Regulatory Updates to BasicMed, 90572-90578 [2024-26935]
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Federal Register / Vol. 89, No. 222 / Monday, November 18, 2024 / Rules and Regulations
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telephone: (202) 267–1100; email:
Bradley.C.Zeigler@faa.gov.
SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:
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Melissa Bailey,
Associate Administrator, Agricultural
Marketing Service.
[FR Doc. 2024–26787 Filed 11–15–24; 8:45 am]
BILLING CODE P
DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION
Federal Aviation Administration
14 CFR Parts 11, 61, 68, and 91
[Docket No. FAA–2024–2580; Amdt. Nos.
11–70, 61–158, 68–3, and 91–380]
RIN 2120–AM06
Regulatory Updates to BasicMed
Federal Aviation
Administration (FAA), Department of
Transportation (DOT).
ACTION: Final rule.
AGENCY:
This final rule implements,
without interpretation, the provisions of
sections 815 and 828 of the FAA
Reauthorization Act of 2024 (‘‘the Act’’).
To conform the FAA’s regulations to the
self-enacting provisions in the Act, this
final rule amends certain regulations to:
align aircraft conditions and limitations
with the term ‘‘covered aircraft’’ as
defined in section 2307(j) of the FAA
Extension, Safety, and Security Act of
2016 to increase the number of
allowable passengers from 5 to 6,
increase the number of occupants from
6 to 7, and increase the maximum
takeoff weight from 6,000 pounds to
12,500 pounds, while excluding certain
transport category rotorcraft. This final
rule facilitates updates to current
standards the medical form a Statelicensed physician uses in completing a
comprehensive medical examination.
Further, this final rule amends
regulations to incorporate the statutory
expansion of BasicMed medical
eligibility to examiners conducting
practical tests or proficiency checks if
they meet the requirements for
operating covered aircraft under
BasicMed, as provided in the Act.
DATES: This rule is effective on
November 18, 2024.
ADDRESSES: For information on where to
obtain copies of rulemaking documents
and other information related to this
final rule, see ‘‘How to Obtain
Additional Information’’ in the
SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION section of
this document.
FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:
Bradley C. Zeigler, Federal Aviation
Administration, 800 Independence
Avenue SW, Washington, DC 20591;
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SUMMARY:
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I. Executive Summary
On May 16, 2024, the President
signed into law the FAA
Reauthorization Act of 2024 (Pub. L.
118–63) (‘‘the Act’’), impacting certain
requirements for BasicMed in section
815, BasicMed for Examiners
Administering Tests or Proficiency
Checks, and section 828, Expansion of
BasicMed. Specifically, section 815
expanded the privileges of BasicMed to
examiners and section 828 amended
provisions in section 2307 of the FAA
Extension, Safety, and Security Act of
2016 (49 U.S.C. 44703 note) (FESSA)
directly applicable to BasicMed. The
Act also directed the Administrator of
the FAA to implement the amendments
made in sections 815 and 828 through
rulemaking. Section 828 further
provides that the Administrator of the
FAA shall update regulations in 14 CFR
parts 61 and 68 to implement the
amendments made in the Act (i.e., the
updated statutory language in FESSA),
and within 180 days of the enactment,
apply parts 61 and 68 to ensure that an
individual may operate as pilot in
command of a covered aircraft if the
provisions of section 2307 of FESSA are
met. The amendments to parts 61 and
68 in this final rule align with the
statutory charge set forth by section
828 1 in the following manner:
• Increase the number of allowable
passengers from 5 to 6 and occupants
from 6 to 7 for covered aircraft;
• Increase the maximum takeoff
weight from 6,000 pounds to 12,500
pounds for covered aircraft;
• Clarify that calendar months will be
used in determining the duration of the
comprehensive medical examination for
those persons acting as the pilot in
command or as a required flightcrew
member for operations under
§ 61.113(i);
• Specify that covered aircraft does
not include transport category rotorcraft
certified to airworthiness standards
under part 29; and
• Clarify which versions of FAA
Form 8500–8, Application for Airman
Medical Certificate, may be used to
populate the questions in the BasicMed
Comprehensive Medical Examination
Checklist.
Section 815, BasicMed For Examiners
Administering Tests or Proficiency
Checks, provides that an examiner may
administer a practical test or proficiency
check if such examiner meets the
medical eligibility requirements for
1 See
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sec. 828(a).
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BasicMed and the flight is conducted in
a covered aircraft.2 While the FAA finds
the expansion to be self-enacting, the
section provided the FAA with three
years to issue a final rule updating the
regulations, as well as any related
requirements the Administrator finds
are in the interest of aviation safety.3
This final rule will, therefore, update
§ 61.23 to permit persons performing the
duties of an examiner to administer a
practical test or proficiency check
without holding a medical certificate
issued under part 67, provided those
persons meet the requirements to
operate under the conditions and
limitations set forth in § 61.113(i).
Summary of the Costs and Benefits
There are no costs or benefits of this
rule relative to the with-statute baseline.
This rule conforms FAA regulations to
self-implementing legislation in sections
815 and 828 of the FAA Reauthorization
Act of 2024. Under the updated Office
of Management and Budget (OMB)
Circular A–4 guidance,4 an agency may
use a with-statute baseline for
estimating costs and benefits for
regulations that simply restate statutory
requirements in self-implementing
legislation. Since the rule does not
deviate from the self-implementing
statutory provisions, there are no costs
or benefits as measured against the
with-statute baseline.
II. Authority for This Rulemaking
The FAA’s authority to issue rules on
aviation safety is found in Title 49 of the
United States Code (49 U.S.C.). Subtitle
I, section 106 describes the authority of
the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII,
Aviation Programs, describes in more
detail the scope of the agency’s
authority. This final rule is promulgated
under the authority described in subtitle
VII, part A, subpart iii, section 44701,
General Requirements; section 44702,
Issuance of Certificates; and section
44703, Airman Certificates. Under these
sections, the FAA is charged with
prescribing regulations and minimum
standards for practices, methods, and
procedures the Administrator finds
necessary for safety in air commerce.
The FAA is also authorized to issue
certificates, including airman
certificates and medical certificates, to
qualified individuals. This final rule is
within the scope of that authority.
BasicMed provisions were originally
promulgated under section 2307 of
2 Sec.
815(a).
815(b).
4 OMB Circular No. A–4 updated November 9,
2023, page 12. Accessed September 30, 2024 at:
https://www.whitehouse.gov/wp-content/uploads/
2023/11/CircularA-4.pdf.
3 Sec.
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Federal Register / Vol. 89, No. 222 / Monday, November 18, 2024 / Rules and Regulations
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Public Law 114–190, the FAA
Extension, Safety and Security Act of
2016. The requirements of this rule
continue to be within that authority, as
well as under sections 815 and 828 of
the FAA Reauthorization Act of 2024.
III. Good Cause for Immediate
Adoption
The Administrative Procedure Act (5
U.S.C. 553(b)(B)) requires an agency to
conduct notice and comment
rulemaking except when the agency for
good cause finds (and incorporates the
finding and a brief statement of reasons
therefor in the rules issued) that notice
and public procedure thereon are
impracticable, unnecessary, or contrary
to the public interest. Additionally,
section 553(d) permits agencies, upon a
finding of good cause, to issue rules
with an effective date less than 30 days
from the date of publication. The FAA
finds good cause to forgo notice and
opportunity for comment and the 30
days notice requirement to implement
the statutory amendments as a final
rule.
First, as it pertains to section 815, the
FAA finds that notice and the
opportunity for comment to be
unnecessary because the final rule
implements the statutory provisions
without interpretation. The declaratory
provision of section 815(a) became
effective on May 16, 2024, immediately
upon passage of the Act. While section
815(b) provided three years to conform
the regulations with the self-enacting
provision, the FAA has simply adopted
the statutory language without
interpretation and implements that
language directly into the regulations,
rendering notice and the opportunity for
comment unnecessary.
Second, as it pertains to section 828,
by effect of section 828(c), which directs
the Administrator to ‘‘apply parts 61
and 68, Code of Federal Regulations, in
a manner reflecting the amendments
made by this section,’’ the FAA must
implement the provisions of section
828(a) beginning 180 days after passage
of the Act (i.e., November 12, 2024).
Notice and the opportunity for comment
are unnecessary in this action because
the FAA is strictly implementing the
amendments made to the statutory
provisions in section 2307 of FESSA
without interpretation. This rule
conforms parts 61, 68, and 91 to the
specific amended provisions within the
Act. Additionally, because the FAA is
simply amending the regulations to the
language in section 2307 of FESSA, the
updated regulations do not impose any
additional substantive restrictions or
requirements on the persons affected by
these regulations. Further, case law
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supports the concept that the FAA’s
compliance to implement a rule by the
statutorily prescribed deadline of
November 12, 2024, makes compliance
with section 553 impracticable and
supports a finding of good cause to forgo
notice and the opportunity for
comment.5
For similar reasons, the FAA finds
good cause to forgo the 30 days delay of
effective date requirement under 5
U.S.C. 553(d) because 30 days delay of
effective date is impracticable and
unnecessary. The FAA is publishing
this rule with an immediate effective
date to comply with the statutory
deadline imposed in section 828 of the
Act, which directed the FAA to apply
parts 61 and 68 to reflect the
amendments beginning 180 days after
the Act’s enactment. Additionally,
because section 815 has been effective
since May 14, 2024, (i.e., self-enacting),
30 days notice is unnecessary. Delaying
the effective date of this final rule will
not stay these requirements from being
legally binding and would only cause
inconsistency between the FAA’s
regulations and the statutory provisions
already in effect.6 Therefore, the FAA
finds good cause to forgo the 30 days
effective date requirement to comply
with the Congressional directive and
align with FAA’s regulations with the
self-enacting statutory provisions.
Finally, this final rule makes one
technical amendment to add an OMB
control number for an already existing
and approved information collection to
the FAA’s regulatory list of control
numbers in part 11. The FAA finds that
notice and comment is unnecessary for
such technical change.7
IV. Background
FESSA was enacted on July 15, 2016.
Section 2307(a) of FESSA, Medical
Certification of Certain Small Aircraft
Pilots, directed the FAA to ‘‘issue or
revise regulations to ensure that an
5 Philadelphia Citizens in Action v. Schweiker,
669 F. 2d 877, 885–86 (3rd Cir. 1982) (finding the
need for compliance with a statutorily prescribed
deadline to contribute to a finding of good cause).
6 See Clay Broadcasting Corp. v. United States,
464 F.2d 1313, 1320 (5th Cir. 1972), rev’d on other
grounds sub nom. National Cable Television Ass’n,
Inc. v. United States, 415 U.S. 336 (1974) (finding
an effective date in accordance with a
Congressional directive supports good cause to
forgo the 30 days notice requirement.).
7 Technical amendments are ‘‘a routine
determination, insignificant in nature and impact,
and inconsequential to the industry and to the
public.’’ See Mack Trucks, Inc. v. EPA, 682 F.3d 87,
94 (D.C. Cir. 2012))(quotation marks and citation
omitted); See also United States v. Mullins, 2012
WL 3777067, at *4 (D. Vt. Aug. 29, 2012)
(explaining that public comment is unnecessary if
minor or merely technical amendments in which
the public is not particularly interested were
involved).
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individual may operate as pilot in
command of a covered aircraft’’ without
having to undergo the medical
certification process under 14 CFR part
67 if the pilot and aircraft meet certain
prescribed requirements as outlined in
FESSA. The FAA implemented, without
interpretation, the provisions of section
2307 of FESSA by publishing the
Alternative Pilot Physical Examination
and Education Requirements final rule
on January 11, 2017,8 which amended
parts 61 and 91 and created part 68.9
These medical eligibility requirements
for pilots are collectively known as
BasicMed.
On May 16, 2024, the President
signed the FAA Reauthorization Act of
2024 (Pub. L. 118–63) into law. Specific
to this rulemaking, the FAA
Reauthorization Act of 2024, sections
815 and 828, promulgates certain
changes to (1) expand the applicability
of BasicMed to pilot examiners, (2)
expand the definition of a covered
aircraft in FESSA, (3) apply consistent
usage of the term ‘‘calendar months,’’
and (4) permit the FAA to modify forms
related to comprehensive medical
examination checklists. As discussed
herein, certain changes were selfenacting upon enactment of the
Reauthorization, while others are selfenacting 180 days from the enactment of
the Reauthorization. This final rule
conforms FAA regulations as set forth
by the Reauthorization.
V. Section 828 Expansion of BasicMed
Section 828(a) of the Act amended
certain requirements set forth in FESSA,
section 2307, paragraphs (a)(2), (a)(7),
(a)(8)(A), (b)(2)(A)(i), (h), and (j). First,
section 828 revises the definition of
covered aircraft to increase the number
of occupants in a BasicMed covered
aircraft from 6 to 7, increases the
maximum certificated takeoff weight
from 6,000 pounds to 12,500 pounds,
and excludes transport category
rotorcraft certified to airworthiness
standards under part 29. Second,
section 828(a) also increases the
maximum number of passengers from 5
to 6, modifies the duration of time for
a comprehensive medical examination
from 48 months to 48 calendar months,
and updates which medical application
form versions the FAA may use to
populate the questions of the
8 82
FR 3149.
was additionally modified on
November 22, 2022, by Medical Certification
Standards for Commercial Balloon Operations final
rule (87 FR 71218) to expand BasicMed to required
flightcrew members in addition to persons acting as
pilot in command in accordance with section 318
of Public Law 115–254 (‘‘Commercial Balloon Pilot
Safety Act of 2018’’) and in response to NTSB
Safety Recommendation A–17–034.
9 BasicMed
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Federal Register / Vol. 89, No. 222 / Monday, November 18, 2024 / Rules and Regulations
Comprehensive Medical Examination
Checklist (BasicMed), FAA Form 8700–
2 (CMEC). While section 828(b) directs
the FAA to amend regulations in 14 CFR
parts 61 and 68 without imposing a
deadline to do so,10 paragraph (c)
requires the FAA to apply parts 61 and
68 in a manner reflecting the
amendments made by paragraph (a)
within 180 days of the enactment of the
Act (i.e., November 12, 2024). The
amended requirements of section 828
and the FAA’s implementation of those
requirements are subsequently
discussed.
A. Calendar Month (§ 61.23(c)(3)(i)(D))
Prior to this rule, § 61.23(c)(3)(i)(D)
required that, to be eligible to operate
under BasicMed, an individual must
complete their comprehensive medical
examination from a State-licensed
physician during the 48 months before
acting as a pilot in command or serving
as a required flightcrew member in
operations under § 61.113(i) and in
accordance with the relevant
requirements in part 68. This
requirement was consistent with the
directive of section 2307(a)(7) of FESSA
at the time of final rule adoption 11 (i.e.,
before May 16, 2024). With the
exception of § 61.23(c)(3)(i)(D), the FAA
has generally used the term ‘‘calendar
month’’ throughout part 61 to refer to
periods of time for the purposes of
recency. Further, the usage of the term
‘‘month’’ was inconsistent within
section 2307 of FESSA, which used the
term ‘‘month’’ to refer to the duration of
a comprehensive medical examination,
but ‘‘calendar month’’ when referring to
the duration of recency for the medical
education course. This amendment will
implement section 828(a)(1)(B) to
correct the term and align the language
in § 61.23 with part 61 convention and
section 2307(a)(7) of FESSA to state
‘‘calendar month.’’
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B. Covered Aircraft Requirements
(§§ 61.113(i)(1) and 91.319(j))
In section 2307(j) of FESSA, as
promulgated in 2016, a covered aircraft
was defined as an aircraft that (1) is
authorized under Federal law to carry
not more than 6 occupants; and (2) has
a maximum certificated takeoff weight
of not more than 6,000 pounds. These
10 While the statute directs the FAA to amend
parts 61 and 68, the FAA notes that in order to
implement the expansion of BasicMed to
experimental aircraft which are not type certificated
as the regulations currently reflect, the FAA must
amend part 91. Section 91.319 prescribes operating
limitations for aircraft having experimental
certificates. This aligns with the approach set forth
by the Alternative Pilot Physical Examination and
Education Requirements final rule (82 FR 3149).
11 82 FR 3149 at 3154.
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requirements were implemented for
aircraft authorized under Federal law.12
Section 828(a)(4) of the FAA
Reauthorization Act of 2024 amended
section 2307(j) of FESSA to increase the
number of occupants an aircraft is
authorized to carry under Federal law
from 6 to 7 and to increase the
maximum certificated takeoff weight
from not more than 6,000 pounds to not
more than 12,500 pounds. Additionally,
section 828(a)(4) added a third
provision to section 2307(j) of FESSA to
exclude transport category rotorcraft
certificated to airworthiness standards
under part 29. To note, these
amendments were immediately adopted
within 49 U.S.C. 44703 note (FESSA).
For aircraft authorized under Federal
law, this final rule revises § 61.113(i)(1)
to reflect the provisions of section
2307(j), as amended by section
828(a)(4).13 Additionally, this final rule
revises § 91.319(j) to increase the
maximum number of occupants that a
person may carry in an experimental
aircraft operated under § 61.113(i) from
6 to 7.14
C. Passengers in Covered Aircraft
(§ 61.113(i)(1))
Section 2307(a)(8) of FESSA
established limitations for operations
under BasicMed. One operating
requirement limited an individual
operating in the covered aircraft from
carrying more than 5 passengers.
Section 828 of the Act amended section
2307(a)(8)(A) (i.e., the operating
requirement) by increasing the number
of passengers from 5 to 6. This final rule
will revise § 61.113(i)(1) to reflect this
increased passenger limitation.
Therefore, a covered aircraft may now
be authorized to carry up to 7 occupants
(including any required flight
12 Comprehensive discussion regarding the FAA’s
analysis and implementation of ‘‘aircraft authorized
under Federal Law’’ may be found at 82 FR 3149,
at 3154.
13 Section 61.113 refers to the parameters of
aircraft; however, the 2017 preamble
unintentionally narrowed the aircraft authorized to
type certificated aircraft and experimental aircraft,
inadvertently omitting aircraft such as light sport
aircraft and special flight permits. In practice, the
FAA applies § 61.113 to any aircraft meeting the
definition of ‘‘covered aircraft’’ and will continue
to do so.
14 As previously stated in footnote 8 of this
preamble, the statute directs the FAA to amend
parts 61 and 68; however, because experimental
aircraft are not type certificated but may be
operated under BasicMed given the definitions set
forth in FESSA, the FAA finds it appropriate to
amend part 91 as well. Because experimental
aircraft may be operated under BasicMed, the FAA
omitted the word ‘‘certificated’’ from ‘‘maximum
takeoff weight’’ in the 2017 final rule regulatory
text, which is also reflected in this final rule.
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crewmembers) and may be operating
with up to 6 passengers on board.15
D. Comprehensive Medical Examination
Checklist (§ 68.7(a)(1))
To comply with the requirements of
BasicMed, a pilot must receive a
comprehensive medical examination
from a State-licensed physician.16 The
State-licensed physician conducts the
examination using the CMEC 17
completed by the recipient prior to the
examination. Section 2307(b)(2) of
FESSA prescribes the content of the
CMEC, implemented in § 68.7.
Originally, section 2307(b)(2)(A)(i)
specified that the checklist must be
populated with specific questions from
FAA Form 8500–8 (3–99); however, the
3–99 version of FAA Form 8500–8 is
now obsolete and no longer an active
form.
Now, section 828(a)(2) of the Act
amended section 2307(b)(2)(A)(i) of
FESSA to specify that the checklist must
include certain questions from the
8500–8 (3–99) or any successor form,
which include pertinent medical history
of the examination recipient. As a result
of the amendment, this final rule
amends § 68.7(a)(1) by inserting the
language ‘‘(or any successor form)’’
following ‘‘FAA Form 8500–8 (3–99).’’
In practice, this amendment explicitly
facilitates future updates to the FAA
Form 8700–2 CMEC and incorporates
changes made to specific questions in
subsequent versions of FAA Form 8500–
8.
VI. Expanding BasicMed for Examiners
Administering Tests or Proficiency
Checks
Prior to FESSA, the medical eligibility
requirements for an examiner mirrored
the requirements for the applicant
taking the examination. The provisions
of section 2307 of FESSA, and
subsequent modifications to apply
BasicMed to required flightcrew
members, did not originally apply to
examiners because an examiner does
not typically act as pilot in command of
the aircraft for a practical test and only
15 For additional discussion on the relationship
between ‘‘occupants’’ and ‘‘passengers’’ as it
pertains to covered aircraft, see 82 FR 3149 at 3154.
16 14 CFR 61.23(c)(3)(D).
17 During this rulemaking, the FAA discovered
that the rule establishing BasicMed, Alternative
Pilot Physical Examination and Education
Requirements, did not add OMB control number
2120–0770 (approving the new information
collection for FAA Form 8700–2) to § 11.201.
Section 11.201 sets forth an informational list of
current OMB control numbers, organized by 14 CFR
part or section, identified and described for
reference to the FAA’s information collection
activities. This final rule corrects the error by
adding the OMB control number to the table set
forth in § 11.201(b).
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Federal Register / Vol. 89, No. 222 / Monday, November 18, 2024 / Rules and Regulations
serves as a required flightcrew member
during portions of a practical test.18
Section 815(a) of the FAA
Reauthorization Act of 2024 permits
examiners to administer a practical test
or proficiency check so long as the
examiner meets the medical eligibility
requirements of BasicMed (i.e., the
examiner meets the medical
qualification requirements under part 68
and the operation is conducted in a
covered aircraft as defined in section
2307(j) of FESSA). While the FAA
determined that this provision was selfenacting as of May 16, 2024, section
815(b) of the Act directs the FAA to
issue a final rule revising part 61 within
three years of enactment. Section 815(b)
also permits the Administrator to add
‘‘any related requirements the
Administrator finds are in the interest of
aviation safety’’ to the final rule;
however, at this time, the FAA does not
find any related requirements warranted
and will not be adding any additional
related requirements to this final rule.
To align the regulations with the selfenacting statute, this final rule adds new
§ 61.23(c)(1)(vii) 19 to explicitly allow
examiners to administer practical tests
or proficiency checks for airman
certificates, ratings, or authorizations,
provided the flight is conducted under
the conditions and limitations set forth
in § 61.113(i).
The amended provisions in
§ 61.23(a)(3)(iv) to allow examiners to
perform their duties under BasicMed
use the phrase ‘‘when meeting the
requirements to operate under the
conditions and limitations set forth in
§ 61.113(i)’’ rather than ‘‘when operating
under the conditions and limitations set
forth in § 61.113(i)’’ because § 61.113(i)
applies to persons exercising private
pilot privileges as either pilot in
command or as a required flightcrew
member. The added phrase ‘‘when
meeting the requirements’’ was
included to clarify that even though the
examiner may not be performing a pilot
duty as an examiner and not serving as
either pilot in command or as a required
flightcrew member, that person may
serve as an examiner without holding a
medical certificate provided that person
has otherwise met all the requirements
to operate as pilot in command or as a
required flightcrew member under
BasicMed.
18 E.g., acting as a safety pilot under 14 CFR
91.109(c)(1).
19 As a result, this final rule revises
§ 61.23(c)(1)(v) and (vi) to account for list expansion
(i.e., simply removing ‘‘or’’ from paragraph (c)(1)(v)
and adding ‘‘or’’ to paragraph (c)(1)(vi)).
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VII. Regulatory Notices and Analyses
Federal agencies consider impacts of
regulatory actions under a variety of
executive orders and other
requirements. First, Executive Order
12866, Executive Order 13563, and
Executive Order 14094 (‘‘Modernizing
Regulatory Review’’) direct that each
Federal agency shall propose or adopt a
regulation only upon a reasoned
determination that the benefits of the
intended regulation justify the costs.
Second, the Regulatory Flexibility Act
of 1980 (Pub. L. 96–354) requires
agencies to analyze the economic
impact of regulatory changes on small
entities. Third, the Trade Agreements
Act (Pub. L. 96–39) prohibits agencies
from setting standards that create
unnecessary obstacles to the foreign
commerce of the United States. Fourth,
the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of
1995 (Pub. L. 104–4) requires agencies
to prepare a written assessment of the
costs, benefits, and other effects of
proposed or final rules that include a
Federal mandate that may result in the
expenditure by State, local, and tribal
governments, in the aggregate, or by the
private sector, of $100 million or more
(adjusted annually for inflation) in any
one year. The current threshold after
adjustment for inflation is $183 million
using the most current (2023) Implicit
Price Deflator for the Gross Domestic
Product. This portion of the preamble
summarizes the FAA’s analysis of the
economic impacts of this rule.
In conducting these analyses, the FAA
has determined that this final rule: (1)
has benefits that justify its costs, (2) is
not a ‘‘significant regulatory action’’ as
defined in section 3(f)(1) of Executive
Order 12866, (3) will not create
unnecessary obstacles to the foreign
commerce of the United States; and (4)
will not impose an unfunded mandate
on State, local, or tribal governments, or
on the private sector by exceeding the
threshold identified above. As the FAA
finds good cause to forgo notice and
opportunity for comment under 5 U.S.C.
553(b)(B) for this final rule, 5 U.S.C. 603
and 604 do not require regulatory
flexibility analyses regarding impacts on
small entities.
A. Regulatory Evaluation
There are no costs or benefits of this
rule relative to the with-statute baseline.
This rule conforms FAA regulations to
self-implementing legislation in sections
815 and 828 of the FAA Reauthorization
Act of 2024. Section 815 allows a pilot
examiner to perform authorized
examiner duties so long as the examiner
can otherwise meet the requirements to
operate under BasicMed in the aircraft
PO 00000
Frm 00029
Fmt 4700
Sfmt 4700
90575
being used for the practical test or
proficiency check. Section 828 expands
BasicMed by increasing the number of
allowable passengers in a covered
aircraft to 6 (up from 5); increasing the
allowable number of seats in a covered
aircraft to 7 (up from 6); and increasing
the maximum certificated takeoff weight
of a covered aircraft to 12,500 pounds
(up from 6,000 pounds). This expansion
of Basic Med does not apply to transport
category rotorcraft certified to
airworthiness standards under part 29.
Under the updated OMB Circular A–
4 guidance,20 an agency may use a withstatute baseline for estimating costs and
benefits for regulations that simply
restate statutory requirements in selfimplementing legislation. Since the rule
does not deviate from the selfimplementing statutory provisions,
there are no costs or benefits as
measured against the with-statute
baseline.
B. Regulatory Flexibility Determination
The Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA),
in 5 U.S.C. 603, requires an agency to
prepare an initial regulatory flexibility
analysis describing impacts on small
entities whenever 5 U.S.C. 553 or any
other law requires an agency to publish
a general notice of proposed rulemaking
for any proposed rule. Similarly, 5
U.S.C. 604 requires an agency to prepare
a final regulatory flexibility analysis
when an agency issues a final rule
under 5 U.S.C. 553 after that section or
any other law requires publication of a
general notice of proposed rulemaking.
The FAA finds good cause to forgo
notice and comment and to not delay
the effective date for this rule. As 5
U.S.C. 553(b)(B) permits an agency to
forgo notice and the opportunity for
comment when good cause exists and
the FAA finds good cause exists in this
situation, 5 U.S.C. 603 and 604 similarly
do not require regulatory flexibility
analyses.
C. International Trade Impact
Assessment
The Trade Agreements Act of 1979
(Pub. L. 96–39), as amended by the
Uruguay Round Agreements Act (Pub.
L. 103–465), prohibits Federal agencies
from establishing standards or engaging
in related activities that create
unnecessary obstacles to the foreign
commerce of the United States.
Pursuant to these Acts, the
establishment of standards is not
considered an unnecessary obstacle to
the foreign commerce of the United
20 OMB Circular No. A–4 updated November 9,
2023, page 12. Accessed September 30, 2024, at:
https://www.whitehouse.gov/wp-content/uploads/
2023/11/CircularA-4.pdf.
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Federal Register / Vol. 89, No. 222 / Monday, November 18, 2024 / Rules and Regulations
States, so long as the standard has a
legitimate domestic objective, such as
the protection of safety and does not
operate in a manner that excludes
imports that meet this objective. The
statute also requires consideration of
international standards and, where
appropriate, that they be the basis for
U.S. standards.
The FAA has assessed the potential
effect of this final rule and determined
that it will only have a domestic impact
and therefore will not create
unnecessary obstacles to the foreign
commerce of the United States.
F. International Compatibility and
Cooperation
The Unfunded Mandates Reform Act
of 1995 (2 U.S.C. 1531–1538) governs
the issuance of Federal regulations that
require unfunded mandates. An
unfunded mandate is a regulation that
requires a State, local, or tribal
government, or the private sector to
incur direct costs without the Federal
government having first provided the
funds to pay those costs. The FAA
determined that the final rule will not
result in the expenditure of $183
million or more by State, local, or tribal
governments, in the aggregate, or the
private sector, in any one year.
In keeping with U.S. obligations
under the Convention on International
Civil Aviation, it is FAA policy to
conform to International Civil Aviation
Organization (ICAO) Standards and
Recommended Practices (SARPs) to the
maximum extent practicable. The FAA
has reviewed ICAO SARPs applicable to
private pilots.
Airmen certificated by the FAA are
represented to ICAO as compliant with
ICAO standards for private pilots,
among other requirements. As FESSA
and this final rule describe standards
that diverge from ICAO requirements,21
flights must be geographically limited to
operations within the United States,
unless authorized by the country in
which the flight is conducted.
The FAA will modify certain
differences to reflect that certain U.S.
private pilots no longer are required to
hold a current FAA airman medical
certificate. A filing is required for
certain ICAO Annex 1 SARPs found in
Chapters 1, 2, and 6.
E. Paperwork Reduction Act
G. Environmental Analysis
D. Unfunded Mandates Assessment
lotter on DSK11XQN23PROD with RULES1
Alternative Pilot Physical Examination
and Education Requirements.
The Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995
(44 U.S.C. 3507(d)) requires that the
FAA consider the impact of paperwork
and other information collection
burdens imposed on the public.
According to the 1995 amendments to
the Paperwork Reduction Act (5 CFR
1320.8(b)(2)(vi)), an agency may not
collect or sponsor the collection of
information, nor may it impose an
information collection requirement
unless it displays a currently valid
Office of Management and Budget
(OMB) control number.
The FAA has determined that there
would be no new information collection
associated with the requirement to
complete the Comprehensive Medical
Examination Checklist associated with
this final rule. Approval to collect such
information previously was approved by
the Office of Management and Budget
(OMB) under the provisions of the
Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44
U.S.C. 3507(d)) and was assigned OMB
Control Number 2120–0770.
The FAA lists OMB control numbers
assigned to its information collection
activities in 14 CFR 11.201(b).
Accordingly, this technical amendment
updates 14 CFR 11.201(b) to display
OMB control number 2120–0770
associated with the information
collection activities in the final rule,
VerDate Sep<11>2014
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FAA Order 1050.1F identifies FAA
actions that are categorically excluded
from preparation of an environmental
assessment or environmental impact
statement under the National
Environmental Policy Act in the
absence of extraordinary circumstances.
The FAA has determined this
rulemaking action qualifies for the
categorical exclusion identified in
paragraph 5–6.6f for regulations and
involves no extraordinary
circumstances.
VIII. Executive Order Determinations
A. Executive Order 13132, Federalism
The FAA has analyzed this final rule
under the principles and criteria of
Executive Order 13132, Federalism. The
FAA has determined that this action
will not have a substantial direct effect
on the States, or the relationship
between the Federal Government and
the States, or on the distribution of
power and responsibilities among the
various levels of government, and,
therefore, will not have federalism
implications.
21 Annex 1 to the Convention on International
Civil Aviation, ‘‘Personnel Licensing,’’ Chapter 6
‘‘Medical Provisions for Licensing,’’ 11th Edition
(July 2011).
PO 00000
Frm 00030
Fmt 4700
Sfmt 4700
B. Executive Order 13175, Consultation
and Coordination With Indian Tribal
Governments
Consistent with Executive Order
13175, Consultation and Coordination
with Indian Tribal Governments, and
FAA Order 1210.20, American Indian
and Alaska Native Tribal Consultation
Policy and Procedures, the FAA ensures
that Federally Recognized Tribes
(Tribes) are given the opportunity to
provide meaningful and timely input
regarding proposed Federal actions that
have the potential to have substantial
direct effects on one or more Indian
Tribes, on the relationship between the
Federal Government and Indian Tribes,
or on the distribution of power and
responsibilities between the Federal
Government and Indian Tribes; or to
affect uniquely or significantly their
respective Tribes. At this point, the FAA
has not identified any unique or
significant effects, environmental or
otherwise, on Tribes resulting from this
final rule.
C. Executive Order 13211, Regulations
That Significantly Affect Energy Supply,
Distribution, or Use
The FAA analyzed this final rule
under Executive Order 13211, Actions
Concerning Regulations that
Significantly Affect Energy Supply,
Distribution, or Use. The FAA has
determined that it is not a ‘‘significant
energy action’’ under the Executive
order and is not likely to have a
significant adverse effect on the supply,
distribution, or use of energy.
D. Executive Order 13609, Promoting
International Regulatory Cooperation
Executive Order 13609, Promoting
International Regulatory Cooperation,
promotes international regulatory
cooperation to meet shared challenges
involving health, safety, labor, security,
environmental, and other issues and to
reduce, eliminate, or prevent
unnecessary differences in regulatory
requirements. The FAA has analyzed
this action under the policies and
agency responsibilities of Executive
Order 13609 and has determined that
this action will have no effect on
international regulatory cooperation.
IX. Additional Information
A. Electronic Access and Filing
A copy of this final rule and all
background material may be viewed
online at www.regulations.gov using the
docket number listed above. A copy of
this final rule will be placed in the
docket. Electronic retrieval help and
guidelines are available on the website.
It is available 24 hours each day, 365
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Federal Register / Vol. 89, No. 222 / Monday, November 18, 2024 / Rules and Regulations
days each year. An electronic copy of
this document may also be downloaded
from the Office of the Federal Register’s
website at www.federalregister.gov and
the Government Publishing Office’s
website at www.govinfo.gov. A copy
may also be found at the FAA’s
Regulations and Policies website at
www.faa.gov/regulations_policies.
Copies may also be obtained by
sending a request to the Federal
Aviation Administration, Office of
Rulemaking, ARM–1, 800 Independence
Avenue SW, Washington, DC 20591, or
by calling (202) 267–9677. Requestors
must identify the docket or amendment
number of this rulemaking.
All documents the FAA considered in
developing this final rule, including
economic analyses and technical
reports, may be accessed from the
internet through the Federal
eRulemaking Portal referenced above.
B. Small Business Regulatory
Enforcement Fairness Act
The Small Business Regulatory
Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996
(SBREFA) requires the FAA to comply
with small entity requests for
information or advice about compliance
with statutes and regulations within its
jurisdiction. A small entity with
questions regarding this document may
contact its local FAA official or the
person listed under the FOR FURTHER
INFORMATION CONTACT heading at the
beginning of the preamble. To find out
more about SBREFA on the internet,
visit https://www.faa.gov/regulations_
policies/rulemaking/sbre_act/.
List of Subjects
14 CFR Part 11
Administrative practice and
procedure, Reporting and recordkeeping
requirements.
14 CFR Part 61
Aircraft, Airmen, Aviation safety,
Reporting and recordkeeping
requirements.
14 CFR Part 68
Aircraft, Airmen, Health, Reporting
and recordkeeping requirements.
lotter on DSK11XQN23PROD with RULES1
14 CFR Part 91
Aircraft, Airmen, Aviation safety,
Reporting and recordkeeping
requirements, Transportation.
The Amendment
In consideration of the foregoing, the
Federal Aviation Administration
amends chapter I of title 14, Code of
Federal Regulations as follows:
VerDate Sep<11>2014
17:30 Nov 15, 2024
Jkt 265001
Part 11—GENERAL RULEMAKING
PROCEDURES
1. The authority citation for part 11
continues to read as follows:
■
Authority: 49 U.S.C. 106(f), 40101, 40103,
40105, 40109, 40113, 44110, 44502, 44701–
44702, 44711, and 46102.
2. Amend § 11.201 by revising the
table in paragraph (b) to read as follows:
■
§ 11.201 Office of Management and Budget
(OMB) control numbers assigned under the
Paperwork Reduction Act.
*
*
*
(b) * * *
*
*
14 CFR part or section
identified and described
*
*
*
Part 68 ..................................
*
*
*
Current OMB
control No.
*
*
*
2120–0770
*
PART 61—CERTIFICATION: PILOTS,
FLIGHT INSTRUCTORS, AND GROUND
INSTRUCTORS
3. The authority citation for part 61 is
revised to read as follows:
■
Authority: 49 U.S.C. 106(f), 40113, 44701–
44703, 44707, 44709–44711, 44729, 44903,
45102–45103, 45301–45302; Sec. 2307 Pub.
L. 114–190, 130 Stat. 615 (49 U.S.C. 44703
note); sec. 318, Pub. L. 115–254, 132 Stat.
3186 (49 U.S.C. 44703 note); and secs. 815
and 828, Pub. L. 118–63, 138 Stat. 1330 (49
U.S.C. 44703 note).
4. Amend § 61.23 by revising
paragraphs (a)(3)(iv), (c)(1)(v) and (vi),
adding paragraph (c)(1)(vii), and
revising paragraph (c)(3)(i)(D) to read as
follows:
■
§ 61.23 Medical certificates: Requirement
and duration.
(a) * * *
(3) * * *
(iv) When performing the duties as an
Examiner in an aircraft when
administering a practical test or
proficiency check for an airman
certificate, rating, or authorization,
except when meeting the requirements
to operate under the conditions and
limitations set forth in § 61.113(i).
*
*
*
*
*
(c) * * *
(1) * * *
(v) Exercising the privileges of a
student, recreational or private pilot
certificate if the flight is conducted
under the conditions and limitations set
forth in § 61.113(i);
(vi) Exercising the privileges of a
flight instructor certificate and acting as
the pilot in command or as a required
flight crewmember if the flight is
PO 00000
Frm 00031
Fmt 4700
Sfmt 4700
90577
conducted under the conditions and
limitations set forth in § 61.113(i); or
(vii) Serving as an Examiner and
administering a practical test or
proficiency check for an airman
certificate, rating, or authorization if the
flight is conducted under the conditions
and limitations set forth in § 61.113(i).
*
*
*
*
*
(3) * * *
(i) * * *
(D) Receive a comprehensive medical
examination from a State-licensed
physician during the 48 calendar
months before acting as pilot in
command or serving as a required
flightcrew member of an operation
conducted under § 61.113(i) and that
medical examination is conducted in
accordance with the requirements in
part 68 of this chapter; and
*
*
*
*
*
■ 5. Amend § 61.113 by revising
paragraph (i)(1) to read as follows:
§ 61.113 Private pilot privileges and
limitations: Pilot in command.
*
*
*
*
*
(i) * * *
(1) The aircraft is authorized to carry
not more than 7 occupants, has a
maximum takeoff weight of not more
than 12,500 pounds, is operated with no
more than 6 passengers on board, and is
not a transport category rotorcraft
certified to airworthiness standards
under part 29 of this chapter; and
*
*
*
*
*
PART 68—REQUIREMENTS FOR
OPERATING CERTAIN SMALL
AIRCRAFT WITHOUT A MEDICAL
CERTIFICATE
6. The authority citation for part 68 is
revised to read as follows:
■
Authority: 49 U.S.C. 106(f), 44701–44703,
sec. 2307 of Pub. L. 114–190, 130 Stat. 615
(49 U.S.C. 44703 note); sec. 828 of Pub. L.
118–63, 138 Stat. 1330 (49 U.S.C. 44703).
7. Amend § 68.7 by revising paragraph
(a)(1) to read as follows:
■
§ 68.7 Comprehensive Medical
Examination Checklist.
*
*
*
*
*
(a) * * *
(1) Boxes 3 through 13 and boxes 16
through 19 of the FAA Form 8500–8 (3–
99), or any successor form; and
*
*
*
*
*
Part 91—GENERAL OPERATING AND
FLIGHT RULES
8. The authority citation for part 91 is
revised to read as follows:
■
Authority: 49 U.S.C. 106(f), 40101, 40103,
40105, 40113, 40120, 44101, 44111, 44701,
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Federal Register / Vol. 89, No. 222 / Monday, November 18, 2024 / Rules and Regulations
44704, 44709, 44711, 44712, 44715, 44716,
44717, 44722, 46306, 46315, 46316, 46504,
46506–46507, 47122, 47508, 47528–47531,
47534; Pub. L. 114–190, 130 Stat. 615 (49
U.S.C. 44703 note); Sec. 828 of Pub. L. 118–
63, 138 Stat. 1330 (49 U.S.C. 44703 note);
articles 12 and 29 of the Convention on
International Civil Aviation (61 Stat. 1180),
(126 Stat. 11).
9. Amend § 91.319 by revising
paragraph (j) to read as follows:
■
§ 91.319 Aircraft having experimental
certificates: Operating limitations.
*
*
*
*
*
(j) No person may operate an aircraft
that has an experimental certificate
under § 61.113(i) of this chapter unless
the aircraft is carrying not more than 7
occupants.
Issued in Washington, DC, under the
authority of 49 U.S.C. 106(f) and secs. 815
and 828 of Public Law 118–63.
Michael Gordon Whitaker,
Administrator.
[FR Doc. 2024–26935 Filed 11–14–24; 4:15 pm]
BILLING CODE 4910–13–P
DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION
Federal Aviation Administration
14 CFR Part 71
[Docket No. FAA–2023–1624; Airspace
Docket No. 24–ACE–7]
RIN 2120–AA66
Establishment of Class E Airspace;
Rose Hill, KS
Federal Aviation
Administration (FAA), DOT.
ACTION: Final rule.
AGENCY:
This action establishes Class
E airspace at Rose Hill, KS to support
new public instrument procedures.
DATES: Effective date 0901 UTC,
December 26, 2024. The Director of the
Federal Register approves this
incorporation by reference action under
1 CFR part 51, subject to the annual
revision of FAA Order JO 7400.11 and
publication of conforming amendments.
ADDRESSES: A copy of the Notice of
Proposed Rulemaking (NPRM), all
comments received, this final rule, and
all background material may be viewed
online at www.regulations.gov using the
FAA Docket number. Electronic
retrieval help and guidelines are
available on the website. It is available
24 hours each day, 365 days each year.
FAA Order JO 7400.11J, Airspace
Designations and Reporting Points, and
subsequent amendments can be viewed
online at www.faa.gov/air_traffic/
publications/. You may also contact the
lotter on DSK11XQN23PROD with RULES1
SUMMARY:
VerDate Sep<11>2014
16:23 Nov 15, 2024
Jkt 265001
Rules and Regulations Group, Office of
Policy, Federal Aviation
Administration, 800 Independence
Avenue SW, Washington, DC 20591;
telephone: (202) 267–8783.
FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT: Raul
Garza Jr., Federal Aviation
Administration, Operations Support
Group, Central Service Center, 10101
Hillwood Parkway, Fort Worth, TX
76177; telephone (817) 222–5874.
SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:
Authority for This Rulemaking
The FAA’s authority to issue rules
regarding aviation safety is found in
Title 49 of the United States Code.
Subtitle I, Section 106 describes the
authority of the FAA Administrator.
Subtitle VII, Aviation Programs,
describes in more detail the scope of the
agency’s authority. This rulemaking is
promulgated under the authority
described in Subtitle VII, Part A,
Subpart I, Section 40103. Under that
section, the FAA is charged with
prescribing regulations to assign the use
of the airspace necessary to ensure the
safety of aircraft and the efficient use of
airspace. This regulation is within the
scope of that authority as it establishes
Class E airspace extending upward from
700 feet above the surface at Cook
Airfield, Rose Hill, KS, to support
instrument flight rule operations at this
airport.
History
The FAA published an NPRM for
Docket No. FAA 2023–1624 in the
Federal Register (89 FR 66290; August
15, 2024), proposing to establish the
Class E airspace at Rose Hill, KS.
Interested parties were invited to
participate in this rulemaking effort by
submitting written comments on the
proposal to the FAA. No comments
were received.
Differences From the NPRM
An FAA database review noted that
the incorrect coordinates were used in
the NPRM. This Final Rule replaces the
incorrect coordinates with the correct
coordinates: 37°33′55″ N, long
097°10′29″ W. This action does not
change the airspace dimensions or
operating requirements.
Incorporation by Reference
Class E airspace designations are
published in paragraph 6005 of FAA
Order JO 7400.11, Airspace
Designations and Reporting Points,
which is incorporated by reference in 14
CFR 71.1 on an annual basis. This
document amends the current version of
that order, FAA Order JO 7400.11J,
dated July 31, 2024 and effective
PO 00000
Frm 00032
Fmt 4700
Sfmt 4700
September 15, 2024. FAA Order JO
7400.11J is publicly available as listed
in the ADDRESSES section of this
document. These amendments will be
published in the next update to FAA
Order JO 7400.11.
FAA Order JO 7400.11J lists Class A,
B, C, D, and E airspace areas, air traffic
service routes, and reporting points.
The Rule
This action amends 14 CFR part 71 by
establishing Class E airspace upward
from 700 feet above the surface within
a 6.6-mile radius of Cook Airfield, Rose
Hill, KS.
This action supports new public
instrument procedures.
Regulatory Notices and Analyses
The FAA has determined that this
regulation only involves an established
body of technical regulations for which
frequent and routine amendments are
necessary to keep them operationally
current. It, therefore: (1) is not a
‘‘significant regulatory action’’ under
Executive Order 12866; (2) is not a
‘‘significant rule’’ under DOT
Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44
FR 11034; February 26, 1979); and (3)
does not warrant preparation of a
regulatory evaluation as the anticipated
impact is so minimal. Since this is a
routine matter that only affects air traffic
procedures and air navigation, it is
certified that this rule, when
promulgated, does not have a significant
economic impact on a substantial
number of small entities under the
criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Environmental Review
The FAA has determined that this
action qualifies for categorical exclusion
under the National Environmental
Policy Act in accordance with FAA
Order 1050.1F, ‘‘Environmental
Impacts: Policies and Procedures,’’
paragraph 5–6.5.a. This airspace action
is not expected to cause any potentially
significant environmental impacts, and
no extraordinary circumstances exist
that warrant preparation of an
environmental assessment.
Lists of Subjects in 14 CFR Part 71
Airspace, Incorporation by reference,
Navigation (air).
The Amendment
In consideration of the foregoing, the
Federal Aviation Administration
amends 14 CFR part 71 as follows:
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Agencies
[Federal Register Volume 89, Number 222 (Monday, November 18, 2024)]
[Rules and Regulations]
[Pages 90572-90578]
From the Federal Register Online via the Government Publishing Office [www.gpo.gov]
[FR Doc No: 2024-26935]
=======================================================================
-----------------------------------------------------------------------
DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION
Federal Aviation Administration
14 CFR Parts 11, 61, 68, and 91
[Docket No. FAA-2024-2580; Amdt. Nos. 11-70, 61-158, 68-3, and 91-380]
RIN 2120-AM06
Regulatory Updates to BasicMed
AGENCY: Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), Department of
Transportation (DOT).
ACTION: Final rule.
-----------------------------------------------------------------------
SUMMARY: This final rule implements, without interpretation, the
provisions of sections 815 and 828 of the FAA Reauthorization Act of
2024 (``the Act''). To conform the FAA's regulations to the self-
enacting provisions in the Act, this final rule amends certain
regulations to: align aircraft conditions and limitations with the term
``covered aircraft'' as defined in section 2307(j) of the FAA
Extension, Safety, and Security Act of 2016 to increase the number of
allowable passengers from 5 to 6, increase the number of occupants from
6 to 7, and increase the maximum takeoff weight from 6,000 pounds to
12,500 pounds, while excluding certain transport category rotorcraft.
This final rule facilitates updates to current standards the medical
form a State-licensed physician uses in completing a comprehensive
medical examination. Further, this final rule amends regulations to
incorporate the statutory expansion of BasicMed medical eligibility to
examiners conducting practical tests or proficiency checks if they meet
the requirements for operating covered aircraft under BasicMed, as
provided in the Act.
DATES: This rule is effective on November 18, 2024.
ADDRESSES: For information on where to obtain copies of rulemaking
documents and other information related to this final rule, see ``How
to Obtain Additional Information'' in the SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION
section of this document.
FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT: Bradley C. Zeigler, Federal Aviation
Administration, 800 Independence Avenue SW, Washington, DC 20591;
telephone: (202) 267-1100; email: [email protected].
SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:
I. Executive Summary
On May 16, 2024, the President signed into law the FAA
Reauthorization Act of 2024 (Pub. L. 118-63) (``the Act''), impacting
certain requirements for BasicMed in section 815, BasicMed for
Examiners Administering Tests or Proficiency Checks, and section 828,
Expansion of BasicMed. Specifically, section 815 expanded the
privileges of BasicMed to examiners and section 828 amended provisions
in section 2307 of the FAA Extension, Safety, and Security Act of 2016
(49 U.S.C. 44703 note) (FESSA) directly applicable to BasicMed. The Act
also directed the Administrator of the FAA to implement the amendments
made in sections 815 and 828 through rulemaking. Section 828 further
provides that the Administrator of the FAA shall update regulations in
14 CFR parts 61 and 68 to implement the amendments made in the Act
(i.e., the updated statutory language in FESSA), and within 180 days of
the enactment, apply parts 61 and 68 to ensure that an individual may
operate as pilot in command of a covered aircraft if the provisions of
section 2307 of FESSA are met. The amendments to parts 61 and 68 in
this final rule align with the statutory charge set forth by section
828 \1\ in the following manner:
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
\1\ See sec. 828(a).
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
Increase the number of allowable passengers from 5 to 6
and occupants from 6 to 7 for covered aircraft;
Increase the maximum takeoff weight from 6,000 pounds to
12,500 pounds for covered aircraft;
Clarify that calendar months will be used in determining
the duration of the comprehensive medical examination for those persons
acting as the pilot in command or as a required flightcrew member for
operations under Sec. 61.113(i);
Specify that covered aircraft does not include transport
category rotorcraft certified to airworthiness standards under part 29;
and
Clarify which versions of FAA Form 8500-8, Application for
Airman Medical Certificate, may be used to populate the questions in
the BasicMed Comprehensive Medical Examination Checklist.
Section 815, BasicMed For Examiners Administering Tests or
Proficiency Checks, provides that an examiner may administer a
practical test or proficiency check if such examiner meets the medical
eligibility requirements for BasicMed and the flight is conducted in a
covered aircraft.\2\ While the FAA finds the expansion to be self-
enacting, the section provided the FAA with three years to issue a
final rule updating the regulations, as well as any related
requirements the Administrator finds are in the interest of aviation
safety.\3\ This final rule will, therefore, update Sec. 61.23 to
permit persons performing the duties of an examiner to administer a
practical test or proficiency check without holding a medical
certificate issued under part 67, provided those persons meet the
requirements to operate under the conditions and limitations set forth
in Sec. 61.113(i).
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
\2\ Sec. 815(a).
\3\ Sec. 815(b).
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
Summary of the Costs and Benefits
There are no costs or benefits of this rule relative to the with-
statute baseline. This rule conforms FAA regulations to self-
implementing legislation in sections 815 and 828 of the FAA
Reauthorization Act of 2024. Under the updated Office of Management and
Budget (OMB) Circular A-4 guidance,\4\ an agency may use a with-statute
baseline for estimating costs and benefits for regulations that simply
restate statutory requirements in self-implementing legislation. Since
the rule does not deviate from the self-implementing statutory
provisions, there are no costs or benefits as measured against the
with-statute baseline.
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
\4\ OMB Circular No. A-4 updated November 9, 2023, page 12.
Accessed September 30, 2024 at: https://www.whitehouse.gov/wp-content/uploads/2023/11/CircularA-4.pdf.
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II. Authority for This Rulemaking
The FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety is found in
Title 49 of the United States Code (49 U.S.C.). Subtitle I, section 106
describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII,
Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the agency's
authority. This final rule is promulgated under the authority described
in subtitle VII, part A, subpart iii, section 44701, General
Requirements; section 44702, Issuance of Certificates; and section
44703, Airman Certificates. Under these sections, the FAA is charged
with prescribing regulations and minimum standards for practices,
methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in
air commerce. The FAA is also authorized to issue certificates,
including airman certificates and medical certificates, to qualified
individuals. This final rule is within the scope of that authority.
BasicMed provisions were originally promulgated under section 2307
of
[[Page 90573]]
Public Law 114-190, the FAA Extension, Safety and Security Act of 2016.
The requirements of this rule continue to be within that authority, as
well as under sections 815 and 828 of the FAA Reauthorization Act of
2024.
III. Good Cause for Immediate Adoption
The Administrative Procedure Act (5 U.S.C. 553(b)(B)) requires an
agency to conduct notice and comment rulemaking except when the agency
for good cause finds (and incorporates the finding and a brief
statement of reasons therefor in the rules issued) that notice and
public procedure thereon are impracticable, unnecessary, or contrary to
the public interest. Additionally, section 553(d) permits agencies,
upon a finding of good cause, to issue rules with an effective date
less than 30 days from the date of publication. The FAA finds good
cause to forgo notice and opportunity for comment and the 30 days
notice requirement to implement the statutory amendments as a final
rule.
First, as it pertains to section 815, the FAA finds that notice and
the opportunity for comment to be unnecessary because the final rule
implements the statutory provisions without interpretation. The
declaratory provision of section 815(a) became effective on May 16,
2024, immediately upon passage of the Act. While section 815(b)
provided three years to conform the regulations with the self-enacting
provision, the FAA has simply adopted the statutory language without
interpretation and implements that language directly into the
regulations, rendering notice and the opportunity for comment
unnecessary.
Second, as it pertains to section 828, by effect of section 828(c),
which directs the Administrator to ``apply parts 61 and 68, Code of
Federal Regulations, in a manner reflecting the amendments made by this
section,'' the FAA must implement the provisions of section 828(a)
beginning 180 days after passage of the Act (i.e., November 12, 2024).
Notice and the opportunity for comment are unnecessary in this action
because the FAA is strictly implementing the amendments made to the
statutory provisions in section 2307 of FESSA without interpretation.
This rule conforms parts 61, 68, and 91 to the specific amended
provisions within the Act. Additionally, because the FAA is simply
amending the regulations to the language in section 2307 of FESSA, the
updated regulations do not impose any additional substantive
restrictions or requirements on the persons affected by these
regulations. Further, case law supports the concept that the FAA's
compliance to implement a rule by the statutorily prescribed deadline
of November 12, 2024, makes compliance with section 553 impracticable
and supports a finding of good cause to forgo notice and the
opportunity for comment.\5\
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
\5\ Philadelphia Citizens in Action v. Schweiker, 669 F. 2d 877,
885-86 (3rd Cir. 1982) (finding the need for compliance with a
statutorily prescribed deadline to contribute to a finding of good
cause).
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
For similar reasons, the FAA finds good cause to forgo the 30 days
delay of effective date requirement under 5 U.S.C. 553(d) because 30
days delay of effective date is impracticable and unnecessary. The FAA
is publishing this rule with an immediate effective date to comply with
the statutory deadline imposed in section 828 of the Act, which
directed the FAA to apply parts 61 and 68 to reflect the amendments
beginning 180 days after the Act's enactment. Additionally, because
section 815 has been effective since May 14, 2024, (i.e., self-
enacting), 30 days notice is unnecessary. Delaying the effective date
of this final rule will not stay these requirements from being legally
binding and would only cause inconsistency between the FAA's
regulations and the statutory provisions already in effect.\6\
Therefore, the FAA finds good cause to forgo the 30 days effective date
requirement to comply with the Congressional directive and align with
FAA's regulations with the self-enacting statutory provisions.
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
\6\ See Clay Broadcasting Corp. v. United States, 464 F.2d 1313,
1320 (5th Cir. 1972), rev'd on other grounds sub nom. National Cable
Television Ass'n, Inc. v. United States, 415 U.S. 336 (1974)
(finding an effective date in accordance with a Congressional
directive supports good cause to forgo the 30 days notice
requirement.).
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
Finally, this final rule makes one technical amendment to add an
OMB control number for an already existing and approved information
collection to the FAA's regulatory list of control numbers in part 11.
The FAA finds that notice and comment is unnecessary for such technical
change.\7\
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
\7\ Technical amendments are ``a routine determination,
insignificant in nature and impact, and inconsequential to the
industry and to the public.'' See Mack Trucks, Inc. v. EPA, 682 F.3d
87, 94 (D.C. Cir. 2012))(quotation marks and citation omitted); See
also United States v. Mullins, 2012 WL 3777067, at *4 (D. Vt. Aug.
29, 2012) (explaining that public comment is unnecessary if minor or
merely technical amendments in which the public is not particularly
interested were involved).
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
IV. Background
FESSA was enacted on July 15, 2016. Section 2307(a) of FESSA,
Medical Certification of Certain Small Aircraft Pilots, directed the
FAA to ``issue or revise regulations to ensure that an individual may
operate as pilot in command of a covered aircraft'' without having to
undergo the medical certification process under 14 CFR part 67 if the
pilot and aircraft meet certain prescribed requirements as outlined in
FESSA. The FAA implemented, without interpretation, the provisions of
section 2307 of FESSA by publishing the Alternative Pilot Physical
Examination and Education Requirements final rule on January 11,
2017,\8\ which amended parts 61 and 91 and created part 68.\9\ These
medical eligibility requirements for pilots are collectively known as
BasicMed.
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
\8\ 82 FR 3149.
\9\ BasicMed was additionally modified on November 22, 2022, by
Medical Certification Standards for Commercial Balloon Operations
final rule (87 FR 71218) to expand BasicMed to required flightcrew
members in addition to persons acting as pilot in command in
accordance with section 318 of Public Law 115-254 (``Commercial
Balloon Pilot Safety Act of 2018'') and in response to NTSB Safety
Recommendation A-17-034.
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On May 16, 2024, the President signed the FAA Reauthorization Act
of 2024 (Pub. L. 118-63) into law. Specific to this rulemaking, the FAA
Reauthorization Act of 2024, sections 815 and 828, promulgates certain
changes to (1) expand the applicability of BasicMed to pilot examiners,
(2) expand the definition of a covered aircraft in FESSA, (3) apply
consistent usage of the term ``calendar months,'' and (4) permit the
FAA to modify forms related to comprehensive medical examination
checklists. As discussed herein, certain changes were self-enacting
upon enactment of the Reauthorization, while others are self-enacting
180 days from the enactment of the Reauthorization. This final rule
conforms FAA regulations as set forth by the Reauthorization.
V. Section 828 Expansion of BasicMed
Section 828(a) of the Act amended certain requirements set forth in
FESSA, section 2307, paragraphs (a)(2), (a)(7), (a)(8)(A),
(b)(2)(A)(i), (h), and (j). First, section 828 revises the definition
of covered aircraft to increase the number of occupants in a BasicMed
covered aircraft from 6 to 7, increases the maximum certificated
takeoff weight from 6,000 pounds to 12,500 pounds, and excludes
transport category rotorcraft certified to airworthiness standards
under part 29. Second, section 828(a) also increases the maximum number
of passengers from 5 to 6, modifies the duration of time for a
comprehensive medical examination from 48 months to 48 calendar months,
and updates which medical application form versions the FAA may use to
populate the questions of the
[[Page 90574]]
Comprehensive Medical Examination Checklist (BasicMed), FAA Form 8700-2
(CMEC). While section 828(b) directs the FAA to amend regulations in 14
CFR parts 61 and 68 without imposing a deadline to do so,\10\ paragraph
(c) requires the FAA to apply parts 61 and 68 in a manner reflecting
the amendments made by paragraph (a) within 180 days of the enactment
of the Act (i.e., November 12, 2024). The amended requirements of
section 828 and the FAA's implementation of those requirements are
subsequently discussed.
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
\10\ While the statute directs the FAA to amend parts 61 and 68,
the FAA notes that in order to implement the expansion of BasicMed
to experimental aircraft which are not type certificated as the
regulations currently reflect, the FAA must amend part 91. Section
91.319 prescribes operating limitations for aircraft having
experimental certificates. This aligns with the approach set forth
by the Alternative Pilot Physical Examination and Education
Requirements final rule (82 FR 3149).
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
A. Calendar Month (Sec. 61.23(c)(3)(i)(D))
Prior to this rule, Sec. 61.23(c)(3)(i)(D) required that, to be
eligible to operate under BasicMed, an individual must complete their
comprehensive medical examination from a State-licensed physician
during the 48 months before acting as a pilot in command or serving as
a required flightcrew member in operations under Sec. 61.113(i) and in
accordance with the relevant requirements in part 68. This requirement
was consistent with the directive of section 2307(a)(7) of FESSA at the
time of final rule adoption \11\ (i.e., before May 16, 2024). With the
exception of Sec. 61.23(c)(3)(i)(D), the FAA has generally used the
term ``calendar month'' throughout part 61 to refer to periods of time
for the purposes of recency. Further, the usage of the term ``month''
was inconsistent within section 2307 of FESSA, which used the term
``month'' to refer to the duration of a comprehensive medical
examination, but ``calendar month'' when referring to the duration of
recency for the medical education course. This amendment will implement
section 828(a)(1)(B) to correct the term and align the language in
Sec. 61.23 with part 61 convention and section 2307(a)(7) of FESSA to
state ``calendar month.''
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
\11\ 82 FR 3149 at 3154.
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
B. Covered Aircraft Requirements (Sec. Sec. 61.113(i)(1) and
91.319(j))
In section 2307(j) of FESSA, as promulgated in 2016, a covered
aircraft was defined as an aircraft that (1) is authorized under
Federal law to carry not more than 6 occupants; and (2) has a maximum
certificated takeoff weight of not more than 6,000 pounds. These
requirements were implemented for aircraft authorized under Federal
law.\12\ Section 828(a)(4) of the FAA Reauthorization Act of 2024
amended section 2307(j) of FESSA to increase the number of occupants an
aircraft is authorized to carry under Federal law from 6 to 7 and to
increase the maximum certificated takeoff weight from not more than
6,000 pounds to not more than 12,500 pounds. Additionally, section
828(a)(4) added a third provision to section 2307(j) of FESSA to
exclude transport category rotorcraft certificated to airworthiness
standards under part 29. To note, these amendments were immediately
adopted within 49 U.S.C. 44703 note (FESSA).
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
\12\ Comprehensive discussion regarding the FAA's analysis and
implementation of ``aircraft authorized under Federal Law'' may be
found at 82 FR 3149, at 3154.
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
For aircraft authorized under Federal law, this final rule revises
Sec. 61.113(i)(1) to reflect the provisions of section 2307(j), as
amended by section 828(a)(4).\13\ Additionally, this final rule revises
Sec. 91.319(j) to increase the maximum number of occupants that a
person may carry in an experimental aircraft operated under Sec.
61.113(i) from 6 to 7.\14\
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
\13\ Section 61.113 refers to the parameters of aircraft;
however, the 2017 preamble unintentionally narrowed the aircraft
authorized to type certificated aircraft and experimental aircraft,
inadvertently omitting aircraft such as light sport aircraft and
special flight permits. In practice, the FAA applies Sec. 61.113 to
any aircraft meeting the definition of ``covered aircraft'' and will
continue to do so.
\14\ As previously stated in footnote 8 of this preamble, the
statute directs the FAA to amend parts 61 and 68; however, because
experimental aircraft are not type certificated but may be operated
under BasicMed given the definitions set forth in FESSA, the FAA
finds it appropriate to amend part 91 as well. Because experimental
aircraft may be operated under BasicMed, the FAA omitted the word
``certificated'' from ``maximum takeoff weight'' in the 2017 final
rule regulatory text, which is also reflected in this final rule.
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
C. Passengers in Covered Aircraft (Sec. 61.113(i)(1))
Section 2307(a)(8) of FESSA established limitations for operations
under BasicMed. One operating requirement limited an individual
operating in the covered aircraft from carrying more than 5 passengers.
Section 828 of the Act amended section 2307(a)(8)(A) (i.e., the
operating requirement) by increasing the number of passengers from 5 to
6. This final rule will revise Sec. 61.113(i)(1) to reflect this
increased passenger limitation. Therefore, a covered aircraft may now
be authorized to carry up to 7 occupants (including any required flight
crewmembers) and may be operating with up to 6 passengers on board.\15\
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\15\ For additional discussion on the relationship between
``occupants'' and ``passengers'' as it pertains to covered aircraft,
see 82 FR 3149 at 3154.
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
D. Comprehensive Medical Examination Checklist (Sec. 68.7(a)(1))
To comply with the requirements of BasicMed, a pilot must receive a
comprehensive medical examination from a State-licensed physician.\16\
The State-licensed physician conducts the examination using the CMEC
\17\ completed by the recipient prior to the examination. Section
2307(b)(2) of FESSA prescribes the content of the CMEC, implemented in
Sec. 68.7. Originally, section 2307(b)(2)(A)(i) specified that the
checklist must be populated with specific questions from FAA Form 8500-
8 (3-99); however, the 3-99 version of FAA Form 8500-8 is now obsolete
and no longer an active form.
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
\16\ 14 CFR 61.23(c)(3)(D).
\17\ During this rulemaking, the FAA discovered that the rule
establishing BasicMed, Alternative Pilot Physical Examination and
Education Requirements, did not add OMB control number 2120-0770
(approving the new information collection for FAA Form 8700-2) to
Sec. 11.201. Section 11.201 sets forth an informational list of
current OMB control numbers, organized by 14 CFR part or section,
identified and described for reference to the FAA's information
collection activities. This final rule corrects the error by adding
the OMB control number to the table set forth in Sec. 11.201(b).
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
Now, section 828(a)(2) of the Act amended section 2307(b)(2)(A)(i)
of FESSA to specify that the checklist must include certain questions
from the 8500-8 (3-99) or any successor form, which include pertinent
medical history of the examination recipient. As a result of the
amendment, this final rule amends Sec. 68.7(a)(1) by inserting the
language ``(or any successor form)'' following ``FAA Form 8500-8 (3-
99).'' In practice, this amendment explicitly facilitates future
updates to the FAA Form 8700-2 CMEC and incorporates changes made to
specific questions in subsequent versions of FAA Form 8500-8.
VI. Expanding BasicMed for Examiners Administering Tests or Proficiency
Checks
Prior to FESSA, the medical eligibility requirements for an
examiner mirrored the requirements for the applicant taking the
examination. The provisions of section 2307 of FESSA, and subsequent
modifications to apply BasicMed to required flightcrew members, did not
originally apply to examiners because an examiner does not typically
act as pilot in command of the aircraft for a practical test and only
[[Page 90575]]
serves as a required flightcrew member during portions of a practical
test.\18\
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
\18\ E.g., acting as a safety pilot under 14 CFR 91.109(c)(1).
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
Section 815(a) of the FAA Reauthorization Act of 2024 permits
examiners to administer a practical test or proficiency check so long
as the examiner meets the medical eligibility requirements of BasicMed
(i.e., the examiner meets the medical qualification requirements under
part 68 and the operation is conducted in a covered aircraft as defined
in section 2307(j) of FESSA). While the FAA determined that this
provision was self-enacting as of May 16, 2024, section 815(b) of the
Act directs the FAA to issue a final rule revising part 61 within three
years of enactment. Section 815(b) also permits the Administrator to
add ``any related requirements the Administrator finds are in the
interest of aviation safety'' to the final rule; however, at this time,
the FAA does not find any related requirements warranted and will not
be adding any additional related requirements to this final rule. To
align the regulations with the self-enacting statute, this final rule
adds new Sec. 61.23(c)(1)(vii) \19\ to explicitly allow examiners to
administer practical tests or proficiency checks for airman
certificates, ratings, or authorizations, provided the flight is
conducted under the conditions and limitations set forth in Sec.
61.113(i).
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
\19\ As a result, this final rule revises Sec. 61.23(c)(1)(v)
and (vi) to account for list expansion (i.e., simply removing ``or''
from paragraph (c)(1)(v) and adding ``or'' to paragraph (c)(1)(vi)).
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
The amended provisions in Sec. 61.23(a)(3)(iv) to allow examiners
to perform their duties under BasicMed use the phrase ``when meeting
the requirements to operate under the conditions and limitations set
forth in Sec. 61.113(i)'' rather than ``when operating under the
conditions and limitations set forth in Sec. 61.113(i)'' because Sec.
61.113(i) applies to persons exercising private pilot privileges as
either pilot in command or as a required flightcrew member. The added
phrase ``when meeting the requirements'' was included to clarify that
even though the examiner may not be performing a pilot duty as an
examiner and not serving as either pilot in command or as a required
flightcrew member, that person may serve as an examiner without holding
a medical certificate provided that person has otherwise met all the
requirements to operate as pilot in command or as a required flightcrew
member under BasicMed.
VII. Regulatory Notices and Analyses
Federal agencies consider impacts of regulatory actions under a
variety of executive orders and other requirements. First, Executive
Order 12866, Executive Order 13563, and Executive Order 14094
(``Modernizing Regulatory Review'') direct that each Federal agency
shall propose or adopt a regulation only upon a reasoned determination
that the benefits of the intended regulation justify the costs. Second,
the Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980 (Pub. L. 96-354) requires
agencies to analyze the economic impact of regulatory changes on small
entities. Third, the Trade Agreements Act (Pub. L. 96-39) prohibits
agencies from setting standards that create unnecessary obstacles to
the foreign commerce of the United States. Fourth, the Unfunded
Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4) requires agencies to
prepare a written assessment of the costs, benefits, and other effects
of proposed or final rules that include a Federal mandate that may
result in the expenditure by State, local, and tribal governments, in
the aggregate, or by the private sector, of $100 million or more
(adjusted annually for inflation) in any one year. The current
threshold after adjustment for inflation is $183 million using the most
current (2023) Implicit Price Deflator for the Gross Domestic Product.
This portion of the preamble summarizes the FAA's analysis of the
economic impacts of this rule.
In conducting these analyses, the FAA has determined that this
final rule: (1) has benefits that justify its costs, (2) is not a
``significant regulatory action'' as defined in section 3(f)(1) of
Executive Order 12866, (3) will not create unnecessary obstacles to the
foreign commerce of the United States; and (4) will not impose an
unfunded mandate on State, local, or tribal governments, or on the
private sector by exceeding the threshold identified above. As the FAA
finds good cause to forgo notice and opportunity for comment under 5
U.S.C. 553(b)(B) for this final rule, 5 U.S.C. 603 and 604 do not
require regulatory flexibility analyses regarding impacts on small
entities.
A. Regulatory Evaluation
There are no costs or benefits of this rule relative to the with-
statute baseline. This rule conforms FAA regulations to self-
implementing legislation in sections 815 and 828 of the FAA
Reauthorization Act of 2024. Section 815 allows a pilot examiner to
perform authorized examiner duties so long as the examiner can
otherwise meet the requirements to operate under BasicMed in the
aircraft being used for the practical test or proficiency check.
Section 828 expands BasicMed by increasing the number of allowable
passengers in a covered aircraft to 6 (up from 5); increasing the
allowable number of seats in a covered aircraft to 7 (up from 6); and
increasing the maximum certificated takeoff weight of a covered
aircraft to 12,500 pounds (up from 6,000 pounds). This expansion of
Basic Med does not apply to transport category rotorcraft certified to
airworthiness standards under part 29.
Under the updated OMB Circular A-4 guidance,\20\ an agency may use
a with-statute baseline for estimating costs and benefits for
regulations that simply restate statutory requirements in self-
implementing legislation. Since the rule does not deviate from the
self-implementing statutory provisions, there are no costs or benefits
as measured against the with-statute baseline.
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
\20\ OMB Circular No. A-4 updated November 9, 2023, page 12.
Accessed September 30, 2024, at: https://www.whitehouse.gov/wp-content/uploads/2023/11/CircularA-4.pdf.
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
B. Regulatory Flexibility Determination
The Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA), in 5 U.S.C. 603, requires an
agency to prepare an initial regulatory flexibility analysis describing
impacts on small entities whenever 5 U.S.C. 553 or any other law
requires an agency to publish a general notice of proposed rulemaking
for any proposed rule. Similarly, 5 U.S.C. 604 requires an agency to
prepare a final regulatory flexibility analysis when an agency issues a
final rule under 5 U.S.C. 553 after that section or any other law
requires publication of a general notice of proposed rulemaking. The
FAA finds good cause to forgo notice and comment and to not delay the
effective date for this rule. As 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(B) permits an agency
to forgo notice and the opportunity for comment when good cause exists
and the FAA finds good cause exists in this situation, 5 U.S.C. 603 and
604 similarly do not require regulatory flexibility analyses.
C. International Trade Impact Assessment
The Trade Agreements Act of 1979 (Pub. L. 96-39), as amended by the
Uruguay Round Agreements Act (Pub. L. 103-465), prohibits Federal
agencies from establishing standards or engaging in related activities
that create unnecessary obstacles to the foreign commerce of the United
States. Pursuant to these Acts, the establishment of standards is not
considered an unnecessary obstacle to the foreign commerce of the
United
[[Page 90576]]
States, so long as the standard has a legitimate domestic objective,
such as the protection of safety and does not operate in a manner that
excludes imports that meet this objective. The statute also requires
consideration of international standards and, where appropriate, that
they be the basis for U.S. standards.
The FAA has assessed the potential effect of this final rule and
determined that it will only have a domestic impact and therefore will
not create unnecessary obstacles to the foreign commerce of the United
States.
D. Unfunded Mandates Assessment
The Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (2 U.S.C. 1531-1538)
governs the issuance of Federal regulations that require unfunded
mandates. An unfunded mandate is a regulation that requires a State,
local, or tribal government, or the private sector to incur direct
costs without the Federal government having first provided the funds to
pay those costs. The FAA determined that the final rule will not result
in the expenditure of $183 million or more by State, local, or tribal
governments, in the aggregate, or the private sector, in any one year.
E. Paperwork Reduction Act
The Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3507(d)) requires
that the FAA consider the impact of paperwork and other information
collection burdens imposed on the public. According to the 1995
amendments to the Paperwork Reduction Act (5 CFR 1320.8(b)(2)(vi)), an
agency may not collect or sponsor the collection of information, nor
may it impose an information collection requirement unless it displays
a currently valid Office of Management and Budget (OMB) control number.
The FAA has determined that there would be no new information
collection associated with the requirement to complete the
Comprehensive Medical Examination Checklist associated with this final
rule. Approval to collect such information previously was approved by
the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) under the provisions of the
Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3507(d)) and was assigned
OMB Control Number 2120-0770.
The FAA lists OMB control numbers assigned to its information
collection activities in 14 CFR 11.201(b). Accordingly, this technical
amendment updates 14 CFR 11.201(b) to display OMB control number 2120-
0770 associated with the information collection activities in the final
rule, Alternative Pilot Physical Examination and Education
Requirements.
F. International Compatibility and Cooperation
In keeping with U.S. obligations under the Convention on
International Civil Aviation, it is FAA policy to conform to
International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) Standards and
Recommended Practices (SARPs) to the maximum extent practicable. The
FAA has reviewed ICAO SARPs applicable to private pilots.
Airmen certificated by the FAA are represented to ICAO as compliant
with ICAO standards for private pilots, among other requirements. As
FESSA and this final rule describe standards that diverge from ICAO
requirements,\21\ flights must be geographically limited to operations
within the United States, unless authorized by the country in which the
flight is conducted.
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
\21\ Annex 1 to the Convention on International Civil Aviation,
``Personnel Licensing,'' Chapter 6 ``Medical Provisions for
Licensing,'' 11th Edition (July 2011).
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
The FAA will modify certain differences to reflect that certain
U.S. private pilots no longer are required to hold a current FAA airman
medical certificate. A filing is required for certain ICAO Annex 1
SARPs found in Chapters 1, 2, and 6.
G. Environmental Analysis
FAA Order 1050.1F identifies FAA actions that are categorically
excluded from preparation of an environmental assessment or
environmental impact statement under the National Environmental Policy
Act in the absence of extraordinary circumstances. The FAA has
determined this rulemaking action qualifies for the categorical
exclusion identified in paragraph 5-6.6f for regulations and involves
no extraordinary circumstances.
VIII. Executive Order Determinations
A. Executive Order 13132, Federalism
The FAA has analyzed this final rule under the principles and
criteria of Executive Order 13132, Federalism. The FAA has determined
that this action will not have a substantial direct effect on the
States, or the relationship between the Federal Government and the
States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the
various levels of government, and, therefore, will not have federalism
implications.
B. Executive Order 13175, Consultation and Coordination With Indian
Tribal Governments
Consistent with Executive Order 13175, Consultation and
Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments, and FAA Order 1210.20,
American Indian and Alaska Native Tribal Consultation Policy and
Procedures, the FAA ensures that Federally Recognized Tribes (Tribes)
are given the opportunity to provide meaningful and timely input
regarding proposed Federal actions that have the potential to have
substantial direct effects on one or more Indian Tribes, on the
relationship between the Federal Government and Indian Tribes, or on
the distribution of power and responsibilities between the Federal
Government and Indian Tribes; or to affect uniquely or significantly
their respective Tribes. At this point, the FAA has not identified any
unique or significant effects, environmental or otherwise, on Tribes
resulting from this final rule.
C. Executive Order 13211, Regulations That Significantly Affect Energy
Supply, Distribution, or Use
The FAA analyzed this final rule under Executive Order 13211,
Actions Concerning Regulations that Significantly Affect Energy Supply,
Distribution, or Use. The FAA has determined that it is not a
``significant energy action'' under the Executive order and is not
likely to have a significant adverse effect on the supply,
distribution, or use of energy.
D. Executive Order 13609, Promoting International Regulatory
Cooperation
Executive Order 13609, Promoting International Regulatory
Cooperation, promotes international regulatory cooperation to meet
shared challenges involving health, safety, labor, security,
environmental, and other issues and to reduce, eliminate, or prevent
unnecessary differences in regulatory requirements. The FAA has
analyzed this action under the policies and agency responsibilities of
Executive Order 13609 and has determined that this action will have no
effect on international regulatory cooperation.
IX. Additional Information
A. Electronic Access and Filing
A copy of this final rule and all background material may be viewed
online at www.regulations.gov using the docket number listed above. A
copy of this final rule will be placed in the docket. Electronic
retrieval help and guidelines are available on the website. It is
available 24 hours each day, 365
[[Page 90577]]
days each year. An electronic copy of this document may also be
downloaded from the Office of the Federal Register's website at
www.federalregister.gov and the Government Publishing Office's website
at www.govinfo.gov. A copy may also be found at the FAA's Regulations
and Policies website at www.faa.gov/regulations_policies.
Copies may also be obtained by sending a request to the Federal
Aviation Administration, Office of Rulemaking, ARM-1, 800 Independence
Avenue SW, Washington, DC 20591, or by calling (202) 267-9677.
Requestors must identify the docket or amendment number of this
rulemaking.
All documents the FAA considered in developing this final rule,
including economic analyses and technical reports, may be accessed from
the internet through the Federal eRulemaking Portal referenced above.
B. Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act
The Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996
(SBREFA) requires the FAA to comply with small entity requests for
information or advice about compliance with statutes and regulations
within its jurisdiction. A small entity with questions regarding this
document may contact its local FAA official or the person listed under
the FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT heading at the beginning of the
preamble. To find out more about SBREFA on the internet, visit https://www.faa.gov/regulations_policies/rulemaking/sbre_act/.
List of Subjects
14 CFR Part 11
Administrative practice and procedure, Reporting and recordkeeping
requirements.
14 CFR Part 61
Aircraft, Airmen, Aviation safety, Reporting and recordkeeping
requirements.
14 CFR Part 68
Aircraft, Airmen, Health, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
14 CFR Part 91
Aircraft, Airmen, Aviation safety, Reporting and recordkeeping
requirements, Transportation.
The Amendment
In consideration of the foregoing, the Federal Aviation
Administration amends chapter I of title 14, Code of Federal
Regulations as follows:
Part 11--GENERAL RULEMAKING PROCEDURES
0
1. The authority citation for part 11 continues to read as follows:
Authority: 49 U.S.C. 106(f), 40101, 40103, 40105, 40109, 40113,
44110, 44502, 44701-44702, 44711, and 46102.
0
2. Amend Sec. 11.201 by revising the table in paragraph (b) to read as
follows:
Sec. 11.201 Office of Management and Budget (OMB) control numbers
assigned under the Paperwork Reduction Act.
* * * * *
(b) * * *
------------------------------------------------------------------------
Current OMB
14 CFR part or section identified and described control No.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
* * * * *
Part 68................................................. 2120-0770
* * * * *
------------------------------------------------------------------------
PART 61--CERTIFICATION: PILOTS, FLIGHT INSTRUCTORS, AND GROUND
INSTRUCTORS
0
3. The authority citation for part 61 is revised to read as follows:
Authority: 49 U.S.C. 106(f), 40113, 44701-44703, 44707, 44709-
44711, 44729, 44903, 45102-45103, 45301-45302; Sec. 2307 Pub. L.
114-190, 130 Stat. 615 (49 U.S.C. 44703 note); sec. 318, Pub. L.
115-254, 132 Stat. 3186 (49 U.S.C. 44703 note); and secs. 815 and
828, Pub. L. 118-63, 138 Stat. 1330 (49 U.S.C. 44703 note).
0
4. Amend Sec. 61.23 by revising paragraphs (a)(3)(iv), (c)(1)(v) and
(vi), adding paragraph (c)(1)(vii), and revising paragraph (c)(3)(i)(D)
to read as follows:
Sec. 61.23 Medical certificates: Requirement and duration.
(a) * * *
(3) * * *
(iv) When performing the duties as an Examiner in an aircraft when
administering a practical test or proficiency check for an airman
certificate, rating, or authorization, except when meeting the
requirements to operate under the conditions and limitations set forth
in Sec. 61.113(i).
* * * * *
(c) * * *
(1) * * *
(v) Exercising the privileges of a student, recreational or private
pilot certificate if the flight is conducted under the conditions and
limitations set forth in Sec. 61.113(i);
(vi) Exercising the privileges of a flight instructor certificate
and acting as the pilot in command or as a required flight crewmember
if the flight is conducted under the conditions and limitations set
forth in Sec. 61.113(i); or
(vii) Serving as an Examiner and administering a practical test or
proficiency check for an airman certificate, rating, or authorization
if the flight is conducted under the conditions and limitations set
forth in Sec. 61.113(i).
* * * * *
(3) * * *
(i) * * *
(D) Receive a comprehensive medical examination from a State-
licensed physician during the 48 calendar months before acting as pilot
in command or serving as a required flightcrew member of an operation
conducted under Sec. 61.113(i) and that medical examination is
conducted in accordance with the requirements in part 68 of this
chapter; and
* * * * *
0
5. Amend Sec. 61.113 by revising paragraph (i)(1) to read as follows:
Sec. 61.113 Private pilot privileges and limitations: Pilot in
command.
* * * * *
(i) * * *
(1) The aircraft is authorized to carry not more than 7 occupants,
has a maximum takeoff weight of not more than 12,500 pounds, is
operated with no more than 6 passengers on board, and is not a
transport category rotorcraft certified to airworthiness standards
under part 29 of this chapter; and
* * * * *
PART 68--REQUIREMENTS FOR OPERATING CERTAIN SMALL AIRCRAFT WITHOUT
A MEDICAL CERTIFICATE
0
6. The authority citation for part 68 is revised to read as follows:
Authority: 49 U.S.C. 106(f), 44701-44703, sec. 2307 of Pub. L.
114-190, 130 Stat. 615 (49 U.S.C. 44703 note); sec. 828 of Pub. L.
118-63, 138 Stat. 1330 (49 U.S.C. 44703).
0
7. Amend Sec. 68.7 by revising paragraph (a)(1) to read as follows:
Sec. 68.7 Comprehensive Medical Examination Checklist.
* * * * *
(a) * * *
(1) Boxes 3 through 13 and boxes 16 through 19 of the FAA Form
8500-8 (3-99), or any successor form; and
* * * * *
Part 91--GENERAL OPERATING AND FLIGHT RULES
0
8. The authority citation for part 91 is revised to read as follows:
Authority: 49 U.S.C. 106(f), 40101, 40103, 40105, 40113, 40120,
44101, 44111, 44701,
[[Page 90578]]
44704, 44709, 44711, 44712, 44715, 44716, 44717, 44722, 46306,
46315, 46316, 46504, 46506-46507, 47122, 47508, 47528-47531, 47534;
Pub. L. 114-190, 130 Stat. 615 (49 U.S.C. 44703 note); Sec. 828 of
Pub. L. 118-63, 138 Stat. 1330 (49 U.S.C. 44703 note); articles 12
and 29 of the Convention on International Civil Aviation (61 Stat.
1180), (126 Stat. 11).
0
9. Amend Sec. 91.319 by revising paragraph (j) to read as follows:
Sec. 91.319 Aircraft having experimental certificates: Operating
limitations.
* * * * *
(j) No person may operate an aircraft that has an experimental
certificate under Sec. 61.113(i) of this chapter unless the aircraft
is carrying not more than 7 occupants.
Issued in Washington, DC, under the authority of 49 U.S.C.
106(f) and secs. 815 and 828 of Public Law 118-63.
Michael Gordon Whitaker,
Administrator.
[FR Doc. 2024-26935 Filed 11-14-24; 4:15 pm]
BILLING CODE 4910-13-P