
arising out of legal mandates, the
President’s priorities, or the principles
set forth in the Executive Order.
Pursuant to the terms of the Executive
Order, it has been determined that this
action is a ‘‘significant regulatory
1 Section 102 of the Reorganization Plan No. 4 of
1978, 5 U.S.C. App. 1 (1996), generally transferred
the authority of the Secretary of Treasury to issue
administrative exemptions under section 4975(c)(2)
of the Code to the Secretary of Labor.
For purposes of this exemption, references to
specific provisions of Title I of the Act, unless
otherwise specified, refer also to the corresponding
provisions of the Code.
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action.’’ Accordingly, this action has
been reviewed by OMB.
Paperwork Reduction Act
As part of its continuing effort to
reduce paperwork and respondent
burden, the Department of Labor
conducts a preclearance consultation
program to provide the general public
and Federal agencies with an
opportunity to comment on proposed
and continuing collections of
information in accordance with the
Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA
95) (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)). This helps
to ensure that requested data can be
provided in the desired format,
reporting burden (time and financial
resources) is minimized, collection
instruments are clearly understood, and
the impact of collection requirements on
respondents can be properly assessed.
Currently, the Department is soliciting
comments concerning the information
collection request (ICR) included in PTE
84–14 and this Notice of Proposed
Amendment to Prohibited Transaction
Exemption (PTE) 84–14 for Plan Asset
Transactions Determined by
Independent Qualified Professional
Asset Managers. A copy of the ICR may
be obtained by contacting Gerald B.
Lindrew, Office of Policy and Research,
U.S. Department of Labor, Employee
Benefits Security Administration, 200
Constitution Avenue, NW., Room N–
5647, Washington, DC 20210.
Telephone (202) 693–8410; Fax: (202)
219–4745. These are not toll-free
numbers.
The Department has submitted a copy
of the proposed information collection
to OMB in accordance with 44 U.S.C.
3507(d) for review of its information
collections. The Department and OMB
are particularly interested in comments
that:
• Evaluate whether the proposed
collection of information is necessary
for the proper performance of the
functions of the agency, including
whether the information will have
practical utility;
• Evaluate the accuracy of the
agency’s estimate of the burden of the
collection of information, including the
validity of the methodology and
assumptions used;
• Enhance the quality, utility, and
clarity of the information to be
collected; and
• Minimize the burden of the
collection of information on those who
are to respond, including through the
use of appropriated automated,
electronic, mechanical, or other
technological collection techniques or
other forms of information technology,
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e.g., permitting electronic submission of
responses.
Comments should be sent to the
Office of Information and Regulatory
Affairs, Office of Management and
Budget, Room 10235, New Executive
Office Building, Washington, DC 20503;
Attention: Desk Officer for the
Employee Benefits Security
Administration. Although comments
may be submitted through October 24,
2005. OMB requests that comments be
received within 30 days of publication
of the Notice of Proposed Amendment
to ensure their consideration.
The provisions for compliance with
PTE 84–14 (49 FR 9494, March 13, 1984,
as corrected at 50 FR 41430, October 10,
1985), a final amendment to PTE 84–14
published in this issue of the Federal
Register, and this proposed amendment
have been discussed in greater detail
earlier in the preamble. Briefly, PTE 84–
14 permits various parties in interest to
employee benefit plans to engage in
transactions involving plan assets if,
among other requirements, the assets are
managed by a QPAM. Such transactions
include, for example, the leasing of
office space by an investment fund to a
QPAM or the furnishing of services and
facilities by a place of public
accommodation owned by an
investment fund managed by a QPAM.
The final amendment, among other
things, provides limited retroactive and
transitional relief from the sanctions of
certain sections of ERISA and the Code
for financial institutions such as banks,
insurance companies, or registered
investment advisers, that act as QPAMs
for their own plans. The proposed
amendment, if granted, would provide
prospective relief for financial
institutions to act as QPAMS for their
own plans.
The Department included in the final
amendment published in this issue of
the Federal Register and this proposed
amendment certain requirements
intended to preserve plan assets and
protect plan participant benefits with
respect to transactions between a party
in interest to a plan and an investment
fund containing plan assets managed by
a QPAM. PTE 84–14, as restated and
amended in the final amendment,
includes a requirement for a written
agreement between a plan and the
QPAM it has retained, and written
guidelines between a QPAM and a
property manager that a QPAM has
retained. Because it is customary
business practice for agreements related
to the investment of plan assets or
transactions relating to the leasing of
space to be described in writing, no
burden was estimated for these
provisions of the final amendment.
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Accordingly, this ICR includes only the
burden for provisions in the proposed
amendment.
In order for a transaction to qualify for
an exemption under the proposed
amendment, a QPAM must, among
other requirements, establish written
policies and procedures that are
designed to assure compliance with the
conditions of the proposed amendment,
including the steps adopted by the
QPAM to measure compliance. Based
on information in the 1999 Form 5500
Annual Report, the Department
estimates that approximately 6,500
banks, savings institutions, insurance
companies, and investment advisers
currently acting as QPAMs for employee
benefit plans might choose to act as
QPAMs for their own plans. QPAMs are
assumed to use a service provider, such
as an attorney, to develop the written
policies and procedures required under
the proposed amendment. To meet the
Department’s requirements regarding
written policies and procedures, service
providers will most likely develop
standardized language that can then be
modified to include the specific steps
adopted by a particular QPAM to assure
compliance. If all 6,500 financial
institutions choose to act as QPAMs for
their own plans, the start-up cost,
assuming one hour of a service
provider’s time, at $84 per hour, would
be $546,000. The actual amount of time
required, and the resulting cost burden,
may be even lower because the
Department has described the objective
requirements of the exemption that are
to be included in the policies and
procedures, and because most service
providers will handle multiple QPAMs,
thereby reducing per-plan costs.
Going forward, the Department is not
aware of a basis for estimating how
many additional QPAMs will choose to
handle investments for their own plans,
but assumes the number to be small.
Most QPAMs are believed to be large
institutions that will take advantage of
the proposed amendment soon after it is
granted. For purposes of this ICR, the
Department has assumed that an
additional 1%, or 65 QPAMs, annually,
at a cost of approximately $5,500, will
establish policies and procedures in
order to manage investments for their
own plans.
Finally, under the proposed
amendment, an independent auditor is
required to conduct an exemption audit,
on an annual basis, the results of which
are presented in a written report to the
plan. Because it is customary business
practice for an independent auditor
engaged by an entity such as a plan to
provide a written report, the Department
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has not estimated a cost burden for this
provision of the proposed amendment.
Type of Collection: New.
Agency: Department of Labor,
Employee Benefits Security
Administration.
Title: Proposed Amendment to PTE
84–14 for Plan Asset Transactions
Determined by Independent Qualified
Professional Asset Managers.
OMB Control Number: 1210-NEW.
Affected Public: Business or other for
profit; Not-for-profit institutions.
Respondents: 6,565.
Responses: 6,565.
Frequency of Response: One time.
Estimated Burden Hours: 0.
Estimated Capital/Startup Costs:
$546,000.
Estimated Annual Costs (Operating &
Maintenance): $5,500.
Estimated Total Annual Cost:
$551,500.
The public is not required to respond
to a collection of information that does
not display a currently valid OMB
control number.
Background
PTE 84–14, which was proposed on
the Department’s own motion on
December 21, 1982, was granted as part
of a continuing effort by the Department
to improve the administration of the
prohibited transaction rules of ERISA.
The rules set forth in section 406 of
ERISA prohibit various transactions
between a plan and a party in interest
(including a fiduciary) with respect to
such plan. Unless a statutory or
administrative exemption applies to the
transaction, section 406(a) of ERISA
prohibits, among other things: Sales,
leases, loans or the provision of services
between a party in interest and a plan,
as well as a use of plan assets by or for
the benefit of, or a transfer of plan assets
to, a party in interest. In addition,
unless exempted, a fiduciary of a plan
is not permitted to engage in any acts of
self-dealing or make decisions on behalf
of a plan if the fiduciary is in a conflict
of interest situation.
The Department has frequently
exercised its statutory authority under
section 408(a) of ERISA to grant both
individual and class exemptions from
the prohibited transaction provisions
where it has been able to find that the
criteria for granting such exemptions
have been satisfied. Based on its
experience considering requests for
individual and class exemptions, and in
dealing with instances of abusive
violations of the fiduciary responsibility
rules of ERISA, the Department
determined that as a general matter,
transactions entered into on behalf of
plans with parties in interest are most
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likely to conform to ERISA’s general
fiduciary standards where the decision
to enter into the transaction is made by
an independent fiduciary. As granted,
PTE 84–14 provides broad relief for
various party in interest transactions
that involve plan assets that are
transferred to a qualified professional
asset manager (QPAM) for discretionary
management.
Description of Existing Relief
The relief provided by PTE 84–14 is
described in four separate parts. The
General Exemption, set forth in Part I,
permits an investment fund managed by
a QPAM to engage in a wide variety of
transactions described in ERISA section
406(a)(1)(A) through (D) with virtually
all parties in interest except the QPAM
which manages the assets involved in
the transaction and those parties most
likely to have the power to influence the
QPAM.
Part II of the exemption provides
limited relief under both section 406(a)
and (b) of ERISA for certain transactions
involving those employers and certain
of their affiliates which could not
qualify for the General Exemption
provided by Part I.
Part III of the exemption provides
limited relief under section 406(a) and
(b) of ERISA for the leasing of office or
commercial space by an investment
fund to the QPAM, an affiliate of the
QPAM, or a person who could not
qualify for the General Exemption
provided by Part I because it held the
power of appointment described in Part
I(a).
Part IV of the exemption provides
limited relief under sections 406(a) and
406(b)(1) and (2) of ERISA for the
furnishing of services and facilities by a
place of public accommodation owned
by an investment fund managed by a
QPAM, to all parties in interest, if the
services and facilities are furnished on
a comparable basis to the general public.
Part V of the exemption contains
definitions for certain terms used in the
exemption. In this regard, section V(a)
defines the term ‘‘QPAM’’ as an
‘‘independent fiduciary which is a bank,
savings and loan association, insurance
company, or registered investment
adviser, that meets certain financial
conditions.’’ Section V(o) of PTE 84–14,
as adopted in the final amendment to
PTE 84–14 published in this issue of the
Federal Register, defines the term
‘‘independent fiduciary’’ to mean a
fiduciary managing the assets of a plan
in an investment fund that is
independent of and unrelated to the
employer sponsoring such plan. The
definition additionally provides that a
fiduciary will not be deemed to be
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independent of and unrelated to the
employer sponsoring the plan if such
fiduciary directly or indirectly controls,
is controlled by, or is under common
control with the employer sponsoring
the plan. Lastly, section V(o) provides
that, for the period from December 21,
1982, through the date on which the
Department grants a final amendment
which addresses relief for financial
institutions that serve as investment
managers for their own plans, a QPAM
managing the assets of a plan in an
investment fund will not fail to qualify
as a QPAM solely because such
fiduciary is the employer sponsoring the
plan or directly or indirectly controls, is
controlled by, or is under common
control with the employer sponsoring
the plan.
Description of the Proposed
Amendment
The Department is proposing this
amendment on its own motion in
connection with its determination that
the existing QPAM class exemption
does not permit financial services
entities to act as QPAMs for their own
plans.2 The proposed amendment, if
granted, would provide prospective
relief for a financial institution to act as
QPAM for its own plan. This relief is set
out in a newly designated Part V, which
specifically provides relief for
transactions described in Parts I, III and
IV of PTE 84–14 that involve a QPAMmanaged investment fund containing
the assets of a plan sponsored by such
QPAM. For purposes of this proposed
amendment, the exemption’s
‘‘Definitions’’ section has been redesignated as Part VI.
PTE 84–14 was developed and
granted based on the essential premise
that broad relief could be afforded for all
types of transactions in which a plan
engages only if the commitments and
the investments of plan assets and the
negotiations leading thereto are the sole
responsibility of an independent,
discretionary, manager. As noted above,
however, the proposed amendment
described herein involves the
investment of the assets of a QPAM’s
own plan in an investment fund
managed by such QPAM. In the
Department’s view, retention of
discretionary authority by the plan
sponsor/QPAM would be inconsistent
with the underlying concept of the
QPAM exemption as originally adopted.
In addition, there is no independent
fiduciary present in this situation that
would be responsible for monitoring the
2 As described in the notice of final amendment
to PTE 84–14 that appears elsewhere in this issue
of the Federal Register.
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49315
activities of the QPAM with respect to
its own in-house plan.
In order to address this lack of
independence, the proposed
amendment relies on an ‘‘exemption
audit,’’ in addition to the other
safeguards currently contained in the
exemption. This audit is substantially
similar to the audit required under PTE
96–23 (61 FR 15975 (Apr. 10, 1996)),
which provides relief for various party
in interest transactions that involve the
assets of a plan managed by an in-house
manager (INHAM). The proposed
amendment requires that an
independent auditor conduct an annual
exemption audit to determine whether
the written procedures adopted by the
QPAM are designed to assure
compliance with the conditions of the
exemption. The Department believes
that the involvement of an independent
party in overseeing compliance with the
exemption would serve as a meaningful
safeguard without interfering with the
QPAM’s investment decisions. The
audit is further intended to protect
plans by ensuring that an investment
manager, who may not otherwise have
experience managing ERISA plan assets,
complies with the provisions of ERISA
and the requirements of this exemption.
Accordingly, section V(c) of the
proposed amendment requires that the
independent auditor conduct an
exemption audit on an annual basis to
review the written policies and
procedures adopted by the QPAM. The
purpose of this review is to ensure that
such policies and procedures are
consistent with the exemption’s
objective requirements. The
independent auditor must also test a
representative sample of transactions
involving the QPAM’s plan in order to
make findings regarding whether the
QPAM’s is in operational compliance
with the written policies and
procedures adopted by the QPAM and
the objective requirements of the
exemption. The exemption further
requires that the independent auditor
make a determination as to whether the
QPAM has satisfied the definition of a
QPAM under the exemption, and issue
a written report describing the steps
performed by the auditor during the
course of its review and the auditor’s
findings.3 Although the proposed
amendment limits the auditor’s
3 The Department also notes that an adverse
finding in the auditor’s report would not, in itself,
render the exemption unavailable for any
transaction engaged in by the QPAM on behalf of
the plan. The Department cautions that the failure
of the QPAM to take appropriate steps to address
any adverse findings in an unsatisfactory audit
would raise issues under ERISA’s fiduciary
responsibility provisions.
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responsibilities to make findings on the
QPAM’s compliance with the objective
requirements of the proposal, the QPAM
remains responsible for assuring
compliance with all of the applicable
conditions of the exemption.
Accordingly, the failure of the QPAM to
comply with a condition of the
exemption not described in Section
VI(q) would, with respect to a specific
transaction, render the exemption
unavailable for that transaction.
As noted above, an independent
auditor must review the written policies
and procedures adopted by the QPAM
for consistency with the exemption’s
objective requirements that apply to
such transactions. These written
policies and procedures must describe,
for example, the requirements to qualify
as a QPAM and the requirement that,
with respect to transactions described in
Part V, the QPAM must have
discretionary authority or control over
the plan assets that are involved in the
transaction.
In addition, if a QPAM manages an
investment fund that contains the assets
of a plan sponsored by such QPAM, and
the QPAM seeks to engage in a
transaction described in Part I of the
exemption on behalf of the fund, the
QPAM’s written policies and
procedures must describe the objective
requirements contained in Part I of the
exemption. In this regard, the QPAM’s
written policies and procedures must
describe the exemption’s requirements
that: (1) The transaction may not be
entered into with any party in interest
that has the power to appoint or
terminate the QPAM as a manager of the
plan assets involved in the transaction
or negotiate the terms of the
management agreement with such
QPAM; (2) the transaction may not be
entered into with the QPAM or a person
related to the QPAM; and (3) the
transaction is not described in any of
the class exemptions listed in section
I(b). The written policies and
procedures must also describe the
exemption’s objective requirements
regarding the QPAM’s responsibility for:
(1) Negotiating the terms of the
transaction; and (2) deciding to enter
into the transaction on behalf of the
investment fund.
The class exemption contains certain
other objective requirements that are
applicable to transactions described in
Part III of PTE 84–14, relating to the
leasing of office or commercial space by
an investment fund managed by a
QPAM to the QPAM or other specified
persons. Accordingly, the objective
requirements applicable to Part III
transactions include: (1) that the amount
of space that may be covered by the
VerDate Aug<18>2005
15:03 Aug 22, 2005
Jkt 205001
lease does not exceed the limitation
described in section III(a); and (2) that
no commission or other fee may be paid
by the investment fund to the QPAM or
the persons specified in section III(d).
General Information
The attention of interested persons is
directed to the following:
(1) The fact that a transaction is the
subject of an exemption under section
408(a) of ERISA and section 4975(c)(2)
of the Code does not relieve a fiduciary
or other party in interest or disqualified
person with respect to a plan from
certain other provisions of ERISA and
the Code, including any prohibited
transaction provisions to which the
exemption does not apply and the
general fiduciary responsibility
provisions of section 404 of ERISA
which require, among other things, that
a fiduciary discharge his or her duties
respecting the plan solely in the
interests of the participants and
beneficiaries of the plan. Additionally,
the fact that a transaction is the subject
of an exemption does not affect the
requirement of section 401(a) of the
Code that the plan must operate for the
exclusive benefit of the employees of
the employer maintaining the plan and
their beneficiaries;
(2) Before an exemption may be
granted under section 408(a) of ERISA
and 4975(c)(2) of the Code, the
Department must find that the
exemption is administratively feasible,
in the interests of the plan and of its
participants and beneficiaries, and
protective of the rights of participants
and beneficiaries of the plan;
(3) If granted, the proposed
amendment is applicable to a particular
transaction only if the transaction
satisfies the conditions specified in the
amendment; and
(4) The proposed amendment, if
granted, will be supplemental to, and
not in derogation of, any other
provisions of ERISA and the Code,
including statutory or administrative
exemptions and transitional rules.
Furthermore, the fact that a transaction
is subject to an administrative or
statutory exemption is not dispositive of
whether the transaction is in fact a
prohibited transaction.
Written Comments
The Department invites all interested
persons to submit written comments on
the proposed amendment to the address
and within the time period set forth
above. All comments received will be
made a part of the record. Comments
should state the reasons for the writer’s
interest in the proposed exemption.
PO 00000
Frm 00062
Fmt 4703
Sfmt 4703
Comments received will be available for
public inspection at the above address.
Proposed Amendment
Under section 408(a) of the Act and
section 4975(c)(2) of the Code and in
accordance with the procedures set
forth in 29 CFR part 2570, subpart B (55
FR 32836, 32847, August 10, 1990), the
Department proposes to amend PTE 84–
14 as set forth below:
Part V—Specific Exemption Involving
QPAM-Sponsored Plan
Effective as of the date of publication
of the final amendment to PTE 84–14 in
the Federal Register, the relief provided
by Parts I, III or IV of PTE 84–14 from
the applicable restrictions of section
406(a), section 406(b)(1) and (2), and
section 407(a) of ERISA and the taxes
imposed by Code section 4975(a) and
(b), by reason of Code section
4975(c)(1)(A) through (E), shall apply to
a transaction involving the assets of a
plan sponsored by the QPAM if:
(a) The QPAM has discretionary
authority or control with respect to the
plan assets involved in the transaction;
(b) The QPAM adopts written policies
and procedures that are designed to
assure compliance with the conditions
of the exemption;
(c) An independent auditor, who has
appropriate technical training or
experience and proficiency with
ERISA’s fiduciary responsibility
provisions and so represents in writing,
conducts an exemption audit (as
defined in section VI(p)) on an annual
basis. Following completion of the
exemption audit, the auditor shall issue
a written report to the plan presenting
its specific findings regarding the level
of compliance with the policies and
procedures adopted by QPAM in
accordance with section V(b);
(d) The transaction meets the
applicable requirements set forth in
Parts I, III, or IV of the exemption.
Section VI. Definitions
(o) For purposes of section V(a), the
term ‘‘independent fiduciary’’ means a
fiduciary managing the assets of a plan
in an investment fund that is
independent of and unrelated to the
employer sponsoring such plan. For
purposes of this exemption, the
independent fiduciary will not be
deemed to be independent of and
unrelated to the employer sponsoring
the plan if such fiduciary directly or
indirectly controls, is controlled by, or
is under common control with the
employer sponsoring the plan.
Notwithstanding the foregoing, a QPAM
acting as a manager for its own plan or
the plan of an affiliate (as defined in
E:\FR\FM\23AUN1.SGM
23AUN1
Federal Register / Vol. 70, No. 162 / Tuesday, August 23, 2005 / Notices
section VI(c)(1)) will be deemed to
satisfy the requirements of this section
VI(o) if the requirements of Part V are
met.
(p) Exemption Audit. An ‘‘exemption
audit’’ of a plan must consist of the
following:
(1) A review of the written policies
and procedures adopted by the QPAM
pursuant to section V(b) for consistency
with each of the objective requirements
of this proposed exemption (as
described in section VI(q)).
(2) A test of a representative sample
of the plan’s transactions in order to
make findings regarding whether the
QPAM is in compliance with (i) the
written policies and procedures adopted
by the QPAM pursuant to section VI(q)
of the exemption and (ii) the objective
requirements of the exemption.
(3) A determination as to whether the
QPAM has satisfied the definition of an
QPAM under the exemption; and
(4) Issuance of a written report
describing the steps performed by the
auditor during the course of its review
and the auditor’s findings.
(q) For purposes of section VI(p), the
written policies and procedures must
describe the following objective
requirements of the exemption and the
steps adopted by the QPAM to assure
compliance with each of these
requirements:
(1) The definition of a QPAM in
section V(a).
(2) The requirement of sections V(a)
and I(c) regarding the discretionary
authority or control of the QPAM with
respect to the plan assets involved in
the transaction, in negotiating the terms
of the transaction and with respect to
the decision on behalf of the investment
fund to enter into the transaction.
(3) For a transaction described in Part
I:
(A) That the transaction is not entered
into with any person who is excluded
from relief under section I(a), section
I(d), or section I(e),
(B) That the transaction is not
described in any of the class exemptions
listed in section I(b),
(4) If the transaction is described in
section III,
(i) That the amount of space covered
by the lease does not exceed the
limitations described in section III(a);
and
(ii) That no commission or other fee
is paid by the investment fund as
described in section III(d).
VerDate Aug<18>2005
15:03 Aug 22, 2005
Jkt 205001
Signed at Washington, DC, this 11th day of
August, 2005.
Ivan L. Strasfeld,
Director, Office of Exemption Determinations,
Employee Benefits Security Administration,
Department of Labor.
[FR Doc. 05–16681 Filed 8–22–05; 8:45 am]
BILLING CODE 4510–29–P
DEPARTMENT OF LABOR
Employment and Training
Administration
Proposed Information Collection
Request Submitted for Public
Comment and Recommendations;
Labor Condition Application for
Nonimmigrant Workers
ACTION:
Notice.
SUMMARY: The Department of Labor, as
part of its continuing effort to reduce
paperwork and respondent burden,
conducts a preclearance consultation
program to provide the general public
and Federal agencies with an
opportunity to comment on proposed
and/or continuing collections of
information in accordance with the
Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995
(PRA95) (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(A)). This
program helps to ensure that requested
data can be provided in the desired
format, reporting burden (time and
financial resources) is minimized,
collection instruments are clearly
understood, and the impact of collection
requirements on respondents can be
properly assessed. Currently, the
Employment and Training
Administration (ETA), Office of
National Programs is soliciting
comments concerning the proposed
extension of the collection for ETA form
9035—Labor Condition Application for
Nonimmigrant Workers. A copy of the
proposed Information Collection
Request (ICR) can be obtained by
contacting the office listed below in the
addressee section of this notice.
DATES: Written comments must be
submitted to the office listed in the
addressee’s section below on or before
October 24, 2005.
ADDRESSES: William L. Carlson, Chief,
Division of Foreign Labor Certification,
U.S. Department of Labor, 200
Constitution Avenue, NW., Room C–
4312, Washington, DC 20210. Mr.
Carlson may be reached at (202) 693–
3010; this is not a toll-free number.
FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:
Gregory Wilson, Program Analyst,
Division of Foreign Labor Certification,
U.S. Department of Labor, 200
Constitution Avenue, NW., Room C–
PO 00000
Frm 00063
Fmt 4703
Sfmt 4703
49317
4312, Washington, DC 20210. Mr.
Wilson may also be reached at (202)
693–3010; this is not a toll-free number.
SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:
I. Background
The Immigration and Naturalization
Act (INA) requires that before any
foreign worker may be admitted or
otherwise provided status as an H–1B,
H–1B1, or E–3 nonimmigrant the
prospective employer must have filed
with the Department of Labor
(Department) a Labor Condition
Application (LCA). Employers must
state on the LCA that they will offer
prevailing wages and working
conditions, that there is not a strike or
lockout in the course of a labor dispute
in the occupational classification at the
place of employment, and that they
have provided notice of filing in
conspicuous locations at the place of
employment. Further, the employer
must make certain documentation
available for public examination. The
Department’s review of each LCA filed
is limited by law solely to a review for
completeness or ‘‘obvious
inaccuracies.’’ Complaints may be filed
with the Department alleging a violation
of the LCA process. If reasonable cause
is found to believe a violation has been
committed, the Department will
conduct an investigation and, if
appropriate, assess penalties. The INA
places a limit on the number of foreign
workers who can be admitted to the
United States on H–1B, H–1B1, or E–3
visas. The INA generally limits H–1B
workers to a maximum of a six-year
duration of stay under H–1B status,
although extensions are permitted for
certain foreign workers on whose behalf
a labor certification or employmentbased immigrant petition has been
pending for 365 days or more. The INA
requires that the Department make
available for public examination in
Washington, DC, a list of employers
which have filed LCAs.
II. Review Focus
Currently, the Department is soliciting
comments concerning the proposed
extension of the collection for ETA form
9035—Labor Condition Application for
Nonimmigrant Workers. The
Department is particularly interested in
comments which:
• Evaluate whether the proposed
information collection is necessary for
the proper performance of the functions
of the agency, including whether the
information will have practical utility;
• Evaluate the accuracy of the
agency’s estimate of the burden of the
proposed collection of information
E:\FR\FM\23AUN1.SGM
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Agencies
[Federal Register Volume 70, Number 162 (Tuesday, August 23, 2005)]
[Notices]
[Pages 49312-49317]
From the Federal Register Online via the Government Printing Office [www.gpo.gov]
[FR Doc No: 05-16681]
-----------------------------------------------------------------------
DEPARTMENT OF LABOR
Employee Benefits Security Administration
[Application Number D-11270]
Proposed Amendment to Prohibited Transaction Exemption (PTE) 84-
14 for Plan Asset Transactions Determined by Independent Qualified
Professional Asset Managers
AGENCY: Employee Benefits Security Administration, DOL.
ACTION: Notice of proposed amendment to PTE 84-14.
-----------------------------------------------------------------------
SUMMARY: This document contains a notice of pendency before the
Department of Labor (the Department) of a proposed amendment to PTE 84-
14. The exemption permits various parties that are related to employee
benefit plans to engage in transactions involving plan assets if, among
other
[[Page 49313]]
conditions, the assets are managed by ``qualified professional asset
managers'' (QPAMs), which are independent of the parties in interest
and which meet specified financial standards. Additional exemptive
relief is provided for employers to furnish limited amounts of goods
and services to a managed fund in the ordinary course of business.
Limited relief is also provided for leases of office or commercial
space between managed funds and QPAMs or contributing employers.
Finally, relief is provided for transactions involving places of public
accommodation owned by a managed fund.
Currently, PTE 84-14 requires the QPAM managing the assets of a
plan in an investment fund to be independent of, and unrelated to, the
employer sponsoring such plan. However, as described in the notice of
final amendment to PTE 84-14 contained in this issue of the Federal
Register, limited retroactive and transitional relief is provided for
financial service entities to act as QPAMS for their own plans. If this
proposed amendment is granted, a QPAM may prospectively manage an
investment fund containing the assets of its own plan or the plan of an
affiliate, to the extent the conditions of the proposal are met.
The proposed amendment would affect participants and beneficiaries
of employee benefit plans, the sponsoring employers of such plans, and
other persons engaging in the described transactions.
DATES: Written comments must be received by the Department on or before
October 7, 2005.
ADDRESSES: All written comments (preferably three copies) should be
addressed to the U.S. Department of Labor, Office of Exemption
Determinations, Employee Benefits Security Administration, Room N-5649,
200 Constitution Avenue, NW., Washington, DC 20210 (attention: PTE 84-
14 Amendment). Interested persons are also invited to submit comments
to EBSA via e-mail or fax. Any such comments should be sent either by
e-mail to motta.christopher@dol.gov or by fax to (202) 219-0204 by the
end of the scheduled comment period. All comments received will be
available for public inspection at the Public Documents Room, Employee
Benefits Security Administration, Room N-1513, 200 Constitution Avenue,
NW., Washington, DC 20210.
FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT: Christopher Motta, Office of Exemption
Determinations, Employee Benefits Security Administration, U.S.
Department of Labor, Room N-5649, 200 Constitution Avenue, NW.,
Washington DC 20210, (202) 693-8540 (not a toll-free number).
SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION: Notice is hereby given of the pendency
before the Department of a proposed amendment to PTE 84-14 (49 FR 9494,
March 13, 1984, as corrected at 50 FR 41430, October 10, 1985, and
amended elsewhere in this issue of the Federal Register). PTE 84-14
provides an exemption from certain of the restrictions of section 406
of ERISA, and from certain taxes imposed by section 4975(a) and (b) of
the Code, by reason of section 4975(c)(1) of the Code. The Department
is proposing this amendment to PTE 84-14 on its own motion, pursuant to
section 408(a) of ERISA and section 4975(c)(2) of the Code, and in
accordance with the procedures set forth in 29 CFR part 2570, subpart B
(55 FR 32836, 32847, August 10, 1990).\1\
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
\1\ Section 102 of the Reorganization Plan No. 4 of 1978, 5
U.S.C. App. 1 (1996), generally transferred the authority of the
Secretary of Treasury to issue administrative exemptions under
section 4975(c)(2) of the Code to the Secretary of Labor.
For purposes of this exemption, references to specific
provisions of Title I of the Act, unless otherwise specified, refer
also to the corresponding provisions of the Code.
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
Economic Analysis
Executive Order 12866 Statement
Under Executive Order 12866, the Department must determine whether
the regulatory action is ``significant'' and therefore subject to the
requirements of the Executive Order and subject to review by the Office
of Management and Budget (OMB). Under section 3(f), the order defines a
``significant regulatory action'' as an action that is likely to result
in a rule: (1) Having an annual effect on the economy of $100 million
or more, or adversely and materially affecting a sector of the economy,
productivity, competition, jobs, the environment, public health or
safety, or State, local or tribal governments or communities (also
referred to as ``economically significant''); (2) creating serious
inconsistency or otherwise interfering with an action taken or planned
by another agency; (3) materially altering the budgetary impacts of
entitlement grants, user fees, or loan programs or the rights and
obligations of recipients thereof; or (4) raising novel legal or policy
issues arising out of legal mandates, the President's priorities, or
the principles set forth in the Executive Order.
Pursuant to the terms of the Executive Order, it has been
determined that this action is a ``significant regulatory action.''
Accordingly, this action has been reviewed by OMB.
Paperwork Reduction Act
As part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent
burden, the Department of Labor conducts a preclearance consultation
program to provide the general public and Federal agencies with an
opportunity to comment on proposed and continuing collections of
information in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA
95) (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)). This helps to ensure that requested data
can be provided in the desired format, reporting burden (time and
financial resources) is minimized, collection instruments are clearly
understood, and the impact of collection requirements on respondents
can be properly assessed.
Currently, the Department is soliciting comments concerning the
information collection request (ICR) included in PTE 84-14 and this
Notice of Proposed Amendment to Prohibited Transaction Exemption (PTE)
84-14 for Plan Asset Transactions Determined by Independent Qualified
Professional Asset Managers. A copy of the ICR may be obtained by
contacting Gerald B. Lindrew, Office of Policy and Research, U.S.
Department of Labor, Employee Benefits Security Administration, 200
Constitution Avenue, NW., Room N-5647, Washington, DC 20210. Telephone
(202) 693-8410; Fax: (202) 219-4745. These are not toll-free numbers.
The Department has submitted a copy of the proposed information
collection to OMB in accordance with 44 U.S.C. 3507(d) for review of
its information collections. The Department and OMB are particularly
interested in comments that:
Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is
necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency,
including whether the information will have practical utility;
Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the
burden of the collection of information, including the validity of the
methodology and assumptions used;
Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the
information to be collected; and
Minimize the burden of the collection of information on
those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriated
automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection
techniques or other forms of information technology,
[[Page 49314]]
e.g., permitting electronic submission of responses.
Comments should be sent to the Office of Information and Regulatory
Affairs, Office of Management and Budget, Room 10235, New Executive
Office Building, Washington, DC 20503; Attention: Desk Officer for the
Employee Benefits Security Administration. Although comments may be
submitted through October 24, 2005. OMB requests that comments be
received within 30 days of publication of the Notice of Proposed
Amendment to ensure their consideration.
The provisions for compliance with PTE 84-14 (49 FR 9494, March 13,
1984, as corrected at 50 FR 41430, October 10, 1985), a final amendment
to PTE 84-14 published in this issue of the Federal Register, and this
proposed amendment have been discussed in greater detail earlier in the
preamble. Briefly, PTE 84-14 permits various parties in interest to
employee benefit plans to engage in transactions involving plan assets
if, among other requirements, the assets are managed by a QPAM. Such
transactions include, for example, the leasing of office space by an
investment fund to a QPAM or the furnishing of services and facilities
by a place of public accommodation owned by an investment fund managed
by a QPAM. The final amendment, among other things, provides limited
retroactive and transitional relief from the sanctions of certain
sections of ERISA and the Code for financial institutions such as
banks, insurance companies, or registered investment advisers, that act
as QPAMs for their own plans. The proposed amendment, if granted, would
provide prospective relief for financial institutions to act as QPAMS
for their own plans.
The Department included in the final amendment published in this
issue of the Federal Register and this proposed amendment certain
requirements intended to preserve plan assets and protect plan
participant benefits with respect to transactions between a party in
interest to a plan and an investment fund containing plan assets
managed by a QPAM. PTE 84-14, as restated and amended in the final
amendment, includes a requirement for a written agreement between a
plan and the QPAM it has retained, and written guidelines between a
QPAM and a property manager that a QPAM has retained. Because it is
customary business practice for agreements related to the investment of
plan assets or transactions relating to the leasing of space to be
described in writing, no burden was estimated for these provisions of
the final amendment. Accordingly, this ICR includes only the burden for
provisions in the proposed amendment.
In order for a transaction to qualify for an exemption under the
proposed amendment, a QPAM must, among other requirements, establish
written policies and procedures that are designed to assure compliance
with the conditions of the proposed amendment, including the steps
adopted by the QPAM to measure compliance. Based on information in the
1999 Form 5500 Annual Report, the Department estimates that
approximately 6,500 banks, savings institutions, insurance companies,
and investment advisers currently acting as QPAMs for employee benefit
plans might choose to act as QPAMs for their own plans. QPAMs are
assumed to use a service provider, such as an attorney, to develop the
written policies and procedures required under the proposed amendment.
To meet the Department's requirements regarding written policies and
procedures, service providers will most likely develop standardized
language that can then be modified to include the specific steps
adopted by a particular QPAM to assure compliance. If all 6,500
financial institutions choose to act as QPAMs for their own plans, the
start-up cost, assuming one hour of a service provider's time, at $84
per hour, would be $546,000. The actual amount of time required, and
the resulting cost burden, may be even lower because the Department has
described the objective requirements of the exemption that are to be
included in the policies and procedures, and because most service
providers will handle multiple QPAMs, thereby reducing per-plan costs.
Going forward, the Department is not aware of a basis for
estimating how many additional QPAMs will choose to handle investments
for their own plans, but assumes the number to be small. Most QPAMs are
believed to be large institutions that will take advantage of the
proposed amendment soon after it is granted. For purposes of this ICR,
the Department has assumed that an additional 1%, or 65 QPAMs,
annually, at a cost of approximately $5,500, will establish policies
and procedures in order to manage investments for their own plans.
Finally, under the proposed amendment, an independent auditor is
required to conduct an exemption audit, on an annual basis, the results
of which are presented in a written report to the plan. Because it is
customary business practice for an independent auditor engaged by an
entity such as a plan to provide a written report, the Department has
not estimated a cost burden for this provision of the proposed
amendment.
Type of Collection: New.
Agency: Department of Labor, Employee Benefits Security
Administration.
Title: Proposed Amendment to PTE 84-14 for Plan Asset Transactions
Determined by Independent Qualified Professional Asset Managers.
OMB Control Number: 1210-NEW.
Affected Public: Business or other for profit; Not-for-profit
institutions.
Respondents: 6,565.
Responses: 6,565.
Frequency of Response: One time.
Estimated Burden Hours: 0.
Estimated Capital/Startup Costs: $546,000.
Estimated Annual Costs (Operating & Maintenance): $5,500.
Estimated Total Annual Cost: $551,500.
The public is not required to respond to a collection of
information that does not display a currently valid OMB control number.
Background
PTE 84-14, which was proposed on the Department's own motion on
December 21, 1982, was granted as part of a continuing effort by the
Department to improve the administration of the prohibited transaction
rules of ERISA. The rules set forth in section 406 of ERISA prohibit
various transactions between a plan and a party in interest (including
a fiduciary) with respect to such plan. Unless a statutory or
administrative exemption applies to the transaction, section 406(a) of
ERISA prohibits, among other things: Sales, leases, loans or the
provision of services between a party in interest and a plan, as well
as a use of plan assets by or for the benefit of, or a transfer of plan
assets to, a party in interest. In addition, unless exempted, a
fiduciary of a plan is not permitted to engage in any acts of self-
dealing or make decisions on behalf of a plan if the fiduciary is in a
conflict of interest situation.
The Department has frequently exercised its statutory authority
under section 408(a) of ERISA to grant both individual and class
exemptions from the prohibited transaction provisions where it has been
able to find that the criteria for granting such exemptions have been
satisfied. Based on its experience considering requests for individual
and class exemptions, and in dealing with instances of abusive
violations of the fiduciary responsibility rules of ERISA, the
Department determined that as a general matter, transactions entered
into on behalf of plans with parties in interest are most
[[Page 49315]]
likely to conform to ERISA's general fiduciary standards where the
decision to enter into the transaction is made by an independent
fiduciary. As granted, PTE 84-14 provides broad relief for various
party in interest transactions that involve plan assets that are
transferred to a qualified professional asset manager (QPAM) for
discretionary management.
Description of Existing Relief
The relief provided by PTE 84-14 is described in four separate
parts. The General Exemption, set forth in Part I, permits an
investment fund managed by a QPAM to engage in a wide variety of
transactions described in ERISA section 406(a)(1)(A) through (D) with
virtually all parties in interest except the QPAM which manages the
assets involved in the transaction and those parties most likely to
have the power to influence the QPAM.
Part II of the exemption provides limited relief under both section
406(a) and (b) of ERISA for certain transactions involving those
employers and certain of their affiliates which could not qualify for
the General Exemption provided by Part I.
Part III of the exemption provides limited relief under section
406(a) and (b) of ERISA for the leasing of office or commercial space
by an investment fund to the QPAM, an affiliate of the QPAM, or a
person who could not qualify for the General Exemption provided by Part
I because it held the power of appointment described in Part I(a).
Part IV of the exemption provides limited relief under sections
406(a) and 406(b)(1) and (2) of ERISA for the furnishing of services
and facilities by a place of public accommodation owned by an
investment fund managed by a QPAM, to all parties in interest, if the
services and facilities are furnished on a comparable basis to the
general public.
Part V of the exemption contains definitions for certain terms used
in the exemption. In this regard, section V(a) defines the term
``QPAM'' as an ``independent fiduciary which is a bank, savings and
loan association, insurance company, or registered investment adviser,
that meets certain financial conditions.'' Section V(o) of PTE 84-14,
as adopted in the final amendment to PTE 84-14 published in this issue
of the Federal Register, defines the term ``independent fiduciary'' to
mean a fiduciary managing the assets of a plan in an investment fund
that is independent of and unrelated to the employer sponsoring such
plan. The definition additionally provides that a fiduciary will not be
deemed to be independent of and unrelated to the employer sponsoring
the plan if such fiduciary directly or indirectly controls, is
controlled by, or is under common control with the employer sponsoring
the plan. Lastly, section V(o) provides that, for the period from
December 21, 1982, through the date on which the Department grants a
final amendment which addresses relief for financial institutions that
serve as investment managers for their own plans, a QPAM managing the
assets of a plan in an investment fund will not fail to qualify as a
QPAM solely because such fiduciary is the employer sponsoring the plan
or directly or indirectly controls, is controlled by, or is under
common control with the employer sponsoring the plan.
Description of the Proposed Amendment
The Department is proposing this amendment on its own motion in
connection with its determination that the existing QPAM class
exemption does not permit financial services entities to act as QPAMs
for their own plans.\2\ The proposed amendment, if granted, would
provide prospective relief for a financial institution to act as QPAM
for its own plan. This relief is set out in a newly designated Part V,
which specifically provides relief for transactions described in Parts
I, III and IV of PTE 84-14 that involve a QPAM-managed investment fund
containing the assets of a plan sponsored by such QPAM. For purposes of
this proposed amendment, the exemption's ``Definitions'' section has
been re-designated as Part VI.
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\2\ As described in the notice of final amendment to PTE 84-14
that appears elsewhere in this issue of the Federal Register.
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PTE 84-14 was developed and granted based on the essential premise
that broad relief could be afforded for all types of transactions in
which a plan engages only if the commitments and the investments of
plan assets and the negotiations leading thereto are the sole
responsibility of an independent, discretionary, manager. As noted
above, however, the proposed amendment described herein involves the
investment of the assets of a QPAM's own plan in an investment fund
managed by such QPAM. In the Department's view, retention of
discretionary authority by the plan sponsor/QPAM would be inconsistent
with the underlying concept of the QPAM exemption as originally
adopted. In addition, there is no independent fiduciary present in this
situation that would be responsible for monitoring the activities of
the QPAM with respect to its own in-house plan.
In order to address this lack of independence, the proposed
amendment relies on an ``exemption audit,'' in addition to the other
safeguards currently contained in the exemption. This audit is
substantially similar to the audit required under PTE 96-23 (61 FR
15975 (Apr. 10, 1996)), which provides relief for various party in
interest transactions that involve the assets of a plan managed by an
in-house manager (INHAM). The proposed amendment requires that an
independent auditor conduct an annual exemption audit to determine
whether the written procedures adopted by the QPAM are designed to
assure compliance with the conditions of the exemption. The Department
believes that the involvement of an independent party in overseeing
compliance with the exemption would serve as a meaningful safeguard
without interfering with the QPAM's investment decisions. The audit is
further intended to protect plans by ensuring that an investment
manager, who may not otherwise have experience managing ERISA plan
assets, complies with the provisions of ERISA and the requirements of
this exemption.
Accordingly, section V(c) of the proposed amendment requires that
the independent auditor conduct an exemption audit on an annual basis
to review the written policies and procedures adopted by the QPAM. The
purpose of this review is to ensure that such policies and procedures
are consistent with the exemption's objective requirements. The
independent auditor must also test a representative sample of
transactions involving the QPAM's plan in order to make findings
regarding whether the QPAM's is in operational compliance with the
written policies and procedures adopted by the QPAM and the objective
requirements of the exemption. The exemption further requires that the
independent auditor make a determination as to whether the QPAM has
satisfied the definition of a QPAM under the exemption, and issue a
written report describing the steps performed by the auditor during the
course of its review and the auditor's findings.\3\ Although the
proposed amendment limits the auditor's
[[Page 49316]]
responsibilities to make findings on the QPAM's compliance with the
objective requirements of the proposal, the QPAM remains responsible
for assuring compliance with all of the applicable conditions of the
exemption. Accordingly, the failure of the QPAM to comply with a
condition of the exemption not described in Section VI(q) would, with
respect to a specific transaction, render the exemption unavailable for
that transaction.
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\3\ The Department also notes that an adverse finding in the
auditor's report would not, in itself, render the exemption
unavailable for any transaction engaged in by the QPAM on behalf of
the plan. The Department cautions that the failure of the QPAM to
take appropriate steps to address any adverse findings in an
unsatisfactory audit would raise issues under ERISA's fiduciary
responsibility provisions.
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As noted above, an independent auditor must review the written
policies and procedures adopted by the QPAM for consistency with the
exemption's objective requirements that apply to such transactions.
These written policies and procedures must describe, for example, the
requirements to qualify as a QPAM and the requirement that, with
respect to transactions described in Part V, the QPAM must have
discretionary authority or control over the plan assets that are
involved in the transaction.
In addition, if a QPAM manages an investment fund that contains the
assets of a plan sponsored by such QPAM, and the QPAM seeks to engage
in a transaction described in Part I of the exemption on behalf of the
fund, the QPAM's written policies and procedures must describe the
objective requirements contained in Part I of the exemption. In this
regard, the QPAM's written policies and procedures must describe the
exemption's requirements that: (1) The transaction may not be entered
into with any party in interest that has the power to appoint or
terminate the QPAM as a manager of the plan assets involved in the
transaction or negotiate the terms of the management agreement with
such QPAM; (2) the transaction may not be entered into with the QPAM or
a person related to the QPAM; and (3) the transaction is not described
in any of the class exemptions listed in section I(b). The written
policies and procedures must also describe the exemption's objective
requirements regarding the QPAM's responsibility for: (1) Negotiating
the terms of the transaction; and (2) deciding to enter into the
transaction on behalf of the investment fund.
The class exemption contains certain other objective requirements
that are applicable to transactions described in Part III of PTE 84-14,
relating to the leasing of office or commercial space by an investment
fund managed by a QPAM to the QPAM or other specified persons.
Accordingly, the objective requirements applicable to Part III
transactions include: (1) that the amount of space that may be covered
by the lease does not exceed the limitation described in section
III(a); and (2) that no commission or other fee may be paid by the
investment fund to the QPAM or the persons specified in section III(d).
General Information
The attention of interested persons is directed to the following:
(1) The fact that a transaction is the subject of an exemption
under section 408(a) of ERISA and section 4975(c)(2) of the Code does
not relieve a fiduciary or other party in interest or disqualified
person with respect to a plan from certain other provisions of ERISA
and the Code, including any prohibited transaction provisions to which
the exemption does not apply and the general fiduciary responsibility
provisions of section 404 of ERISA which require, among other things,
that a fiduciary discharge his or her duties respecting the plan solely
in the interests of the participants and beneficiaries of the plan.
Additionally, the fact that a transaction is the subject of an
exemption does not affect the requirement of section 401(a) of the Code
that the plan must operate for the exclusive benefit of the employees
of the employer maintaining the plan and their beneficiaries;
(2) Before an exemption may be granted under section 408(a) of
ERISA and 4975(c)(2) of the Code, the Department must find that the
exemption is administratively feasible, in the interests of the plan
and of its participants and beneficiaries, and protective of the rights
of participants and beneficiaries of the plan;
(3) If granted, the proposed amendment is applicable to a
particular transaction only if the transaction satisfies the conditions
specified in the amendment; and
(4) The proposed amendment, if granted, will be supplemental to,
and not in derogation of, any other provisions of ERISA and the Code,
including statutory or administrative exemptions and transitional
rules. Furthermore, the fact that a transaction is subject to an
administrative or statutory exemption is not dispositive of whether the
transaction is in fact a prohibited transaction.
Written Comments
The Department invites all interested persons to submit written
comments on the proposed amendment to the address and within the time
period set forth above. All comments received will be made a part of
the record. Comments should state the reasons for the writer's interest
in the proposed exemption. Comments received will be available for
public inspection at the above address.
Proposed Amendment
Under section 408(a) of the Act and section 4975(c)(2) of the Code
and in accordance with the procedures set forth in 29 CFR part 2570,
subpart B (55 FR 32836, 32847, August 10, 1990), the Department
proposes to amend PTE 84-14 as set forth below:
Part V--Specific Exemption Involving QPAM-Sponsored Plan
Effective as of the date of publication of the final amendment to
PTE 84-14 in the Federal Register, the relief provided by Parts I, III
or IV of PTE 84-14 from the applicable restrictions of section 406(a),
section 406(b)(1) and (2), and section 407(a) of ERISA and the taxes
imposed by Code section 4975(a) and (b), by reason of Code section
4975(c)(1)(A) through (E), shall apply to a transaction involving the
assets of a plan sponsored by the QPAM if:
(a) The QPAM has discretionary authority or control with respect to
the plan assets involved in the transaction;
(b) The QPAM adopts written policies and procedures that are
designed to assure compliance with the conditions of the exemption;
(c) An independent auditor, who has appropriate technical training
or experience and proficiency with ERISA's fiduciary responsibility
provisions and so represents in writing, conducts an exemption audit
(as defined in section VI(p)) on an annual basis. Following completion
of the exemption audit, the auditor shall issue a written report to the
plan presenting its specific findings regarding the level of compliance
with the policies and procedures adopted by QPAM in accordance with
section V(b);
(d) The transaction meets the applicable requirements set forth in
Parts I, III, or IV of the exemption.
Section VI. Definitions
(o) For purposes of section V(a), the term ``independent
fiduciary'' means a fiduciary managing the assets of a plan in an
investment fund that is independent of and unrelated to the employer
sponsoring such plan. For purposes of this exemption, the independent
fiduciary will not be deemed to be independent of and unrelated to the
employer sponsoring the plan if such fiduciary directly or indirectly
controls, is controlled by, or is under common control with the
employer sponsoring the plan. Notwithstanding the foregoing, a QPAM
acting as a manager for its own plan or the plan of an affiliate (as
defined in
[[Page 49317]]
section VI(c)(1)) will be deemed to satisfy the requirements of this
section VI(o) if the requirements of Part V are met.
(p) Exemption Audit. An ``exemption audit'' of a plan must consist
of the following:
(1) A review of the written policies and procedures adopted by the
QPAM pursuant to section V(b) for consistency with each of the
objective requirements of this proposed exemption (as described in
section VI(q)).
(2) A test of a representative sample of the plan's transactions in
order to make findings regarding whether the QPAM is in compliance with
(i) the written policies and procedures adopted by the QPAM pursuant to
section VI(q) of the exemption and (ii) the objective requirements of
the exemption.
(3) A determination as to whether the QPAM has satisfied the
definition of an QPAM under the exemption; and
(4) Issuance of a written report describing the steps performed by
the auditor during the course of its review and the auditor's findings.
(q) For purposes of section VI(p), the written policies and
procedures must describe the following objective requirements of the
exemption and the steps adopted by the QPAM to assure compliance with
each of these requirements:
(1) The definition of a QPAM in section V(a).
(2) The requirement of sections V(a) and I(c) regarding the
discretionary authority or control of the QPAM with respect to the plan
assets involved in the transaction, in negotiating the terms of the
transaction and with respect to the decision on behalf of the
investment fund to enter into the transaction.
(3) For a transaction described in Part I:
(A) That the transaction is not entered into with any person who is
excluded from relief under section I(a), section I(d), or section I(e),
(B) That the transaction is not described in any of the class
exemptions listed in section I(b),
(4) If the transaction is described in section III,
(i) That the amount of space covered by the lease does not exceed
the limitations described in section III(a); and
(ii) That no commission or other fee is paid by the investment fund
as described in section III(d).
Signed at Washington, DC, this 11th day of August, 2005.
Ivan L. Strasfeld,
Director, Office of Exemption Determinations, Employee Benefits
Security Administration, Department of Labor.
[FR Doc. 05-16681 Filed 8-22-05; 8:45 am]
BILLING CODE 4510-29-P