Rachel Pittala, APRN; Decision and Order, 63126-63130 [2023-19819]
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in support of its prima facie case for
denial of Applicant’s application is
confined to Factors B and D. See RFAA,
at 6–9. Moreover, the Government has
the burden of proof in this proceeding.
21 CFR 1301.44.
Here, the Agency finds that the
Government’s evidence satisfies its
prima facie burden of showing that
Applicant’s registration would be
‘‘inconsistent with the public interest.’’
21 U.S.C. 824(a)(4).
1. Factors B and D
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Evidence is considered under Public
Interest Factors B and D when it reflects
compliance (or non-compliance) with
laws related to controlled substances
and experience dispensing controlled
substances. See Kareem Hubbard, M.D.,
87 FR 21156, 21162 (2022). In the
current matter, the Government has
alleged that Applicant has violated both
federal and California state law
regulating controlled substances.
RFAAX 10, at 1–5.10
Under federal law, those engaged in
chemical analysis are required to be
registered with the DEA. 21 CFR
1301.13(e)(1)(x). Regarding
recordkeeping, the CSA requires that
DEA registrants maintain complete and
accurate records of the manufacture,
receipt, sale, delivery, or disposal of
controlled substances. 21 U.S.C.
827(a)(3). Additional relevant
recordkeeping requirements can be
found at 21 CFR 1304.03(a) (all
registrants shall maintain required
records), 1304.04(a) (records must be
retained and available for DEA
inspection for at least two years),
1304.21(a) (records must be complete
and accurate), 1304.23(a) (registrants
registered for chemical analysis with
controlled substances must maintain
records for each controlled substance).
823(g)(1)(A). Nonetheless, an absence of such
evidence ‘‘does not weigh for or against a
determination as to whether continuation of [or
granting of a] DEA certification is consistent with
the public interest.’’ Roni Dreszer, M.D., 76 FR
19434, 19444 (2011). As to Factor C, there is no
evidence in the record that Applicant has been
convicted of an offense under either federal or state
law ‘‘relating to the manufacture, distribution, or
dispensing of controlled substances.’’ 21 U.S.C.
823(g)(1)(C). Likewise to Factor A, Agency cases
have found that ‘‘the absence of such a conviction
is of considerably less consequence in the public
interest inquiry’’ and is therefore not dispositive.
Dewey C. MacKay, M.D., 75 FR 49956, 49973 (2010).
Finally, as to Factor E, the Government’s evidence
fits squarely within the parameters of Factors B and
D and does not raise ‘‘other conduct which may
threaten the public health and safety.’’ 21 U.S.C.
823(g)(1)(E). Accordingly, Factor E does not weigh
for or against Applicant.
10 The Agency need not adjudicate the criminal
violations alleged in the instant Order to Show
Cause. Ruan v. United States, 142 S. Ct. 2370 (2022)
(decided in the context of criminal proceedings).
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Here, the record demonstrates that
prior to the expiration of its previous
registration on September 30, 2020,
Applicant failed to maintain necessary
records as required by the CSA despite
receiving and possessing controlled
substances. Further, the record
demonstrates that following the
expiration of its previous registration on
September 30, 2020, Applicant
unlawfully continued to receive and
possess large quantities of controlled
substances without maintaining
necessary records for two years as
required by the CSA. As Applicant’s
conduct displays clear violations of
federal law relating to controlled
substances, the Agency hereby finds
that Applicant violated 21 U.S.C.
827(a)(3) and 21 CFR 1301.13(e)(1)(x),
1304.03(a), 1304.04(a), 1304.21(a),
1304.23(a).
Accordingly, the Agency finds that
Factors B and D weigh in favor of denial
of Applicant’s application and thus
finds Applicant’s registration to be
inconsistent with the public interest in
balancing the factors of 21 U.S.C.
823(g)(1). The Agency further finds that
Applicant failed to provide sufficient
evidence to rebut the Government’s
prima facie case.
III. Sanction
Where, as here, the Government has
established grounds to deny Applicant’s
application, the burden shifts to the
registrant to show why it can be
entrusted with the responsibility carried
by a registration. Garret Howard Smith,
M.D., 83 FR 18882, 18910 (2018). When
a registrant has committed acts
inconsistent with the public interest, it
must both accept responsibility and
demonstrate that it has undertaken
corrective measures. Holiday CVS,
L.L.C., dba CVS Pharmacy Nos 219 and
5195, 77 FR 62316, 62339 (2012)
(internal quotations omitted). Trust is
necessarily a fact-dependent
determination based on individual
circumstances; therefore, the Agency
looks at factors such as the acceptance
of responsibility, the credibility of that
acceptance as it relates to the
probability of repeat violations or
behavior, the nature of the misconduct
that forms the basis for sanction, and the
Agency’s interest in deterring similar
acts. See, e.g., Robert Wayne Locklear,
M.D., 86 FR 33746.
Here, Applicant did not request a
hearing, submit a corrective action plan,
respond to the OSC, or otherwise avail
itself of the opportunity to refute the
Government’s case. As such, Applicant
has made no representations as to its
future compliance with the CSA nor
demonstrated that it can be entrusted
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with registration. Moreover, the
evidence presented by the Government
clearly shows that Applicant violated
the CSA and the Agency has found that
Applicant is ineligible for DEA
registration. See supra at II.1.
Accordingly, the Agency will order the
denial of Applicant’s application.
Order
Pursuant to 28 CFR 0.100(b) and the
authority vested in me by 21 U.S.C.
823(g)(1) and 21 U.S.C. 824(a), I hereby
deny the pending application for a
Certificate of Registration, Control No.
W21055614H, submitted by Green Wave
Analytical, as well as any other pending
application of Green Wave Analytical
for additional registration in California.
This Order is effective October 16, 2023.
Signing Authority
This document of the Drug
Enforcement Administration was signed
on September 5, 2023, by Administrator
Anne Milgram. That document with the
original signature and date is
maintained by DEA. For administrative
purposes only, and in compliance with
requirements of the Office of the Federal
Register, the undersigned DEA Federal
Register Liaison Officer has been
authorized to sign and submit the
document in electronic format for
publication, as an official document of
DEA. This administrative process in no
way alters the legal effect of this
document upon publication in the
Federal Register.
Scott Brinks,
Federal Register Liaison Officer, Drug
Enforcement Administration.
[FR Doc. 2023–19820 Filed 9–13–23; 8:45 am]
BILLING CODE 4410–09–P
DEPARTMENT OF JUSTICE
Drug Enforcement Administration
[Docket No. 23–7]
Rachel Pittala, APRN; Decision and
Order
On October 18, 2022, the Drug
Enforcement Administration (DEA or
Government) issued an Order to Show
Cause and Immediate Suspension of
Registration (OSC/ISO) to Rachel Pittala,
APRN (Respondent) of Orlando, Florida.
OSC/ISO, at 1. The OSC/ISO informed
Respondent of the immediate
suspension of her DEA Certificate of
Registration, Control No. MP4600791,
pursuant to 21 U.S.C. 824(d), alleging
that Respondent’s continued registration
constitutes ‘‘‘an imminent danger to the
public health or safety.’ ’’ OSC/ISO, at 1
(quoting 21 U.S.C. 824(d)). The OSC/
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ISO also proposed the revocation of
Respondent’s registration, alleging that
Respondent has ‘‘committed such acts
as would render [her] registration
inconsistent with the public interest.’’
Id. at 1, 4 (citing 21 U.S.C. 823(g)(1),1
824(a)(4)).
A hearing was held before DEA
Administrative Law Judge Teresa A.
Wallbaum (the ALJ) who, on May 15,
2023, issued her Recommended Rulings,
Findings of Fact, Conclusions of Law,
and Decision (Recommended Decision
or RD), which recommended revocation
of Respondent’s registration. RD, at 27.
Respondent did not file exceptions to
the RD. Having reviewed the entire
record, the Agency adopts and hereby
incorporates by reference the entirety of
the ALJ’s rulings, credibility findings,2
findings of fact, conclusions of law,
sanctions analysis, and recommended
sanction as found in the RD.
I. Findings of Fact
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Investigation and Undercover Phone
Call
Respondent was a mid-level
practitioner at Sawgrass Health of
Florida (Sawgrass Health), a practice
operated by physician S.H. RD, at 5; Tr.
1 Effective December 2, 2022, the Medical
Marijuana and Cannabidiol Research Expansion
Act, Public Law 117–215, 136 Stat. 2257 (2022)
(Marijuana Research Amendments or MRA),
amended the Controlled Substances Act (CSA) and
other statutes. Relevant to this matter, the MRA
redesignated 21 U.S.C. 823(f), cited in the OSC/ISO,
as 21 U.S.C. 823(g)(1). Accordingly, this Decision
cites to the current designation, 21 U.S.C. 823(g)(1),
and to the MRA-amended CSA throughout.
2 The Agency adopts the ALJ’s summary of each
of the witnesses’ testimonies as well as the ALJ’s
assessment of each of the witnesses’ credibility. See
RD, at 3–13. The Agency agrees with the ALJ that
the Diversion Investigator’s testimony, which was
focused on the uncontroversial introduction of
documentary evidence and the Diversion
Investigator’s contact with the case, was credible in
that it was sufficiently detailed, plausible, and
internally consistent. Id. at 4. The Agency also
agrees with the ALJ that the undercover detective’s
testimony, which was focused on the recorded
phone conversation that the detective had with
Respondent to obtain controlled substances, was
credible in that it was internally consistent as well
as consistent with both the Diversion Investigator’s
testimony and the recording of the detective’s
conversation with Respondent. Id. Further, the
Agency agrees with the ALJ that the testimony from
the Government’s expert witness, which was
focused on Respondent’s treatment of the
undercover detective, was credible and reliable
given the expert’s knowledge of the Florida
standard of care and Florida state law underlying
the standard of care. Id. at 5. Finally, the Agency
agrees with the ALJ that Respondent’s testimony
was not fully credible in that it was unclear,
evasive, and both internally contradictory and
contradictory with the recording of the detective’s
conversation with Respondent. Id. at 12–13.
Specifically, Respondent contradicted herself
multiple times regarding her reasoning for
prescribing Adderall, her reasoning for prescribing
Adderall and Klonopin together, and the extent of
her autonomy in treating patients. Id.
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37, 44. On April 4, 2022, an undercover
detective (UC) posing as a patient went
to Sawgrass Health and recorded his
visit with S.H. and his attempt to obtain
prescriptions. RD, at 5; Tr. 46–47, 74.
Respondent was not present during the
visit. RD, at 5; Tr. 66. UC testified that
during the visit, S.H. did not perform a
physical examination, take vital signs,
or obtain a medical history; further, S.H.
indicated that he would not be issuing
any prescriptions and that Respondent
would follow up with UC to issue him
prescriptions. RD, at 5–6; Tr. 83, 92,
112. On April 5, 2022, Respondent and
UC had a phone call. RD, at 6; Tr. 92,
94–95; GX 6–7.
At the beginning of the call,
Respondent stated to UC, ‘‘[S.H.] sent
me a message and . . . asked me to give
you a call so we can . . . see whatcha
need,’’ and then immediately asked UC
‘‘what medication [he was] needing.’’
RD, at 6; GX 8, at 1. UC stated that he
wanted Adderall, to which Respondent
asked UC if he had attention-deficit/
hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) and UC
replied, ‘‘No I don’t I just . . . like
taking it[.] I don’t . . . have any medical
stuff.’’ Id. UC told Respondent that he
was buying 30 mg tablets of Adderall,
the highest strength of Adderall tablets,
from a friend but that he did not want
to continue purchasing them from his
friend. Id.; Tr. 161. Then, Respondent
stated, ‘‘[S]o I do have to put[,] in order
to legally prescribe this medication for
you[,] [ ] I have to document that you
have a diagnosis of ADHD.’’ RD, at 6;
GX 8, at 4. When UC was nonresponsive, Respondent reiterated, ‘‘I
have to document that otherwise I can’t
prescribe it,’’ to which UC replied, ‘‘Ok
well I mean whatever you gotta put
down.’’ Id. Respondent asked UC if he
was ever told as a child that he had
ADHD to which UC said no twice; then
Respondent stated, ‘‘Oh ok so . . . a
friend just let you try it out and it just
gives you energy and helps you
concentrate better,’’ to which UC
replied, ‘‘Yeah.’’ Id.
Following Respondent’s indication
that she would send a prescription for
Adderall to UC’s pharmacy, UC also
asked Respondent for a Xanax 3
prescription. RD, at 6; GX 8, at 4.
Respondent then stated that Sawgrass
Health did not issue Xanax
prescriptions, to which UC replied that
he would ‘‘keep getting that from [his]
friend then.’’ RD, at 6; GX 8, at 5.
Respondent discouraged UC from
buying Xanax from friends because the
pills could be dangerous and
illegitimate; Respondent and UC also
3 Xanax
is a brand name for alprazolam. RD, at
6.
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63127
briefly discussed the dangers of fentanyl
and Respondent said that she could give
UC Klonopin 4 instead of Xanax, but UC
would need to choose between the
Klonopin and Adderall prescriptions
because Respondent was ‘‘trying not to
do too much combinations’’ and she
would need to check with S.H. RD, at
6; GX 8, at 5–6. Respondent told UC that
he had to promise that he would not be
‘‘using anything on the street’’ if she
gave him the prescriptions. RD, at 7; GX
8, at 7; Tr. 114. Respondent stated to
UC, ‘‘[y]ou have a lot of anxiety,’’ to
which UC responded, ‘‘[n]o . . . I just
started taking it when they . . . gave it
to me and I was like alright I’ll try it.’’
RD, at 7; GX 8, at 7–8. When
Respondent asked UC if he took Xanax
for anxiety or to relax, UC said that it
was ‘‘[m]ore of a relax’’ and said that he
either took Xanax or ‘‘smoke[d] weed’’
to relax. RD, at 7; GX 8, at 8.
Respondent and UC again discussed
the dangers of fentanyl; Respondent told
UC that he did the right thing by coming
to see S.H. and asked that UC not
purchase anything illicitly. RD, at 7; GX
8, at 8–10. At the conclusion of the
phone call, Respondent told UC that she
would issue him prescriptions for 30 mg
tablets of Adderall and 1 mg tablets of
Klonopin. RD, at 7; GX 8, at 5–6, 10–11.
After his call with Respondent, UC went
to the pharmacy where Respondent had
sent his prescriptions, filled the
prescriptions, and obtained the
controlled substances. RD, at 7; Tr. 106–
108; GX 9a; GX 9b; GX 11.
Respondent
Respondent worked at Sawgrass
Health and signed a collaborative
agreement with S.H. for him to be her
supervising physician. RD, at 8; Tr. 221–
222, 225–226, 230; RX 2.5 6 When
treating patients at Sawgrass Health,
S.H. would establish care with new
4 Klonopin is a brand name for clonazepam. RD,
at 6.
5 Under the collaborative agreement, Respondent
had the authority to, among other things, determine
if a patient should receive treatment; examine and
initiate treatment of a patient’s mental health and
psychiatric conditions; prescribe controlled and
non-controlled substances; and ultimately manage
the patient’s care and make her own decisions
regarding the proper diagnosis and treatment. RD,
at 8; Tr. 305–310; RX 2.
6 Respondent viewed S.H. as a mentor and expert
in addiction due to his experience at the Betty Ford
Clinic and his success in treating patients abusing
methamphetamine, cocaine, and other substances
by prescribing Adderall. RD, at 9; Tr. 233–234, 244–
245, 299, 388–389, 406, 411. Respondent testified
that although she now recognizes that Adderall
should not be prescribed to treat drug abuse, she
had previously ‘‘felt confident and comfortable’’
trusting S.H.’s opinion and S.H. had ‘‘felt that it was
a good practice’’ despite a lack of published studies
regarding the use of Adderall for managing drug
abuse. RD, at 9; Tr. 244–245, 249.
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patients and then assign patients to
Respondent. RD, at 8; Tr. 229.7 When
Respondent began treatment of a
patient, she became independently
responsible for deciding the course of
treatment including what, if any,
medications to prescribe, with
recommendations from S.H. RD, at 8–9;
Tr. 358–359.
Regarding the current matter,
Respondent testified that prior to the
phone call with UC, S.H. had provided
her with a verbal history and indicated
that UC had a substance use disorder,
but S.H. specifically stated that he did
not diagnose UC with ADHD or anxiety.
RD, at 9; Tr. 371–373, 393, 395–397.8
Respondent testified that she issued the
Adderall prescription to UC because of
S.H.’s recommendation that Adderall
was an effective treatment for patients
with substance use disorder, and
Respondent documented a diagnosis of
ADHD because there were no ICD
codes 9 that allowed for Adderall to be
prescribed for substance use disorder.
RD, at 10; Tr. 380–381. Respondent also
stated that she prescribed the Adderall
because she was concerned that UC was
illicitly purchasing it and could
potentially take something laced with
fentanyl. RD, at 10; Tr. 374–375, 380–
382.
Regarding the Klonopin prescription,
Respondent testified that she prescribed
Klonopin to UC because she wanted to
keep him safe and further explore a plan
of care with follow-up visits. RD, at 10;
Tr. 385–386.10 Respondent testified that
although UC stated multiple times that
he did not have anxiety, she believed
that his statements about wanting a
benzodiazepine to relax were an
indicator of generalized anxiety disorder
(GAD); however, Respondent
acknowledged that UC’s statements
about wanting to relax were not enough
to establish a diagnosis of GAD and S.H.
had not provided any diagnosis
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7 Respondent
exclusively provided care via
telemedicine and never went to Sawgrass Health.
RD, at 8; Tr. 232, 351. Following an in-person visit
with a new patient, S.H. would contact Respondent
to assign her the patient, give Respondent
background on the patient, state a diagnosis, and
make recommendations about treatment. RD, at 8;
Tr. 251–252, 356.
8 Respondent testified that UC ‘‘didn’t have an
extensive history’’ compared to other mental health
patients that she treated and that she had no
medical records for UC, so her conversation with
S.H. was the only information she had besides what
UC told her during their phone call. RD, at 9; Tr.
253–254, 372, 395.
9 Respondent testified that ICD codes are codes
that represent a diagnosis and are attached to
medications that are prescribed to treat the
diagnosis. RD, at 10 n.9; Tr. 387–388.
10 On cross-examination, Respondent admitted
that if a patient is not receiving controlled
substances pursuant to a prescription, ‘‘then that
would be illicit drug use.’’ RD, at 11; Tr. 300–301.
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justifying a benzodiazepine
prescription. RD, at 10–11; Tr. 378, 385,
397, 399–400.
In the time since her call with UC and
since leaving Sawgrass Health,
Respondent has obtained her postmaster’s certification to treat psychiatric
and mental health conditions as well as
completed two additional courses, one
regarding safely and effectively
prescribing controlled substances in
Florida and the other regarding the laws
and rules governing nursing in Florida.
RD, at 11; Tr. 248–249; RX 8–9.
Respondent testified that this training
‘‘really clarified some things for [her].’’
RD, at 11; Tr. 247. Respondent also
testified that she now understands that
S.H.’s opinion on Adderall was wrong
and that she violated the CSA. RD, at 11;
Tr. 249, 299.11
Florida Standard of Care
DEA hired Dr. Kennedy to testify as
an expert in the standard of care in
prescribing controlled substances in
Florida, including for the management
of pain and addiction and including
prescribing by nurse practitioners. RD,
at 4; Tr. 136–137.12 Dr. Kennedy
testified that a nurse practitioner is
independently responsible for the
controlled substance prescriptions that
he or she issues and remains subject to
any obligations under the Florida
standard of care even if he or she has
a collaborative agreement with a
physician. RD, at 13; Tr. 186, 189, 204.
According to Dr. Kennedy, the Florida
standard of care requires that a nurse
practitioner perform a physical
examination,13 obtain a medical history,
create an individualized treatment plan,
and maintain accurate and complete
records. RD, at 13; Tr. 147. Further, a
nurse practitioner may only prescribe
controlled substances for a legitimate
11 Respondent
stated that, at the time she
prescribed Adderall, she ‘‘did not willingly violate
the Nurse Practice Act.’’ RD, at 11; Tr. 246.
Respondent also stated that she should have done
a further assessment, assigned diagnostic criteria
more appropriately, and used the ADHD and GAD
screening questionnaires before prescribing
Adderall and Klonopin. RD, at 11; Tr. 412.
Respondent admitted that even when a patient
reports having a particular condition, a practitioner
must still evaluate the patient and confirm the
diagnosis before prescribing controlled substances,
and it was inappropriate for her to document a
diagnosis or ICD code for a condition that a patient
did not have. RD, at 11; Tr. 285–286, 291–292, 294–
295, 394–395.
12 For Dr. Kennedy’s qualifications, see RD, at 4–
5; Tr. 119, 124–129, 132–133, 135, 188. Dr.
Kennedy testified that Florida statutes and Florida
medical board regulations form the Florida standard
of care. RD, at 13; Tr. 130–131.
13 When treating a patient for a psychiatric
condition, the physical examination may be a
mental status examination or diagnostic interview
without physical contact. RD, at 14; Tr. 182.
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medical purpose and cannot provide
treatment beyond his or her training.
RD, at 14; Tr. 140–141.14 Dr. Kennedy
also testified that a nurse practitioner
must monitor for red flags,15 and to
resolve a red flag, a nurse practitioner
must, at a minimum, discuss and define
the red flag with the patient and
document it. RD, at 14; Tr. 154–155.
Regarding the prescribing of Adderall by
a nurse practitioner, Dr. Kennedy
testified that under the Florida standard
of care, a nurse practitioner can only
prescribe Adderall for patients falling
into one of three categories 16 and must
consider the FDA ‘‘Black Box’’ warning
for Adderall before prescribing it to a
patient.17 RD, at 14; Tr. 169, 419–420.
In reviewing the current matter, Dr.
Kennedy determined, and the Agency
agrees, that Respondent issued both
prescriptions to UC beneath the Florida
standard of care because, as detailed
above, Respondent failed to make a
diagnosis justifying either prescription,
failed to take a medical history, failed to
perform a physical examination, and
failed to accurately document her
treatment. RD, at 15; Tr. 170–172.
Respondent’s diagnostic procedure
consisted of asking UC if he had ADHD
and anxiety, to which UC repeatedly
stated that he did not have either
condition and wanted to take Adderall
and Klonopin because he liked them
and wanted to relax; and, Respondent
ultimately failed to diagnose UC with
any condition justifying either
prescription, as well as ignored the FDA
‘‘Black Box’’ warning for Adderall in
particular. RD, at 15–16; 159, 163–164,
166–169, 171–172, 419–420; GX 8, at 4,
8. Moreover, Respondent did not take a
medical history for either prescription,
did not perform any diagnostic
interview for either prescription, failed
14 Dr. Kennedy noted that it would be outside of
the standard of care to prescribe controlled
substances solely for the purpose of preventing a
patient from obtaining controlled substances
illicitly and that such a situation would more likely
warrant ‘‘a very strong reason not to prescribe that
medication.’’ RD, at 14; Tr. 422, 424.
15 Dr. Kennedy defined red flags as ‘‘cautionary
things’’ that should raise a practitioner’s attention
and indicated that a patient stating that he or she
obtains controlled substances from an illicit source
‘‘would be a big red flag.’’ RD, at 14; Tr. 154–155.
Moreover, a history of drug abuse would also
constitute a red flag. RD, at 14; Tr. 153–154.
16 The three categories include: (1) patients with
narcolepsy, patients with ADHD, or children with
behavioral syndrome; (2) patients receiving a
differential diagnostic psychiatric evaluation of
depression or treatment of depression that has been
refractory to other therapies; and (3) patients
participating in clinical investigations. RD, at 14;
Tr. 169.
17 The ‘‘Black Box’’ warning for Adderall states
that Adderall has a high potential for abuse and
diversion and should not be prescribed to patients
with a history of drug abuse. RD, at 14; Tr. 151–
154; GX 12, at 1.
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to properly address clear red flags of
diversion and abuse, and knowingly
documented false diagnoses of ADHD
and GAD. RD, at 15–16; Tr. 161–162,
164, 167–168, 170, 172–173, 180–182,
197–200, 202, 400–401, 422–423; GX 8
at 4–5, 7–8.
II. Discussion
A. The Five Public Interest Factors
Under the CSA, ‘‘[a] registration . . .
to . . . dispense a controlled substance
. . . may be suspended or revoked by
the Attorney General upon a finding
that the registrant . . . has committed
such acts as would render her
registration under section 823 of this
title inconsistent with the public
interest as determined under such
section.’’ 21 U.S.C. 824(a). In making the
public interest determination, the CSA
requires consideration of the following
factors:
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(A) The recommendation of the
appropriate State licensing board or
professional disciplinary authority.
(B) The [registrant’s] experience in
dispensing, or conducting research with
respect to controlled substances.
(C) The [registrant’s] conviction record
under Federal or State laws relating to the
manufacture, distribution, or dispensing of
controlled substances.
(D) Compliance with applicable State,
Federal, or local laws relating to controlled
substances.
(E) Such other conduct which may threaten
the public health and safety.
21 U.S.C. 823(g)(1).
The DEA considers these public
interest factors in the disjunctive. Robert
A. Leslie, M.D., 68 FR 15,227, 15,230
(2003). Each factor is weighed on a caseby-case basis. Morall v. Drug Enf’t
Admin., 412 F.3d 165, 173–74 (D.C. Cir.
2005). Any one factor, or combination of
factors, may be decisive. David H. Gillis,
M.D., 58 FR 37,507, 37,508 (1993).
The Government has the burden of
proof in this proceeding. 21 CFR
1301.44. While the Agency has
considered all of the public interest
factors in 21 U.S.C. 823(g)(1), the
Government’s evidence in support of its
prima facie case for revocation of
Respondent’s registration is confined to
Factors B and D. RD, at 18; see also RD,
at 18. n.16 (finding that Factors A, C,
and E do not weigh for or against
revocation).
Having reviewed the record and the
RD, the Agency agrees with the ALJ,
adopts the ALJ’s analysis, and finds that
the Government’s evidence satisfies its
prima facie burden of showing that
Respondent’s continued registration
would be ‘‘inconsistent with the public
interest.’’ 21 U.S.C. 824(a)(4). RD, at 18–
23.
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B. Factors B and D
Evidence is considered under Public
Interest Factors B and D when it reflects
compliance (or non-compliance) with
laws related to controlled substances
and experience dispensing controlled
substances. See Sualeh Ashraf, M.D., 88
FR 1095, 1097 (2023); Kareem Hubbard,
M.D., 87 FR 21156, 21162 (2022). DEA
regulations require that for a
prescription for a controlled substance
to be effective, it must be issued for a
legitimate medical purpose by an
individual practitioner acting in the
usual course of professional practice. 21
CFR 1306.04(a); see also 21 U.S.C. 829.
Further, Florida state law provides that
a practitioner, including an advanced
practice registered nurse, may only
prescribe controlled substances when
acting in good faith and in the course of
professional practice. Fla. Stat.
893.02(3), 893.05(1)(a). Florida state law
also provides that a nurse practitioner
may be subject to discipline for, among
other things, prescribing controlled
substances for any purpose other than
legitimate purposes 18 and for ‘‘[f]ailing
to meet minimal standards of acceptable
and prevailing nursing practice,
including engaging in acts for which the
nurse is not qualified by training or
experience.’’ Id. 464.018(1)(i), (n).
Under Florida state law, it is ‘‘legally
presumed that prescribing . . .
controlled substances[ ] inappropriately
. . . is not in the best interest of the
patient and is not in the course of the
advanced practice registered nurse’s
professional practice, without regard to
his or her intent.’’ Id. 464.018(1)(p)(6).
Finally, Florida state law only
authorizes the prescribing of
amphetamines by a nurse practitioner
for three specific purposes: (1) to treat
patients with narcolepsy, patients with
ADHD, or children with behavioral
syndrome; (2) to treat patients receiving
a differential diagnostic psychiatric
evaluation of depression or treatment of
depression that has been refractory to
other therapies; and (3) to patients
participating in clinical investigations.
Id. 464.018(1)(p)(3).
In the current matter, the Agency
agrees with the ALJ’s analysis that
Respondent issued prescriptions for
Adderall and Klonopin to UC beneath
the Florida standard of care and thus
violated Federal and State Law because,
as detailed above, Respondent failed to
make a diagnosis justifying either
prescription, failed to take a medical
history, failed to perform a physical
examination (conduct a diagnostic
18 Legitimate purposes are as authorized by Fla.
Stat. § 464.001–464.027 (the Nurse Practice Act).
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63129
interview), and failed to accurately
document her treatment. RD, at 20.
Instead, Respondent ‘‘prescribed two
controlled substances to a person who
repeatedly denied having any medical
justification for those medications,
repeatedly admitted that he was
obtaining controlled substances
illegally, and admitted that he wanted
the controlled substances for
recreational use.’’ Id. Moreover,
Respondent knowingly created and
documented false diagnoses to issue the
prescriptions for an improper purpose,
that is, to prevent UC from illicitly
obtaining controlled substances. Id. at
20, 21.
As Respondent’s conduct displays
clear violations of the federal and state
regulations described above, the Agency
agrees with the ALJ and hereby finds
that Respondent violated 21 CFR
1306.04(a) and Fla. Stat. 464.018(1)(i),
464.018(1)(n), 464.018(1)(p)(3),
464.018(1)(p)(6), 893.02(3), 893.05(1)(a).
RD, at 23. Accordingly, the Agency
agrees with the ALJ and finds that
Factors B and D weigh in favor of
revocation of Respondent’s registration
and thus finds Respondent’s continued
registration to be inconsistent with the
public interest in balancing the factors
of 21 U.S.C. 823(g)(1). Id.
III. Sanction
Where, as here, the Government has
established sufficient grounds to revoke
Respondent’s registration, the burden
shifts to the registrant to show why she
can be entrusted with the responsibility
carried by a registration. Garret Howard
Smith, M.D., 83 FR 18882, 18910 (2018).
When a registrant has committed acts
inconsistent with the public interest,
she must both accept responsibility and
demonstrate that she has undertaken
corrective measures. Holiday CVS,
L.L.C., dba CVS Pharmacy Nos 219 and
5195, 77 FR 62316, 62339 (2012)
(internal quotations omitted). Trust is
necessarily a fact-dependent
determination based on individual
circumstances; therefore, the Agency
looks at factors such as the acceptance
of responsibility, the credibility of that
acceptance as it relates to the
probability of repeat violations or
behavior, the nature of the misconduct
that forms the basis for sanction, and the
Agency’s interest in deterring similar
acts. See, e.g., Robert Wayne Locklear,
M.D., 86 FR 33738, 33746 (2021).
Here, the Agency agrees with the ALJ
that Respondent failed to accept
responsibility because ‘‘[w]hile [she]
acknowledged that she made mistakes
with [UC] and would do things
differently if she had the opportunity,
she made excuses and shifted blame,’’
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such as repeatedly emphasizing that she
had been trying to prevent UC from
taking illicit controlled substances. RD,
at 24–25.
When a registrant fails to make the
threshold showing of acceptance of
responsibility, the Agency need not
address the registrant’s remedial
measures. Ajay S. Ahuja, M.D., 84 FR
5479, 5498 n.33 (2019) (citing Jones
Total Health Care Pharmacy, L.L.C. &
SND Health Care, L.L.C., 81 FR 79188,
79202–03 (2016)); Daniel A. Glick,
D.D.S., 80 FR 74800, 74801, 74810
(2015). Even so, in the current matter,
the Agency agrees with the ALJ that
although Respondent indicated that she
has obtained her post-master’s
certification to treat psychiatric and
mental health conditions as well as
completed two additional courses, one
regarding safely and effectively
prescribing controlled substances in
Florida and the other regarding the laws
and rules governing nursing in Florida,
‘‘these measures are inadequate in the
face of her actions.’’ RD, at 25.
In addition to acceptance of
responsibility, the Agency considers
both specific and general deterrence
when determining an appropriate
sanction. Daniel A. Glick, D.D.S., 80 FR
74810. In this case, the Agency agrees
with the ALJ that revocation will
remind practitioners that a prescriber is
independently responsible for the
prescriptions that he or she issues. RD,
at 27. Regarding Respondent in
particular, ‘‘[a]ny sanction short of
revocation would fail to deter
Respondent from ignoring red flags of
diversion and prescribing controlled
substances for other than legitimate
medical purposes.’’ Id. Moreover, the
Agency agrees with the ALJ that
Respondent’s actions were egregious
because Respondent knowingly
recorded two false diagnoses when she
documented ADHD and GAD to justify
prescribing UC Adderall and Klonopin
despite no medical justification for
issuing the two prescriptions and in the
face of obvious signs of diversion. RD,
at 26–27.
In sum, Respondent has not offered
any credible evidence on the record to
rebut the Government’s case for
revocation of her registration and
Respondent has not demonstrated that
she can be entrusted with the
responsibility of registration. RD, at 27.
Accordingly, the Agency will order that
Respondent’s registration be revoked.
Order
Pursuant to 28 CFR 0.100(b) and the
authority vested in me by 21 U.S.C.
824(a), I hereby revoke DEA Certificate
of Registration No. MP4600791 issued to
VerDate Sep<11>2014
17:47 Sep 13, 2023
Jkt 259001
Rachel Pittala, APRN. Further, pursuant
to 28 CFR 0.100(b) and the authority
vested in me by 21 U.S.C. 823(g)(1), I
hereby deny any pending applications
of Rachel Pittala, APRN, to renew or
modify this registration, as well as any
other pending application of Rachel
Pittala, APRN, for additional registration
in Florida. This Order is effective
October 16, 2023.
Signing Authority
This document of the Drug
Enforcement Administration was signed
on September 5, 2023, by Administrator
Anne Milgram. That document with the
original signature and date is
maintained by DEA. For administrative
purposes only, and in compliance with
requirements of the Office of the Federal
Register, the undersigned DEA Federal
Register Liaison Officer has been
authorized to sign and submit the
document in electronic format for
publication, as an official document of
DEA. This administrative process in no
way alters the legal effect of this
document upon publication in the
Federal Register.
Scott Brinks,
Federal Register Liaison Officer, Drug
Enforcement Administration.
[FR Doc. 2023–19819 Filed 9–13–23; 8:45 am]
BILLING CODE 4410–09–P
advance with Gregory Joy (contact
information below).
FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:
Gregory Joy, Policy Advisor, Bureau of
Justice Assistance, Office of Justice
Programs, by telephone at (202) 514–
1369, or by email at Gregory.joy@
usdoj.gov.
The
Public Safety Officer Medal of Valor
Review Board carries out those advisory
functions specified in 42 U.S.C. 15202.
Pursuant to 42 U.S.C. 15201, the
President of the United States is
authorized to award the Public Safety
Officer Medal of Valor, the highest
national award for valor by a public
safety officer.
This virtual meeting/conference call
is open to the public to participate
remotely. For security purposes,
members of the public who wish to
participate must register at least seven
(7) days in advance of the meeting/
conference call by contacting Mr. Joy.
Access to the virtual meeting/
conference call will not be allowed
without prior registration. Please submit
any comments or written statements for
consideration by the Review Board in
writing at least seven (7) days in
advance of the meeting date.
SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:
Gregory Joy,
Policy Advisor/Designated Federal Officer,
Bureau of Justice Assistance.
[FR Doc. 2023–19918 Filed 9–13–23; 8:45 am]
DEPARTMENT OF JUSTICE
BILLING CODE 4410–18–P
Office of Justice Programs
DEPARTMENT OF JUSTICE
[OJP (BJA) Docket No. 1815]
Meeting of the Public Safety Officer
Medal of Valor Review Board
Office of Justice Programs
Office of Justice Programs
(OJP), Bureau of Justice Assistance
(BJA).
ACTION: Notice of meeting.
Meeting of the Public Safety Officer
Medal of Valor Review Board
AGENCY:
This is an announcement of a
meeting (via WebEx/conference call-in)
of the Public Safety Officer Medal of
Valor Review Board to consider
nominations for the 2022–2023 Medal of
Valor, and to make a limited number of
recommendations for submission to the
U.S. Attorney General to be cited.
Additional issues of importance to the
Board may also be discussed.
DATES: October 12, 2023, 12:30 p.m. to
3:00 p.m. EDT.
ADDRESSES: This meeting will be held
virtually using web conferencing
technology. The public may hear the
proceedings of this virtual meeting/
conference call by registering with
Gregory Joy at last seven (7) days in
SUMMARY:
PO 00000
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Fmt 4703
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[OJP (BJA) Docket No. 1816]
Office of Justice Programs
(OJP), Bureau of Justice Assistance
(BJA).
ACTION: Notice of meeting.
AGENCY:
This is an announcement of a
meeting (via WebEx/conference call-in)
of the Public Safety Officer Medal of
Valor Review Board to cover a range of
issues of importance to the Board, to
include but not limited to: Membership/
terms; Board Bylaws; program
marketing and outreach.
DATES: November 15, 2023, 1:00 p.m. to
2:00 p.m. EST.
ADDRESSES: This meeting will be held
virtually using web conferencing
technology. The public may hear the
proceedings of this virtual meeting/
conference call by registering at last
SUMMARY:
E:\FR\FM\14SEN1.SGM
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Agencies
[Federal Register Volume 88, Number 177 (Thursday, September 14, 2023)]
[Notices]
[Pages 63126-63130]
From the Federal Register Online via the Government Publishing Office [www.gpo.gov]
[FR Doc No: 2023-19819]
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DEPARTMENT OF JUSTICE
Drug Enforcement Administration
[Docket No. 23-7]
Rachel Pittala, APRN; Decision and Order
On October 18, 2022, the Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA or
Government) issued an Order to Show Cause and Immediate Suspension of
Registration (OSC/ISO) to Rachel Pittala, APRN (Respondent) of Orlando,
Florida. OSC/ISO, at 1. The OSC/ISO informed Respondent of the
immediate suspension of her DEA Certificate of Registration, Control
No. MP4600791, pursuant to 21 U.S.C. 824(d), alleging that Respondent's
continued registration constitutes ```an imminent danger to the public
health or safety.' '' OSC/ISO, at 1 (quoting 21 U.S.C. 824(d)). The
OSC/
[[Page 63127]]
ISO also proposed the revocation of Respondent's registration, alleging
that Respondent has ``committed such acts as would render [her]
registration inconsistent with the public interest.'' Id. at 1, 4
(citing 21 U.S.C. 823(g)(1),\1\ 824(a)(4)).
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
\1\ Effective December 2, 2022, the Medical Marijuana and
Cannabidiol Research Expansion Act, Public Law 117-215, 136 Stat.
2257 (2022) (Marijuana Research Amendments or MRA), amended the
Controlled Substances Act (CSA) and other statutes. Relevant to this
matter, the MRA redesignated 21 U.S.C. 823(f), cited in the OSC/ISO,
as 21 U.S.C. 823(g)(1). Accordingly, this Decision cites to the
current designation, 21 U.S.C. 823(g)(1), and to the MRA-amended CSA
throughout.
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
A hearing was held before DEA Administrative Law Judge Teresa A.
Wallbaum (the ALJ) who, on May 15, 2023, issued her Recommended
Rulings, Findings of Fact, Conclusions of Law, and Decision
(Recommended Decision or RD), which recommended revocation of
Respondent's registration. RD, at 27. Respondent did not file
exceptions to the RD. Having reviewed the entire record, the Agency
adopts and hereby incorporates by reference the entirety of the ALJ's
rulings, credibility findings,\2\ findings of fact, conclusions of law,
sanctions analysis, and recommended sanction as found in the RD.
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
\2\ The Agency adopts the ALJ's summary of each of the
witnesses' testimonies as well as the ALJ's assessment of each of
the witnesses' credibility. See RD, at 3-13. The Agency agrees with
the ALJ that the Diversion Investigator's testimony, which was
focused on the uncontroversial introduction of documentary evidence
and the Diversion Investigator's contact with the case, was credible
in that it was sufficiently detailed, plausible, and internally
consistent. Id. at 4. The Agency also agrees with the ALJ that the
undercover detective's testimony, which was focused on the recorded
phone conversation that the detective had with Respondent to obtain
controlled substances, was credible in that it was internally
consistent as well as consistent with both the Diversion
Investigator's testimony and the recording of the detective's
conversation with Respondent. Id. Further, the Agency agrees with
the ALJ that the testimony from the Government's expert witness,
which was focused on Respondent's treatment of the undercover
detective, was credible and reliable given the expert's knowledge of
the Florida standard of care and Florida state law underlying the
standard of care. Id. at 5. Finally, the Agency agrees with the ALJ
that Respondent's testimony was not fully credible in that it was
unclear, evasive, and both internally contradictory and
contradictory with the recording of the detective's conversation
with Respondent. Id. at 12-13. Specifically, Respondent contradicted
herself multiple times regarding her reasoning for prescribing
Adderall, her reasoning for prescribing Adderall and Klonopin
together, and the extent of her autonomy in treating patients. Id.
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
I. Findings of Fact
Investigation and Undercover Phone Call
Respondent was a mid-level practitioner at Sawgrass Health of
Florida (Sawgrass Health), a practice operated by physician S.H. RD, at
5; Tr. 37, 44. On April 4, 2022, an undercover detective (UC) posing as
a patient went to Sawgrass Health and recorded his visit with S.H. and
his attempt to obtain prescriptions. RD, at 5; Tr. 46-47, 74.
Respondent was not present during the visit. RD, at 5; Tr. 66. UC
testified that during the visit, S.H. did not perform a physical
examination, take vital signs, or obtain a medical history; further,
S.H. indicated that he would not be issuing any prescriptions and that
Respondent would follow up with UC to issue him prescriptions. RD, at
5-6; Tr. 83, 92, 112. On April 5, 2022, Respondent and UC had a phone
call. RD, at 6; Tr. 92, 94-95; GX 6-7.
At the beginning of the call, Respondent stated to UC, ``[S.H.]
sent me a message and . . . asked me to give you a call so we can . . .
see whatcha need,'' and then immediately asked UC ``what medication [he
was] needing.'' RD, at 6; GX 8, at 1. UC stated that he wanted
Adderall, to which Respondent asked UC if he had attention-deficit/
hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) and UC replied, ``No I don't I just . . .
like taking it[.] I don't . . . have any medical stuff.'' Id. UC told
Respondent that he was buying 30 mg tablets of Adderall, the highest
strength of Adderall tablets, from a friend but that he did not want to
continue purchasing them from his friend. Id.; Tr. 161. Then,
Respondent stated, ``[S]o I do have to put[,] in order to legally
prescribe this medication for you[,] [ ] I have to document that you
have a diagnosis of ADHD.'' RD, at 6; GX 8, at 4. When UC was non-
responsive, Respondent reiterated, ``I have to document that otherwise
I can't prescribe it,'' to which UC replied, ``Ok well I mean whatever
you gotta put down.'' Id. Respondent asked UC if he was ever told as a
child that he had ADHD to which UC said no twice; then Respondent
stated, ``Oh ok so . . . a friend just let you try it out and it just
gives you energy and helps you concentrate better,'' to which UC
replied, ``Yeah.'' Id.
Following Respondent's indication that she would send a
prescription for Adderall to UC's pharmacy, UC also asked Respondent
for a Xanax \3\ prescription. RD, at 6; GX 8, at 4. Respondent then
stated that Sawgrass Health did not issue Xanax prescriptions, to which
UC replied that he would ``keep getting that from [his] friend then.''
RD, at 6; GX 8, at 5. Respondent discouraged UC from buying Xanax from
friends because the pills could be dangerous and illegitimate;
Respondent and UC also briefly discussed the dangers of fentanyl and
Respondent said that she could give UC Klonopin \4\ instead of Xanax,
but UC would need to choose between the Klonopin and Adderall
prescriptions because Respondent was ``trying not to do too much
combinations'' and she would need to check with S.H. RD, at 6; GX 8, at
5-6. Respondent told UC that he had to promise that he would not be
``using anything on the street'' if she gave him the prescriptions. RD,
at 7; GX 8, at 7; Tr. 114. Respondent stated to UC, ``[y]ou have a lot
of anxiety,'' to which UC responded, ``[n]o . . . I just started taking
it when they . . . gave it to me and I was like alright I'll try it.''
RD, at 7; GX 8, at 7-8. When Respondent asked UC if he took Xanax for
anxiety or to relax, UC said that it was ``[m]ore of a relax'' and said
that he either took Xanax or ``smoke[d] weed'' to relax. RD, at 7; GX
8, at 8.
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
\3\ Xanax is a brand name for alprazolam. RD, at 6.
\4\ Klonopin is a brand name for clonazepam. RD, at 6.
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
Respondent and UC again discussed the dangers of fentanyl;
Respondent told UC that he did the right thing by coming to see S.H.
and asked that UC not purchase anything illicitly. RD, at 7; GX 8, at
8-10. At the conclusion of the phone call, Respondent told UC that she
would issue him prescriptions for 30 mg tablets of Adderall and 1 mg
tablets of Klonopin. RD, at 7; GX 8, at 5-6, 10-11. After his call with
Respondent, UC went to the pharmacy where Respondent had sent his
prescriptions, filled the prescriptions, and obtained the controlled
substances. RD, at 7; Tr. 106-108; GX 9a; GX 9b; GX 11.
Respondent
Respondent worked at Sawgrass Health and signed a collaborative
agreement with S.H. for him to be her supervising physician. RD, at 8;
Tr. 221-222, 225-226, 230; RX 2.5 6 When treating patients
at Sawgrass Health, S.H. would establish care with new
[[Page 63128]]
patients and then assign patients to Respondent. RD, at 8; Tr. 229.\7\
When Respondent began treatment of a patient, she became independently
responsible for deciding the course of treatment including what, if
any, medications to prescribe, with recommendations from S.H. RD, at 8-
9; Tr. 358-359.
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
\5\ Under the collaborative agreement, Respondent had the
authority to, among other things, determine if a patient should
receive treatment; examine and initiate treatment of a patient's
mental health and psychiatric conditions; prescribe controlled and
non-controlled substances; and ultimately manage the patient's care
and make her own decisions regarding the proper diagnosis and
treatment. RD, at 8; Tr. 305-310; RX 2.
\6\ Respondent viewed S.H. as a mentor and expert in addiction
due to his experience at the Betty Ford Clinic and his success in
treating patients abusing methamphetamine, cocaine, and other
substances by prescribing Adderall. RD, at 9; Tr. 233-234, 244-245,
299, 388-389, 406, 411. Respondent testified that although she now
recognizes that Adderall should not be prescribed to treat drug
abuse, she had previously ``felt confident and comfortable''
trusting S.H.'s opinion and S.H. had ``felt that it was a good
practice'' despite a lack of published studies regarding the use of
Adderall for managing drug abuse. RD, at 9; Tr. 244-245, 249.
\7\ Respondent exclusively provided care via telemedicine and
never went to Sawgrass Health. RD, at 8; Tr. 232, 351. Following an
in-person visit with a new patient, S.H. would contact Respondent to
assign her the patient, give Respondent background on the patient,
state a diagnosis, and make recommendations about treatment. RD, at
8; Tr. 251-252, 356.
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
Regarding the current matter, Respondent testified that prior to
the phone call with UC, S.H. had provided her with a verbal history and
indicated that UC had a substance use disorder, but S.H. specifically
stated that he did not diagnose UC with ADHD or anxiety. RD, at 9; Tr.
371-373, 393, 395-397.\8\ Respondent testified that she issued the
Adderall prescription to UC because of S.H.'s recommendation that
Adderall was an effective treatment for patients with substance use
disorder, and Respondent documented a diagnosis of ADHD because there
were no ICD codes \9\ that allowed for Adderall to be prescribed for
substance use disorder. RD, at 10; Tr. 380-381. Respondent also stated
that she prescribed the Adderall because she was concerned that UC was
illicitly purchasing it and could potentially take something laced with
fentanyl. RD, at 10; Tr. 374-375, 380-382.
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
\8\ Respondent testified that UC ``didn't have an extensive
history'' compared to other mental health patients that she treated
and that she had no medical records for UC, so her conversation with
S.H. was the only information she had besides what UC told her
during their phone call. RD, at 9; Tr. 253-254, 372, 395.
\9\ Respondent testified that ICD codes are codes that represent
a diagnosis and are attached to medications that are prescribed to
treat the diagnosis. RD, at 10 n.9; Tr. 387-388.
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
Regarding the Klonopin prescription, Respondent testified that she
prescribed Klonopin to UC because she wanted to keep him safe and
further explore a plan of care with follow-up visits. RD, at 10; Tr.
385-386.\10\ Respondent testified that although UC stated multiple
times that he did not have anxiety, she believed that his statements
about wanting a benzodiazepine to relax were an indicator of
generalized anxiety disorder (GAD); however, Respondent acknowledged
that UC's statements about wanting to relax were not enough to
establish a diagnosis of GAD and S.H. had not provided any diagnosis
justifying a benzodiazepine prescription. RD, at 10-11; Tr. 378, 385,
397, 399-400.
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
\10\ On cross-examination, Respondent admitted that if a patient
is not receiving controlled substances pursuant to a prescription,
``then that would be illicit drug use.'' RD, at 11; Tr. 300-301.
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
In the time since her call with UC and since leaving Sawgrass
Health, Respondent has obtained her post-master's certification to
treat psychiatric and mental health conditions as well as completed two
additional courses, one regarding safely and effectively prescribing
controlled substances in Florida and the other regarding the laws and
rules governing nursing in Florida. RD, at 11; Tr. 248-249; RX 8-9.
Respondent testified that this training ``really clarified some things
for [her].'' RD, at 11; Tr. 247. Respondent also testified that she now
understands that S.H.'s opinion on Adderall was wrong and that she
violated the CSA. RD, at 11; Tr. 249, 299.\11\
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
\11\ Respondent stated that, at the time she prescribed
Adderall, she ``did not willingly violate the Nurse Practice Act.''
RD, at 11; Tr. 246. Respondent also stated that she should have done
a further assessment, assigned diagnostic criteria more
appropriately, and used the ADHD and GAD screening questionnaires
before prescribing Adderall and Klonopin. RD, at 11; Tr. 412.
Respondent admitted that even when a patient reports having a
particular condition, a practitioner must still evaluate the patient
and confirm the diagnosis before prescribing controlled substances,
and it was inappropriate for her to document a diagnosis or ICD code
for a condition that a patient did not have. RD, at 11; Tr. 285-286,
291-292, 294-295, 394-395.
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
Florida Standard of Care
DEA hired Dr. Kennedy to testify as an expert in the standard of
care in prescribing controlled substances in Florida, including for the
management of pain and addiction and including prescribing by nurse
practitioners. RD, at 4; Tr. 136-137.\12\ Dr. Kennedy testified that a
nurse practitioner is independently responsible for the controlled
substance prescriptions that he or she issues and remains subject to
any obligations under the Florida standard of care even if he or she
has a collaborative agreement with a physician. RD, at 13; Tr. 186,
189, 204. According to Dr. Kennedy, the Florida standard of care
requires that a nurse practitioner perform a physical examination,\13\
obtain a medical history, create an individualized treatment plan, and
maintain accurate and complete records. RD, at 13; Tr. 147. Further, a
nurse practitioner may only prescribe controlled substances for a
legitimate medical purpose and cannot provide treatment beyond his or
her training. RD, at 14; Tr. 140-141.\14\ Dr. Kennedy also testified
that a nurse practitioner must monitor for red flags,\15\ and to
resolve a red flag, a nurse practitioner must, at a minimum, discuss
and define the red flag with the patient and document it. RD, at 14;
Tr. 154-155. Regarding the prescribing of Adderall by a nurse
practitioner, Dr. Kennedy testified that under the Florida standard of
care, a nurse practitioner can only prescribe Adderall for patients
falling into one of three categories \16\ and must consider the FDA
``Black Box'' warning for Adderall before prescribing it to a
patient.\17\ RD, at 14; Tr. 169, 419-420.
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
\12\ For Dr. Kennedy's qualifications, see RD, at 4-5; Tr. 119,
124-129, 132-133, 135, 188. Dr. Kennedy testified that Florida
statutes and Florida medical board regulations form the Florida
standard of care. RD, at 13; Tr. 130-131.
\13\ When treating a patient for a psychiatric condition, the
physical examination may be a mental status examination or
diagnostic interview without physical contact. RD, at 14; Tr. 182.
\14\ Dr. Kennedy noted that it would be outside of the standard
of care to prescribe controlled substances solely for the purpose of
preventing a patient from obtaining controlled substances illicitly
and that such a situation would more likely warrant ``a very strong
reason not to prescribe that medication.'' RD, at 14; Tr. 422, 424.
\15\ Dr. Kennedy defined red flags as ``cautionary things'' that
should raise a practitioner's attention and indicated that a patient
stating that he or she obtains controlled substances from an illicit
source ``would be a big red flag.'' RD, at 14; Tr. 154-155.
Moreover, a history of drug abuse would also constitute a red flag.
RD, at 14; Tr. 153-154.
\16\ The three categories include: (1) patients with narcolepsy,
patients with ADHD, or children with behavioral syndrome; (2)
patients receiving a differential diagnostic psychiatric evaluation
of depression or treatment of depression that has been refractory to
other therapies; and (3) patients participating in clinical
investigations. RD, at 14; Tr. 169.
\17\ The ``Black Box'' warning for Adderall states that Adderall
has a high potential for abuse and diversion and should not be
prescribed to patients with a history of drug abuse. RD, at 14; Tr.
151-154; GX 12, at 1.
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In reviewing the current matter, Dr. Kennedy determined, and the
Agency agrees, that Respondent issued both prescriptions to UC beneath
the Florida standard of care because, as detailed above, Respondent
failed to make a diagnosis justifying either prescription, failed to
take a medical history, failed to perform a physical examination, and
failed to accurately document her treatment. RD, at 15; Tr. 170-172.
Respondent's diagnostic procedure consisted of asking UC if he had ADHD
and anxiety, to which UC repeatedly stated that he did not have either
condition and wanted to take Adderall and Klonopin because he liked
them and wanted to relax; and, Respondent ultimately failed to diagnose
UC with any condition justifying either prescription, as well as
ignored the FDA ``Black Box'' warning for Adderall in particular. RD,
at 15-16; 159, 163-164, 166-169, 171-172, 419-420; GX 8, at 4, 8.
Moreover, Respondent did not take a medical history for either
prescription, did not perform any diagnostic interview for either
prescription, failed
[[Page 63129]]
to properly address clear red flags of diversion and abuse, and
knowingly documented false diagnoses of ADHD and GAD. RD, at 15-16; Tr.
161-162, 164, 167-168, 170, 172-173, 180-182, 197-200, 202, 400-401,
422-423; GX 8 at 4-5, 7-8.
II. Discussion
A. The Five Public Interest Factors
Under the CSA, ``[a] registration . . . to . . . dispense a
controlled substance . . . may be suspended or revoked by the Attorney
General upon a finding that the registrant . . . has committed such
acts as would render her registration under section 823 of this title
inconsistent with the public interest as determined under such
section.'' 21 U.S.C. 824(a). In making the public interest
determination, the CSA requires consideration of the following factors:
(A) The recommendation of the appropriate State licensing board
or professional disciplinary authority.
(B) The [registrant's] experience in dispensing, or conducting
research with respect to controlled substances.
(C) The [registrant's] conviction record under Federal or State
laws relating to the manufacture, distribution, or dispensing of
controlled substances.
(D) Compliance with applicable State, Federal, or local laws
relating to controlled substances.
(E) Such other conduct which may threaten the public health and
safety.
21 U.S.C. 823(g)(1).
The DEA considers these public interest factors in the disjunctive.
Robert A. Leslie, M.D., 68 FR 15,227, 15,230 (2003). Each factor is
weighed on a case-by-case basis. Morall v. Drug Enf't Admin., 412 F.3d
165, 173-74 (D.C. Cir. 2005). Any one factor, or combination of
factors, may be decisive. David H. Gillis, M.D., 58 FR 37,507, 37,508
(1993).
The Government has the burden of proof in this proceeding. 21 CFR
1301.44. While the Agency has considered all of the public interest
factors in 21 U.S.C. 823(g)(1), the Government's evidence in support of
its prima facie case for revocation of Respondent's registration is
confined to Factors B and D. RD, at 18; see also RD, at 18. n.16
(finding that Factors A, C, and E do not weigh for or against
revocation).
Having reviewed the record and the RD, the Agency agrees with the
ALJ, adopts the ALJ's analysis, and finds that the Government's
evidence satisfies its prima facie burden of showing that Respondent's
continued registration would be ``inconsistent with the public
interest.'' 21 U.S.C. 824(a)(4). RD, at 18-23.
B. Factors B and D
Evidence is considered under Public Interest Factors B and D when
it reflects compliance (or non-compliance) with laws related to
controlled substances and experience dispensing controlled substances.
See Sualeh Ashraf, M.D., 88 FR 1095, 1097 (2023); Kareem Hubbard, M.D.,
87 FR 21156, 21162 (2022). DEA regulations require that for a
prescription for a controlled substance to be effective, it must be
issued for a legitimate medical purpose by an individual practitioner
acting in the usual course of professional practice. 21 CFR 1306.04(a);
see also 21 U.S.C. 829. Further, Florida state law provides that a
practitioner, including an advanced practice registered nurse, may only
prescribe controlled substances when acting in good faith and in the
course of professional practice. Fla. Stat. 893.02(3), 893.05(1)(a).
Florida state law also provides that a nurse practitioner may be
subject to discipline for, among other things, prescribing controlled
substances for any purpose other than legitimate purposes \18\ and for
``[f]ailing to meet minimal standards of acceptable and prevailing
nursing practice, including engaging in acts for which the nurse is not
qualified by training or experience.'' Id. 464.018(1)(i), (n). Under
Florida state law, it is ``legally presumed that prescribing . . .
controlled substances[ ] inappropriately . . . is not in the best
interest of the patient and is not in the course of the advanced
practice registered nurse's professional practice, without regard to
his or her intent.'' Id. 464.018(1)(p)(6). Finally, Florida state law
only authorizes the prescribing of amphetamines by a nurse practitioner
for three specific purposes: (1) to treat patients with narcolepsy,
patients with ADHD, or children with behavioral syndrome; (2) to treat
patients receiving a differential diagnostic psychiatric evaluation of
depression or treatment of depression that has been refractory to other
therapies; and (3) to patients participating in clinical
investigations. Id. 464.018(1)(p)(3).
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\18\ Legitimate purposes are as authorized by Fla. Stat. Sec.
464.001-464.027 (the Nurse Practice Act).
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
In the current matter, the Agency agrees with the ALJ's analysis
that Respondent issued prescriptions for Adderall and Klonopin to UC
beneath the Florida standard of care and thus violated Federal and
State Law because, as detailed above, Respondent failed to make a
diagnosis justifying either prescription, failed to take a medical
history, failed to perform a physical examination (conduct a diagnostic
interview), and failed to accurately document her treatment. RD, at 20.
Instead, Respondent ``prescribed two controlled substances to a person
who repeatedly denied having any medical justification for those
medications, repeatedly admitted that he was obtaining controlled
substances illegally, and admitted that he wanted the controlled
substances for recreational use.'' Id. Moreover, Respondent knowingly
created and documented false diagnoses to issue the prescriptions for
an improper purpose, that is, to prevent UC from illicitly obtaining
controlled substances. Id. at 20, 21.
As Respondent's conduct displays clear violations of the federal
and state regulations described above, the Agency agrees with the ALJ
and hereby finds that Respondent violated 21 CFR 1306.04(a) and Fla.
Stat. 464.018(1)(i), 464.018(1)(n), 464.018(1)(p)(3), 464.018(1)(p)(6),
893.02(3), 893.05(1)(a). RD, at 23. Accordingly, the Agency agrees with
the ALJ and finds that Factors B and D weigh in favor of revocation of
Respondent's registration and thus finds Respondent's continued
registration to be inconsistent with the public interest in balancing
the factors of 21 U.S.C. 823(g)(1). Id.
III. Sanction
Where, as here, the Government has established sufficient grounds
to revoke Respondent's registration, the burden shifts to the
registrant to show why she can be entrusted with the responsibility
carried by a registration. Garret Howard Smith, M.D., 83 FR 18882,
18910 (2018). When a registrant has committed acts inconsistent with
the public interest, she must both accept responsibility and
demonstrate that she has undertaken corrective measures. Holiday CVS,
L.L.C., dba CVS Pharmacy Nos 219 and 5195, 77 FR 62316, 62339 (2012)
(internal quotations omitted). Trust is necessarily a fact-dependent
determination based on individual circumstances; therefore, the Agency
looks at factors such as the acceptance of responsibility, the
credibility of that acceptance as it relates to the probability of
repeat violations or behavior, the nature of the misconduct that forms
the basis for sanction, and the Agency's interest in deterring similar
acts. See, e.g., Robert Wayne Locklear, M.D., 86 FR 33738, 33746
(2021).
Here, the Agency agrees with the ALJ that Respondent failed to
accept responsibility because ``[w]hile [she] acknowledged that she
made mistakes with [UC] and would do things differently if she had the
opportunity, she made excuses and shifted blame,''
[[Page 63130]]
such as repeatedly emphasizing that she had been trying to prevent UC
from taking illicit controlled substances. RD, at 24-25.
When a registrant fails to make the threshold showing of acceptance
of responsibility, the Agency need not address the registrant's
remedial measures. Ajay S. Ahuja, M.D., 84 FR 5479, 5498 n.33 (2019)
(citing Jones Total Health Care Pharmacy, L.L.C. & SND Health Care,
L.L.C., 81 FR 79188, 79202-03 (2016)); Daniel A. Glick, D.D.S., 80 FR
74800, 74801, 74810 (2015). Even so, in the current matter, the Agency
agrees with the ALJ that although Respondent indicated that she has
obtained her post-master's certification to treat psychiatric and
mental health conditions as well as completed two additional courses,
one regarding safely and effectively prescribing controlled substances
in Florida and the other regarding the laws and rules governing nursing
in Florida, ``these measures are inadequate in the face of her
actions.'' RD, at 25.
In addition to acceptance of responsibility, the Agency considers
both specific and general deterrence when determining an appropriate
sanction. Daniel A. Glick, D.D.S., 80 FR 74810. In this case, the
Agency agrees with the ALJ that revocation will remind practitioners
that a prescriber is independently responsible for the prescriptions
that he or she issues. RD, at 27. Regarding Respondent in particular,
``[a]ny sanction short of revocation would fail to deter Respondent
from ignoring red flags of diversion and prescribing controlled
substances for other than legitimate medical purposes.'' Id. Moreover,
the Agency agrees with the ALJ that Respondent's actions were egregious
because Respondent knowingly recorded two false diagnoses when she
documented ADHD and GAD to justify prescribing UC Adderall and Klonopin
despite no medical justification for issuing the two prescriptions and
in the face of obvious signs of diversion. RD, at 26-27.
In sum, Respondent has not offered any credible evidence on the
record to rebut the Government's case for revocation of her
registration and Respondent has not demonstrated that she can be
entrusted with the responsibility of registration. RD, at 27.
Accordingly, the Agency will order that Respondent's registration be
revoked.
Order
Pursuant to 28 CFR 0.100(b) and the authority vested in me by 21
U.S.C. 824(a), I hereby revoke DEA Certificate of Registration No.
MP4600791 issued to Rachel Pittala, APRN. Further, pursuant to 28 CFR
0.100(b) and the authority vested in me by 21 U.S.C. 823(g)(1), I
hereby deny any pending applications of Rachel Pittala, APRN, to renew
or modify this registration, as well as any other pending application
of Rachel Pittala, APRN, for additional registration in Florida. This
Order is effective October 16, 2023.
Signing Authority
This document of the Drug Enforcement Administration was signed on
September 5, 2023, by Administrator Anne Milgram. That document with
the original signature and date is maintained by DEA. For
administrative purposes only, and in compliance with requirements of
the Office of the Federal Register, the undersigned DEA Federal
Register Liaison Officer has been authorized to sign and submit the
document in electronic format for publication, as an official document
of DEA. This administrative process in no way alters the legal effect
of this document upon publication in the Federal Register.
Scott Brinks,
Federal Register Liaison Officer, Drug Enforcement Administration.
[FR Doc. 2023-19819 Filed 9-13-23; 8:45 am]
BILLING CODE 4410-09-P