Miscellaneous Amendments, 75704-75849 [2022-23327]
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75704
Federal Register / Vol. 87, No. 236 / Friday, December 9, 2022 / Rules and Regulations
DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION
Federal Aviation Administration
14 CFR Parts 21, 23, 25, 29, 33, 36, 47,
49, 60, 61, 67, 73, 91, 97, 101, 107, 121,
125, 129, 135, 141, 183, and 440
[Docket No. FAA–2022–1355; Amdt. Nos.
21–106, 23–65, 25–146, 29–58, 33–1, 36–32,
47–32, 49–11, 60–7, 61–151, 67–22, 73–1,
91–366, 97–1339, 101–9, 107–10, 121–387,
125–72, 129–54, 135–143, 141–24, 183–18,
440–6]
RIN 2120–AL53
Miscellaneous Amendments
Federal Aviation
Administration (FAA), Department of
Transportation (DOT).
ACTION: Final rule; technical
amendments.
AGENCY:
This technical amendment
contains non-substantive corrections to
address typographical errors, editorial
errors, and outdated or incorrect
references in various parts of FAA
regulations.
SUMMARY:
DATES:
Effective December 9, 2022.
FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:
For
questions concerning this action,
contact Jesse Holston, Office of
Rulemaking, ARM–200, Federal
Aviation Administration, 800
Independence Ave. SW, Washington,
DC 20591; telephone (202) 267–0810;
email jesse.c.holston@faa.gov.
SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:
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I. Good Cause for Immediate Adoption
Without Prior Notice
Section 553(b)(3)(B) of the
Administrative Procedure Act (APA) (5
U.S.C. 551 et seq.) authorizes agencies
to dispense with notice and comment
procedures for rules when the agency
for ‘‘good cause’’ finds that those
procedures are ‘‘impracticable,
unnecessary, or contrary to the public
interest.’’ Under this section, an agency,
upon finding good cause, may issue a
final rule without seeking comment
prior to the rulemaking.
Additionally, the APA requires
agencies to delay the effective date of
regulations for 30 days after publication,
unless the agency finds good cause to
make the regulations effective sooner.
See, 5 U.S.C. 553(d). This action makes
technical amendments that affect the
clarity of existing regulations. These
amendments will not impose any
additional substantive restrictions or
requirements on the persons affected by
these regulations. Because this action
merely makes technical amendments,
the FAA finds that notice and public
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comment under 5 U.S.C. 553(b) is
unnecessary. For the same reason, the
FAA finds that good cause exists under
5 U.S.C. 553(d) for making this rule
effective in less than 30 days.
II. Authority for This Rulemaking
The FAA’s authority to issue rules is
found in title 49 of the United States
Code. Subtitle I, section 106 describes
the authority of the FAA Administrator.
This rulemaking is promulgated under
the authority described in 49 U.S.C.
106(f) and (g), which establish the
authority of the Administrator to
promulgate and revise regulations and
rules related to aviation safety. This
regulation is within the scope of that
authority because the rule makes nonsubstantive edits to regulations related
to aviation safety promulgated under
authorities listed in 49 U.S.C. 106(g).
Portions of this rulemaking are also
authorized under 51 U.S.C. 50903(c),
which authorizes the promulgation of
regulations related to commercial space
launches and reentries.
III. Technical Amendments
The FAA is making technical
amendments to parts 21, 23, 25, 29, 33,
36, 47, 49, 60, 61, 67, 73, 91, 97, 101,
107, 121, 125, 129, 135, 141, 183, and
440 of those regulations found in Title
14 of the Code of Federal Regulations.
All amendments are non-substantive
and correct typographical errors,
editorial errors, and outdated or
incorrect references. The following is a
summary of the various amendments to
each of the above-listed parts.
Part 21
In § 21.619(a), permits the
manufacturer of an article under a
Technical Standard Order (TSO)
authorization to make a minor design
change without FAA approval, so long
as the manufacturer forwards to the
FAA any revised data necessary for
compliance with the application
requirements in § 21.603. However, the
reference to § 21.603(b) is incorrect, as
that section addresses the use of open
brackets to identify minor changes. The
correct reference is to § 21.603(a), which
contains the requirements to include a
statement of conformity and required
technical data in an application for TSO
authorization.
Part 23
In the following sections, the FAA
corrects minor typographical and
grammatical errors: §§ 23.2115(c),
23.2165(a)(1)(i), 23.2200(d), 23.2315(a),
23.2440(c)(2), 23.2520(a), and
23.2620(b).
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In § 23.2120(a), the word
‘‘configuration’’ is removed and
replaced with the word
‘‘configuration(s)’’ to clarify that there
could be multiple initial climb
configurations.
In § 23.2255(c), the word ‘‘aircraft’’ is
removed and replaced with the word
‘‘airplane’’ for consistency with this
section and part 23, which sets forth
airworthiness standards for normal
category airplanes.
In § 23.2400(b), the word ‘‘FAA’’ is
removed and replaced with the word
‘‘Administrator’’ to align with 49 U.S.C.
44704, which identifies that the
Administrator issues type certificates. In
§ 23.2500(b), the change clarifies that
the reference to paragraph (a) refers to
paragraph (a) of § 23.2500. Additional
updates are made to punctuation for
clarity.
In § 23.2600(b), the term ‘‘qualified
flightcrew’’ is removed and replaced
with ‘‘flightcrew members’’ to clarify
that the term ‘‘qualified flightcrew’’ was
not intended to have a different
meaning than the term ‘‘flightcrew
member’’ as defined in 14 CFR part 1.1
Part 25
In § 25.471(b)(2), the reference to
paragraph (c)(1) of § 25.1583 is no
longer accurate because § 25.1583 was
subsequently revised, and the paragraph
numbering changed.2 Thus,
§ 25.471(b)(2) is corrected to refer to
§ 25.1583(c)(2).
In § 25.525(b), the reference to
‘‘§ 25.533(b)’’ is incorrect and is
replaced with a reference to ‘‘25.533(c)’’.
Section 25.533(b) provides local
pressures rather than distributed
pressures, which are the proper
pressures to calculate distributed loads
as described in § 25.525(b). The
distributed pressures are provided in
§ 25.533(c).
In § 25.535(d), the number ‘‘3.25’’ is
incorrect and is replaced with the
number ‘‘0.25’’ as originally stated in
the final rule.3
In § 25.571, the FAA corrects a minor
typographical error.
In § 25.903(a)(3)(ii), the effective date
of § 33.68 is corrected to read ‘‘March
26, 1984’’ because that is the effective
date of Amendment 33–10.
In § 25.903(a)(3)(iii), the effective date
of § 33.68 is corrected to read ‘‘October
31, 1974’’ because that is the effective
date of Amendment 33–6.
In § 25.1517(b), the term ‘‘VMO—35
KTAS’’ is removed and replaced with
‘‘VMO minus 35 KTAS’’ to clarify that
1 See
81 FR 96572 (Dec. 30, 2016).
43 FR 4302 (Jan. 16, 1978).
3 See 29 FR 18289 (Dec. 24, 1964).
2 See
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the ‘‘-’’ symbol was logically intended to
be a minus sign and not a dash.
Part 29
In § 29.1557(d), the cross reference to
§ 29.811(h)(2), which does not exist, is
replaced with the correct cross
reference, § 29.811(f)(2).
Part 33
In § 33.97(a), a comma is added
between the words ‘‘endurance’’ and
‘‘calibration’’ to clarify that both
endurance tests and calibration tests are
required to evaluate thrust reversers and
are separate tests.
Part 36
In § 36.1(a)(4), a spelling error is
corrected.
Part 47
Section 47.9(b) differentiates aircraft
registered prior to January 1, 1980 and
aircraft registered after 1980. As the
aircraft registration dates for all aircraft
currently on the registry are after
January 1, 1980, this differentiation is
no longer necessary. The FAA has
revised § 47.9(b), (b)(1) and (b)(2) to
remove the reference to January 1, 1980
and make conforming changes resulting
from the removal of such reference.
In § 47.19, the phrase ‘‘must be mailed
to the Registry, Department of
Transportation, Post Office Box 25504,
Oklahoma City, Oklahoma 73125–0504,
or delivered to the Registry at 6425 S.
Denning Ave., Oklahoma City,
Oklahoma 73169,’’ is removed and
replaced with, ‘‘must be delivered to the
Registry by a means acceptable to the
Administrator,’’ to conform to the
Registry’s current practice of accepting
digitally signed documents and
communications by email as an
alternative to delivery of hard copies, as
well as submission of documents and
communications by other means
acceptable to the Administrator.
Part 49
In § 49.1(a)(2), the horsepower
threshold for aircraft engines incorrectly
references 750 and is corrected to 550
consistent with § 49.41.4
Section 49.11 is revised to conform to
the Registry’s current practice of
accepting digitally signed documents by
email in addition to accepting delivery
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of hard copies or acceptance of delivery
by other means.
In § 49.13(a), the phrase ‘‘must be in
ink’’ is removed and replaced with
‘‘must be signed in a manner acceptable
to the Administrator,’’ to conform to the
Registry’s continued acceptance of
digital signatures.5
Part 60
Part 60 has multiple references to the
‘‘National Simulator Program Manager’’,
‘‘NSPM’’, and ‘‘NSP’’. This office and
manager position no longer exist by
those names due to the reorganization of
the Air Transportation Division. Thus,
this technical amendment updates all of
these references by deleting or replacing
them with ‘‘responsible Flight
Standards office’’, ‘‘Flight Standards
Service’’, or ‘‘FAA’’, as appropriate.
Further, references to outdated websites,
references to outdated contact
information, and incorrect numbering
are corrected.
The following table identifies the
nomenclature changes in 14 CFR part 60
to account for the reorganization of the
Air Transportation Division:
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TABLE 1—REVISED NOMENCLATURE AND AFFECTED SECTIONS OF 14 CFR PART 60
Old nomenclature/current CFR
New nomenclature/revision
Affected sections of 14 CFR part 60
National Simulator Program Manager (NSPM) ..
responsible Flight Standards office .................
NSPM .................................................................
responsible Flight Standards office .................
NSPM .................................................................
the responsible Flight Standards office ...........
an NSPM ............................................................
NSPM .................................................................
a responsible Flight Standards office ..............
Flight Standards Service ..................................
NSPM, or a person assigned by the NSPM ......
responsible Flight Standards office .................
an NSP pilot .......................................................
a pilot from the responsible Flight Standards
office.
§ 60.5, Attachment 6 to Appendix A to Part
60.
§ 60.5, § 60.7, § 60.9, § 60.11, § 60.13,
§ 60.14, § 60.15, § 60.16, § 60.17, § 60.19,
§ 60.21, § 60.23, § 60.25, § 60.27, § 60.29,
§ 60.31, § 60.37, Appendix A to Part 60, Attachment 1 to Appendix A to Part 60, Attachment 2 to Appendix A to Part 60, Attachment 3 to Appendix A to Part 60, Attachment 5 to Appendix A to Part 60, Attachment 6 to Appendix A to Part 60, Appendix B to Part 60, Attachment 1 to Appendix B to Part 60, Attachment 2 to Appendix B to Part 60, Appendix C to Part 60,
Attachment 1 to Appendix C to Part 60, Attachment 2 to Appendix C to Part 60, Attachment 3 to Appendix C to Part 60, Appendix D to Part 60, Attachment 1 to Appendix D to Part 60, Attachment 2 to Appendix D to Part 60, Attachment 3 to Appendix D to Part 60, Appendix E to Part 60,
Appendix F to Part 60.
§ 60.19, Attachment 2 to Appendix A to Part
60, Attachment 2 to Appendix C to Part 60.
§ 60.19.
Appendix A to Part 60, Attachment 2 to Appendix A to Part 60, Appendix C to Part 60,
Appendix D to Part 60.
Appendix A to Part 60, Appendix C to Part
60.
Appendix A to Part 60, Appendix B to Part 60,
Appendix C to Part 60, Appendix D to Part
60.
4 See
70 FR 239 (Jan. 3, 2005).
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TABLE 1—REVISED NOMENCLATURE AND AFFECTED SECTIONS OF 14 CFR PART 60—Continued
Old nomenclature/current CFR
New nomenclature/revision
Affected sections of 14 CFR part 60
NSPM or visit the NSPM Web site ....................
responsible Flight Standards office .................
FAA FSDO .........................................................
responsible Flight Standards office .................
NSPM, or a person or persons assigned by the
NSPM.
NSP ....................................................................
responsible Flight Standards office .................
Appendix A to Part 60, Appendix B to Part 60,
Appendix C to Part 60, Appendix D to Part
60.
Appendix A to Part 60, Appendix B to Part 60,
Appendix C to Part 60, Appendix D to Part
60.
Appendix B to Part 60, Appendix D to Part
60.
Attachment 2 to Appendix B to Part 60.
In addition to the above nomenclature
changes, this technical amendment
makes several other minor technical
changes to 14 CFR part 60.
In appendices A, B, C, and D to part
60, paragraph 1. Introduction, the
following changes are made to reflect
the reorganization of the Air
Transportation Division:
• Removed paragraph b.;
• Removed the last sentence of
paragraph c.;
• Added ‘‘Flightcrew Member’’ after
‘‘as amended,’’ in appendix A,
paragraph d.(12); appendix B, paragraph
d.(12); appendix C, paragraph d.(10);
and appendix D, paragraph d.(12); and
• Removed the phrase ‘‘FAA Airman
Testing Standards for the Airline
Transport Pilot Certificate, Type
Ratings, Commercial Pilot Certificate,
and Instrument Ratings.’’ and replaced
with ‘‘FAA Airman Certification
Standards and Practical Test Standards
for Airline Transport Pilot, Type
Ratings, Commercial Pilot, and
Instrument Ratings.’’ in appendix A,
paragraph d.(27); appendix B, paragraph
d.(26); appendix C, paragraph d.(25);
and appendix D, paragraph d.(28).
‘‘NSP’’ is removed from the following
places to reflect the reorganization of
the Air Transportation Division:
• Appendix A;
• Attachment 3 to appendix A;
• Appendix B;
• Attachment 3 to appendix B;
• Appendix C;
• Attachment 3 to appendix C;
• Appendix D; and
• Attachment 3 to appendix D.
In attachment 3 to appendix A, 2.
Discussion, the last sentence of
paragraph g. is removed to reflect the
reorganization of the Air Transportation
Division.
In the following Figures, the letter
heading addressed to ‘‘Edward D. Cook’’
is removed because it is outdated
contact information that is no longer
accurate:
• Attachment 4 to appendix A, Figure
A4A; and
• Attachment 4 to appendix B, Figure
B4A.
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FAA ..................................................................
In the following Figures, ‘‘FAA
National Simulator Program’’ is
removed to reflect the reorganization of
the Air Transportation Division:
• Attachment 4 to appendix A, Figure
A4C;
• Attachment 4 to appendix B, Figure
B4C;
• Attachment 4 to appendix C, Figure
C4C; and
• Attachment 4 to appendix D, Figure
D4C.
In the following Figures, ‘‘Manager,
National Simulator Program’’ is
removed to reflect the reorganization of
the Air Transportation Division:
• Attachment 4 to appendix A, Figure
A4D;
• Attachment 4 to appendix B, Figure
B4D;
• Attachment 4 to appendix C, Figure
C4D; and
• Attachment 4 to appendix D, Figure
D4D.
In the following Figures, ‘‘National
Simulator Program’’ and ‘‘NSPM’’ are
removed and replaced with ‘‘FAA’’ to
reflect the reorganization of the Air
Transportation Division:
• Attachment 4 to appendix A, Figure
A4E;
• Attachment 4 to appendix B, Figure
B4E;
• Attachment 4 to appendix C, Figure
C4E; and
• Attachment 4 to appendix D, Figure
D4E.
‘‘NSP’s’’ is removed from attachment
6 to appendix A to reflect the
reorganization of the Air Transportation
Division.
‘‘NSPM’’ is removed from the second
sentence of appendix B to reflect the
reorganization of the Air Transportation
Division.
In attachment 3 to appendix C, the
last sentence of the first paragraph h. is
removed to reflect the reorganization of
the Air Transportation Division. Also,
the second paragraph h. is redesignated
as paragraph i. and paragraph i. is
redesignated as paragraph j.
In the following Figures, the letter
heading addressed to ‘‘Charles A.
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Spillner’’ is removed because it is
outdated contact information that is no
longer accurate:
• Attachment 4 to appendix C, figure
C4A; and
• Attachment 4 to appendix D, figure
D4A.
In appendix D, 17. Modifications to
FTDs, an incorrect reference is updated.
In appendix E, paragraph i.(4) is
removed and ‘‘NSPM’’ is removed from
paragraphs h.(1) and h.(2) to reflect the
reorganization of the Air Transportation
Division.
In appendix F, the definition for
‘‘National Simulator Program Manager
(NSPM)’’ is removed and the
abbreviation ‘‘NSPM’’ is removed to
reflect the reorganization of the Air
Transportation Division.
In the Flight Simulation Training
Device Qualification Standards for
Extended Envelope and Adverse
Weather Event Training Tasks Final
Rule, the FAA removed Figure A4H
Sample Continuing Qualification
Evaluation Requirements Page from
attachment 4 to appendix A because the
final rule amendment to § 60.19 made
the figure obsolete and unnecessary.
This same figure should have also been
removed from Appendices B–D for the
same reason. Thus, the following
changes are made:
• In attachment 4 to appendix B,
figure B4H is removed and the table of
contents is updated accordingly;
• In attachment 4 to appendix C,
figure C4H is removed and the table of
contents is updated accordingly; and
• In attachment 4 to appendix D,
figure D4H is removed and the table of
contents is updated accordingly.
In the Flight Simulation Training
Device Qualification Standards for
Extended Envelope and Adverse
Weather Event Training Tasks Final
Rule, the FAA added Level 7 FTDs to
appendix B. However, the first sentence
in this appendix does not include Level
7. Thus, in the first sentence of
appendix B, the phrase ‘‘or Level 6’’ is
replaced with ‘‘Level 6, or Level 7’’.
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Part 61
In § 61.58, paragraphs (j) and (k) are
removed because the October 12, 2012,
time limitation has passed and
accordingly, those paragraphs are now
obsolete.
The FAA also corrects a spelling error
in § 61.313(h).
Part 67
A mailing address is updated in
§§ 67.4 and 67.409(a). Additionally, in
§ 67.409(a) a requirement that a
duplicate document be submitted is
removed because these documents are
no longer reviewed in hardcopy.
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Part 73
This technical amendment updates
office titles in § 73.19(a) and (c) to
reflect reorganization within the FAA. It
also updates the FAA headquarters
address in § 73.19(a) and replaces the
word ‘‘shall’’ with ‘‘must’’ in § 73.19(a),
(b) and (c).
Part 91
In § 91.9(c), ‘‘or part 48’’ is added to
indicate that an aircraft operating under
part 91 may also be marked under part
48. This change aligns this provision
with § 91.203(a)(2).
In § 91.157(b)(4), aimed to specifically
qualify daytime in Alaska because the
time between sunrise and sunset is often
a longer duration of time than in most
of the United States. However, in a 1991
final rule, the FAA stated that daytime
in Alaska is ‘‘when the sun is 6° or more
above the horizon’’. 56 FR 65660 (Dec.
17, 1991). According to the Air
Almanac, issued annually by the United
States Naval Observatory, civil twilight
(daytime) begins and ends when the sun
is 6 degrees below the horizon. As such,
civil twilight (daytime) is any time
when the sun is 6 degrees or less below
the horizon. In 1995, the FAA issued a
technical amendment to correct the
regulatory text to accurately capture
daytime in Alaska amending it to state
‘‘when the sun is 6 degrees or more
below the horizon’’. 60 FR 66874 (Dec.
27, 1995). However, this correction was
inaccurate as more than 6 degrees below
the horizon is nighttime. This technical
amendment is meant to achieve the
original intent to refer to daytime in
Alaska by amending the language to
read ‘‘when the sun is 6 degrees or less
below the horizon’’.
In § 91.203(a)(1), ‘‘or part 48’’ is added
to indicate that an aircraft operating
under part 91 may also be marked under
part 48. This change aligns this
provision with § 91.203(a)(2).
In § 91.511(a), the phrase ‘‘operating
under this subpart’’ is added to clarify
who is subject to the prohibition.
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In § 91.609(g), ‘‘49 CFR’’ is added
prior to ‘‘part 830’’ everywhere that it
appears to clarify which title of the CFR
is being referenced.
In § 91.1001(b)(9), the reference to
‘‘paragraph (b)(1)(v)’’ is incorrect
because no such paragraph exists. The
reference to ‘‘paragraph (b)(1)(v)’’ is
replaced with the correct reference to
‘‘paragraph (b)(5)(vi)’’, which addresses
multi-year program agreements.
Part 97
In § 97.20(b), the FAA updates a
mailing address and email address.
Part 101
In § 101.21(a), the reference to
paragraph ‘‘§ 101.25(b)(7)(ii)’’ is
removed and replaced with the correct
reference, ‘‘§ 101.25(g)(2)’’, due to a
technical amendment to § 101.25.6
Part 107
In § 107.9, the word ‘‘accident’’ in the
title is removed and replaced with the
words ‘‘safety event’’ to eliminate
confusion and to distinguish it from the
statutory authority afforded exclusively
to the National Transportation Safety
Board published in 49 U.S.C. 1101.
Part 121
In §§ 121.310(b)(2)(iii),
121.311(b)(2)(ii)(C), 121.391(d),
§ 121.523(c), the FAA corrects
typographical, grammatical, and
spelling errors.
In §§ 121.359(h) and 121.703(f), ‘‘49
CFR’’ is added prior to ‘‘part 830’’
everywhere that it appears to clarify
which title of the CFR is being
referenced.
In § 121.909(a) and § 121.923(a)(2),
the phrase ‘‘through the FAA office
responsible for approval of the
certificate holder’s operations
specifications, to the Manager of the Air
Transportation Division’’ is removed
and replaced with ‘‘to the responsible
Flight Standards office’’ to reflect the
reorganization in the Air Transportation
Division.
In § 121.1115(f), Table 2, Bombardier:
BD–700, the acronym ‘‘FH’’, which
stood for flight hours, is removed
because it is incorrect and it is replaced
with the correct acronym, ‘‘FC’’, which
stands for flight cycles. Bombardier
submitted information to the FAA to
establish that the default limit of
validity is 15,000 flight cycles rather
than flight hours for the Bombardier
Model BD–700; however, the FAA
inadvertently used the acronym ‘‘FH’’
when listing the default LOV for the
Bombardier Model BD–700 in Table 2.
6 See
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Part 125
In § 125.285(d), the reference to
‘‘(c)(3)’’ is removed because it is
incorrect and it is replaced with the
correct reference, ‘‘(c)(2)’’, which
prescribes the observation of landings.
Part 129
The FAA corrects a spelling error in
§ 129.18(b). In § 129.115(f), Table 2,
Bombardier: BD–700, the FAA removes
the acronym ‘‘FH’’, which stood for
flight hours because it is incorrect and
it is replaced with the correct acronym,
‘‘FC’’, which stands for flight cycles.
Bombardier submitted information to
the FAA to establish that the default
limit of validity is 15,000 flight cycles
rather than flight hours for the
Bombardier Model BD–700; however,
the FAA inadvertently used the
acronym ‘‘FH’’ when listing the default
LOV for the Bombardier Model BD–700
in Table 2.
Part 135
In § 135.415(f), ‘‘49 CFR’’ is added
prior to ‘‘part 830’’ to clarify which title
of the CFR is being referenced.
Part 141
In a final rule published in the
Federal Register on August 21, 2009 (74
FR 42499), Pilot, Flight Instructor, and
Pilot School Certification, the FAA
revised paragraph 4 of appendix I to 14
CFR part 141, to change the presentation
of information in response to confusion
about what is the amount of ground and
flight training required for an add-on
category and/or class rating course. In
the process of changing the presentation
of this information, the FAA
inadvertently omitted the existing
training requirements for an additional
glider category rating for holders of a
commercial pilot certificate. By
correcting this typographical error, this
technical amendment provides these
existing requirements by specifying the
required contents of such training
programs.
In a final rule published in the
Federal Register on June 27, 2018 (83
FR 30232), Regulatory Relief: Aviation
Training Devices; Pilot Certification,
Training, and Pilot Schools; and Other
Provisions, the FAA inadvertently failed
to revise part 141 appendix I, to allow
the use of a technically advanced
airplane (TAA) to satisfy the experience
requirements, for those pilot applicants
who would add category and class
(specifically, Airplane Single Engine) to
an existing Commercial Pilot Certificate.
The original proposal was to provide
relief to all regulated entities providing
flight training for the Commercial Pilot
Certificate with single engine land
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rating under any applicable rule part,
including part 141, appendix I. This was
an inadvertent omission and has caused
some confusion and concern within the
flight training community. With that
understanding, the FAA is providing a
technical amendment to paragraph
4.(a)(3)(ii) of appendix I to part 141 to
otherwise permit the use of a complex
airplane, turbine-powered airplane, or a
technically advanced airplane to meet
the experience requirement.
Part 183
The FAA is making updates to part
183 which are necessary to reflect
organizational changes within the FAA.
The Administrator established the Air
Traffic Safety Oversight Service (AOV)
within the Aviation Safety Organization
(AVS) to provide independent oversight
of the Air Traffic Organization in 2004.
In 2006, the Administrator gave AOV
the authority to manage the Control
Tower Operator Certification Program
but did not update part 183 to reflect
this organizational change. Due to these
changes, the FAA is revising
§§ 183.11(d) and 183.25(c)(2) to replace
‘‘the Associate Administrator for Air
Traffic’’ with ‘‘the Associate
Administrator for Aviation Safety’’.
Additionally, §§ 183.11(d) and 183.25(c)
will specify that the air traffic control
tower operator examiner is ‘‘designated’’
to be consistent with the terminology
used for other positions involving
delegated authority under 49 U.S.C.
44702(d).
Part 440
In § 440.19, this technical amendment
restores paragraphs (a)(1) and (a)(2)
which were inadvertently deleted from
this section in a 2012 technical
amendment.7
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IV. Regulatory Notices and Analyses
Federal agencies consider impacts of
regulatory actions under a variety of
executive orders and other
requirements. First, Executive Order
12866 and Executive Order 13563 direct
that each Federal agency shall propose
or adopt a regulation only upon a
reasoned determination that the benefits
of the intended regulation justify the
costs. Second, the Regulatory Flexibility
Act of 1980 (Pub. L. 96–354) requires
agencies to analyze the economic
impact of regulatory changes on small
entities. Third, the Trade Agreements
Act (Pub. L. 96–39) prohibits agencies
from setting standards that create
unnecessary obstacles to the foreign
7 Correction of Authority Citations for
Commercial Space Transportation, 77 FR 20531,
April 5, 2012.
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commerce of the United States. Fourth,
the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of
1995 (Pub. L. 104–4) requires agencies
to prepare a written assessment of the
costs, benefits, and other effects of
proposed or final rules that include a
Federal mandate that may result in the
expenditure by State, local, and tribal
governments, in the aggregate, or by the
private sector, of $100,000,000 or more
(adjusted annually for inflation) in any
one year. The current threshold after
adjustment for inflation is $165,000,000,
using the most current (2021) Implicit
Price Deflator for the Gross Domestic
Product. This portion of the preamble
summarizes the FAA’s analysis of the
economic impacts of this rule.
In conducting these analyses, the FAA
has determined that this rule: will result
in benefits that justify costs; is not a
‘‘significant regulatory action’’ as
defined in section 3(f) of Executive
Order 12866; will not create
unnecessary obstacles to the foreign
commerce of the United States; and will
not impose an unfunded mandate on
State, local, or tribal governments, or on
the private sector.
A. Regulatory Impact Analysis
This final rule corrects several
technical errors that affect the clarity of
the regulatory text. As all the
amendments in this final rule are nonsubstantive and intended to correct
typographical errors, editorial errors,
and outdated or incorrect references, the
FAA does not expect that these
technical corrections will result in any
substantive incremental costs or
benefits. These changes include
corrections of grammatical and
typographical errors, corrections of
incorrect cross references, updates to
mailing addresses and contact
information, and updates to terms and
titles following the reorganization or the
Air Transportation Division. Since this
rule involves non-substantive and
clarifying editorial changes only, the
impacts of the rule will be minimal.
B. Regulatory Flexibility Act
The Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA),
in 5 U.S.C. 603, requires an agency to
prepare an initial regulatory flexibility
analysis describing impacts on small
entities whenever 5 U.S.C. 553 or any
other law requires an agency to publish
a general notice of proposed rulemaking
for any proposed rule. Similarly, 5
U.S.C. 604 requires an agency to prepare
a final regulatory flexibility analysis
when an agency issues a final rule
under 5 U.S.C. 553, after that section or
any other law requires publication of a
general notice of proposed rulemaking.
The FAA concludes good cause exists to
PO 00000
Frm 00006
Fmt 4701
Sfmt 4700
forgo notice and comment and to not
delay the effective date for this rule. As
5 U.S.C. 553 does not require notice and
comment in this situation, 5 U.S.C. 603
and 604 similarly do not require
regulatory flexibility analyses.
C. International Trade Impact
Assessment
The Trade Agreements Act of 1979
(Pub. L. 96–39), as amended, prohibits
Federal agencies from establishing
standards or engaging in related
activities that create unnecessary
obstacles to the foreign commerce of the
United States. Pursuant to this Act, the
establishment of standards is not
considered an unnecessary obstacle to
the foreign commerce of the United
States, so long as the standard has a
legitimate domestic objective, such as
the protection of safety, and does not
operate in a manner that excludes
imports that meet this objective. The
statute also requires consideration of
international standards and, where
appropriate, that they be the basis for
U.S. standards.
The FAA has assessed the potential
effect of this rule and has determined
that the rule is in accord with the Trade
Agreements Act as the rule applies
equally to domestic and foreign persons
engaged in aviation activities under 14
CFR. As previously discussion, this
action corrects several technical errors
that affect the clarity of the regulatory
text. These corrections will not impose
any additional substantive restrictions
or requirements on the persons affected
by these regulations.
D. Unfunded Mandates Assessment
The Unfunded Mandates Reform Act
of 1995 (2 U.S.C. 1531–1538) governs
the issuance of Federal regulations that
require unfunded mandates. An
unfunded mandate is a regulation that
requires a state, local, or tribal
government or the private sector to
incur direct costs without the Federal
government having first provided the
funds to pay those costs. The FAA
determined that the rule will not result
in the expenditure of $165,000,000 or
more by State, local, or tribal
governments, in the aggregate, or the
private sector, in any one year.
E. Paperwork Reduction Act
The Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995
(44 U.S.C. 3507(d)) requires that the
FAA consider the impact of paperwork
and other information collection
burdens imposed on the public. The
FAA has determined that there is no
new requirement for information
collection associated with this
immediately adopted final rule.
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Federal Register / Vol. 87, No. 236 / Friday, December 9, 2022 / Rules and Regulations
F. International Compatibility
In keeping with U.S. obligations
under the Convention on International
Civil Aviation, it is FAA policy to
conform to International Civil Aviation
Organization (ICAO) Standards and
Recommended Practices to the
maximum extent practicable. The FAA
has reviewed the corresponding ICAO
Standards and Recommended Practices
and has identified no differences with
these proposed regulations.
G. Environmental Analysis
FAA Order 1050.1F identifies FAA
actions that are categorically excluded
from preparation of an environmental
assessment or environmental impact
statement under the National
Environmental Policy Act in the
absence of extraordinary circumstances.
The FAA has determined this
rulemaking action qualifies for the
categorical exclusion identified in
paragraph 5–6.6(f) for regulations and
involves no extraordinary
circumstances.
V. Executive Order Determinations
A. Executive Order 13132, Federalism
The FAA has analyzed this
immediately adopted final rule under
the principles and criteria of Executive
Order 13132, ‘‘Federalism.’’ The agency
determined that this action will not
have a substantial direct effect on the
States, or the relationship between the
Federal Government and the States, or
on the distribution of power and
responsibilities among the various
levels of government, and, therefore,
does not have Federalism implications.
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B. Executive Order 13211, Regulations
That Significantly Affect Energy Supply,
Distribution, or Use
The FAA analyzed this immediately
adopted final rule under Executive
Order 13211, ‘‘Actions Concerning
Regulations that Significantly Affect
Energy Supply, Distribution, or Use’’
(May 18, 2001). The agency has
determined that it is not a ‘‘significant
energy action’’ under the executive
order and it is not likely to have a
significant adverse effect on the supply,
distribution, or use of energy.
C. Executive Order 13609, International
Cooperation
Executive Order 13609, ‘‘Promoting
International Regulatory Cooperation,’’
promotes international regulatory
cooperation to meet shared challenges
involving health, safety, labor, security,
environmental, and other issues and to
reduce, eliminate, or prevent
unnecessary differences in regulatory
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18:43 Dec 08, 2022
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requirements. The FAA has analyzed
this action under the policies and
agency responsibilities of Executive
Order 13609, and has determined that
this action would have no effect on
international regulatory cooperation.
VI. How To Obtain Additional
Information
A. Rulemaking Documents
An electronic copy of a rulemaking
document may be obtained from the
internet by—
1. Searching the Federal eRulemaking
Portal (www.regulations.gov);
2. Visiting the FAA’s Regulations and
Policies web page at www.faa.gov/
regulations_policies/; or
3. Accessing the Government Printing
Office’s web page at www.GovInfo.gov.
Copies may also be obtained by
sending a request (identified by notice,
amendment, or docket number of this
rulemaking) to the Federal Aviation
Administration, Office of Rulemaking,
ARM–1, 800 Independence Avenue SW,
Washington, DC 20591, or by calling
(202) 267–9680.
The Small Business Regulatory
Enforcement Fairness Act (SBREFA) of
1996 requires FAA to comply with
small entity requests for information or
advice about compliance with statutes
and regulations within its jurisdiction.
A small entity with questions regarding
this document, may contact its local
FAA official, or the person listed under
the FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT
heading at the beginning of the
preamble. To find out more about
SBREFA on the internet, visit
www.faa.gov/regulations_policies/
rulemaking/sbre_act/.
List of Subjects
14 CFR Part 21
Aircraft, Aviation safety, Exports,
Imports, Reporting and recordkeeping
requirements.
14 CFR Part 23
Aircraft, Aviation safety, Signs and
symbols.
14 CFR Part 25
Aircraft, Aviation safety, Reporting
and recordkeeping requirements.
14 CFR Part 29
Aircraft, Aviation safety, Reporting
and recordkeeping requirements.
14 CFR Part 33
Aircraft, Aviation safety, Reporting
and recordkeeping requirements.
Frm 00007
Fmt 4701
Sfmt 4700
14 CFR Part 36
Agriculture, Aircraft, Noise control.
14 CFR Part 47
Aircraft, Reporting and recordkeeping
requirements.
14 CFR Part 49
Aircraft, Reporting and recordkeeping
requirements.
14 CFR Part 60
Airmen, Aviation safety, Reporting
and recordkeeping requirements.
14 CFR Part 61
Aircraft, Airmen, Alcohol abuse,
Aviation safety, Drug abuse, Recreation
and recreation areas, Reporting and
recordkeeping requirements, Security
measures, Teachers.
14 CFR Part 67
Airmen, Authority delegations
(Government agencies), Health,
Reporting and recordkeeping
requirements.
14 CFR Part 73
B. Small Business Regulatory
Enforcement Fairness Act
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75709
Airspace, Navigation (air), Restricted
areas, Security measures.
14 CFR Part 91
Afghanistan, Agriculture, Air carriers,
Air taxis, Air traffic control, Aircraft,
Airmen, Airports, Alaska, Aviation
safety, Canada, Charter flights, Cuba,
Drug traffic control, Ethiopia, Freight,
Incorporation by reference, Iraq, Libya,
Mexico, Noise control, North Korea,
Political candidates, Reporting and
recordkeeping requirements, Security
measures, Somalia, Syria,
Transportation, Yugoslavia.
14 CFR Part 97
Air traffic control, Airports,
Incorporation by reference, Navigation
(air), Weather.
14 CFR Part 101
Aircraft, Aviation safety, Reporting
and recordkeeping requirements.
14 CFR Part 107
Aircraft, Airmen, Aviation safety,
Recreation and recreation areas,
Reporting and recordkeeping
requirements, Security measures, Signs
and symbols.
14 CFR Part 121
Air carriers, Aircraft, Airmen, Alcohol
abuse, Aviation safety, Charter flights,
Drug abuse, Drug testing, Reporting and
recordkeeping requirements, Safety,
Transportation.
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Federal Register / Vol. 87, No. 236 / Friday, December 9, 2022 / Rules and Regulations
14 CFR Part 125
§ 23.2115
phrase ‘‘systems that perform’’ and
adding in its place the phrase ‘‘system
that performs’’.
Aircraft, Airmen, Aviation safety,
Reporting and recordkeeping
requirements.
4. Amend § 23.2115 in paragraph (c)
introductory text by adding the word
‘‘of’’ after the word ‘‘determination’’.
§ 23.2600
14 CFR Part 129
§ 23.2120
■
[Amended]
Air carriers, Administration, Aircraft,
Aviation safety, Reporting and
recordkeeping requirements, Security
measures, Smoking.
5. Amend § 23.2120 in paragraph (a)
introductory text by removing the word
‘‘configuration’’ and adding in its place
the word ‘‘configuration(s)’’.
§ 23.2620
14 CFR Part 135
§ 23.2165
■
Air taxis, Aircraft, Airmen, Alcohol
abuse, Aviation safety, Drug abuse, Drug
testing, Reporting and recordkeeping
requirements.
■
14 CFR Part 141
§ 23.2200
Airmen, Educational facilities,
Reporting and recordkeeping
requirements, Schools.
■
6. Amend § 23.2165 in paragraph
(a)(1)(i) by removing the words ‘‘knots
CAS’’ and adding in their place the
word ‘‘KCAS’’.
§ 23.2255
8. Amend § 23.2255 in paragraph (c)
by removing the word ‘‘aircraft’’ and
adding in its place the word ‘‘airplane’’.
§ 23.2315
Indemnity payments, Insurance,
Reporting and recordkeeping
requirements, Space transportation and
exploration.
■
■
The Amendments
In consideration of the foregoing, the
Federal Aviation Administration
amends chapter I of title 14, Code of
Federal Regulations (CFR) parts 21, 23,
25, 29, 33, 36, 47, 49, 60, 61, 67, 73, 91,
97, 101, 107, 121, 125, 129, 135, 141,
183, and 440 as follows:
PART 21—CERTIFICATION
PROCEDURES FOR PRODUCTS AND
ARTICLES
§ 23.2400
[Amended]
10. Amend § 23.2400 in paragraph (b)
by removing both instances of ‘‘FAA’’
and adding in their places the word
‘‘Administrator’’.
■ 11. Amend § 23.2440 by revising
paragraph (c)(2) to read as follows:
■
Powerplant fire protection.
*
Authority: 42 U.S.C. 7572; 49 U.S.C. 106(f),
106(g), 40105, 40113, 44701–44702, 44704,
44707, 44709, 44711, 44713, 44715, 45303.
[Amended]
2. Amend § 21.619 in paragraph (a) by
removing the citation ‘‘§ 21.603(b)’’ and
adding in its place the citation
‘‘21.603(a)’’.
■
PART 23—AIRWORTHINESS
STANDARDS: NORMAL CATEGORY
AIRPLANES
3. The authority citation for part 23
continues to read as follows:
■
Authority: 49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g), 40113,
44701–44702, 44704, Pub. L. 113–53, 127
Stat. 584 (49 U.S.C. 44704) note.
Jkt 259001
[Amended]
9. Amend § 23.2315 as follows:
a. In paragraph (a)(1), add a comma
after the words ‘‘level 2’’;
■ b. In paragraph (a)(1), remove the
words ‘‘single engine’’ and add in its
place ‘‘single-engine’’; and
■ c. In paragraph (a)(2), add a comma
after the first mention of the word
‘‘exits’’.
§ 23.2440
1. The authority citation for part 21
continues to read as follows:
■
18:43 Dec 08, 2022
[Amended]
■
14 CFR Part 440
VerDate Sep<11>2014
[Amended]
7. Amend § 23.2200 in paragraph (d)
by removing the words ‘‘high lift’’ and
adding in their place the words ‘‘highlift’’.
Aircraft, Airmen, Authority
delegations (Government agencies),
Health professions, Reporting and
recordkeeping requirements.
§ 21.619
[Amended]
*
*
*
*
(c) * * *
(2) Be fire-resistant if carrying
flammable fluid, gas or air, or is
required to operate in the event of a fire;
and
*
*
*
*
*
§ 23.2500
[Amended]
§ 23.2520
[Amended]
13. Amend § 23.2520 in paragraph (a)
introductory text by removing the
■
PO 00000
Frm 00008
Fmt 4701
Sfmt 4700
[Amended]
15. Amend § 23.2620 in paragraph (b)
introductory text by removing the word
‘‘administrator’’ and adding in its place
the word ‘‘Administrator’’.
PART 25—AIRWORTHINESS
STANDARDS: TRANSPORT
CATEGORY AIRPLANES
16. The authority citation for part 25
continues to read as follows:
■
Authority: 49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g), 40113,
44701, 44702 and 44704.
§ 25.471
[Amended]
17. Amend § 25.471 in paragraph
(b)(2) by removing the citation
‘‘§ 25.1583(c)(1)’’ and adding in its place
the citation ‘‘§ 25.1583(c)(2)’’.
■
§ 25.525
[Amended]
18. Amend § 25.525 in paragraph (b)
by removing the citation ‘‘§ 25.533(b)’’
and adding in its place the citation
‘‘§ 25.533(c)’’.
■
§ 25.535
[Amended]
19. Amend § 25.535 in paragraph (d)
by removing the numbers ‘‘3.25’’ and
adding in their place the numbers
‘‘0.25’’.
■ 20. Amend § 25.571 by revising the
section heading to read as follows:
■
§ 25.571 Damage-tolerance and fatigue
evaluation of structure.
*
*
§ 25.903
*
*
*
[Amended]
21. Amend § 25.903 as follows:
a. In paragraph (a)(3)(ii), remove the
date ‘‘February 23, 1984’’ and add in its
place the date ‘‘March 26, 1984’’; and
■ b. In paragraph (a)(3)(iii), remove the
date ‘‘October 1, 1974’’and add in its
place the date ‘‘October 31, 1974’’.
■
■
§ 25.1517
12. Amend § 23.2500 in paragraph (b)
by removing the phrase ‘‘(a), considered
separately and in relation to other
systems, must’’ and adding in its place
the phrase ‘‘(a) of this section—
considered separately and in relation to
other systems—must’’.
■
[Amended]
14. Amend § 23.2600 in paragraph (b)
by removing the words ‘‘qualified
flightcrew’’ and adding in their place
the words ‘‘flightcrew members’’.
■
14 CFR Part 183
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[Amended]
■
[Amended]
22. Amend § 25.1517 in paragraph (b)
by removing ‘‘VMO - 35 KTAS’’ and
adding in its place ‘‘VMO minus 35
KTAS’’.
■
PART 29—AIRWORTHINESS
STANDARDS: TRANSPORT
CATEGORY ROTOCRAFT
23. The authority citation for part 29
continues to read as follows:
■
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Federal Register / Vol. 87, No. 236 / Friday, December 9, 2022 / Rules and Regulations
Authority: 49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g), 40113,
44701–44702, 44704.
■
24. Amend § 29.1557 in paragraph (d)
by removing the citation
‘‘§ 29.811(h)(2)’’ and adding in its place
the citation ‘‘§ 29.811(f)(2)’’.
Department of Transportation, Post
Office Box 25504, Oklahoma City,
Oklahoma 73125–0504, or delivered to
the Registry at 6425 S. Denning Ave.,
Oklahoma City, Oklahoma 73169’’ and
adding in its place the phrase ‘‘must be
delivered to the Registry by a means
acceptable to the Administrator’’.
PART 33—AIRWORTHINESS
STANDARDS: AIRCRAFT ENGINES
PART 49—RECORDING OF AIRCRAFT
TITLES AND SECURITY DOCUMENTS
■
25. The authority citation for part 33
continues to read as follows:
■
Authority: 49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701,
44702, 44704.
Authority: 4 U.S.T. 1830; Pub. L. 108–297,
118 Stat. 1095 (49 U.S.C. 40101 note, 49
U.S.C. 44101 note); 49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113–
40114, 44101–44108, 44110–44113, 44704,
44713, 45302, 46104, 46301.
§ 29.1557
§ 33.97
[Amended]
33. Amend § 49.1 in paragraph (a)(2)
by removing the number ‘‘750’’ and
adding in their place the number ‘‘550’’.
e. § 60.13(a) and (c) through (f);
f. § 60.14;
g. § 60.15(a), (b)(1) through (3), (c)(1)
introductory text, (c)(1)(i) and (ii), (f), (g)
introductory text, (g)(6), (h), and (i);
■ h. § 60.16(a)(1)(i) through (iii), (a)(2)(i)
and (ii), (b), and (c);
■ i. § 60.17(e) and (f);
■ j. § 60.19(b)(2) and (3);
■ k. § 60.21(a) introductory text, (b), and
(c);
■ l. § 60.23(c)(1) introductory text and
(c)(1)(i) through (iv);
■ m. § 60.25(b);
■ n. § 60.27(b)(1)(i) and (ii), (b)(2), and
(c);
■ o. § 60.29(a) introductory text, (a)(1)
through (3), (a)(4) introductory text,
(a)(4)(i) and (ii), (b) introductory text,
(b)(3), (c) introductory text, (c)(1) and
(2), (d)(1) and (2), and (e);
■ p. § 60.31(b); and
■ q. § 60.37(a) introductory text.
§ 49.11
§ 60.5
32. The authority citation for part 49
continues to read as follows:
[Amended]
26. Amend § 33.97 in paragraph (a) by
adding a comma after the word
‘‘endurance’’ in the first sentence.
■
§ 49.1
[Amended]
■
PART 36—NOISE STANDARDS:
AIRCRAFT TYPE AND
AIRWORTHINESS CERTIFICATION
27. The authority citation for part 36
continues to read as follows:
■
§ 36.1
[Amended]
28. Amend § 36.1 in paragraph (a)(4)
by removing the word ‘‘argicultural’’
and adding in its place the word
‘‘agricultural’’.
■
29. The authority citation for part 47
continues to read as follows:
■
Authority: 4 U.S.T. 1830; Public Law 108–
297, 118 Stat. 1095 (49 U.S.C. 40101 note, 49
U.S.C. 44101 note); 49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g),
40113–40114, 44101–44108, 44110–44113,
44703–44704, 44713, 45302, 45305, 46104,
46301.
30. Amend § 47.9 by revising
paragraph (b) to read as follows:
■
Corporations not US citizens.
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[Amended]
31. Amend § 47.19 by removing the
phrase ‘‘must be mailed to the Registry,
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18:43 Dec 08, 2022
Jkt 259001
35. Amend § 49.13 in paragraph (a) by
removing the phrase ‘‘must be in ink’’
and adding in its place the phrase ‘‘must
be signed in a manner acceptable to the
Administrator’’.
■
PART 60—FLIGHT SIMULATION
TRAINING DEVICE INITIAL AND
CONTINUING QUALIFICATION AND
USE
36. The authority citation for part 60
continues to read as follows:
*
*
*
*
(b) For the purposes of registration, an
aircraft is based and primarily used in
the United States if the flight hours
accumulated within the United States
amount to at least 60 percent of the total
flight hours of the aircraft during the
period consisting in the remainder of
the registration month and the
succeeding 6 calendar months and each
6 calendar month period thereafter.
*
*
*
*
*
■
[Amended]
■
*
§ 47.19
34. Amend § 49.11 by removing the
phrase ‘‘must be mailed to the FAA
Aircraft Registry, Department of
Transportation, Post Office Box 25504,
Oklahoma City, Oklahoma 73125–0504,
or delivered to the Registry at 6425 S.
Denning Ave., Oklahoma City,
Oklahoma 73169’’ and adding in its
place the phrase ‘‘must be delivered to
the Registry by a means acceptable to
the Administrator’’.
§ 49.13
PART 47—AIRCRAFT REGISTRATION
§ 47.9
[Amended]
■
Authority: 42 U.S.C. 4321 et seq.; 49 U.S.C.
106(g), 40113, 44701–44702, 44704, 44715;
sec. 305, Pub. L. 96–193, 94 Stat. 50, 57; E.O.
11514, 35 FR 4247, 3 CFR, 1966–1970 Comp.,
p. 902.
75711
Authority: 49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g), 40113,
and 44701; Public Law 111–216, 124 Stat.
2348 (49 U.S.C. 44701 note).
§ 60.5, § 60.7, § 60.9, § 60.11, § 60.13, § 60.14,
§ 60.15, § 60.16, § 60.17, § 60.19, § 60.21,
§ 60.23, § 60.25, § 60.27, § 60.29, § 60.31,
§ 60.37 [Amended]
37. Remove the word ‘‘NSPM’’ and
add in its place the words ‘‘responsible
Flight Standards office’’ wherever it
appears in the following places:
■ a. § 60.5(c) and (d);
■ b. § 60.7(a)(2), (b)(3), (4), and (6), and
(d)(2);
■ c. § 60.9(a), (b)(2), (c) introductory
text, and (c)(3);
■ d. § 60.11(d);
■
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Fmt 4701
Sfmt 4700
■
■
■
[Amended]
38. Amend § 60.5 in paragraph (a) by
removing the words ‘‘National
Simulator Program Manager (NSPM)’’
and adding in their place the words
‘‘responsible Flight Standards office’’.
■
§ 60.19
[Amended]
39. Amend § 60.19 as follows:
a. Amend paragraph (b)(4) by
removing the first instance of the word
‘‘NSPM’’ and adding in its place the
words ‘‘the responsible Flight Standards
office’’;
■ b. Amend paragraph (b)(4) by
removing the second instance of the
word ‘‘NSPM’’ and adding in its place
the words ‘‘responsible Flight Standards
office’’; and
■ c. Amend paragraph (b)(6) by
removing the words ‘‘an NSPM’’ and
adding in its place the words ‘‘a
responsible Flight Standards office’’.
■ 40. In appendix A to part 60:
■ a. In the introductory ‘‘Begin
Information’’ text, remove the phrase
‘‘NSPM, or a person assigned by the
NSPM,’’ and add in its place the words
‘‘responsible Flight Standards office’’.
■ b. In section 1:
■ i. Remove and reserve paragraph b;
■ ii. Remove the last sentence of
paragraph c;
■ iii. In paragraph d.(12), add the words
‘‘Flightcrew Member’’ after ‘‘as
amended,’’; and
■ iv. Revise paragraph d.(27).
■ c. In section 11:
■ i. In paragraph o. introductory text,
remove the words ‘‘an NSP pilot’’ and
add in its place the words, ‘‘a pilot from
the responsible Flight Standards office’’
and remove the second instance of the
word ‘‘NSP’’;
■
■
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09DER2
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Federal Register / Vol. 87, No. 236 / Friday, December 9, 2022 / Rules and Regulations
ii. In paragraph r.(1), remove the word
‘‘NSP’’; and
■ iii. In paragraph v., remove the phrase
‘‘NSPM or visit the NSPM website’’ and
add in its place the words, ‘‘responsible
Flight Standards office’’.
■ d. In attachment 1, revise table A1A;
■ e. In attachment 2:
■ i. Revise table A2A;
■ ii. In section 8, in the first instance of
paragraph d., remove the word ‘‘NSPM’’
and add in its place the words ‘‘the
responsible Flight Standards office’’;
and
■ iii. In table A2E, revise the entries for
1.a.2, 2.a.1.a., 2.a.2.a., and 2.a.3.a.
■ f. In attachment 3:
■ i. In section 2, remove the last
sentence of paragraph g; and
■ ii. Revise the table A3C introductory
text.
■ g. In attachment 4, revise figures A4A,
A4C, A4D, and A4E;
■ h. In attachment 6, FTSD Directive 2:
■ i. In the undesignated paragraph
following summary paragraph (e),
remove the words ‘‘National Simulator
Program Manager (NSPM)’’ and add in
their place the words ‘‘responsible
Flight Standards office’’.
■ ii. Remove the phrase ‘‘For Further
Information Contact’’ paragraph before
the heading ‘‘Specific Requirements’’;
■ iii. In section I, paragraph 5
introductory text, remove the word
‘‘NSP’s’’;
■ iv. In section II, paragraph 5
introductory text, remove the word
‘‘NSP’s’’;
■ v. In section III, paragraph 5
introductory text, remove the word
‘‘NSP’s’’;
■ vi. In section IV, paragraph 4
introductory text, remove the word
‘‘NSP’s’’; and
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■
VerDate Sep<11>2014
18:43 Dec 08, 2022
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vii. In section V, paragraph 4
introductory text, remove the word
‘‘NSP’s’’.
■ i. Remove the word ‘‘NSPM’’ and
adding in its place the words
‘‘responsible Flight Standards office’’ in
the following places:
■ i. Section 1, paragraph c, the first two
instances;
■ ii. Section 9, paragraphs d., d.(1),
d.(2), g., h., and i.;
■ iii. Section 10, paragraph a.;
■ iv. Section 11, paragraphs b.(2), b.(3),
d., f., g.(1), h., j. k., l., m., n., n.(2), o.,
p. q., r.(2), s., t., and w.;
■ v. Section 13, paragraphs a.(1), a.(3),
a.(4), a.(5), d., and i.;
■ vi. Section 14, paragraphs a., d., e.,
and e.(1);
■ vii. Section 17, paragraphs b.(1) and
b.(2);
■ viii. Sections 19 and 20;
■ ix. Attachment 2, section 2,
paragraphs a., h., j., k., and l.;
■ x. Attachment 2, section 4, the second
instance in paragraph b.(1);
■ xi. Attachment 2, section 5, paragraph
b.;
■ xii. Attachment 2, section 8,
paragraphs b., c., the second instance of
d., f., and g.;
■ xiii. Attachment 2, section 9,
paragraphs a., b. introductory text, b.(2),
and c.(2)(i);
■ xiv. Attachment 2, section 12,
paragraph a.;
■ xv. Attachment 2, section 13,
paragraph b.(6);
■ xvi. Attachment 2, section 14,
paragraph b.(4)(d);
■ xvii. Attachment 2, section 16,
paragraphs a.(2) and b.(2);
■ xviii. Attachment 2, section 17,
paragraphs c., d.(2), e., and f.;
■
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xix. Attachment 3, section 1,
paragraphs f., and g.;
■ xx. Attachment 3, section 2,
paragraphs, b., and f.;
■ xxi. Attachment 5, section 7,
paragraph a;
■ xxii. Attachment 5, section 8,
introductory text and paragraph c.;
■ xxiii. Attachment 6, FSTD Directive 2,
section I, paragraphs 5 and 6;
■ xxiv. Attachment 6, FSTD Directive 2,
section II, paragraphs 3, 5, and 6;
■ xxv. Attachment 6, FSTD Directive 2,
section III, paragraphs 3, 5, and 6;
■ xxvi. Attachment 6, FSTD Directive 2,
section IV, paragraphs 4 and 5; and
■ xxii. Attachment 6, FSTD Directive 2,
section V, paragraphs 4 and 5;
■ i. Remove the word ‘‘NSPM’’, and add
in its place the words ‘‘Flight Standards
Service’’ in the following places:
■ i. The introductory ‘‘Begin
Information’’ text; and
■ ii. The first instance in attachment 2,
section 4, paragraph b.(1).
■ j. Remove the word ‘‘NSP’’ from the
following places:
■ i. Section 14, paragraph g.; and
■ ii. Attachment 3, paragraph 2.d.
The revisions read as follows:
■
Appendix A to Part 60—Qualification
Performance Standards for Airplane
Full Flight Simulators
*
*
*
*
*
1. Introduction
(d) * * *
(27) FAA Airman Certification Standards
and Practical Test Standards for Airline
Transport Pilot, Type Ratings, Commercial
Pilot, and Instrument Ratings
*
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*
*
09DER2
*
*
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General Simulator Requirements
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1. General Fli2ht Deck Confil!uration.
1.a.
The simulator must have a flight deck that is a replica of the airplane
simulated with controls, equipment, observable flight deck indicators, circuit
breakers, and bulkheads properly located, functionally accurate and
replicating the airplane. The direction of movement of controls and switches
must be identical to the airplane. Pilot seats must allow the occupant to
achieve the design "eye position" established for the airplane being simulated.
Equipment for the operation of the flight deck windows must be included, but
the actual windows need not be operable. Additional equipment such as fire
axes, extinguishers, and spare light bulbs must be available in the FFS but
may be relocated to a suitable location as near as practical to the original
position. Fire axes, landing gear pins, and any similar purpose instruments
need only be represented in silhouette.
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09DER2
The use of electronically displayed images with physical overlay or masking
for simulator instruments and/or instrument panels is acceptable provided:
(1) All instruments and instrument panel layouts are dimensionally
correct with differences, if any, being imperceptible to the pilot;
(2) Instruments replicate those of the airplane including full instrument
functionality and embedded logic;
(3) Instruments displayed are free of quantization (stepping);
(4) Instrument display characteristics replicate those of the airplane
including: resolution, colors, luminance, brightness, fonts, fill
patterns, line styles and symbology;
(5) Overlay or masking, including bezels and bugs, as applicable,
replicates the airplane panel(s);
(6) Instrument controls and switches replicate and operate with the same
technique, effort, travel and in the same direction as those in the
airplane;
AIBICID
Notes
X X X X For simulator purposes, the
flight deck consists of all that
space forward of a cross
section of the flight deck at the
most extreme aft setting of the
pilots' seats, including
additional required
crewmember duty stations and
those required bulkheads aft of
the pilot seats. For
clarification, bulkheads
containing only items such as
landing gear pin storage
compartments, fire axes and
extinguishers, spare light
bulbs, and aircraft document
pouches are not considered
essential and may be omitted.
Federal Register / Vol. 87, No. 236 / Friday, December 9, 2022 / Rules and Regulations
18:43 Dec 08, 2022
Entry
Number
INFORMATION
Simulator
Levels
Attachment 1 * * *
VerDate Sep<11>2014
Table AlA - Minimum Simulator Requirements
QPS REQUIREMENTS
75713
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Level C and Level D only;
( 1) The display image of any three dimensional instrument, such as an
electro-mechanical instrument, should appear to have the same three
dimensional depth as the replicated instrument. The appearance of the
simulated instrument, when viewed from the principle operator's
angle, should replicate that of the actual airplane instrument. Any
instrument reading inaccuracy due to viewing angle and parallax
present in the actual airplane instrument should be duplicated in the
simulated instrument display image. Viewing angle error and parallax
must be minimized on shared instruments such and engine displays
and standby indicators.
1.b.
Those circuit breakers that affect procedures or result in observable flight
deck indications must be properly located and functionally accurate.
2. Pro2rammin2.
2.a.
A flight dynamics model that accounts for various combinations of drag and
thrust normally encountered in flight must correspond to actual flight
conditions, including the effect of change in airplane attitude, thrust, drag,
altitude, temperature, gross weight, moments of inertia, center of gravity
location, and configuration.
An SOC is required.
09DER2
For Level C and Level D simulators, the effects of pitch attitude and of fuel
slosh on the aircraft center of gravity must be simulated.
The simulator must have the computer capacity, accuracy, resolution, and
dynamic response needed to meet the qualification level sought.
An SOC is required.
X X X X
X X X X The SOC should include a
range of tabulated target values
to enable a demonstration of
the mass properties model to
be conducted from the
instructor's station. The data at
a minimum should contain 3
weight conditions including
X X zero fuel weight and maximum
taxi weight with a least 2
different combinations of zero
fuel weight, fuel weight and
payload for each condition.
X X X X
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18:43 Dec 08, 2022
X X
2.b.
ER09DE22.001
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(7) Instrument lighting replicates that of the airplane and is operated from
the FSTD control for that lighting and, if applicable, is at a level
commensurate with other lighting operated by that same control; and
(8) As applicable, instruments must have faceplates that replicate those in
the airplane; and
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2.c.
Ground effect.
2.d.2.
Ground reaction.
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Ground reaction modeling must produce the appropriate effects during
bounced or skipped landings, including the effects and indications of ground
contact due to landing in an abnormal aircraft attitude (e.g. tailstrike or
nosewheel contact). An SOC is required.
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2.d.3.
09DER2
Aerodynamic and ground reaction modeling to support training in crosswinds
and gusting crosswinds up to the aircraft's maximum demonstrated crosswind
component. Realistic gusting crosswind profiles must be available to the
instructors that have been tuned in intensity and variation to require pilot
intervention to avoid runway departure during takeoff or landing roll.
2.e.
An SOC is required describing source data used to construct gusting
crosswind profiles.
If the aircraft being simulated is one of the aircraft listed in§ 121.358, Lowaltitude windshear system equipment requirements, the simulator must
employ windshear models that provide training for recognition ofwindshear
X X X Ground effect includes
modeling that accounts for
roundout, flare, touchdown,
lift, drag, pitching moment,
trim, and power while in
ground effect.
X X X Ground reaction includes
modeling that accounts for
strut deflections, tire friction,
and side forces. This is the
reaction of the airplane upon
contact with the runway during
landing, and may differ with
changes in factors such as
gross weight, airspeed, or rate
of descent on touchdown.
X X X In developing gust models for
use in training, the FSTD
sponsor should coordinate with
the data provider to ensure that
X X the gust models do not exceed
the capabilities of the
aerodynamic and ground
models.
X X If desired, Level A and B
simulators may qualify for
windshear training by meeting
these standards; see
75715
ER09DE22.002
Ground handling characteristics, including aerodynamic and ground reaction
modeling including steering inputs, operations with crosswind, braking, thrust
reversing, deceleration, and turning radius.
X
Federal Register / Vol. 87, No. 236 / Friday, December 9, 2022 / Rules and Regulations
18:43 Dec 08, 2022
2.d.
Surface operations must be represented to the extent that allows turns within
the confines of the runway and adequate controls on the landing and roll-out
from a crosswind approach to a landing.
Ground handling and aerodynamic programming must include the following:
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The addition of realistic levels of turbulence associated with each required
windshear profile must be available and selectable to the instructor.
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2.f.
09DER2
2.g.
ER09DE22.003
The simulator should employ a
method to ensure the required
survivable and non-survivable
windshear scenarios are
repeatable in the training
environment.
In addition to the four basic windshear models required for qualification, at
least two additional "complex" windshear models must be available to the
instructor which represent the complexity of actual windshear encounters.
These models must be available in the takeoff and landing configurations and
must consist of independent variable winds in multiple simultaneous
components. The Windshear Training Aid provides two such example
"complex" windshear models that may be used to satisfy this requirement.
The simulator must provide for manual and automatic testing of simulator
hardware and software programming to determine compliance with simulator
objective tests as prescribed in Attachment 2 of this appendix.
An SOC is required.
Relative responses of the motion system, visual system, and flight deck
instruments, measured by latency tests or transport delay tests. Motion onset
should occur before the start of the visual scene change (the start of the scan
of the first video field containing different information) but must occur before
the end of the scan of that video field. Instrument response may not occur
prior to motion onset. Test results must be within the following limits:
X X Automatic "flagging" of outof-tolerance situations is
encouraged.
The intent is to verify that the
simulator provides instrument,
motion, and visual cues that
are, within the stated time
delays, like the airplane
responses. For airplane
Federal Register / Vol. 87, No. 236 / Friday, December 9, 2022 / Rules and Regulations
18:43 Dec 08, 2022
The QTG must reference the FAA Windshear Training Aid or present
alternate airplane related data, including the implementation method(s) used.
If the alternate method is selected, wind models from the Royal Aerospace
Establishment (RAE), the Joint Airport Weather Studies (JAWS) Project and
other recognized sources may be implemented, but must be supported and
properly referenced in the QTG. Only those simulators meeting these
requirements may be used to satisfy the training requirements of part 121
pertaining to a certificate holder's approved low-altitude windshear flight
training program as described in§ 121.409.
Attachment 5 of this appendix.
Windshear models may consist
of independent variable winds
in multiple simultaneous
components. The FAA
Windshear Training Aid
presents one acceptable means
of compliance with simulator
wind model requirements.
75716
VerDate Sep<11>2014
phenomena and the execution of recovery procedures. Models must be
available to the instructor/evaluator for the following critical phases of flight:
( 1) Prior to takeoff rotation;
(2) At liftoff;
(3) During initial climb; and
(4) On final approach, below 500 ft AGL.
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2.2.l.
2.g.2.
2.h.
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2.j.
300 milliseconds of the airplane response.
100 milliseconds of the airplane response (motion and instrument cues)
120 milliseconds of the airplane response (visual system cues)
The simulator must accurately reproduce the following runway conditions:
(1) Dry;
(2) Wet;
(3) Icy;
(4) Patchy Wet;
(5) Patchy Icy; and
(6) Wet on Rubber Residue in Touchdown Zone.
An SOC is required.
The simulator must simulate:
(1) brake and tire failure dynamics, including antiskid failure; and
(2) decreased brake efficiency due to high brake temperatures, if
applicable.
09DER2
An SOC is required.
Engine and Airframe Icing
Modeling that includes the effects of icing, where appropriate, on the
airframe, aerodynamics, and the engine(s). Icing models must simulate the
aerodynamic degradation effects of ice accretion on the airplane lifting
surfaces including loss of lift, decrease in stall angle of attack, change in
pitching moment, decrease in control effectiveness, and changes in control
forces in addition to any overall increase in drag. Aircraft systems ( such as
the stall protection system and autoflight system) must respond properly to
ice accretion consistent with the simulated aircraft.
Aircraft OEM data or other acceptable analytical methods must be utilized to
develop ice accretion models. Acceptable analytical methods may include
wind tunnel analysis and/or engineering analysis of the aerodynamic effects
of icing on the lifting surfaces coupled with tuning and supplemental
subjective assessment by a subject matter expert pilot.
X X
X X
X X
X X Simulator pitch, side loading,
and directional control
characteristics should be
representative of the airplane.
X X SOC should be provided
describing the effects which
provide training in the specific
skills required for recognition
of icing phenomena and
execution ofrecovery. The
SOC should describe the
source data and any analytical
methods used to develop ice
accretion models including
verification that these effects
have been tested.
Federal Register / Vol. 87, No. 236 / Friday, December 9, 2022 / Rules and Regulations
18:43 Dec 08, 2022
response, acceleration in the
appropriate, corresponding
rotational axis is preferred.
Icing effects simulation models
are only required for those
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09DER2
ER09DE22.005
2.m.
The aerodynamic modeling in the simulator must include:
(1) Low-altitude level-flight ground effect;
(2) Mach effect at high altitude;
(3) Normal and reverse dynamic thrust effect on control surfaces;
(4) Aeroelastic representations; and
(5) Nonlinearities due to sideslip.
An SOC is required and must include references to computations of
aeroelastic representations and of nonlinearities due to sideslip.
The simulator must have aerodynamic and ground reaction modeling for the
effects of reverse thrust on directional control, if applicable.
An SOC is required.
High Angle of Attack Modeling
Aerodynamic stall modeling that includes degradation in static/dynamic
lateral-directional stability, degradation in control response (pitch, roll, and
yaw), uncommanded roll response or roll-off requiring significant control
deflection to counter, apparent randomness or non-repeatability, changes in
pitch stability, Mach effects, and stall buffet, as appropriate to the aircraft
type.
The aerodynamic model must incorporate an angle of attack and sideslip
range to support the training tasks. At a minimum, the model must support an
angle of attack range to ten degrees beyond the stall identification angle of
attack. The stall identification angle of attack is defined as the point where the
behavior of the airplane gives the pilot a clear and distinctive indication
through the inherent flight characteristics or the characteristics resulting from
the operation of a stall identification device (e.g., a stick pusher) that the
airplane has stalled.
See Attachment 7 of this
Appendix for further guidance
material.
X See Attachment 2 of this
appendix, paragraph 5, for
further information on ground
effect.
X X X
X X The requirements in this
section only apply to those
FSTDs that are qualified for
full stall training tasks.
Sponsors may elect to not
qualify an FSTD for full stall
training tasks; however, the
FSTD's qualification will be
restricted to approach to stall
training tasks that terminate at
the activation of the stall
warning system.
Specific guidance should be
available to the instructor
which clearly communicates
the flight configurations and
stall maneuvers that have been
Federal Register / Vol. 87, No. 236 / Friday, December 9, 2022 / Rules and Regulations
18:43 Dec 08, 2022
2.k.
airplanes authorized for
operations in icing conditions.
75718
VerDate Sep<11>2014
SOC and tests required. See objective testing requirements (Attachment 2,
test 2.i.).
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See Attachment 7 of this
Appendix for additional
guidance material.
(1) Stall entry at wings level (lg);
(2) Stall entry in turning flight of at least 25° bank angle (accelerated
stall);
(3) Stall entry in a power-on condition (required only for propeller driven
aircraft); and
(4) Aircraft configurations of second segment climb, high altitude cruise
(near performance limited condition), and approach or landing.
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A Statement of Compliance (SOC) is required which describes the
aerodynamic modeling methods, validation, and checkout of the stall
characteristics of the FSTD. The SOC must also include verification that the
FSTD has been evaluated by a subject matter expert pilot acceptable to the
FAA. See Attachment 7 of this Appendix for detailed requirements.
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Where known limitations exist in the aerodynamic model for particular stall
maneuvers (such as aircraft configurations and stall entry methods), these
limitations must be declared in the required SOC.
E:\FR\FM\09DER2.SGM
09DER2
2.n.
FSTDs qualified for full stall training tasks must also meet the instructor
operating station (IOS) requirements for upset prevention and recovery
training (UPRT) tasks as described in section 2.n. of this table. See
Attachment 7 of this Appendix for additional requirements.
Upset Prevention and Recovery Training (UPRT).
Aerodynamics Evaluation: The simulator must be evaluated for specific upset
recovery maneuvers for the purpose of determining that the combination of
angle of attack and side slip does not exceed the range of flight test validated
data or wind tunnel/analytical data while performing the recovery maneuver.
The following minimum set of required upset recovery maneuvers must be
evaluated in this manner and made available to the instructor/evaluator. Other
upset recovery scenarios as developed by the FSTD sponsor must be
evaluated in the same manner:
X X This section generally applies
to the qualification of airplane
upset recovery training
maneuvers or unusual attitude
training maneuvers that exceed
one or more of the following
conditions:
■
Pitch attitude greater
than 25 degrees, nose
up
75719
ER09DE22.006
evaluated in the FSTD for use
in training.
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18:43 Dec 08, 2022
The model must be capable of capturing the variations seen in the stall
characteristics of the airplane (e.g., the presence or absence of a pitch break,
deterrent buffet, or other indications of a stall where present on the aircraft).
The aerodynamic modeling must support stall training maneuvers in the
following flight conditions:
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Upset Scenarios: IOS selectable dynamic airplane upsets must provide
guidance to the instructor concerning the method used to drive the FSTD into
an upset condition, including any malfunction or degradation in the FSTD's
functionality required to initiate the upset. The unrealistic degradation of
simulator functionality (such as degrading flight control effectiveness) to
drive an airplane upset is generally not acceptable unless used purely as a tool
for repositioning the FSTD with the pilot out of the loop.
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Instructor Operating System (IOS): The simulator must have a feedback
mechanism in place to notify the instructor/evaluator when the simulator's
validated aerodynamic envelope and aircraft operating limits have been
exceeded during an upset recovery training task. This feedback mechanism
must include:
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09DER2
( 1) FS TD validation envelope. This must be in the form of an
alpha/beta envelope (or equivalent method) depicting the
"confidence level" of the aerodynamic model depending on the
degree of flight validation or source of predictive methods The
envelopes must provide the instructor real-time feedback on the
simulation during a maneuver. There must be a minimum of a
flaps up and flaps down envelope available;
(2) Flight control inputs. This must enable the instructor to assess the
pilot's flight control displacements and forces (including fly-bywire as appropriate); and
(3) Airplane operational limits. This must display the aircraft
operating limits during the maneuver as applicable for the
configuration of the airplane.
■
Pitch attitude greater
than 10 degrees, nose
down
Bank angle greater than
45 degrees
Flight at airspeeds
inappropriate for
conditions.
FSTDs used to conduct upset
recovery maneuvers at angles
of attack above the stall
warning system activation
must meet the requirements for
high angle of attack modeling
as described in section 2.m.
Special consideration should
be given to the motion system
response during upset
prevention and recovery
maneuvers. Notwithstanding
the limitations of simulator
motion, specific emphasis
should be placed on tuning out
motion system responses.
Consideration should be taken
with flight envelope protected
airplanes as artificially
positioning the airplane to a
specified attitude may
incorrectly initialize flight
control laws.
See Attachment 7 of this
Appendix for further guidance
material.
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18:43 Dec 08, 2022
■
Statement of Compliance (SOC): An SOC is required that defines the source
data used to construct the FSTD validation envelope. The SOC must also
verify that each upset prevention and recovery feature programmed at the
instructor station and the associated training maneuver has been evaluated by
a suitably qualified pilot using methods described in this section. The
statement must confirm that the recovery maneuver can be performed such
ER09DE22.007
■
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VerDate Sep<11>2014
(1) A nose-high, wings level aircraft upset;
(2) A nose-low aircraft upset; and
(3) A high bank angle aircraft upset.
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3.c.
For Level C and Level D simulators, instrument indications must also respond
to effects resulting from icing.
Communications, navigation, caution, and warning equipment must be
installed and operate within the tolerances applicable for the airplane.
Instructor control of internal and external navigational aids.Navigation aids
must be usable within range or line-of-sight without restriction, as applicable
to the geographic area.
Complete navigation database for at least 3 airports with corresponding
precision and non-precision approach procedures, including navigational
database updates.
Complete navigation database for at least 1 airport with corresponding
precision and non-precision approach procedures, including navigational
database updates.
Simulated airplane systems must operate as the airplane systems operate
under normal, abnormal, and emergency operating conditions on the ground
and in flight.
09DER2
Once activated, proper systems operation must result from system
management by the crew member and not require any further input from the
instructor's controls.
X X X X
X X X X See Attachment 3 of this
appendix for further
information regarding longrange navigation equipment.
X X
X X
X X X X Airplane system operation
should be predicated on, and
traceable to, the system data
supplied by the airplane
manufacturer, original
equipment manufacturer or
alternative approved data for
the airplane system or
component.
ER09DE22.008
75721
At a minimum, alternate
approved data should validate
the operation of all normal,
abnormal, and emergency
operating procedures and
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18:43 Dec 08, 2022
that the FSTD does not exceed the FSTD validation envelope, or when
exceeded, that it is within the realm of confidence in the simulation accuracy.
3. Equipment Operation.
3.a.
All relevant instrument indications involved in the simulation of the airplane
must automatically respond to control movement or external disturbances to
the simulated airplane; e.g., turbulence or windshear. Numerical values must
be presented in the appropriate units.
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ER09DE22.009
3.f.
The simulator must provide pilot controls with control forces and control
travel that correspond to the simulated airplane. The simulator must also react
in the same manner as in the airplane under the same flight conditions.
Control systems must replicate airplane operation for the normal and any nonnormal modes including back-up systems and should reflect failures of
associated systems.
Annropriate cockpit indications and messages must be replicated.
Simulator control feel dynamics must replicate the airplane. This must be
determined by comparing a recording of the control feel dynamics of the
simulator to airplane measurements. For initial and upgrade qualification
evaluations, the control dynamic characteristics must be measured and
recorded directly from the flight deck controls, and must be accomplished in
takeoff, cruise, and landing flight conditions and configurations.
For aircraft equipped with a stick pusher system, control forces, displacement,
and surface position must correspond to that of the airplane being simulated.
A Statement of Compliance (SOC) is required verifying that the stick pusher
system has been modeled, programmed, and validated using the aircraft
manufacturer's design data or other acceptable data source. The SOC must
address, at a minimum, stick pusher activation and cancellation logic as well
as system dynamics, control displacement and forces as a result of the stick
pusher activation.
Tests required.
4. Instructor or Evaluator Facilities.
4.a.
In addition to the flight crewmember stations, the simulator must have at least
two suitable seats for the instructor/check airman and FAA inspector. These
seats must provide adequate vision to the pilot's panel and forward windows.
All seats other than flight crew seats need not represent those found in the
airplane, but must be adequately secured to the floor and equipped with
similar positive restraint devices.
4.b.
The simulator must have controls that enable the instructor/evaluator to
control all required system variables and insert all abnormal or emergency
conditions into the simulated airplane systems as described in the sponsor's
X X X X
X X
X X See Appendix A, Table A2A,
test 2.a.10 (stick pusher system
force calibration) for objective
testing requirements.
The requirements in this
section only apply to those
FSTDs that are qualified for
full stall training tasks.
X X X X The responsible Flight
Standards office will consider
alternatives to this standard for
additional seats based on
unique flight deck
configurations.
X X X X
Federal Register / Vol. 87, No. 236 / Friday, December 9, 2022 / Rules and Regulations
18:43 Dec 08, 2022
3.d.
75722
VerDate Sep<11>2014
training tasks the FSTD is
qualified to conduct.
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4.d.
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5. Motion System.
The simulator must have motion (force) cues perceptible to the pilot that are
5.a.
representative of the motion in an airplane.
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5.c.
E:\FR\FM\09DER2.SGM
5.d.
09DER2
5.e.
5.e.1.
The simulator must have a motion (force cueing) system with a minimum of
three degrees of freedom (at least pitch, roll, and heave).
An SOC is required.
The simulator must have a motion (force cueing) system that produces cues at
least equivalent to those of a six-degrees-of-freedom, synergistic platform
motion system (i.e., pitch, roll, yaw, heave, sway, and surge).
An SOC is required.
The simulator must provide for the recording of the motion system response
time.
X X For example, another airplane
crossing the active runway or
converging airborne traffic.
X X X X For example, touchdown cues
should be a function of the rate
of descent (RoD) of the
simulated airplane.
X X
X X
X X X X
X X X If there are known flight
conditions where buffet is the
first indication of the stall, or
where no stall buffet occurs,
this characteristic should be
included in the model.
75723
An SOC is required.
The simulator must provide motion effects programming to include:
(1) Thrust effect with brakes set;
(2) Runway rumble, oleo deflections, effects of ground speed, uneven
runway, centerline lights, and taxiway characteristics;
(3) Buffets on the ground due to spoiler/speedbrake extension and thrust
reversal;
(4) Bumps associated with the landing gear;
(5) Buffet during extension and retraction of landing gear;
(6) Buffet in the air due to flap and spoiler/speedbrake extension;
(7) Approach-to-stall buffet and stall buffet (where annlicable);
X X X X
Federal Register / Vol. 87, No. 236 / Friday, December 9, 2022 / Rules and Regulations
18:43 Dec 08, 2022
ER09DE22.010
4.c.
FAA-approved training program; or as described in the relevant operating
manual as annropriate.
The simulator must have instructor controls for all environmental effects
expected to be available at the IOS; e.g., clouds, visibility, icing,
precipitation, temperature, storm cells and micro bursts, turbulence, and
intermediate and high altitude wind speed and direction.
The simulator must provide the instructor or evaluator the ability to present
ground and air hazards.
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X X
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X The simulator should be
programmed and instrumented
in such a manner that the
characteristic buffet modes can
be measured and compared to
airplane data.
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09DER2
6. Visual System.
The simulator must have a visual system providing an out-of-the-flight deck
6.a.
view.
The simulator must provide a continuous collimated field-of-view of at least
6.b.
45° horizontally and 30° vertically per pilot seat or the number of degrees
necessary to meet the visual ground segment requirement, whichever is
greater. Both pilot seat visual systems must be operable simultaneously. The
minimum horizontal field-of-view coverage must be plus and minus one-half
(½) of the minimum continuous field-of-view requirement, centered on the
zero degree azimuth line relative to the aircraft fuselage.
6.c.
6.d.
ER09DE22.011
An SOC is required and must explain the system geometry measurements
including system linearity and field-of-view.
(Reserved)
The simulator must provide a continuous collimated visual field-of-view of at
leastl 76° horizontally and 36° vertically or the number of degrees necessary
to meet the visual ground segment requirement, whichever is greater. The
minimum horizontal field-of-view coverage must be plus and minus one-half
X X X X
X X
Additional field-of-view
capability may be added at the
sponsor's discretion provided
the minimum fields of view are
retained.
X X The horizontal field-of-view is
traditionally described as a
180° field-of-view. However,
the field-of-view is technically
Federal Register / Vol. 87, No. 236 / Friday, December 9, 2022 / Rules and Regulations
18:43 Dec 08, 2022
5.f.
75724
VerDate Sep<11>2014
5.e.2.
(8) Representative touchdown cues for main and nose gear;
(9) Nosewheel scuffing, if applicable;
(10) Mach and maneuver buffet;
(11) Engine failures, malfunctions, and engine damage
(12) Tail and pod strike;
(13) Taxiing effects such as lateral and directional cues resulting from
steering and braking inputs;
(14) Buffet due to atmospheric disturbances (e.g. buffets due to turbulence,
gusting winds, storm cells, windshear, etc.) in three linear axes (isotropic);
(15) Tire failure dynamics; and
(16) Other significant vibrations, buffets and bumps that are not mentioned
above (e.g. RAT), or checklist items such as motion effects due to pre-flight
flight control inputs.
The simulator must provide characteristic motion vibrations that result from
operation of the airplane if the vibration marks an event or airplane state that
can be sensed in the flight deck.
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(½) of the minimum continuous field-of-view requirement, centered on the
zero degree azimuth line relative to the aircraft fuselage.
The visual system must be free from optical discontinuities and artifacts that
create non-realistic cues.
6.f.
The simulator must have operational landing lights for night scenes. Where
used, dusk (or twilight) scenes require operational landing lights.
The simulator must have instructor controls for the following:
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6.i.
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6.j.
6.k.
The simulator must provide visual cues necessary to assess sink rates (provide
depth perception) during takeoffs and landings, to include:
(1) Surface on runways, taxiways, and ramps; and
(2) Terrain features.
The simulator must provide for accurate portrayal of the visual environment
relating to the simulator attitude.
X X X X
X X X X This will show the modeling
accuracy ofRVR, glideslope, and
localizer for a given weight,
configuration, and speed within
the airplane's operational
envelope for a normal approach
and landing.
X X X
X X X X Visual attitude vs. simulator
attitude is a comparison of
pitch and roll of the horizon as
displayed in the visual scene
75725
ER09DE22.012
(1) Visibility in statute miles (km) and runway visual range (RVR) in ft.(m);
(2) Airport selection; and
(3) Airport lighting.
The simulator must provide visual system compatibility with dynamic
response programming.
The simulator must show that the segment of the ground visible from the
simulator flight deck is the same as from the airplane flight deck (within
established tolerances) when at the correct airspeed, in the landing
configuration, at the appropriate height above the touchdown zone, and with
appropriate visibility.
X X X X
Federal Register / Vol. 87, No. 236 / Friday, December 9, 2022 / Rules and Regulations
18:43 Dec 08, 2022
An SOC is required and must explain the system geometry measurements
including system linearity and field-of-view.
no less than 176°. Additional
field-of-view capability may
be added at the sponsor's
discretion provided the
minimum fields of view are
retained.
X X X X Non-realistic cues might
include image "swimming"
and image "roll-off," that may
lead a pilot to make incorrect
assessments of speed,
acceleration, or situational
awareness.
X X X X
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6.p.
ER09DE22.013
The simulator must provide for quick confirmation of visual system color,
RVR, focus, and intensity.
An SOC is required.
The simulator must be capable of producing at least 10 levels of occulting.
Night Visual Scenes. When used in training, testing, or checking activities,
the simulator must provide night visual scenes with sufficient scene content to
recognize the airport, the terrain, and major landmarks around the airport. The
scene content must allow a pilot to successfully accomplish a visual landing.
Scenes must include a definable horizon and typical terrain characteristics
such as fields, roads and bodies of water and surfaces illuminated by airplane
landing lights.
Dusk (or Twilight) Visual Scenes. When used in training, testing, or checking
activities, the simulator must provide dusk ( or twilight) visual scenes with
sufficient scene content to recognize the airport, the terrain, and major
landmarks around the airport. The scene content must allow a pilot to
successfully accomplish a visual landing. Dusk (or twilight) scenes, as a
minimum, must provide full color presentations of reduced ambient intensity,
sufficient surfaces with appropriate textural cues that include self-illuminated
objects such as road networks, ramp lighting and airport signage, to conduct a
visual approach, landing and airport movement (taxi). Scenes must include a
definable horizon and typical terrain characteristics such as fields, roads and
bodies of water and surfaces illuminated by airplane landing lights. If
provided, directional horizon lighting must have correct orientation and be
consistent with surface shading effects. Total night or dusk (twilight) scene
content must be comparable in detail to that produced by 10,000 visible
textured surfaces and 15,000 visible lights with sufficient system capacity to
display 16 simultaneously moving objects.
An SOC is required.
Daylight Visual Scenes. The simulator must provide daylight visual scenes
with sufficient scene content to recognize the airport, the terrain, and major
landmarks around the airport. The scene content must allow a pilot to
successfully accomplish a visual landing. Any ambient lighting must not
"washout" the displayed visual scene. Total daylight scene content must be
X X
X X
X X X X
X X
X X
Federal Register / Vol. 87, No. 236 / Friday, December 9, 2022 / Rules and Regulations
18:43 Dec 08, 2022
6.1.
75726
VerDate Sep<11>2014
compared to the display on the
attitude indicator.
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6.q.
An SOC is required.
The simulator must provide operational visual scenes that portray physical
relationships known to cause landing illusions to pilots.
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09DER2
6.s.
6.t.
6.u.
The simulator must provide special weather representations of light, medium,
and heavy precipitation near a thunderstorm on takeoff and during approach
and landing. Representations need only be presented at and below an altitude
of 2,000 ft. (610 m) above the airport surface and within 10 miles (16 km) of
the airport.
The simulator must present visual scenes of wet and snow-covered runways,
including runway lighting reflections for wet conditions, partially obscured
lights for snow conditions, or suitable alternative effects.
The simulator must present realistic color and directionality of all airport
lighting.
The following weather effects as observed on the visual system must be
simulated and respective instructor controls provided.
(1) Multiple cloud layers with adjustable bases, tops, sky coverage and
scud effect;
(2) Storm cells activation and/or deactivation;
(3) Visibility and runway visual range (RVR), including fog and patchy
fog effect;
(4) Effects on ownship external lighting;
(5) Effects on airport lighting (including variable intensity and fog
effects);
(6) Surface contaminants (including wind blowing effect);
(7) Variable precipitation effects (rain, hail, snow);
(8) In-cloud airspeed effect; and
(9) Gradual visibility changes entering and breaking out of cloud.
X X
X X
X X Scud effects are low, detached,
and irregular clouds below a
defined cloud layer.
Atmospheric model should
support representative effects
of wake turbulence and
mountain waves as needed to
enhance UPRT training.
The mountain wave model
should support the atmospheric
climb, descent, and roll rates
which can be encountered in
75727
ER09DE22.014
6.r.
X X For example: short runways,
landing approaches over water,
uphill or downhill runways,
rising terrain on the approach
path, unique topographic
features.
X X
Federal Register / Vol. 87, No. 236 / Friday, December 9, 2022 / Rules and Regulations
18:43 Dec 08, 2022
comparable in detail to that produced by 10,000 visible textured surfaces and
6,000 visible lights with sufficient system capacity to display 16
simultaneously moving objects. The visual display must be free of apparent
and distracting quantization and other distracting visual effects while the
simulator is in motion.
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7. Sound System.
The simulator must provide flight deck sounds that result from pilot actions
7.a.
that correspond to those that occur in the airplane.
7.b.
The volume control must have an indication of sound level setting which
meets all qualification requirements.
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09DER2
7.c.
The simulator must accurately simulate the sound of precipitation, windshield
wipers, and other significant airplane noises perceptible to the pilot during
normal and abnormal operations, and include the sound of a crash (when the
simulator is landed in an unusual attitude or in excess of the structural gear
limitations); normal engine and thrust reversal sounds; and the sounds of flap,
gear, and spoiler extension and retraction.
Sounds must be directionally representative.
ER09DE22.015
X X X X
X X X X For Level D simulators, this
indication should be readily
available to the instructor on or
about the IOS and is the sound
level setting required to meet
the objective testing
requirements as described in
Table A2A of this Appendix.
For all other simulator levels,
this indication is the sound
level setting as evaluated
during the simulator's initial
evaluation.
X X For simulators qualified for
full stall training tasks, sounds
associated with stall buffet
should be replicated if
significant in the airplane.
Federal Register / Vol. 87, No. 236 / Friday, December 9, 2022 / Rules and Regulations
18:43 Dec 08, 2022
The simulator must provide visual effects for:
(1) Light poles;
(2) Raised edge lights as appropriate; and
(3) Glow associated with approach lights in low visibility before physical
lights are seen,
75728
VerDate Sep<11>2014
6.v.
mountain wave and rotor
conditions.
X X Visual effects for light poles
and raised edge lights are for
the purpose of providing
additional depth perception
during takeoff, landing, and
taxi training tasks. Three
dimensional modeling of the
actual poles and stanchions is
not required.
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*
*
*
VerDate Sep<11>2014
*
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Federal Register / Vol. 87, No. 236 / Friday, December 9, 2022 / Rules and Regulations
*
18:43 Dec 08, 2022
7.d.
A SOC is required.
The simulator must provide realistic amplitude and frequency of flight deck
noises and sounds. Simulator performance must be recorded, compared to
amplitude and frequency of the same sounds recorded in the airplane, and be
made a part of the QTG.
75729
ER09DE22.016
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Title
Simulator
Level
AIBlcio
Notes
Minimum radius
turn.
±0.9 m (3 ft) or ±20%
of airplane turn radius.
Ground.
1.a.2
Rate of tum versus
nosewheel steering
angle (NWA).
±10% or ±2°/s of turn
rate.
Ground.
Fmt 4701
1.b.
Takeoff.
l.b.l
Ground acceleration
time and distance.
±1.5 s or
±5% of time; and
±61 m (200 ft) or ±5%
of distance.
Takeoff.
l.b.2
Minimum control
speed, ground (Vm,g)
using aerodynamic
controls only per
applicable
airworthiness
requirement or
alternative engine
inoperative test to
demonstrate ground
control
characteristics.
±25% of maximum
airplane lateral
deviation reached or
±1.5 m (5 ft).
Takeoff.
PO 00000
Taxi.
1.a.1
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1. Performance.
1.a.
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09DER2
ER09DE22.017
Test
Details
For airplanes with
reversible flight control
systems:
±2.2 daN (5 !bf) or ±10%
of rudder pedal force.
Plot both main and nose gear loci and key engine
parameter(s). Data for no brakes and the
minimum thrust required to maintain a steady
tum except for airplanes requiring asymmetric
thrust or braking to achieve the minimum radius
turn.
Record for a minimum of two speeds, greater
than minimum turning radius speed with one at a
typical taxi speed, and with a spread of at least 5
kt.
Note.-All airplane manufacturer commonlyused certificated take-offflap settings must be
demonstrated at least once either in minimum
unstick speed (l.b.3), normal take-off (l.b.4),
critical engine failure on take-off (1. b. 5) or
crosswind take-off (l.b.6).
Acceleration time and distance must be recorded
for a minimum of 80% of the total time from
brake release to V,. Preliminary aircraft
certification data may be used.
Engine failure speed must be within ± l kt of
airplane engine failure speed. Engine thrust decay
must be that resulting from the mathematical
model for the engine applicable to the FSTD
under test. If the modeled engine is not the same
as the airplane manufacturer's flight test engine, a
further test may be run with the same initial
conditions using the thrust from the flight test
data as the driving parameter.
X
X
X
X
X
X
X
X
X
X
May be combined with
normal takeoff(l.b.4.) or
rejected takeoff(l.b.7.).
Plotted data should be shown
using appropriate scales for
each portion of the maneuver.
X
X
X
X
If a V m,g test is not available,
an acceptable alternative is a
flight test snap engine
deceleration to idle at a speed
between V 1 and V 1-10 kt,
followed by control of
heading using aerodynamic
control only and recovery
should be achieved with the
main gear on the ground.
To ensure only aerodynamic
control, nosewheel steering
should be disabled ( i.e.
castored) or the nosewheel
held slightly off the ground.
Federal Register / Vol. 87, No. 236 / Friday, December 9, 2022 / Rules and Regulations
Tolerance
Entry .1
Number
Flight
Conditions
75730
18:43 Dec 08, 2022
Test
INFORMATION
Attachment 2 * * *
VerDate Sep<11>2014
A2A -
Table
Full Flight Simulator (FFS) Objective Tests
QPS REQUIREMENTS
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VerDate Sep<11>2014
t.b.3
±3 kt airspeed.
±1.5° pitch angle.
Takeoff.
Record time history data from IO knots before
start of rotation until at least 5 seconds after the
occurrence of main gear lift-off.
X
X
X
X
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l.b.4
Normal take-off.
±3 kt airspeed.
±1.5° pitch angle.
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±6 m (20 ft) height.
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For airplanes with
reversible flight control
systems:
±1.5° AOA.
E:\FR\FM\09DER2.SGM
1.b.5
Critical engine failure
on take-off.
±2.2 daN (5 lbt) or
±10% ofcolumn force.
±3 kt airspeed.
±1.5° pitch angle.
±1.5° AOA.
Data required for near maximum certificated
takeoff weight at mid center of gravity location
and light takeoff weight at an aft center of gravity
location. If the airplane has more than one
certificated takeoff configuration, a different
configuration must be used for each weight.
Takeoff.
Record takeoff profile to at least 61 m (200 ft)
AGL.
09DER2
Engine failure speed must be within ±3 kt of
airplane data.
±2° roll angle.
Test at near maximum takeoff weight.
±2° side-slip angle.
For airplanes with
reversible flight control
systems:
±2.2 daN (5 lbt) or
±10% of column force;
X
X
X
If either of these alternative
solutions is selected, aft body
contact/tail strike protection
functionality, if present on the
airplane, should be active.
The test may be used for
ground acceleration time and
distance (Lb.I).
Plotted data should be shown
using appropriate scales for
each portion of the maneuver.
X
X
X
X
75731
± 1.3 daN (3 lbt) or
±10% of wheel force;
and
X
Record takeoff profile from brake release to at
least 61 m (200 ft) AGL.
±6 m (20 ft) height.
±3° heading angle.
ER09DE22.018
Takeoff.
V mu is defined as the
minimum speed at which the
last main landing gear leaves
the ground. Main landing gear
strut compression or
equivalent air/ground signal
should be recorded. If a V mu
test is not available,
alternative acceptable flight
tests are a constant highattitude takeoff run through
main gear lift-off or an early
rotation takeoff.
Federal Register / Vol. 87, No. 236 / Friday, December 9, 2022 / Rules and Regulations
18:43 Dec 08, 2022
Minimum unstick
speed (Vmu) or
equivalent test to
demonstrate early
rotation take-off
characteristics.
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Crosswind takeoff.
75732
VerDate Sep<11>2014
l.b.6
±2.2 daN (5 lb1) or
±10% of rudder pedal
force.
± 3 kt airspeed.
Takeoff.
Record takeoff profile from brake release to at
least 61 m (200 ft) AGL.
X
X
In those situations where a
maximum crosswind or a
maximum demonstrated
crosswind is not known,
contact the responsible Flight
Standards office.
X
X
X
X
Autobrakes will be used
where applicable.
X
X
For safety considerations,
airplane flight test may be
performed out of ground
effect at a safe altitude, but
with correct airplane
configuration and airsoeed.
This test requires test data, including wind
profile, for a crosswind component of at least
60% of the airplane performance data value
measured at 10 m (33 ft) above the runway.
±1.5° AOA.
±6 m (20 ft) height.
Jkt 259001
±2° roll angle.
Wind components must be provided as headwind
and crosswind values with respect to the runway.
±2° side-slip angle.
PO 00000
±3 ° heading angle.
Frm 00030
Correct trends at ground
speeds below 40 kt for
rudder/pedal and
heading angle.
Fmt 4701
For airplanes with
reversible flight control
systems:
Sfmt 4725
±2.2 daN (5 lb1) or
±10% ofcolumn force;
±1.3 daN (3 lb1) or
±10% of wheel force;
and
l.b.7.
Rejected Takeoff.
±2.2 daN (5 lb1) or
±10% of rudder pedal
force.
±5% of time or ±1.5 s.
Takeoff.
Record at mass near maximum takeoff weight.
Speed for reject must be at least 80% ofV 1.
09DER2
±7.5% of distance or
±76 m (250 ft).
Maximum braking effort, auto or manual.
Where a maximum braking demonstration is not
available, an acceptable alternative is a test using
approximately 80% braking and full reverse, if
applicable.
Dynamic Engine
Failure After
Takeoff.
±2°/s or ±20% of body
angular rates.
Takeoff.
Time and distance must be recorded from brake
release to a full stoo.
Engine failure speed must be within ±3 kt of
airplane data.
Engine failure may be a snap deceleration to idle.
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18:43 Dec 08, 2022
E:\FR\FM\09DER2.SGM
X
±1.5° pitch angle.
1.b.8.
ER09DE22.019
X
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VerDate Sep<11>2014
Record hands-off from 5 s before engine failure
to +5 s or 30° roll angle, whichever occurs first.
I.e.
Climb.
1.c.1.
Normal Climb, all
engines operating.
±3 kt airspeed.
Clean.
±0.5 mis (100 ft/ min)
or ±5% of rate of climb.
Flight test data are preferred; however, airplane
performance manual data are an acceptable
alternative.
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One-engineinoperative 2nd
segment climb.
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X
X
X
X
X
X
X
X
X
X
FSTD performance is to be recorded over an
interval of at least 300 m (1 000 ft).
Frm 00031
Sfmt 4725
X
Record at nominal climb speed and mid initial
climb altitude.
±3 kt airspeed.
2nd segment climb.
±0.5 mis (100 ft/ min)
or ±5% of rate of climb,
but not less than
airplane performance
data requirements.
Flight test data is preferred; however, airplane
performance manual data is an acceptable
alternative.
Record at nominal climb speed.
FSTD performance is to be recorded over an
interval ofat least 300 m (1,000 ft).
Test at WAT (weight, altitude or temperature)
limiting condition.
One Engine
Inoperative En route
Climb.
±10% time, ±10%
distance, ±10% fuel
used
Clean
1.c.4.
One Engine
Inoperative Approach
Climb for airplanes
with icing
accountability if
provided in the
airplane performance
data for this phase of
flight.
±3 kt airspeed.
Approach
09DER2
1.c.3.
1.d.
Cruise/ Descent.
l.d.1.
Level flight
acceleration
±0.5 mis (100 ft/ min)
or ±5% rate of climb,
but not less than
airplane performance
data.
±5%Time
Flight test data or airplane performance manual
data may be used.
Test for at least a 1,550 m (5,000 ft) segment.
Flight test data or airplane performance manual
data may be used.
X
X
FSTD performance to be recorded over an
interval ofat least 300 m (1,000 ft).
Cruise
Time required to increase airspeed a minimum of
50 kt, using maximum continuous thrust rating or
equivalent.
Airplane should be
configured with all anti-ice
and de-ice systems operating
normally, gear up and goaround flap.
All icing accountability
considerations, in accordance
with the airplane performance
data for an approach in icing
conditions, should be annlied.
Test near maximum certificated landing weight
as may be applicable to an approach in icing
conditions.
X
X
X
X
75733
For airplanes with a small operating speed range,
speed change may be reduced to 80% of
operational speed change.
ER09DE22.020
X
Federal Register / Vol. 87, No. 236 / Friday, December 9, 2022 / Rules and Regulations
18:43 Dec 08, 2022
CCA: Test in Normal and Non-normal control
state.
lotter on DSK11XQN23PROD with RULES2
Level flight
deceleration.
Cruise performance.
1.d.4.
Idle descent.
Cruise
±.05 EPR or ±3% Nl
or ±5% of torque.
±5% of fuel flow.
±3 kt airspeed.
Cruise.
Clean.
Jkt 259001
±1.0 mis (200 ft/min) or
±5% of rate of descent.
PO 00000
l.d.5.
Emergency descent.
Time required to decrease airspeed a minimum of
X
X
X
X
X
X
50 kt, using idle power.
±5 kt airspeed.
As per airplane
performance data.
For airplanes with a small operating speed range,
speed change may be reduced to 80% of
ooerational soeed change_
The test may be a single snapshot showing
instantaneous fuel flow, or a minimum of two
consecutive snapshots with a spread of at least 3
minutes in steady flight.
Idle power stabilized descent at normal descent
speed at mid altitude.
FSTD performance to be
interval ofat least 300 m
FSTD performance to be
interval ofat least 900 m
recorded over an
(1,000 ft).
recorded over an
(3,000 ft).
Frm 00032
Fmt 4701
X
X
X
X
X
X
X
X
X
X
X
X
X
X
X
X
X
±1.5 mis (300 ft/min) or
±5% of rate of descent.
I.e.
Stopping.
1.e.1.
Deceleration time
and distance, manual
wheel brakes, dry
runway, no reverse
thrust.
Sfmt 4725
E:\FR\FM\09DER2.SGM
X
1.e.2.
09DER2
Deceleration time
and distance, reverse
thrust, no wheel
brakes, dry runway.
±1.5 s or ±5% of time.
Landing.
For distances up to
1,220 m (4, 000 ft), the
smaller of ±61 m (200
ft) or ± 10% of distance.
Time and distance must be recorded for at least
80% of the total time from touchdown to a full
stop.
Position of ground spoilers and brake system
pressure must be plotted (if applicable).
For distances greater
than 1,220 m (4, 000 ft),
±5% of distance.
Data required for medium and near maximum
certificated landing mass.
±1.5 s or±5% of time;
and
Engineering data may be used for the medium
mass condition.
Time and distance must be recorded for at least
80% of the total time from initiation of reverse
thrust to full thrust reverser minimum operating
speed.
Landing
the smaller of ±61 m
(200 ft) or ±10% of
distance.
Position of ground spoilers must be plotted (if
applicable).
Data required for medium and near maximum
certificated landing mass.
1.e.3.
ER09DE22.021
Stopping distance,
wheel brakes, wet
runway.
±61 m (200 ft) or ±10%
of distance.
Landing.
Engineering data may be used for the medium
mass condition.
Either flight test or manufacturer's performance
manual data must be used, where available.
Engineering data, based on dry runway flight test
stopping distance and the effects of contaminated
Stabilized descent to be
conducted with speed brakes
extended if applicable, at mid
altitude and near Vmo or
according to emergency
descent procedure.
Federal Register / Vol. 87, No. 236 / Friday, December 9, 2022 / Rules and Regulations
18:43 Dec 08, 2022
l.d.3.
±5%Time
75734
VerDate Sep<11>2014
1.d.2.
lotter on DSK11XQN23PROD with RULES2
VerDate Sep<11>2014
1.e.4.
Stopping distance,
wheel brakes, icy
runway.
±61 m (200 ft) or ±10%
of distance.
Landing.
runway braking coefficients, are an acceptable
alternative.
Either flight test or manufacturer's performance
manual data must be used, where available.
X
X
Engines.
1.f.1.
Acceleration.
±10% Ti or ±0.25 s; and
±10% Tt or ±0.25 s.
Approach or landing
Total response is the incremental change in the
critical engine parameter from idle power to goaround power.
X
X
X
X
See Appendix F of this part
for definitions ofT,, and T,.
1.f.2.
Deceleration.
±10% Ti or ±0.25 s; and
Ground
Total response is the incremental change in the
critical engine parameter from maximum takeoff
power to idle power.
X
X
X
X
See Appendix F of this part
for definitions ofT,, and T,.
PO 00000
2. Handling Qualities.
±10% Tt or ±0.25 s.
2.a.
Frm 00033
Fmt 4701
Sfmt 4725
E:\FR\FM\09DER2.SGM
2.a.1.a.
Static Control Tests.
Note. I - Testing ofposition versus force is not applicable ifforces are generated solely by use of airplane hardware in the FSTD.
Note 2 - Pitch, roll and yaw controller position versus force or time should be measured at the control. An alternative method in lieu of external testf!Xtures
at the flight controls would be to have recording and measuring instrumentation built into the FSTD. The force and position data from this instrumentation could
be directly recorded and matched to the airplane data. Provided the instrumentation was verified by using external measuring equipment while conducting the
static control checks, or equivalent means, and that evidence of the satisfactory comparison is included in the MQTG, the instrumentation could be usedfor both
initial and recurrent evaluations for the measurement of all required control checks. Verification of the instrumentation by using external measuring equipment
should be repeated if major modifications and/or repairs are made to the control loading system. Such a permanent installation could be used without any time
being lost for the installation of external devices. Static and dynamic flight control tests should be accomplished at the same feel or impact pressures as the
validation data where applicable.
Note 3 - FSTD static control testing from the second set ofpilot controls is only required if both sets of controls are not mechanically interconnected on the
FSTD. A rationale is requiredfrom the data provider if a single set of data is applicable to both sides. If controls are mechanically interconnected in the FSTD, a
sin,;le set of tests is suf,1cient.
Pitch controller
Record results for an uninterrupted control sweep
Ground.
±0.9 daN (2 !bf)
X X X X Test results should be
position versus force
to the stops.
validated with in-flight data
breakout.
and surface position
from tests such as
longitudinal static stability,
calibration.
±2.2 daN (5 lbf) or
stalls, etc.
±10% of force.
±2° elevator angle.
09DER2
2.a.1.b.
(Reserved)
2.a.2.a.
Roll controller
position versus force
and surface position
calibration.
±0.9 daN (2 !bf)
breakout.
Record results for an uninterrupted control sweep
to the stops.
X
X
X
X
Test results should be
validated with in-flight data
from tests such as engine-out
trims, steady state side-slips,
etc.
Ground.
Record results for an uninterrupted control sweep
to the stops.
X
X
X
X
Test results should be
validated with in-flight data
from tests such as engine-out
±1.3 daN (3 !bf) or
±10% of force.
±2 ° aileron angle.
±3 ° spoiler angle.
ER09DE22.022
2.a.2.b.
(Reserved)
2.a.3.a.
Rudder pedal
position versus force
and surface position
calibration.
±2.2 daN (5 lbf)
breakout.
75735
Ground.
Federal Register / Vol. 87, No. 236 / Friday, December 9, 2022 / Rules and Regulations
1.f.
Jkt 259001
18:43 Dec 08, 2022
Engineering data, based on dry runway flight test
stopping distance and the effects of contaminated
runway braking coefficients, are an acceptable
alternative.
lotter on DSK11XQN23PROD with RULES2
±2° rudder angle.
(Reserved)
2.a.4.
Nosewheel Steering
Controller Force and
Position Calibration.
Jkt 259001
Fmt 4701
Record results of an uninterrupted control sweep to
the stops.
X
X
X
X
±2°NWA.
±2°NWA.
Ground.
Record results of an uninterrupted control sweep to
the stops.
X
X
X
X
±0.5° trim angle.
Ground.
X
X
X
X
±10% of trim rate (0 /s)
or
Ground and approach.
X
X
X
X
X
X
X
X
± 1.3 daN (3 lbt) or
±10% of force.
2.a.5.
2.a.6.
Rudder Pedal
Steering Calibration.
Pitch Trim Indicator
vs. Surface Position
Calibration.
2.a.7.
Pitch Trim Rate.
PO 00000
Frm 00034
Ground.
±0.9 daN (2 !bf)
breakout.
Trim rate to be checked at pilot primary induced
trim rate (ground) and autopilot or pilot primary
trim rate in-flight at go-around flight conditions.
The purpose of the test is to
compare FSTD surface
position and indicator against
the flight control model
comouted value.
±0.1 °/strim rate.
2.a.8.
Sfmt 4725
Alignment of cockpit
throttle lever versus
selected engine
parameter.
When matching engine
parameters:
Ground.
±5° ofTLA.
For airplanes with throttle detents, all detents to
be presented and at least one position between
detents/ endpoints (where practical). For
airplanes without detents, end points and at least
three other positions are to be presented.
E:\FR\FM\09DER2.SGM
When matching detents:
±3% NI or ±.03 EPR or
±3% torque, or
equivalent.
09DER2
2.a.9.
Brake pedal position
versus force and
brake system
pressure calibration.
Stick Pusher System
Force Calibration (if
applicable)
Where the levers do not
have angular travel, a
tolerance of ±2 cm
(±0.8 in) applies.
±2.2 daN (5 lbt) or
±10% of force.
Ground.
Relate the hydraulic system pressure to pedal
position in a ground static test.
Data from a test airplane or
engineering test bench are
acceptable, provided the
correct engine controller
(both hardware and software)
is used.
In the case of propeller-driven
airplanes, if an additional
lever, usually referred to as
the propeller lever, is present,
it should also be checked.
This test may be a series of
snapshot tests.
X
X
X
X
FFS computer output results
may be used to show
compliance.
X
X
Aircraft manufacturer design
data may be utilized as
validation data as determined
acceptable by the responsible
Flight Standards office.
Both left and right pedals must be checked.
±1.0 MPa (150 psi) or
±10% of brake system
pressure.
±10% or ±5 lb (2.2
daN)) Stick/Column
force
For CCA, representative flight test conditions must
be used.
Simultaneous recording for all engines. The
tolerances apply against airplane data.
Ground or Flight
Test is intended to validate the stick/column
transient forces as a result of a stick pusher
system activation.
This test may be conducted in an on-ground
condition through stimulation of the stall
Federal Register / Vol. 87, No. 236 / Friday, December 9, 2022 / Rules and Regulations
18:43 Dec 08, 2022
2.a.3.b.
2.a.10
ER09DE22.023
75736
VerDate Sep<11>2014
trims, steady state side-slips,
etc.
±2.2 daN (5 lbt) or
±10% of force.
lotter on DSK11XQN23PROD with RULES2
VerDate Sep<11>2014
2.b.
Jkt 259001
2.b.l.
Dynamic Control Tests.
PO 00000
Frm 00035
Note.- Tests 2.b.l, 2.b.2 and 2.b.3 are not applicable for FSTDs where the control forces are completely generated within the
airplane controller unit installed in the FSTD. Power setting may be that requiredfor level flight unless otherwise specified. See
oara
Test requirement may be met
through column force
validation testing in
conjunction with the Stall
Characteristics test (2.c.8.a.).
protection system in a manner that generates a
stick pusher response that is representative of an
in-flight condition.
lotter on DSK11XQN23PROD with RULES2
75738
VerDate Sep<11>2014
Jkt 259001
2.b.2.
Roll Control.
For overdamped and
critically damped
systems only, the
following tolerance
applies:
T(Po) ±10% of Po or
±0.05 s.
Same as 2.b.l.
Takeoff, Cruise, and
Landing.
PO 00000
Frm 00036
2.b.3.
Yaw Control.
Same as 2.b.l.
Takeoff, Cruise, and
Landing.
Data must be for normal control displacement
(approximately 25% to 50% of full throw or
approximately 25% to 50% of maximum
allowable roll controller deflection for flight
conditions limited by the maneuvering load
envelope).
X
Data must be for normal control displacement
(approximately 25% to 50% of full throw).
X
X
X
For overdamped and critically
damped systems, see Figure
A28 of Appendix A for an
illustration of the reference
measurement.
Refer to paragraph 4 of this
Attachment.
Fmt 4701
Sfmt 4725
For overdamped and critically
damped systems, see Figure
A28 of Appendix A for an
illustration of the reference
measurement.
2.b.4.
Small Control Inputs
-Pitch.
E:\FR\FM\09DER2.SGM
±0.15°/s body pitch rate
or ±20% of peak body
pitch rate applied
throughout the time
history.
Approach or Landing.
Control inputs must be typical of minor
corrections made while established on an ILS
approach (approximately 0.5 to 2°/s pitch rate).
X
X
X
X
Test in both directions.
Show time history data from 5 s before until at
least 5 s after initiation of control input.
09DER2
If a single test is used to demonstrate both
directions, there must be a minimum of 5 s before
control reversal to the opposite direction.
2.b.5.
Small Control Inputs
-Roll.
±0.15°/s body roll rate or
±20% of peak body roll
rate applied throughout
the time history.
Approach or landing.
CCA: Test in normal and non-normal control state.
Control inputs must be typical of minor
corrections made while established on an ILS
approach (approximately 0.5 to 2°/s roll rate).
Test in one direction. For airplanes that exhibit
non-symmetrical behavior, test in both directions.
Show time history data from 5 s before until at
least 5 s after initiation of control input.
ER09DE22.025
Refer to paragraph 4 of this
Attachment.
Federal Register / Vol. 87, No. 236 / Friday, December 9, 2022 / Rules and Regulations
18:43 Dec 08, 2022
Note 2.- Oscillations
within the residual band
are not considered
significant and are not
subject to tolerances.
lotter on DSK11XQN23PROD with RULES2
VerDate Sep<11>2014
If a single test is used to
demonstrate both directions, there must be a
minimum of 5 s before control reversal to the
opposite direction.
Small Control Inputs
-Yaw.
Jkt 259001
±0.15°/s body yaw rate
or ±20% of peak body
yaw rate applied
throughout the time
history.
Approach or landing.
X
Test in both directions.
Show time history data from 5 s before until at
least 5 s after initiation of control input.
PO 00000
Frm 00037
If a single test is used to demonstrate both
directions, there must be a minimum of 5 s before
control reversal to the opposite direction.
CCA: Test in normal and non-normal control
state.
2.c.
Longitudinal Control Tests.
Fmt 4701
Power setting is that required for level flight unless otherwise specified.
2.c.1.
Power Change
Dynamics.
Sfmt 4725
±3 kt airspeed.
±30 m (100 ft) altitude.
±1.5° or ±20% of pitch
angle.
Approach.
Power change from thrust for approach or level
flight to maximum continuous or go-around
power.
E:\FR\FM\09DER2.SGM
X
X
X
X
X
X
X
X
X
X
X
X
Time history of uncontrolled free response for a
time increment equal to at least 5 s before
initiation of the power change to the completion
of the power change
+ 15 s.
2.c.2.
09DER2
Flap/Slat Change
Dynamics.
±3 kt airspeed.
±30 m (100 ft) altitude.
Takeoff through initial
flap retraction, and
approach to landing.
±1.5° or ±20% of pitch
angle.
2.c.3.
Spoiler/Speedbrake
Change Dynamics.
±3 kt airspeed.
±30 m (JOO ft) altitude.
CCA: Test in normal and non-normal control
mode
Time history of uncontrolled free response for a
time increment equal to at least 5 s before
initiation of the reconfiguration change to the
completion of the reconfiguration change + 15 s.
CCA: Test in normal and non-normal control
mode
Cruise.
Time history of uncontrolled free response for a
time increment equal to at least 5 s before
initiation of the configuration change to the
completion of the configuration change +15 s.
Results required for both extension and
retraction.
75739
±1.5° or ±20% of pitch
angle.
ER09DE22.026
X
Federal Register / Vol. 87, No. 236 / Friday, December 9, 2022 / Rules and Regulations
18:43 Dec 08, 2022
2.b.6.
CCA: Test in normal and non-normal control
state.
Control inputs must be typical of minor
corrections made while established on an ILS
approach (approximately 0.5 to 2°/s yaw rate).
lotter on DSK11XQN23PROD with RULES2
Gear Change
Dynamics.
±3 kt airspeed.
Takeoff (retraction), and
Approach (extension).
±1.5° or ±20% of pitch
angle.
2.c.5.
Longitudinal Trim.
±I O elevator angle.
Jkt 259001
Cruise, Approach, and
Landing.
±0.5° stabilizer or trim
surface angle.
CCA: Test in normal and non-normal control
mode
Steady-state wings level trim with thrust for level
flight. This test may be a series of snapshot tests.
PO 00000
Frm 00038
2.c.6.
Longitudinal
Maneuvering
Stability (Stick
Force/g).
Fmt 4701
X
X
X
X
X
X
X
X
X
X
X
X
X
X
CCA: Test in normal or non-normal control
mode, as applicable.
±5% of net thrust or
eouivalent.
±2.2 daN (5 lbf) or
±10% of pitch controller
force.
Cruise, Approach, and
Landing.
Continuous time history data or a series of
snapshot tests may be used.
Test up to approximately 30° of roll angle for
approach and landing configurations. Test up to
approximately 45° of roll angle for the cruise
configuration.
Alternative method:
±1 ° or±I0% of the
change of elevator angle.
Sfmt 4725
E:\FR\FM\09DER2.SGM
X
±1 ° pitch angle.
Force tolerance not applicable if forces are
generated solely by the use of airplane hardware
in the FSTD.
Alternative method applies to airplanes which do
not exhibit stick-force-per-g characteristics.
2.c.7.
Longitudinal Static
Stability.
09DER2
±2.2 daN (5 lbf) or
±10% of pitch controller
force.
Approach.
CCA: Test in normal or non-normal control mode
Data for at least two speeds above and two speeds
below trim speed. The speed range must be
sufficient to demonstrate stick force versus speed
characteristics.
Alternative method:
This test may be a series of snapshot tests.
±1 ° or ±10% of the
change of elevator angle.
Force tolerance is not applicable if forces are
generated solely by the use of airplane hardware
in the FSTD.
Alternative method applies to airplanes which do
not exhibit speed stability characteristics.
CCA: Test in normal or non-normal control mode,
as applicable.
ER09DE22.027
X
Federal Register / Vol. 87, No. 236 / Friday, December 9, 2022 / Rules and Regulations
18:43 Dec 08, 2022
±30 m (100 ft) altitude.
75740
VerDate Sep<11>2014
2.c.4.
CCA: Test in normal and non-normal control
mode
Time history of uncontrolled free response for a
time increment equal to at least 5 s before
initiation of the configuration change to the
completion of the configuration change
+ 15 s.
lotter on DSK11XQN23PROD with RULES2
VerDate Sep<11>2014
2.c.8.a
Stall Characteristics
±3 kt airspeed for stall
warning and stall
speeds.
Jkt 259001
PO 00000
Frm 00039
Fmt 4701
Stall warning up to stall:
±2.0° pitch angle;
±2.0° angle of attack;
and
Correct trend and
magnitude for roll rate
and yaw rate.
Sfmt 4725
E:\FR\FM\09DER2.SGM
09DER2
±3 kt airspeed for stall
warning speeds.
This test is required only for
FSTDs qualified to conduct
full stall training tasks.
Each of the following stall entries must be
demonstrated in at least one of the three flight
conditions:
■
Approach to stall entry at wings level (lg)
In instances where flight test
validation data is limited due
to safety of flight
considerations, engineering
simulator validation data may
be used in lieu of flight test
validation data for angles of
attack that exceed the
activation of a stall protection
system or stick pusher
system.
X
X
Where approved engineering
simulation validation is used,
the reduced engineering
tolerances (as defined in
paragraph 11 of this
appendix) do not applv.
Tests may be conducted at
centers of gravity and weights
typically required for airplane
certification stall testing.
75741
Second Segment Climb,
High Altitude Cruise
(Near Performance
Limited Condition), and
Approach or Landing
Buffet threshold of perception
should be based on 0.03 g
peak to peak normal
acceleration above the
background noise at the pilot
seat. Initial buffet to be based
on normal acceleration at the
pilot seat with a larger peak to
peak value relative to buffet
threshold of perception (some
airframe manufacturers have
used 0.1 g peak to peak).
Demonstrate correct trend in
growth of buffet amplitude
from initial buffet to stall
speed for normal and lateral
acceleration.
Tests may be conducted at
centers of gravity and weights
typically required for airplane
certification stall testing.
CCA: Test in normal and non-normal control
states. For CCA aircraft with stall envelope
protection systems, the normal mode testing is only
required to an angle of attack range necessary to
demonstrate the correct operation of the system.
These tests may be used to satisfy the required
(angle of attack) flight maneuver and envelope
protection tests (test 2.h.6.). Non-normal control
states must be tested through stall identification
and recovery.
Additionally, for those
simulators with
reversible flight control
systems or equipped
with stick pusher
systems: ±10% or ±5 lb
(2.2 daN))
Stick/Column force
(prior to the stall angle
of attack).
X
The FSTD sponsor/FSTD
manufacturer may limit
maximum buffet based on
motion platform
capability/limitations or other
simulator system limitations.
Numerical tolerances are not applicable past the
stall angle of attack, but must demonstrate correct
trend through recovery. See Attachment 7 for
additional requirements and information
concerning data sources and required angle of
attack ranges.
Stall Break and
Recovery:
SOC Required (see
Attachment 7)
±2.0° angle of attack for
initial buffet.
ER09DE22.028
Record the stall warning signal and initial buffet,
if applicable. Time history data must be recorded
for full stall through recovery to normal flight.
The stall warning signal must occur in the proper
relation to buffet/stall. FSTDs of airplanes
exhibiting a sudden pitch attitude change or "g
break" must demonstrate this characteristic.
FSTDs of airplanes exhibiting a roll off or loss of
roll control authority must demonstrate this
characteristic.
Approach to stall:
±2.0° pitch angle;
±2.0° angle of attack;
and
±2.0° bank angle
~pproach to Stall
~haracteristics
X
The cruise flight condition must be conducted in
a flaps-up (clean) configuration. The second
segment climb flight condition must use a
different flap setting than the approach or landing
flight condition.
Control inputs must be
plotted and demonstrate
correct trend and
magnitude.
2.c.8.b
Each of the following stall entries must be
demonstrated in at least one of the three flight
conditions:
■
Stall entry at wings level (lg)
■
Stall entry in turning flight of at least 25° bank
angle (accelerated stall)
■
Stall entry in a power-on condition (required
only for propeller driven aircraft)
Federal Register / Vol. 87, No. 236 / Friday, December 9, 2022 / Rules and Regulations
18:43 Dec 08, 2022
±2.0° angle of attack for
buffet threshold of
perception and initial
buffet based upon Nz
component.
Second Segment Climb,
High Altitude Cruise
(Near Performance
Limited Condition), and
Approach or Landing
lotter on DSK11XQN23PROD with RULES2
■
Jkt 259001
PO 00000
Frm 00040
±10% of period.
Cruise.
Fmt 4701
±10% of time to one half
or double amplitude or
±0.02 of damping ratio.
2.c.10
Short Period
Dynamics.
±1.5° pitch angle or
±2°/s pitch rate.
Cruise.
CCA: Test in non-normal control mode.
CCA: Test in normal and non-normal control
mode.
Sfmt 4725
E:\FR\FM\09DER2.SGM
X
X
X
X
X
X
X
X
X
X
X
X
X
X
X
X
X
X
X
X
±0.1 g normal
acceleration
2.c.11.
2.d.
(Reserved)
Lateral Directional Tests.
Power setting is that required for level flight unless otherwise specified.
2.d.l.
09DER2
2.d.2.
Minimum control
speed, air (Vmea) or
landing (Vmc1), per
applicable
airworthiness
requirement or low
speed engineinoperative handling
characteristics in the
air.
Roll Response
(Rate).
±3 kt airspeed.
Takeoff or Landing
(whichever is most
critical in the airplane).
2.d.3.
Step input of flight
deck roll controller.
Takeoff thrust must be set on the operating
engine(s).
Time history or snapshot data may be used.
Minimum speed may be
defined by a performance or
control limit which prevents
demonstration of Vmes or V mc1
in the conventional manner.
CCA: Test in normal or non-normal control state,
as applicable.
±2°/s or±10% ofroll
rate.
Cruise, and Approach or
Landing.
For airplanes with
reversible flight control
systems:
ER09DE22.029
CCA: Test in Normal and Non-normal control
states. For CCA aircraft with stall envelope
protection systems, the normal mode testing is
only required to an angle of attack range
necessary to demonstrate the correct operation of
the system. These tests may be used to satisfy the
required (angle of attack) flight maneuver and
envelope protection tests (test 2.h.6.).
Test must include three full cycles or that
necessary to determine time to one half or double
amplitude, whichever is less.
±1.3 daN (3 lbf) or
±10% of wheel force.
±2° or±l0% ofroll
angle.
Test with normal roll control displacement
(approximately one-third of maximum roll
controller travel).
This test may be combined with step input of
flight deck roll controller test 2.d.3.
Approach or Landing.
This test may be combined with roll response
(rate) test 2.d.2.
With wings level, apply a step
roll control input using
Federal Register / Vol. 87, No. 236 / Friday, December 9, 2022 / Rules and Regulations
18:43 Dec 08, 2022
Additionally, for those
simulators with
reversible flight control
systems: ±10% or ±5 lb
(2.2 daN))
Stick/Column force
Phugoid Dynamics.
Tolerances on stall buffet are
not applicable where the first
indication of the stall is the
activation of the stall warning
system (i.e. stick shaker).
The cruise flight condition must be conducted in
a flaps-up (clean) configuration. The second
segment climb flight condition must use a
different flap setting than the approach or landing
flight condition.
±2.0° pitch angle;
±2.0° angle of attack;
and
±2.0° bank angle
2.c.9.
Approach to stall entry in turning flight of at
least 25° bank angle (accelerated stall)
Approach to stall entry in a power-on
condition (required only for propeller driven
aircraft)
75742
VerDate Sep<11>2014
■
Control displacements
and flight control
surfaces must be plotted
and demonstrate correct
trend and magnitude.
lotter on DSK11XQN23PROD with RULES2
VerDate Sep<11>2014
2.d.4.
Spiral Stability.
Correct trend and ±2° or
±10% of roll angle in 20
s.
Cruise, and Approach or
Landing.
Jkt 259001
PO 00000
Engine Inoperative
Trim.
Frm 00041
±I O rudder angle or ±1 °
tab angle or equivalent
rudder pedal.
X
X
X
X
X
X
X
X
Test for both directions.
As an alternative test, show lateral control
required to maintain a steady tum with a roll
angle of approximately 30°.
If alternate test is used:
correct trend and ±2 °
aileron angle.
2.d.5.
Airplane data averaged from multiple tests may
be used.
Second Segment Climb,
and Approach or
Landing.
CCA: Test in non-normal control mode.
This test may consist of snapshot tests.
±2° side-slip angle.
Fmt 4701
2nd segment climb test
should be at takeoff thrust.
Approach or landing test
should be at thrust for level
flight.
Sfmt 4725
2.d.6.
Rudder Response.
±2°/s or ±10% of yaw
rate.
Approach or Landing.
Test with stability augmentation on and off.
X
E:\FR\FM\09DER2.SGM
X
X
X
X
X
X
X
X
X
Test with a step input at approximately 25% of
full rudder pedal throw.
2.d.7.
Dutch Roll
±0.5 s or ±10% of
period.
Cruise, and Approach or
Landing.
CCA: Test in normal and non-normal control
mode
Test for at least six cycles with stability
augmentation off.
CCA: Test in non-normal control mode.
09DER2
±10% of time to one
half or double amplitude
or ±.02 of damping
ratio.
±1 s or ±20% of time
difference between
peaks ofroll angle and
side-slip angle.
2.d.8.
Steady State Sideslip.
Approach or Landing.
This test may be a series of snapshot tests using
at least two rudder positions (in each direction for
propeller-driven airplanes), one of which must be
near maximum allowable rudder.
X
75743
For a given rudder
position:
±2° roll angle;
ER09DE22.030
Test should be performed in a
manner similar to that for
which a pilot is trained to trim
an engine failure condition.
Federal Register / Vol. 87, No. 236 / Friday, December 9, 2022 / Rules and Regulations
18:43 Dec 08, 2022
approximately one-third of
the roll controller travel.
When reaching approximately
20° to 30° of bank, abruptly
return the roll controller to
neutral and allow
approximately 10 seconds of
airplane free response.
CCA: Test in normal and non-normal control
mode
lotter on DSK11XQN23PROD with RULES2
75744
VerDate Sep<11>2014
± 1° side-slip angle;
±5° or ±10% of spoiler
or equivalent roll
controller position or
force.
Jkt 259001
For airplanes with
reversible flight control
systems:
PO 00000
±1.3 daN (3 !bf) or
±10% of wheel force.
Frm 00042
±2.2 daN (5 lbf) or
±10% of rudder pedal
force.
Fmt 4701
2.e.
Landings.
2.e.1.
Normal Landing.
±3 kt airspeed.
Landing.
Test from a minimum of61 m (200 ft) AGL to
nosewheel touchdown.
Sfmt 4725
X
X
X
CCA: Test in normal and
non-normal control mode, if applicable.
±1.5° AOA.
±3 m (10 ft) or ±10% of
height.
E:\FR\FM\09DER2.SGM
09DER2
X
±1.5° pitch angle.
For airplanes with
reversible flight control
systems:
2.e.2.
Minimum Flap
Landing.
±2.2 daN (5 lbf) or
±10% ofcolumn force.
±3 kt airspeed.
±1.5° pitch angle.
Minimum Certified
Landing Flap
Configuration.
Test from a minimum of 61 m (200 ft) AGL to
nosewheel touchdown.
Test at near maximum certificated landing weight.
±1.5° AOA.
±3 m (10 ft) or ±10% of
height.
For airplanes with
reversible flight control
systems:
ER09DE22.031
X
Two tests should be shown,
including two normal landing
flaps (if applicable) one of
which should be near
maximum certificated landing
mass, the other at light or
medium mass.
Federal Register / Vol. 87, No. 236 / Friday, December 9, 2022 / Rules and Regulations
18:43 Dec 08, 2022
±2 ° or ±10% of aileron
angle; and
lotter on DSK11XQN23PROD with RULES2
VerDate Sep<11>2014
2.e.3.
Crosswind Landing.
±2.2 daN (5 lbf) or
±10% of column force.
±3 kt airspeed.
Landing.
±1.5° pitch angle.
Jkt 259001
PO 00000
±3° heading angle.
X
X
Test data is required, including wind profile, for a
crosswind component of at least 60% of airplane
performance data value measured at 10 m (33 ft)
above the runway.
±3 m (10 ft) or ±10% of
height.
±2° roll angle.
X
In those situations where a
maximum crosswind or a
maximum demonstrated
crosswind is not known,
contact the responsible Flight
Standards office.
Wind components must be provided as headwind
and crosswind values with respect to the runway.
±2° side-slip angle.
Frm 00043
For airplanes with
reversible flight control
systems:
Fmt 4701
±2.2 daN (5 lbf) or
±10% of
column force.
Sfmt 4725
±1.3 daN (3 !bf) or
±10% of wheel force.
E:\FR\FM\09DER2.SGM
2.e.4.
One Engine
Inoperative Landing.
±2.2 daN (5 lbf) or
±10% of rudder pedal
force.
±3 kt airspeed.
Landing.
Test from a minimum of61 m (200 ft) AGL to a
50% decrease in main landing gear touchdown
speed.
X
X
X
Landing.
If autopilot provides roll-out guidance, record
X
X
X
±1.5° pitch angle.
±1.5° AOA.
09DER2
±3 m (10 ft) or ±10% of
height.
±2° roll angle.
±2° side-slip angle.
2.e.S.
Autopilot landing ( if
applicable).
±3° heading angle.
±1.5 m (5 ft) flare
height.
lateral deviation from touchdown to a 50%
decrease in main landing gear touchdown speed.
See Appendix F of this part
for definition of Tr-
Federal Register / Vol. 87, No. 236 / Friday, December 9, 2022 / Rules and Regulations
18:43 Dec 08, 2022
±1.5° AOA.
Test from a minimum of 61 m (200 ft) AGL to a
50% decrease in main landing gear touchdown
speed.
±0.5 s or± 10% ofTf.
ER09DE22.032
75745
Time of autopilot flare mode engage and main
gear touchdown must be noted.
lotter on DSK11XQN23PROD with RULES2
75746
VerDate Sep<11>2014
±0.7 mis (140 ft/min)
rate of descent at
touchdown.
All-engine autopilot
go-around.
Jkt 259001
As per airplane
performance data.
Normal all-engine autopilot go-around must be
demonstrated (if applicable) at medium weight.
X
X
X
As per airplane
performance data.
Engine inoperative go-around required near
maximum certificated landing weight with
critical engine inoperative.
X
X
X
±1.5° pitch angle.
2.e.7.
One engine
inoperative go
around.
±1.5° AOA.
±3 kt airspeed.
±1.5° pitch angle.
PO 00000
±1.5° AOA.
Provide one test with autopilot (if applicable) and
one without autopilot.
±2° roll angle.
Frm 00044
CCA: Non-autopilot test to be conducted in nonnormal mode.
±2° side-slip angle.
2.e.8.
Fmt 4701
Sfmt 4725
2.e.9.
E:\FR\FM\09DER2.SGM
2.f.
Directional control
(rudder effectiveness)
with symmetric
reverse thrust.
Directional control
(rudder effectiveness)
with asymmetric
reverse thrust.
±5 kt airspeed.
Landing.
Apply rudder pedal input in both directions using
full reverse thrust until reaching full thrust
reverser minimum operating speed.
X
X
X
Landing.
With full reverse thrust on the operating
engine(s), maintain heading with rudder pedal
input until maximum rudder pedal input or thrust
reverser minimum operation speed is reached.
X
X
X
Landing.
A rationale must be provided with justification of
results.
X
X
X
See paragraph 5 of this
Attachment for additional
information.
X
X
See Attachment 5 of this
appendix for information
related to Level A and B
simulators.
±2°/s yaw rate.
±5 kt airspeed.
±3° heading angle.
Ground Effect.
Test to demonstrate
Ground Effect.
±I O elevator angle.
±0.5° stabilizer angle.
CCA: Test in normal or non-normal control
mode, as applicable.
±5% of net thrust or
equivalent.
09DER2
±1° AOA.
±1.5 m (5 ft) or ±10%
of height.
±3 kt airspeed.
± 1° pitch angle.
2.g.
Windshear.
Four tests, two
takeoff and two
landing, with one of
each conducted in
still air and the other
ER09DE22.033
See Attachment 5 of this
appendix.
Takeoff and Landing.
Requires windshear models that provide training
in the specific skills needed to recognize
windshear phenomena and to execute recovery
procedures. See Attachment 5 of this appendix
for tests, tolerances, and procedures.
Federal Register / Vol. 87, No. 236 / Friday, December 9, 2022 / Rules and Regulations
18:43 Dec 08, 2022
2.e.6.
±3 m (10 ft) lateral
deviation during rollout.
±3 kt airspeed.
lotter on DSK11XQN23PROD with RULES2
VerDate Sep<11>2014
Jkt 259001
2.h.1.
Note. - The requirements of 2. h are only applicable to computer-controlled airplanes. Time history results of response to control
inputs during entry into each envelope protection function (i.e. with normal and degraded control states if their function is
different) are reauired Set thrust as reauired to reach the envelove vrotection /unction.
Overs peed.
±5 kt airspeed.
Cruise.
2.h.2.
Minimum Speed.
2.h.3.
Load Factor.
±0.lg normal load factor
Takeoff, Cruise, and
Approach or Landing.
Takeoff, Cruise.
2.h.4.
Pitch Angle.
±1.5° pitch angle
Cruise, Approach.
PO 00000
Frm 00045
2.h.5.
Bank Angle.
±2° or ±10% bank angle
Approach.
2.h.6.
Angle of Attack.
±1.5° angle of attack
Second Segment Climb,
and Approach or
Landing.
2.i.
Engine and Airframe Icing Effects
2.i.
Engine and Airframe
Icing Effects
Demonstration (High
Angle of Attack)
Takeoff or Approach or
Landing
Fmt 4701
[One flight condition two tests (ice on and
oft)]
Time history ofa full stall and initiation of the
recovery. Tests are intended to demonstrate
representative aerodynamic effects caused by inflight ice accretion. Flight test validation data is
not required.
Sfmt 4725
Two tests are required to demonstrate engine and
airframe icing effects. One test will demonstrate
the FSTDs baseline performance without ice
accretion, and the second test will demonstrate
the aerodynamic effects of ice accretion relative
to the baseline test.
E:\FR\FM\09DER2.SGM
The test must utilize the icing model(s) as
described in the required Statement of
Compliance in Table AJA, section 2.j. Test must
include rationale that describes the icing effects
being demonstrated. Icing effects may include,
but are not limited to, the following effects as
applicable to the particular airplane type:
Decrease in stall angle of attack
Changes in pitching moment
Decrease in control effectiveness
■
Changes in control forces
■
Increase in drag
■
Change in stall buffet characteristics and
threshold of perception
■
Engine effects (power
reduction/variation, vibration, etc.
where expected to be present on the
aircraft in the ice accretion scenario
being tested)
09DER2
..
.
3.a.
Frequency response.
X
X
X
X
X
X
X
X
X
X
X
X
X
X
X
X
X
X
X
X
Tests will be evaluated for
representative effects on
relevant aerodynamic and
other parameters such as
angle of attack, control
inputs, and thrust/power
settings.
Plotted parameters must
include:
• Altitude
• Airspeed
• Normal acceleration
• Engine power
• Angle of attack
• Pitch attitude
• Bank angle
• Flight control inputs
• Stall warning and stall
buffet onset
75747
3. Motion System.
ER09DE22.034
±3 kt airspeed.
Federal Register / Vol. 87, No. 236 / Friday, December 9, 2022 / Rules and Regulations
18:43 Dec 08, 2022
2.h.
with windshear active
to demonstrate
windshear models.
Flight Maneuver and Envelope Protection Functions.
lotter on DSK11XQN23PROD with RULES2
3.d.
Jkt 259001
Appropriate test to demonstrate required
frequency response.
X
X
X
X
See paragraph 6 of this
Attachment.
As specified by the
sponsor for FSTD
qualification.
Not applicable.
Appropriate test to demonstrate required smooth
tum-around.
X
X
X
X
See paragraph 6 of this
Attachment.
X
X
X
X
Refer to Attachment 3 of this
Appendix on subjective
testing.
X
X
X
X
Ensure that motion system
hardware and software (in
normal FSTD operating
mode) continue to perform as
originally qualified.
Performance changes from
the original baseline can be
readily identified with this
information.
Turn-around check.
Motion effects.
Motion system repeatability.
Motion system
repeatability
±0.05 g actual platform
linear accelerations.
None.
PO 00000
Frm 00046
Fmt 4701
See paragraph 6.c. of this
Attachment.
Motion cueing fidelity
3.e.1.
Motion cueing
fidelity - Frequencydomain criterion.
Sfmt 4725
3.e.
Ground and flight.
For the motion system as applied during training,
record the combined modulus and phase of the
motion cueing algorithm and motion platform
over the frequency range appropriate to the
characteristics of the simulated aircraft.
X
E:\FR\FM\09DER2.SGM
X
Testing may be accomplished
by the FSTD manufacturer
and results provided as a
statement of compliance.
X
The recorded test results for
characteristic buffets should
allow the comparison of
relative amplitude versus
frequency.
This test is only required for initial FSTD
qualification.
Reserved
Characteristic motion
vibrations.
The following tests
with recorded results
and an SOC are
required for
characteristic motion
vibrations, which can
be sensed at the flight
deck where
applicable by
airplane type.
Thrust effect with
brakes set.
09DER2
3.e.2.
3.f
3.f.1.
ER09DE22.035
As specified by the
FSTD manufacturer for
initial qualification.
None.
Ground and flight.
See also paragraph 6.e. of this
Attachment.
The FS TD test results
must exhibit the overall
appearance and trends
of the airplane data,
with at least three (3) of
the predominant
frequency "spikes"
Ground.
Test must be conducted at maximum possible
thrust with brakes set.
X
Federal Register / Vol. 87, No. 236 / Friday, December 9, 2022 / Rules and Regulations
18:43 Dec 08, 2022
3.c
Not applicable.
75748
VerDate Sep<11>2014
3.b.
As specified by the
sponsor for FSTD
qualification.
lotter on DSK11XQN23PROD with RULES2
VerDate Sep<11>2014
3.f.3.
Buffet with flaps
extended.
3.f.4.
Buffet with
speedbrakes
deployed.
3.f.5.
Stall buffet
Jkt 259001
PO 00000
Frm 00047
Fmt 4701
Sfmt 4725
E:\FR\FM\09DER2.SGM
Flight.
Test condition must be for a normal operational
speed and not at the gear limiting speed.
X
Flight.
Test condition must be at a normal operational
speed and not at the flap limiting speed.
X
Flight.
Test condition must be at a typical speed for a
representative buffet.
X
Cruise (High Altitude),
Second Segment Climb,
and Approach or
Landing
Tests must be conducted for an angle of attack
range between the buffet threshold of perception to
the pilot and the stall angle of attack. Post stall
characteristics are not required.
X
X
09DER2
3.f.6.
The FS TD test results
must exhibit the overall
appearance and trends
of the airplane data,
with at least three (3) of
the predominant
frequency "spikes"
being present within ± 2
Hz of the airplane data.
Flight.
X
Test required only for
FSTDs qualified for full
stall training tasks or for
those aircraft which exhibit
stall buffet before the
activation of the stall
warning svstem.
Test condition should be for
high-speed maneuver
buffet/wind-up-tum or
alternatively Mach buffet.
75749
ER09DE22.036
Buffet at high
airspeeds or high
Mach.
If stabilized flight data
between buffet threshold of
perception and the stall
angle of attack are not
available, PSD analysis
should be conducted for a
time span between initial
buffet and the stall angle of
attack.
Federal Register / Vol. 87, No. 236 / Friday, December 9, 2022 / Rules and Regulations
Buffet with landing
gear extended.
18:43 Dec 08, 2022
3.f.2.
being present within ± 2
Hz of the airplane data.
The FS TD test results
must exhibit the overall
appearance and trends
of the airplane data,
with at least three (3) of
the predominant
frequency "spikes"
being present within ± 2
Hz of the airplane data.
The FS TD test results
must exhibit the overall
appearance and trends
of the airplane data,
with at least three (3) of
the predominant
frequency "spikes"
being present within ± 2
Hz of the airplane data.
The FS TD test results
must exhibit the overall
appearance and trends
of the airplane data,
with at least three (3) of
the predominant
frequency "spikes"
being present within ± 2
Hz of the airplane data.
The FS TD test results
must exhibit the overall
appearance and trends
of the airplane data,
with at least three (3) of
the predominant
frequency "spikes"
being present within ± 2
Hz of the airplane data.
lotter on DSK11XQN23PROD with RULES2
In-flight vibrations
for propeller driven
airplanes.
Jkt 259001
Flight (clean
configuration).
Cross-cockpit,
collimated visual
display providing each
pilot with a minimum of
176° horizontal and 36°
vertical continuous field
of view.
Not applicable.
X
Test should be conducted to
be representative of in-flight
vibrations for propellerdriven airplanes.
X
Field of view should be
measured using a visual test
pattern filling the entire visual
scene (all channels)
consisting of a matrix of
black and white 5° squares.
4. Visual System.
4.a.
Visual scene quality
4.a.1.
Continuous
collimated crosscockpit visual field of
view.
Required as part ofMQTG but not required as
part of continuing evaluations.
X
PO 00000
Frm 00048
Installed alignment should be
confirmed in an SOC (this
would generally consist of
results from acceptance
testing),
A vertical field-of-view of
30° may be insufficient to
meet visual ground segment
requirements.
Fmt 4701
Sfmt 4725
Continuous
collimated crosscockpit visual field of
view.
E:\FR\FM\09DER2.SGM
4.a.2.
System geometry
Continuous collimated
field-of-view providing
at least 45° horizontal
and 30° vertical fieldof-view for each pilot
seat. Both pilot seat
visual systems must be
operable
simultaneously.
5° even angular spacing
within ±1 ° as measured
from either pilot eye
point and within 1.5° for
adjacent squares.
Not applicable.
Required as part ofMQTG but not required as
part of continuing evaluations.
X
X
Not applicable.
The angular spacing of any chosen 5° square and
the relative spacing of adjacent squares must be
within the stated tolerances.
X
X
X
X
09DER2
The purpose of this test is to
evaluate local linearity of the
displayed image at either pilot
eye point. System geometry
should be measured using a
visual test pattern filling the
entire visual scene (all
channels) with a matrix of
black and white 5° squares
with light points at the
intersections.
For continuing qualification
testing, the use of an optical
checking device is
encouraged. This device
should typically consist of a
hand-held go/no go gauge to
check that the relative
positioning is maintained.
ER09DE22.037
Federal Register / Vol. 87, No. 236 / Friday, December 9, 2022 / Rules and Regulations
18:43 Dec 08, 2022
The FS TD test results
must exhibit the overall
appearance and trends
of the airplane data,
with at least three (3) of
the predominant
frequency "spikes"
being present within ± 2
Hz of the airplane data.
75750
VerDate Sep<11>2014
3.f.7.
lotter on DSK11XQN23PROD with RULES2
VerDate Sep<11>2014
4.a.3
Surface resolution
( object detection).
Not greater than 2 arc
minutes.
Not applicable.
An SOC is required and must include the relevant
calculations and an explanation of those
calculations.
X
X
The object will subtend 2 arc
minutes to the eye.
Jkt 259001
This may be demonstrated
using threshold bars for a
horizontal test.
PO 00000
4.a.4
Light point size.
Not greater than 5 arc
minutes.
Not applicable.
An SOC is required and must include the relevant
calculations and an explanation of those
calculations.
X
X
Frm 00049
This requirement is applicable to any level of
simulator equipped with a daylight visual system.
A vertical test should also be
demonstrated.
Light point size should be
measured using a test pattern
consisting of a centrally
located single row of white
light points displayed as both
a horizontal and vertical row.
Fmt 4701
It should be possible to move
the light points relative to the
eyepoint in all axes.
Sfmt 4725
E:\FR\FM\09DER2.SGM
4.a.5
Raster surface
contrast ratio.
Not less than 5: I.
Not applicable.
This requirement is applicable to any level of
simulator equipped with a daylight visual system.
X
X
At a point where modulation
is just discernible in each
visual channel, a calculation
should be made to determine
the light spacing.
Surface contrast ratio should
be measured using a raster
drawn test pattern filling the
entire visual scene ( all
channels).
09DER2
The test pattern should
consist of black and white
squares, 5° per square, with a
white square in the center of
each channel.
ER09DE22.038
75751
Measurement should be made
on the center bright square for
each channel using a 1° spot
photometer. This value
should have a minimum
brightness of7 cd/m2 (2 ftlamberts). Measure any
adjacent dark squares.
Federal Register / Vol. 87, No. 236 / Friday, December 9, 2022 / Rules and Regulations
18:43 Dec 08, 2022
This requirement is applicable to any level of
simulator equipped with a daylight visual system.
Resolution will be
demonstrated by a test of
objects shown to occupy the
required visual angle in each
visual display used on a scene
from the pilot's eyepoint.
lotter on DSK11XQN23PROD with RULES2
Jkt 259001
4.a.6
PO 00000
Light point contrast
ratio.
Not less than 25: I.
Not applicable.
An SOC is required and must include the relevant
calculations.
X
X
Frm 00050
Note 2. - Measurements
should be taken at the center
of squares to avoid light spill
into the measurement device.
Light point contrast ratio
should be measured using a
test pattern demonstrating an
area of greater than I O area
filled with white light points
and should be compared to
the adjacent background.
Fmt 4701
Note. - Light point
modulation should be just
discernible on calligraphic
systems but will not be
discernable on raster systems.
Sfmt 4725
E:\FR\FM\09DER2.SGM
Measurements of the
background should be taken
such that the bright square is
just out of the light meter
FOV.
09DER2
Note. - During contrast
ratio testing, FSTD aft-cab
andflight deck ambient light
levels should be as low as
practical.
4.a.7
Light point contrast
ratio.
Light point
brightness.
Not less than 10: I.
Not applicable.
Not less than 20 cd/m2
(5.8 ft-lamberts).
Not applicable.
X
X
X
X
Light points should be
displayed as a matrix creating
a square.
On calligraphic systems the
light points should just merge.
On raster systems the light
points should overlap such
that the square is continuous
ER09DE22.039
Federal Register / Vol. 87, No. 236 / Friday, December 9, 2022 / Rules and Regulations
18:43 Dec 08, 2022
Note 1. - During contrast
ratio testing, FSTD aft-cab
andflight deck ambient light
levels should be as low as
possible.
75752
VerDate Sep<11>2014
The contrast ratio is the bright
square value divided by the
dark square value.
lotter on DSK11XQN23PROD with RULES2
VerDate Sep<11>2014
4.a.8
Surface brightness.
Not less than 20 cd/m2
(5.8 ft-lamberts) on the
display.
Not applicable.
This requirement is applicable to any level of
simulator equipped with a daylight visual system.
X
X
Light points are not
acceptable.
Jkt 259001
4.a.9
Black level and
sequential contrast.
Black intensity:
Not applicable.
X
X
X
X
PO 00000
Background brightness
- Black polygon
brightness < 0.015
cd/m2 (0.004 ftlamberts).
Frm 00051
Sequential contrast:
Use of calligraphic
capabilities to enhance raster
brightness is acceptable.
All projectors should be
turned off and the cockpit
environment made as dark as
possible. A background
reading should be taken of the
remaining ambient light on
the screen.
Fmt 4701
The projectors should then be
turned on and a black polygon
displayed. A second reading
should then be taken and the
difference between this and
the ambient level recorded.
Sfmt 4725
Maximum brightness (Background brightness
- Black polygon
brightness)> 2,000:1.
E:\FR\FM\09DER2.SGM
A full brightness white
polygon should then be
measured for the sequential
contrast test.
4.a.10
Motion blur.
09DER2
When a pattern is
rotated about the
eyepoint at 10°/s, the
smallest detectable gap
must be 4 arc min or
less.
Not applicable.
X
X
X
X
This test is generally only
required for light valve
projectors.
A test pattern consists of an
array of 5 peak white squares
with black gaps between them
of decreasing width.
The range of black gap widths
should at least extend above
and below the required
detectable gap, and be in
steps of 1 arc min.
Federal Register / Vol. 87, No. 236 / Friday, December 9, 2022 / Rules and Regulations
18:43 Dec 08, 2022
( individual light points will
not be visible).
Surface brightness should be
measured on a white raster,
measuring the brightness
using the 1° spot photometer.
The pattern is rotated at the
required rate.
ER09DE22.040
75753
Two arrays of squares should
be provided, one rotating in
lotter on DSK11XQN23PROD with RULES2
Jkt 259001
Note. - This test can be
limited by the display
technology. Where this is the
case the responsible Flight
Standards office should be
consulted on the limitations.
PO 00000
Frm 00052
Fmt 4701
4.a.11
Speckle test.
4.b
Head-Up Display
(HUD)
Static Alignment.
4.b.1
Not applicable.
Static alignment with
displayed image.
An SOC is required describing the test method.
X
X
Sfmt 4725
E:\FR\FM\09DER2.SGM
09DER2
X
X
NIA
X
X
Alignment requirement
applies to any HUD system in
use or both simultaneously if
they are used simultaneously
for training.
NIA
X
X
A statement of the system
capabilities should be
provided and the capabilities
demonstrated
Pitch and roll align with
aircraft instruments.
Flight.
X
X
Alignment between
EFVS display and out of
the window image must
represent the alignment
typical of the aircraft
and system type.
The scene represents the
EFVS view at 350 m
(1,200 ft) and 1,609 m
Takeoff point and on
approach at 200 ft.
X
X
Note.- The effects of the
alignment tolerance in 4. b. l
should be taken into account.
Flight.
X
X
Infra-red scene representative
of both 350 m (1,200 ft), and
1,609 m (1 sm) RVR.
HUD bore sight must
align with the center of
the displayed image
spherical pattern.
4.b.2
System display.
4.b.3
HUD attitude versus
FSTD attitude
indicator (pitch and
roll of horizon).
Enhanced Flight
Vision System
(EFVS)
Registration test.
4.c
4.c.1
4.c.2
ER09DE22.041
Speckle contrast must
be< 10%.
EFVS RVRand
visibility calibration.
This test is generally only
required for light valve
projectors.
This test is generally only
required for laser projectors.
Tolerance +I- 6 arc min.
All functionality in all
flight modes must be
demonstrated.
Federal Register / Vol. 87, No. 236 / Friday, December 9, 2022 / Rules and Regulations
18:43 Dec 08, 2022
A series of stationary
numbers identifies the gap
number.
75754
VerDate Sep<11>2014
heading and the other in
pitch, to provide testing in
both axes.
lotter on DSK11XQN23PROD with RULES2
VerDate Sep<11>2014
(1 sm) RVR including
correct light intensity.
Thermal crossover.
4.d
Visual ground segment
4.d.l
Visual ground
segment (VGS).
Jkt 259001
Demonstrate thermal
crossover effects during
day to night transition.
Day and night.
Near end: the correct
number of approach
lights within the
computed VGS must be
visible.
Trimmed in the landing
configuration at 30 m
(100 ft) wheel height
above touchdown zone
on glide slope at an
RVR setting of300 m
(1,000 ft) or 350 m
(1,200 ft).
PO 00000
Far end: ±20% of the
computed VGS.
Frm 00053
The threshold lights
computed to be visible
must be visible in the
FSTD.
This test is designed to assess items impacting the
accuracy of the visual scene presented to a pilot
at DH on an ILS approach.
These items include:
X
X
X
X
X
X
X
1) RVRNisibility;
2) glide slope (G/S) and localizer modeling
accuracy (location and slope) for an ILS;
3) for a given weight, configuration and speed
representative of a point within the airplane's
operational envelope for a normal approach and
landing; and
Fmt 4701
4) Radio altimeter.
Note. - If non-homogeneous fog is used, the
vertical variation in horizontal visibility should
be described and included in the slant range
visibility calculation used in the VGS
computation.
Sfmt 4725
E:\FR\FM\09DER2.SGM
X
4.e
4.e.1
Visual System
Capacity
System capacity Day mode.
Not less than: 10,000
visible textured
surfaces, 6,000 light
points, 16 moving
models.
Not applicable.
09DER2
4.e.2
System capacity Twilight/night mode.
Not less than: 10,000
visible textured
surfaces, 15,000 light
points, 16 moving
models.
Not applicable.
X
X
Demonstrated through use of
a visual scene rendered with
the same image generator
modes used to produce scenes
for training.
The required surfaces, light
points, and moving models
should be displayed
simultaneously.
Demonstrated through use of
a visual scene rendered with
the same image generator
modes used to produce scenes
for training.
ER09DE22.042
75755
The required surfaces, light
points, and moving models
should be displayed
simultaneouslv.
Federal Register / Vol. 87, No. 236 / Friday, December 9, 2022 / Rules and Regulations
18:43 Dec 08, 2022
4.c.3
Visual scene may be
removed.
The scene will correctly
represent the thermal
characteristics of the scene
during a day to night
transition.
lotter on DSK11XQN23PROD with RULES2
75756
VerDate Sep<11>2014
Jkt 259001
All tests in this section should
be presented using an
unweighted 1/3-octave band
format from at least hand 17
to 42 (50 Hz to 16 kHz).
PO 00000
A measurement of minimum
20 s should be taken at the
location corresponding to the
approved data set.
Frm 00054
Fmt 4701
The approved data set and
FSTD results should be
produced using comparable
data analysis techniques.
Sfmt 4725
5.a.l.
Ready for engine
start.
Initial evaluation:
± 5 dB per 1/3 octave
band.
Normal condition prior to engine start.
X
The APU should be on if appropriate.
E:\FR\FM\09DER2.SGM
Recurrent evaluation:
cannot exceed ±5 dB
difference on three
consecntive bands when
compared to initial
evaluation and the
average of the absolute
differences between
initial and recurrent
evaluation results
cannot exceed 2 dfl.
09DER2
5.a.2.
All engines at idle.
Initial evaluation:
± 5 dB per 1/3 octave
band.
Recurrent evaluation:
cannot exceed ±5 dB
difference on three
consecutive bands when
compared to initial
ER09DE22.043
Ground.
Ground.
Normal condition prior to takeoff.
X
Refer to paragraph 7 of this
Attachment
For initial evaluation, it is
acceptable to have some 1/3
octave bands out of± 5 dB
tolerance but not more than 2
that are consecutive and in
any case within ± 7 dB from
approved reference data,
providing that the overall
trend is correct.
Where initial evaluation
employs approved subjective
tuning to develop the
approved reference standard,
recurrent evaluation
tolerances should he used
during recurrent evaluations.
For initial evaluation, it is
acceptable to have some I /3
octave bands out of± 5 dB
tolerance but not more than 2
that are consecutive and in
any case within ± 7 dB from
approved reference data,
providing that the overall
trend is correct.
Federal Register / Vol. 87, No. 236 / Friday, December 9, 2022 / Rules and Regulations
18:43 Dec 08, 2022
5. Sound System.
The sponsor will nut be required tu repeal the airplane tests (i.e .• tests 5.a.1. through 5.a.8. (or 5.b.1. through 5.b.9.) and 5.c., as appropriate)
during continuing qualification evaluations if frequency response and background noise test results are within tolerance when compared to the
initial qualification evaluation results, and the sponsor shows that no software changes have occurred that will affect the airplane test results. If
the frequency response lest mt:!hud is chosen and fails, the sponsor may elect to fix the frequem:y response prubkm and repeal the lest or the
sponsor may elect to repeat the airplane tests. Tfthe airplane tests are repeated during continuing qualification evaluations, the results may be
compared against initial qualification evaluation results or airplane master data. All tests in this section must be presented using an unweighted
1/3-octave band format from band 17 to 42 (50 Hz to 16 kHz). A minimum 20 second average must be taken at the location corresponding to
the airplane data set. The airplane and flight simulator results must be produced using comparable data analysis techniQues.
Turbo-jet airplanes.
5.a.
lotter on DSK11XQN23PROD with RULES2
VerDate Sep<11>2014
5.a.3.
Jkt 259001
All engines at
maximum
allowable thrust
with brakes set.
Initial evaluation:
± 5 dB per 1/3 octave
band.
N orrnal condition prior to takeoff.
PO 00000
Frm 00055
Fmt 4701
X
Where initial evaluation
employs approved subjective
tuning to develop the
approved reference standard,
recurrent evaluation
tolerances should be used
during recurrent evaluations.
For initial evaluation, it is
acceptable to have some 1/3
octave bands out of± 5 dB
tolerance but not more than 2
that are consecutive and in
any case within± 7 dB from
approved reference data,
providing that the overall
trend is correct.
5.a.4.
Climb
Sfmt 4725
Initial evaluation:
± 5 dB per 1/3 octave
band.
En-route climb.
Medium altitude.
X
Where initial evaluation
employs approved subjective
tuning to develop the
approved reference standard,
recurrent evaluation
tolerances should be used
during recurrent evaluations.
For initial evaluation, it is
acceptable to have some 1/3
octave bands out of± 5 dB
tolerance but not more than 2
that are consecutive and in
any case within± 7 dB from
approved reference data,
providing that the overall
trend is correct.
E:\FR\FM\09DER2.SGM
Recurrent evaluation:
cannot exceed ±5 dB
difference on three
consecutive bands when
compared to initial
evaluation and the
average of the absolute
differences between
initial and recurrent
evaluation results
cannot exceed 2 dB.
09DER2
Cruise
Initial evaluation:
± 5 dB per 1/3 octave
band.
Recurrent evaluation:
cannot exceed ±5 dB
difference on three
consecutive bands when
compared to initial
evaluation and the
Cruise.
N orrnal cruise configuration.
75757
X
Recurrent evaluation:
cannot exceed ±5 dB
difference on three
consecutive bands when
compared to initial
evaluation and the
average of the absolute
differences between
initial and recurrent
evaluation results
cannot exceed 2 dB.
5.a.5.
ER09DE22.044
Ground.
Where initial evaluation
employs approved subjective
tuning to develop the
approved reference standard,
recurrent evaluation
tolerances should be used
during recurrent evaluations.
For initial evaluation, it is
acceptable to have some 1/3
octave bands out of± 5 dB
tolerance but not more than 2
that are consecutive and in
any case within± 7 dB from
approved reference data,
providing that the overall
trend is correct.
Federal Register / Vol. 87, No. 236 / Friday, December 9, 2022 / Rules and Regulations
18:43 Dec 08, 2022
evaluation and the
average of the absolute
differences between
initial and recurrent
evaluation results
cannot exceed 2 dB.
lotter on DSK11XQN23PROD with RULES2
Speed
brake/spoilers
extended (as
appropriate).
Initial evaluation:
± 5 dB per 1/3 octave
band.
Normal and constant speed brake deflection for
descent at a constant airspeed and power setting.
Jkt 259001
PO 00000
Frm 00056
Fmt 4701
5.a.7
Initial approach.
Sfmt 4725
X
Where initial evaluation
employs approved subjective
tuning to develop the
approved reference standard,
recurrent evaluation
tolerances should be used
during recurrent evaluations.
For initial evaluation, it is
acceptable to have some l/3
octave bands out of± 5 dB
tolerance but not more than 2
that are consecutive and in
any case within± 7 dB from
approved reference data,
providing that the overall
trend is correct.
Initial evaluation:
± 5 dB per l/3 octave
band.
Approach.
Constant airspeed,
gear up,
flaps/slats as appropriate.
X
Where initial evaluation
employs approved subjective
tuning to develop the
approved reference standard,
recurrent evaluation
tolerances should be used
during recurrent evaluations.
For initial evaluation, it is
acceptable to have some 1/3
octave bands out of± 5 dB
tolerance but not more than 2
that are consecutive and in
any case within± 7 dB from
approved reference data,
providing that the overall
trend is correct.
Recurrent evaluation:
cannot exceed ±5 dB
difference on three
consecutive bands when
compared to initial
evaluation and the
average of the absolute
differences between
initial and recurrent
evaluation results
cannot exceed 2 dB.
E:\FR\FM\09DER2.SGM
09DER2
X
Recurrent evaluation:
cannot exceed ±5 dB
difference on three
consecutive bands when
compared to initial
evaluation and the
average of the absolute
differences between
initial and recurrent
evaluation results
cannot exceed 2 dB.
5.a.8
Final approach.
Initial evaluation:
± 5 dB per 1/3 octave
band.
Recurrent evaluation:
cannot exceed ±5 dB
difference on three
consecutive bands when
compared to initial
evaluation and the
average of the absolute
differences between
ER09DE22.045
Cruise.
Landing.
Constant airspeed,
gear down, landing
configuration flaps.
Federal Register / Vol. 87, No. 236 / Friday, December 9, 2022 / Rules and Regulations
18:43 Dec 08, 2022
5.a.6.
Where initial evaluation
employs approved subjective
tuning to develop the
approved reference standard,
recurrent evaluation
tolerances should be used
during recurrent evaluations.
For initial evaluation, it is
acceptable to have some 1/3
octave bands out of± 5 dB
tolerance but not more than 2
that are consecutive and in
any case within± 7 dB from
approved reference data,
providing that the overall
trend is correct.
75758
VerDate Sep<11>2014
average of the absolute
differences between
initial and recurrent
evaluation results
cannot exceed 2 dB.
lotter on DSK11XQN23PROD with RULES2
VerDate Sep<11>2014
initial and recurrent
evaluation results
cannot exceed 2 dB.
Propeller-driven airplanes
Jkt 259001
All tests in this section should
be presented using an
unweighted 1/3-octave band
format from at least band 17
to 42 (50 Hz to 16 kHz).
PO 00000
A measurement of minimum
20 s should be taken at the
location corresponding to the
approved data set.
Frm 00057
Fmt 4701
The approved data set and
FSTD results should be
produced using comparable
data analysis techniques.
Sfmt 4725
5.b.l.
Ready for engine
start.
Initial evaluation:
± 5 dB per 1/3 octave
band.
N orrnal condition prior to engine start.
X
The APU should be on if appropriate.
E:\FR\FM\09DER2.SGM
Recurrent evaluation:
cannot exceed ±5 dB
difference on three
consecutive bands when
compared to initial
evaluation and the
average of the absolute
differences between
initial and recurrent
evaluation results
cannot exceed 2 dB.
09DER2
5.b.2
All propellers
feathered, if
applicable.
Initial evaluation:
± 5 dB per 1/3 octave
band.
Where initial evaluation
employs approved subjective
tuning to develop the
approved reference standard,
recurrent evaluation
tolerances should be used
during recurrent evaluations.
Ground.
N orrnal condition prior to takeoff.
X
For initial evaluation, it is
acceptable to have some 1/3
octave bands out of± 5 dB
tolerance but not more than 2
that are consecutive and in
any case within± 7 dB from
approved reference data,
75759
Recurrent evaluation:
cannot exceed ±5 dB
difference on three
consecutive bands when
ER09DE22.046
Ground.
Refer to paragraph 3.7 of this
Appendix.
For initial evaluation, it is
acceptable to have some 1/3
octave bands out of± 5 dB
tolerance but not more than 2
that are consecutive and in
any case within± 7 dB from
approved reference data,
providing that the overall
trend is correct.
Federal Register / Vol. 87, No. 236 / Friday, December 9, 2022 / Rules and Regulations
18:43 Dec 08, 2022
5.b
Where initial evaluation
employs approved subjective
tuning to develop the
approved reference standard,
recurrent evaluation
tolerances should be used
during recurrent evaluations.
lotter on DSK11XQN23PROD with RULES2
Jkt 259001
Ground idle or
equivalent.
Initial evaluation:
± 5 dB per 1/3 octave
band.
N orrnal condition prior to takeoff.
PO 00000
Frm 00058
Fmt 4701
Sfmt 4725
X
X
Where initial evaluation
employs approved subjective
tuning to develop the
approved reference standard,
recurrent evaluation
tolerances should be used
during recurrent evaluations.
For initial evaluation, it is
acceptable to have some 1/3
octave bands out of± 5 dB
tolerance but not more than 2
that are consecutive and in
any case within ± 7 dB from
approved reference data,
providing that the overall
trend is correct.
X
Where initial evaluation
employs approved subjective
tuning to develop the
approved reference standard,
recurrent evaluation
tolerances should be used
during recurrent evaluations.
For initial evaluation, it is
acceptable to have some 1/3
octave bands out of± 5 dB
tolerance but not more than 2
that are consecutive and in
any case within ± 7 dB from
approved reference data,
Recurrent evaluation:
cannot exceed ±5 dB
difference on three
consecutive bands when
compared to initial
evaluation and the
average of the absolute
differences between
initial and recurrent
evaluation results
cannot exceed 2 dB.
5.b.4
Flight idle or
equivalent.
Initial evaluation:
± 5 dB per 1/3 octave
band.
Ground.
N orrnal condition prior to takeoff.
E:\FR\FM\09DER2.SGM
09DER2
Recurrent evaluation:
cannot exceed ±5 dB
difference on three
consecutive bands when
compared to initial
evaluation and the
average of the absolute
differences between
initial and recurrent
evaluation results
cannot exceed 2 dB.
5.b.5
All engines at
maximum
allowable power
with brakes set.
Initial evaluation:
± 5 dB per 1/3 octave
band.
Recurrent evaluation:
cannot exceed ±5 dB
difference on three
consecutive bands when
comoared to initial
ER09DE22.047
Ground.
Where initial evaluation
employs approved subjective
tuning to develop the
approved reference standard,
recurrent evaluation
tolerances should be used
during recurrent evaluations.
For initial evaluation, it is
acceptable to have some 1/3
octave bands out of± 5 dB
tolerance but not more than 2
that are consecutive and in
any case within ± 7 dB from
approved reference data,
providing that the overall
trend is correct.
Ground.
N orrnal condition prior to takeoff.
Federal Register / Vol. 87, No. 236 / Friday, December 9, 2022 / Rules and Regulations
18:43 Dec 08, 2022
5.b.3.
providing that the overall
trend is correct.
75760
VerDate Sep<11>2014
compared to initial
evaluation and the
average of the absolute
differences between
initial and recurrent
evaluation results
cannot exceed 2 dB.
lotter on DSK11XQN23PROD with RULES2
VerDate Sep<11>2014
5.b.6
Climb.
Jkt 259001
Initial evaluation:
± 5 dB per 1/3 octave
band.
En-route climb.
Medium altitude.
X
PO 00000
Recurrent evaluation:
cannot exceed ±5 dB
difference on three
consecutive bands when
compared to initial
evaluation and the
average of the absolute
differences between
initial and recurrent
evaluation results
cannot exceed 2 dB.
Frm 00059
Fmt 4701
Sfmt 4725
5.b.7
Cruise
Initial evaluation:
± 5 dB per 1/3 octave
band.
Cruise.
N orrnal cruise configuration.
X
E:\FR\FM\09DER2.SGM
Recurrent evaluation:
cannot exceed ±5 dB
difference on three
consecutive bands when
compared to initial
evaluation and the
average of the absolute
differences between
initial and recurrent
evaluation results
cannot exceed 2 dB.
09DER2
5.b.8
Initial approach.
Initial evaluation:
± 5 dB per 1/3 octave
band.
Approach.
Constant airspeed,
gear up,
flaps extended as appropriate,
RPM as per operating manual.
X
Where initial evaluation
employs approved subjective
tuning to develop the
approved reference standard,
recurrent evaluation
tolerances should be used
during recurrent evaluations.
For initial evaluation, it is
acceptable to have some 1/3
octave bands out of± 5 dB
tolerance but not more than 2
that are consecutive and in
any case within ± 7 dB from
approved reference data,
providing that the overall
trend is correct.
Where initial evaluation
employs approved subjective
tuning to develop the
approved reference standard,
recurrent evaluation
tolerances should be used
during recurrent evaluations.
For initial evaluation, it is
acceptable to have some 1/3
octave bands out of± 5 dB
tolerance but not more than 2
that are consecutive and in
any case within ± 7 dB from
approved reference data,
providing that the overall
trend is correct.
Where initial evaluation
employs approved subjective
tuning to develop the
approved reference standard,
recurrent evaluation
tolerances should be used
during recurrent evaluations.
For initial evaluation, it is
acceptable to have some 1/3
octave bands out of± 5 dB
tolerance but not more than 2
that are consecutive and in
any case within ± 7 dB from
approved reference data,
providing that the overall
trend is correct.
75761
Recurrent evaluation:
cannot exceed ±5 dB
difference on three
consecutive bands when
compared to initial
evaluation and the
ER09DE22.048
providing that the overall
trend is correct.
Federal Register / Vol. 87, No. 236 / Friday, December 9, 2022 / Rules and Regulations
18:43 Dec 08, 2022
evaluation and the
average of the absolute
differences between
initial and recurrent
evaluation results
cannot exceed 2 dB.
lotter on DSK11XQN23PROD with RULES2
Final approach.
Initial evaluation:
± 5 dB per 1/3 octave
band.
Landing.
Constant airspeed,
gear down, landing
configuration flaps,
RPM as per operating manual.
X
Jkt 259001
Recurrent evaluation:
cannot exceed ±5 dB
difference on three
consecutive bands when
compared to initial
evaluation and the
average of the absolute
differences between
initial and recurrent
evaluation results
cannot exceed 2 dB.
PO 00000
Frm 00060
Fmt 4701
5.c.
Special cases.
Initial evaluation:
± 5 dB per 1/3 octave
band.
As appropriate.
X
Sfmt 4725
E:\FR\FM\09DER2.SGM
Recurrent evaluation:
cannot exceed ±5 dB
difference on three
consecutive bands when
compared to initial
evaluation and the
average of the absolute
differences between
initial and recurrent
evaluation results
cannot exceed 2 dB.
For initial evaluation, it is
acceptable to have some 1/3
octave bands out of± 5 dB
tolerance but not more than 2
that are consecutive and in
any case within± 7 dB from
approved reference data,
providing that the overall
trend is correct.
09DER2
5.d
ER09DE22.049
FSTD
background noise
Initial evaluation:
background noise levels
must fall below the
sound levels described
Where initial evaluation
employs approved subjective
tuning to develop the
approved reference standard,
recurrent evaluation
tolerances should be used
during recurrent evaluations.
This applies to special steadystate cases identified as
particularly significant to the
pilot, important in training, or
unique to a specific airplane
type or model.
Results of the background noise at initial
qualification must be included in the QTG
document and approved by the responsible Flight
Standards office. The measurements are to be
X
Where initial evaluation
employs approved subjective
tuning to develop the
approved reference standard,
recurrent evaluation
tolerances should be used
during recurrent evaluations
The simulated sound will be
evaluated to ensure that the
background noise does not
interfere with training.
Federal Register / Vol. 87, No. 236 / Friday, December 9, 2022 / Rules and Regulations
18:43 Dec 08, 2022
5.b.9
Where initial evaluation
employs approved subjective
tuning to develop the
approved reference standard,
recurrent evaluation
tolerances should be used
during recurrent evaluations.
For initial evaluation, it is
acceptable to have some 1/3
octave bands out of± 5 dB
tolerance but not more than 2
that are consecutive and in
any case within± 7 dB from
approved reference data,
providing that the overall
trend is correct.
75762
VerDate Sep<11>2014
average of the absolute
differences between
initial and recurrent
evaluation results
cannot exceed 2 dB.
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*
*
*
VerDate Sep<11>2014
in Paragraph 7.c (5) of
this Attachment.
made with the simulation running, the sound
muted and a dead cockpit.
Refer to paragraph 7 of this
Attachment.
*
Jkt 259001
5.e
Frequency
response
Initial evaluation: not
applicable.
This test should be presented
using an unweighted 1/3
octave band format from band
17 to 42 (50 Hz to 16 kHz).
Ground (static with all
systems switched oft)
X
PO 00000
Recurrent evaluation:
cannot exceed ±5 dB
difference on three
consecutive bands when
compared to initial
evaluation and the
average of the absolute
differences between
initial and recurrent
evaluation results
cannot exceed 2 dB.
Frm 00061
Fmt 4701
Sfmt 4700
6
6.a.
E:\FR\FM\09DER2.SGM
6.a.l
SYSTEMS
INTEGRATION
System response
time
Transport delay.
Motion system and
instrument response:
100 ms (or less) after
airplane response.
Only required if the results
are to be used during
continuing qualification
evaluations in lieu of airplane
tests.
The results must be approved
by the responsible Flight
Standards office during the
initial qualification.
This test should be presented
using an unweighted 1/3
octave band format from band
17 to 42 (50 Hz to 16 kHz).
Pitch, roll and yaw.
X
X
One separate test is required
in each axis.
Where EFVS systems are
installed, the EFVS response
should be within+ or - 30 ms
from visual system response,
and not before motion system
response.
Visual system response:
120 ms (or less) after
airplane response.
09DER2
Note.-The delay.from the
airplane EFVS electronic
elements should be added to
the 30 ms tolerance before
comparison with visual
system reference.
Transport delay.
300 milliseconds or less
after controller
movement.
Pitch, roll and yaw.
X
X
Federal Register / Vol. 87, No. 236 / Friday, December 9, 2022 / Rules and Regulations
*
18:43 Dec 08, 2022
Recurrent evaluation:
±3 dB per 1/3 octave
band compared to initial
evaluation.
75763
ER09DE22.050
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Table of Ob_jective Tests
Test Entry Number
and Title
Sim
Level
AIB
PO 00000
Frm 00062
Notes
*******
1.a.2.
Performance. Taxi
Rate of Turn vs. Nosewheel
Steering Angle
X
Data may be acquired by using a
constant tiller position, measured with a
protractor or full rudder pedal
application for steady state tum, and
synchronized video of heading
indicator. If less than full rudder pedal
is used, pedal position must be
recorded.
A single procedure may
not be adequate for all
airplane steering
systems, therefore
appropriate
measurement procedures
must be devised and
proposed for the
responsible Flight
Standards office
concurrence.
XIX
Surface position data may be acquired
from flight data recorder (FDR) sensor
or, if no FDR sensor, at selected,
significant column positions
(encompassing significant column
position data points), acceptable to the
responsible Flight Standards office,
using a control surface protractor on the
ground. Force data may be acquired by
using a hand held force gauge at the
same column position data points.
For airplanes with
reversible control
systems, surface position
data acquisition should
be accomplished with
winds less than 5 kts.
Fmt 4701
Sfmt 4725
E:\FR\FM\09DER2.SGM
09DER2
ER09DE22.051
Alternative Data
Sources, Procedures,
and Instrumentation
*******
2.a.1.a.
Handling Qualities.
Static Control Checks.
Pitch Controller Position vs.
Force and Surface Position
Calibration
Federal Register / Vol. 87, No. 236 / Friday, December 9, 2022 / Rules and Regulations
18:43 Dec 08, 2022
described in para~raph 9 of Appendix A are not used.
75764
VerDate Sep<11>2014
TableA2E
Alternative Data Sources, Procedures, and Instrumentation
QPS REQUIREMENTS
The standards in this table are required if the data gathering methods
INFORMATION
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*
*
*
VerDate Sep<11>2014
*
Jkt 259001
PO 00000
Frm 00063
X
X
X
X
Handling Qualities.
Static Control Checks.
Roll Controller Position vs.
Force and Surface Position
Calibration
Fmt 4701
Sfmt 4700
2.a.3.a.
E:\FR\FM\09DER2.SGM
Handling Qualities.
Static Control Checks.
Rudder Pedal Position vs.
Force and Surface Position
Calibration
09DER2
Surface position data may be acquired
from flight data recorder (FDR) sensor
or, if no FDR sensor, at selected,
significant wheel positions
(encompassing significant wheel
position data points), acceptable to the
responsible Flight Standards office,
using a control surface protractor on the
ground. Force data may be acquired by
using a hand held force gauge at the
same wheel position data points.
Surface position data may be acquired
from flight data recorder (FDR) sensor
or, if no FDR sensor, at selected,
significant rudder pedal positions
(encompassing significant rudder pedal
position data points), acceptable to the
responsible Flight Standards office,
using a control surface protractor on the
ground. Force data may be acquired by
using a hand held force gauge at the
same rudder pedal position data points.
For airplanes with
reversible control
systems, surface position
data acquisition should
be accomplished with
winds less than 5 kts.
For airplanes with
reversible control
systems, surface position
data acquisition should
be accomplished with
winds less than 5 kts.
Federal Register / Vol. 87, No. 236 / Friday, December 9, 2022 / Rules and Regulations
*
18:43 Dec 08, 2022
2.a.2.a.
75765
ER09DE22.052
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*
*
Jkt 259001
Attachment 4 * * *
Fmt 4701
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E:\FR\FM\09DER2.SGM
Attachment 4 to Appendix A to Part 60—
Figure A4A—Sample Letter, Request for
Initial, Upgrade, or Reinstatement
Evaluation
Information
Frm 00064
Attachment 4 to Appendix A to Part 60—
FigureA4C—Sample Letter of Compliance
PO 00000
z
Simulator Level
AIBICID
This table specifies the minimum airport model content and functionality necessary to add airport
models to a simulator's model library, beyond those necessary for qualification at the stated level,
without the necessity of further involvement of the responsible Flight Standards office or TPAA.
*******
09DER2
Federal Register / Vol. 87, No. 236 / Friday, December 9, 2022 / Rules and Regulations
*
18:43 Dec 08, 2022
~
Additional Airport Models Beyond Minimum Required for
Qualification
Class II Airport Models
75766
*
Attachments 3 * * *
*
VerDate Sep<11>2014
ER09DE22.053
-=
-= =
c]
TableA3C
Functions and Sub_jective Tests
QPS REQUIREMENTS
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VerDate Sep<11>2014
Attachment
Appendix A
FigureA4C
Letter of
Date - - -
Jkt 259001
D The FFS will be used within the sponsor's FAA approved training program and placed on the sponsor's
Training/Operations Specifications.
PO 00000
D The FFS will be used for dry lease only.
We agree to provide the formal request for the evaluation to your staff as follows: (check one)
Frm 00065
D For QTG tests run at the factory, not later, than 45 days prior to the proposed evaluation date with the
additional "1/3 on-site" tests provided not later than 14 days prior to the proposed evaluation date.
Fmt 4701
D For QTG tests run on-site, not later than 30 days prior to the proposed evaluation date.
We understand that the formal request will contain the following documents:
Sfmt 4725
E:\FR\FM\09DER2.SGM
1. Sponsor's Letter of Request (Company Compliance Letter).
2. Principal Operations Inspector (POI) or Training Center Program Manager's (TCPM) endorsement.
3. Complete QTG.
If we are unable to meet the above requirements, we understand this may result in a significant delay, perhaps
45 days or more, in rescheduling and completing the evaluation.
(The sponsor should add additional comments as necessary).
09DER2
Please contact (Name Telephone and Fax Number of Sponsor's Contact) to confirm the date for this initial
evaluation. We understand a member of your National Simulator Program staff will respond to this request
within 14 days.
A copy of this letter of intent has been provided to (Name), the Principal Operations Inspector (POI) and/or
Training Center Program Manager (TCPM).
Sincerely,
ER09DE22.054
75767
Attachment: FFS Information Form
cc: POI/TCPM
Federal Register / Vol. 87, No. 236 / Friday, December 9, 2022 / Rules and Regulations
18:43 Dec 08, 2022
RE: Request for Initial/Upgrade Evaluation Date
This is to advise you of our intent to request an (initial or upgrade) evaluation of our (FFS Manufacturer).
(Aircraft Type/Level) Full Flight Simulator (FFS), (FAA ID Number, if previously qualified), located in .(£i!y..
State) at the (Facility) on (Proposed Evaluation Date). (The proposed evaluation date shall not be more than
180 days following the date of this letter.) The FFS will be sponsored by (Name of Training Center/Air
Carrier}, FAA Designator (4 Letter Code). The FFS will be sponsored as follows: (Select One)
4 to
to Part 60-Sample
Compliance
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Jkt 259001
Dear Mr. (Name ofTPAA):
PO 00000
RE:
Frm 00066
Fmt 4701
Sfmt 4725
E:\FR\FM\09DER2.SGM
(Operator Sponsor Name) requests evaluation of our (Aircraft Type) FFS for Level LJ
qualification. The (FFS Manufacturer Name) FFS with (Visual System Manufacturer
Name/Model) system is fully defined on the FFS Information page of the accompanying
Qualification Test Guide (QTG). We have completed the tests of the FFS and certify that it meets
all applicable requirements of FAR parts 121, 125, or 135), and the guidance of (AC 120-40B
or 14 CFR Part 60). Appropriate hardware and software configuration control procedures have
been established. Our Pilot(s), (Name(s)), who are qualified on (Aircraft Type) aircraft have
assessed the FFS and have found that it conforms to the (Operator/Sponsor) (Aircraft Type)
flight deck configuration and that the simulated systems and subsystems function equivalently
to those in the aircraft. The above named pilot(s) have also assessed the performance and the
flying qualities of the FFS and find that it represents the respective aircraft.
(Added Comments may be placed here)
09DER2
Sincerely,
(Sponsor Representative)
ER09DE22.055
Letter of Compliance
Federal Register / Vol. 87, No. 236 / Friday, December 9, 2022 / Rules and Regulations
18:43 Dec 08, 2022
Mr. (Name of Training Program Approval Authority):
(Name of responsible Flight Standards office)
(Address)
(City/State/Zip)
75768
(Date)
Information
VerDate Sep<11>2014
INFORMATION
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PO 00000
Frm 00067
Fmt 4701
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E:\FR\FM\09DER2.SGM
FAA Initial Evaluation
Date: - - - - - Date:
(Sponsor)
09DER2
Date:
FAA
Federal Register / Vol. 87, No. 236 / Friday, December 9, 2022 / Rules and Regulations
Jkt 259001
FAA QUALIFICATION TEST GUIDE
(SPECIFIC AIRPLANE MODEL)
for example
Stratos BA797-320A
(Type of Simulator)
(Simulator Identification Including Manufacturer, Serial Number, Visual System Used)
(Simulator Level)
(Qualification Performance Standard Used)
(Simulator Location)
Attachment 4 to Appendix A to Part 60—
Figure A4D—Sample Qualification Test
Guide Cover Page
18:43 Dec 08, 2022
INFORMATION
VerDate Sep<11>2014
SPONSOR NAME
SPONSOR ADDRESS
75769
ER09DE22.056
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Frm 00068
Fmt 4701
And pursuant to 14 CFR Part 60 found it to meet its original qualification basis, Aq 120-40B (MM/DD/YY)
Sfmt 4700
The Master Qualification Test Guide and the attached
Configuration List and Restrictions List
Provide the Qualification Basis for this device to operate at
E:\FR\FM\09DER2.SGM
Level D
09DER2
ER09DE22.127
FAA Identification Number 999
Until April 30, 2010
Unless sooner rescinded or extended by the FAA
March 15, 2009
B. Williamson
(date)
(for the FAA)
Federal Register / Vol. 87, No. 236 / Friday, December 9, 2022 / Rules and Regulations
PO 00000
Go-Fast Airlines
Farnsworth Z-100 Full Flight Simulator
75770
Jkt 259001
This is to certify that representatives of the FAA
Completed an evaluation of the
Attachment 4 to Appendix A to Part 60—
Figure A4E—Sample Statement of
Qualification—Certificate
18:43 Dec 08, 2022
Certificate of Qualification
INFORMATION
VerDate Sep<11>2014
Federal Aviation Administration
Federal Register / Vol. 87, No. 236 / Friday, December 9, 2022 / Rules and Regulations
*
*
*
*
*
41. In appendix B to part 60:
a. In the introductory ‘‘Begin
Information’’ text:
■ i. In the first sentence, remove ‘‘or
Level 6’’ and in its place add ‘‘Level 6,
or Level 7’’;
■ ii. In the second sentence, remove ‘‘,
NSPM,’’;
■ iii. In the last sentence, remove the
phrase ‘‘NSPM, or a person or persons
assigned by the NSPM’’ and add in its
place the words ‘‘responsible Flight
Standards office’’.
■ b. In section 1:
■ i. Remove and reserve paragraph b.;
■ ii. Remove the last sentence of
paragraph c.;
■ iii. In paragraph d.(12), add the words
‘‘Flightcrew Member’’ after ‘‘as
amended,’’; and
■ iv. Revise paragraph d.(26).
■ c. In section 11:
■ i. In paragraph o. introductory text,
remove the words ‘‘an NSP pilot’’ and
add in their place the phrase ‘‘a pilot
from the responsible Flight Standards
office’’ and remove second instance of
the word ‘‘NSP’’;
■ ii. In paragraph r.(1), remove the word
‘‘NSP’’; and
■ iii. In paragraph v., remove the phrase
‘‘NSPM or visit the NSPM website’’ and
add in its place the words ‘‘responsible
Flight Standards office’’.
■ d. In attachment 1, revise table B1A;
■ e. In attachment 2:
■ i. Revise table B2A;
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■
■
VerDate Sep<11>2014
18:43 Dec 08, 2022
Jkt 259001
ii. In section 4.b., remove the word
‘‘NSP’’ and add in its place the word
‘‘FAA’’; and
■ iii. In table B2F, revise entries 2.a.1.a.,
2.a.2.a., and 2.a.3.a.;
■ f. In attachment 3, revise table B3C;
■ g. In attachment 4:
■ i. In the table of contents, revise the
entry for Figure B4H to read
‘‘[Reserved]’’;
■ ii. Revise figures B4A, B4C, B4D, and
B4E;
■ iii. Remove and reserve figure B4H;
■ h. Remove the word ‘‘NSPM’’ and in
its place add the words ‘‘responsible
Flight Standards office’’ in the following
places:
■ i. Section 1. Introduction, paragraph
c., first two instances;
■ ii. Section 9. FTD Objective Data
Requirements, paragraphs d., d.(1),
d.(2), g., h. and i.;
■ iii. Section 10. Special Equipment and
Personnel Requirements for
Qualification of the FTD, paragraph a;
■ iv. Section 11. Initial (and Upgrade)
Qualification Requirements, paragraphs
b.(2), b.(3), d., f., g.(1), h., j., k., l., m.,
n., n.(2), o., p., q., r.(2), s., t., and w.;
■ v. Section 13. Previously Qualified
FTDs, paragraphs a.(1), a.(3), a.(4), a.(5),
d., and i.;
■ vi. Section 14. Inspection, Continuing
Qualification Evaluation, and
Maintenance Requirements, paragraphs
a., d., and h.;
■ vii. Section 17. Modifications to FTDs,
paragraphs b.(1) and b.(2);
■
PO 00000
Frm 00069
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75771
viii. Section 19. Automatic Loss of
Qualification and Procedures for
Restoration of Qualification;
■ ix. Section 20. Other Losses of
Qualification and Procedures for
Restoration of Qualification; Section
■ x. Attachment 2, section 2. Test
Requirements, paragraphs a., h., j., k.,
and l.; and
■ xi. Attachment 2, section 5.
Alternative Data Sources, Procedures,
and Instrumentation: Level 6 FTD Only,
paragraphs c., d.(2), and e.
■ n. Remove the word ‘‘NSP’’ in the
following places:
■ i. Section 14, paragraph f; and
■ ii. Attachment 3, paragraphs 1.b, and
1.c.
■
The revisions read as follows:
Appendix B to Part 60 Qualification
Performance Standards for Airplane
Flight Training Devices
*
*
*
*
*
*
*
1. Introduction
*
*
*
d. * * *
26. FAA Airman Certification Standards
and Practical Test Standards for Airline
Transport Pilot, Type Ratings, Commercial
Pilot, and Instrument Ratings.
*
*
*
*
*
Attachment 1 to Appendix B to Part 60—
General FTD REQUIREMENTS
*
E:\FR\FM\09DER2.SGM
*
*
09DER2
*
*
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VerDate Sep<11>2014
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PO 00000
Entry
Number
General FTD Requirements
Frm 00070
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E:\FR\FM\09DER2.SGM
1. General Fli2ht deck Confi2uration.
1.a.
The FTD must have a flight deck that is a replica of the airplane simulated
with controls, equipment, observable flight deck indicators, circuit breakers,
and bulkheads properly located, functionally accurate and replicating the
airplane. The direction of movement of controls and switches must be
identical to that in the airplane. Pilot seat( s) must afford the capability for the
occupant to be able to achieve the design "eye position." Equipment for the
operation of the flight deck windows must be included, but the actual
windows need not be operable. Fire axes, extinguishers, and spare light bulbs
must be available in the flight FTD, but may be relocated to a suitable
location as near as practical to the original position. Fire axes, landing gear
pins, and any similar purpose instruments need only be represented in
silhouette.
INFORMATION
FTD
Level
Notes
4 Is I6 I7
09DER2
X X For FTD purposes, the flight
deck consists of all that space
forward of a cross section of
the fuselage at the most
extreme aft setting of the
pilots' seats including
additional, required flight
crewmember duty stations and
those required bulkheads aft of
the pilot seats. For
clarification, bulkheads
containing only items such as
landing gear pin storage
compartments, fire axes and
Federal Register / Vol. 87, No. 236 / Friday, December 9, 2022 / Rules and Regulations
18:43 Dec 08, 2022
ER09DE22.057
Table BlA - Minimum FTD Requirements
QPS REQUIREMENTS
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E:\FR\FM\09DER2.SGM
09DER2
1.b.
For Level 6 FTDs, flight deck
window panes may be omitted
where non-distracting and
subjectively acceptable to
conduct qualified training
tasks.
75773
ER09DE22.058
Level 7 FTD only;
The display image of any three dimensional instrument, such as an electromechanical instrument, should appear to have the same three dimensional
depth as the replicated instrument. The appearance of the simulated
instrument, when viewed from the principle operator's angle, should replicate
that of the actual airplane instrument. Any instrument reading inaccuracy due
to viewing angle and parallax present in the actual airplane instrument should
be duplicated in the simulated instrument display image. Viewing angle error
and parallax must be minimized on shared instruments such and engine
displays and standby indicators.
The FTD must have equipment (e.g., instruments, panels, systems, circuit
IX IX
breakers, and controls) simulated sufficiently for the authorized
training/checking events to be accomplished. The installed equipment must be
located in a spatially correct location and may be in a flight deck or an open
flight deck area. Additional equipment required for the authorized
training/checking events must be available in the FTD, but may be located in
a suitable location as near as practical to the spatially correct position.
extinguishers, spare light
bulbs, aircraft documents
pouches are not considered
essential and may be omitted.
Federal Register / Vol. 87, No. 236 / Friday, December 9, 2022 / Rules and Regulations
18:43 Dec 08, 2022
The use of electronically displayed images with physical overlay or masking
for FTD instruments and/or instrument panels is acceptable provided:
( 1) All instruments and instrument panel layouts are dimensionally
correct with differences, if any, being imperceptible to the pilot;
(2) Instruments replicate those of the airplane including full instrument
functionality and embedded logic;
(3) Instruments displayed are free of quantization (stepping);
(4) Instrument display characteristics replicate those of the airplane
including: resolution, colors, luminance, brightness, fonts, fill
patterns, line styles and symbology;
( 5) Overlay or masking, including bezels and bugs, as applicable,
replicates the airplane panel(s);
(6) Instrument controls and switches replicate and operate with the same
technique, effort, travel and in the same direction as those in the
airplane;
(7) Instrument lighting replicates that of the airplane and is operated from
the FSTD control for that lighting and, if applicable, is at a level
commensurate with other lighting operated by that same control; and
(8) As applicable, instruments must have faceplates that replicate those in
the airplane; and
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E:\FR\FM\09DER2.SGM
09DER2
ER09DE22.059
X
X X
An SOC is required.
A flight dynamics model that accounts for various combinations of drag and
thrust normally encountered in flight must correspond to actual flight
conditions, including the effect of change in airplane attitude, thrust, drag,
altitude, temperature, gross weight, moments of inertia, center of gravity
location, and configuration.
X
The effects of pitch attitude and of fuel slosh on the aircraft center of gravity
must be simulated.
2.b.
2.c.1
An SOC is required.
The FTD must have the computer capacity, accuracy, resolution, and dynamic
response needed to meet the qualification level sought.
An SOC is required.
Relative responses of the flight deck instruments must be measured by
latency tests, or transport delay tests, and may not exceed 300 milliseconds.
The instruments must respond to abrupt input at the pilot's position within the
allotted time, but not before the time when the airplane responds under the
same conditions.
(1) Latency: The FTD instrument and, if applicable, the motion system
and the visual system response must not be prior to that time when the
X X X X
X X
The intent is to verify that the
FTD provides instrument cues
that are, within the stated time
delays, like the airplane
responses. For airplane
response, acceleration in the
appropriate, corresponding
rotational axis is preferred.
Federal Register / Vol. 87, No. 236 / Friday, December 9, 2022 / Rules and Regulations
18:43 Dec 08, 2022
2.a.2
75774
VerDate Sep<11>2014
Actuation of equipment must replicate the appropriate function in the
airplane. Fire axes, landing gear pins, and any similar purpose instruments
need only be represented in silhouette.
1.c.
Those circuit breakers that affect procedures or result in observable flight
deck indications must be properly located and functionally accurate.
2. Pro2rammin2.
The FTD must provide the proper effect of aerodynamic changes for the
2.a.1
combinations of drag and thrust normally encountered in flight. This must
include the effect of change in airplane attitude, thrust, drag, altitude,
temperature, and configuration.
Level 6 additionally requires the effects of changes in gross weight and center
of gravity.
Level 5 requires only generic aerodynamic programming.
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E:\FR\FM\09DER2.SGM
09DER2
2.d.1.
Ground effect.
2.d.2.
Ground reaction.
X The intent is to verify that the
FTD provides instrument,
motion, and visual cues that
are, within the stated time
delays, like the airplane
responses. For airplane
response, acceleration in the
appropriate, corresponding
rotational axis is preferred.
X Ground effect includes
modeling that accounts for
roundout, flare, touchdown,
lift, drag, pitching moment,
trim, and power while in
ground effect.
X Ground reaction includes
modeling that accounts for
strut deflections, tire friction,
and side forces. This is the
reaction of the airplane upon
contact with the runway during
landing, and may differ with
changes in factors such as
gross weight, airspeed, or rate
of descent on touchdown.
75775
ER09DE22.060
2.d.
100 ms for the motion (if installed) and instrument systems; and
120 ms for the visual system.
Ground handling and aerodynamic programming must include the following:
Additional information
regarding Latency and
Transport Delay testing may
be found in Appendix A,
Attachment 2, paragraph 15.
Federal Register / Vol. 87, No. 236 / Friday, December 9, 2022 / Rules and Regulations
18:43 Dec 08, 2022
2.c.2.
airplane responds and may respond up to 300 milliseconds after that
time under the same conditions.
(2) Transport Delay: As an alternative to the Latency requirement, a
transport delay objective test may be used to demonstrate that the FTD
system does not exceed the specified limit. The sponsor must measure
all the delay encountered by a step signal migrating from the pilot's
control through all the simulation software modules in the correct
order, using a handshaking protocol, finally through the normal output
interfaces to the instrument display and, if applicable, the motion
system, and the visual system.
Relative responses of the motion system, visual system, and flight deck
instruments, measured by latency tests or transport delay tests. Motion onset
should occur before the start of the visual scene change (the start of the scan
of the first video field containing different information) but must occur before
the end of the scan of that video field. Instrument response may not occur
prior to motion onset. Test results must be within the following limits:
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2.f.
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ER09DE22.061
Ground handling characteristics, including aerodynamic and ground reaction
modeling including steering inputs, operations with crosswind, gusting
crosswind, braking, thrust reversing, deceleration, and turning radius.
If the aircraft being simulated is one of the aircraft listed in § 121.3 5 8, Lowaltitude windshear system equipment requirements, the FTD must employ
windshear models that provide training for recognition of windshear
phenomena and the execution of recovery procedures. Models must be
available to the instructor/evaluator for the following critical phases of flight:
(1) Prior to takeoff rotation;
(2) At liftoff;
(3) During initial climb; and
(4) On final approach, below 500 ft AGL.
The QTG must reference the FAA Windshear Training Aid or present
alternate airplane related data, including the implementation method(s) used.
If the alternate method is selected, wind models from the Royal Aerospace
Establishment (RAE), the Joint Airport Weather Studies (JAWS) Project and
other recognized sources may be implemented, but must be supported and
properly referenced in the QTG.
X
The addition of realistic levels of turbulence associated with each required
windshear profile must be available and selectable to the instructor.
For Level 7 FTDs, windshear
training tasks may only be
qualified for aircraft equipped
with a synthetic stall warning
system. The qualified
windshear profile(s) are
evaluated to ensure the
synthetic stall warning ( and
not the stall buffet) is first
indication of the stall.
X Automatic "flagging" of outof-tolerance situations is
encouraged.
In addition to the four basic windshear models required for qualification, at
least two additional "complex" windshear models must be available to the
instructor which represent the complexity of actual windshear encounters.
These models must be available in the takeoff and landing configurations and
must consist of independent variable winds in multiple simultaneous
components. The Windshear Training Aid provides two such example
"complex" windshear models that may be used to satisfy this requirement.
The FTD must provide for manual and automatic testing of FTD hardware
and software programming to determine compliance with FTD objective tests
as prescribed in Attachment 2 of this appendix.
An SOC is required.
The FTD must accurately reproduce the following runway conditions:
(1) Dry;
(2) Wet;
X Windshear models may consist
of independent variable winds
in multiple simultaneous
components. The FAA
Windshear Training Aid
presents one acceptable means
of compliance with FTD wind
model requirements.
The FTD should employ a
method to ensure the required
survivable and non-survivable
windshear scenarios are
repeatable in the training
environment.
X
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2.e.
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2.d.3.
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2.i.
An SOC is required.
The FTD must simulate:
(1) brake and tire failure dynamics, including antiskid failure; and
(2) decreased brake efficiency due to high brake temperatures, if applicable.
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An SOC is required
Engine and Airframe Icing
Modeling that includes the effects of icing, where appropriate, on the
airframe, aerodynamics, and the engine(s). Icing models must simulate the
aerodynamic degradation effects of ice accretion on the airplane lifting
surfaces including loss of lift, decrease in stall angle of attack, change in
pitching moment, decrease in control effectiveness, and changes in control
forces in addition to any overall increase in drag. Aircraft systems ( such as
the stall protection system and autoflight system) must respond properly to
ice accretion consistent with the simulated aircraft.
E:\FR\FM\09DER2.SGM
Aircraft OEM data or other acceptable analytical methods must be utilized to
develop ice accretion models that are representative of the simulated aircraft's
performance degradation in a typical in-flight icing encounter. Acceptable
analytical methods may include wind tunnel analysis and/or engineering
analysis of the aerodynamic effects of icing on the lifting surfaces coupled
with tuning and supplemental subjective assessment by a subject matter
expert pilot.
09DER2
SOC required.
X FTD pitch, side loading, and
directional control
characteristics should be
representative of the airplane.
X SOC should be provided
describing the effects which
provide training in the specific
skills required for recognition
of icing phenomena and
execution of recovery. The
SOC should describe the
source data and any analytical
methods used to develop ice
accretion models including
verification that these effects
have been tested.
Icing effects simulation models
are only required for those
airplanes authorized for
operations in icing conditions.
Icing simulation models should
be developed to provide
training in the specific skills
required for recognition of ice
accumulation and execution of
the required response.
ER09DE22.062
75777
See Attachment 7 of this
Appendix for further guidance
material.
Federal Register / Vol. 87, No. 236 / Friday, December 9, 2022 / Rules and Regulations
18:43 Dec 08, 2022
(3) Icy;
( 4) Patchy Wet;
( 5) Patchy Icy; and
(6) Wet on Rubber Residue in Touchdown Zone.
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An SOC is required.
3. Equipment Operation.
3.a.
All relevant instrument indications involved in the simulation of the airplane
must automatically respond to control movement or external disturbances to
the simulated airplane; e.g., turbulence or windshear. Numerical values must
be presented in the appropriate units.
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3.b.1.
09DER2
3.b.2.
3.b.3.
ER09DE22.063
An SOC is required and must include references to computations of
aeroelastic representations and of nonlinearities due to sideslip.
The FTD must have aerodynamic and ground reaction modeling for the
effects of reverse thrust on directional control, if applicable.
For Level 7 FTDs, instrument indications must also respond to effects
resulting from icing.
Navigation equipment must be installed and operate within the tolerances
applicable for the airplane.
Levels 6 must also include communication equipment (inter-phone and
air/ground) like that in the airplane and, if appropriate to the operation being
conducted, an oxygen mask microphone system.
Level 5 need have only that navigation equipment necessary to fly an
instrument approach.
Communications, navigation, caution, and warning equipment must be
installed and operate within the tolerances applicable for the airplane.
Instructor control of internal and external navigational aids.Navigation aids
must be usable within range or line-of-sight without restriction, as applicable
to the geographic area.
Complete navigation database for at least 3 airports with corresponding
precision and non-precision approach procedures, including navigational
database updates.
X
X X X
X X
X See Attachment 3 of this
appendix for further
information regarding longrange navigation equipment.
X
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18:43 Dec 08, 2022
2.k.
X See Attachment 2 of this
appendix, paragraph 5, for
further information on ground
effect.
The aerodynamic modeling in the FTD must include:
(1) Low-altitude level-flight ground effect;
(2) Mach effect at high altitude;
(3) Normal and reverse dynamic thrust effect on control surfaces;
(4) Aeroelastic representations; and
(5) Nonlinearities due to sideslip.
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3.d.
The lighting environment for panels and instruments must be sufficient for
the operation being conducted.
3.e.
The FTD must provide control forces and control travel that corresponds to
the airplane being simulated. Control forces must react in the same manner as
in the airplane under the same flight conditions.
ER09DE22.064
75779
For Level 7 FTDs, control systems must replicate airplane operation for the
normal and any non-normal modes including back-up systems and should
reflect failures of associated systems. Appropriate cockpit indications and
messages must be replicated.
At a minimum, alternate
approved data should validate
the operation of all normal,
abnormal, and emergency
operating procedures and
training tasks the FSTD is
qualified to conduct.
X X X X Back-lighted panels and
instruments may be installed
but are not required.
X X
Federal Register / Vol. 87, No. 236 / Friday, December 9, 2022 / Rules and Regulations
18:43 Dec 08, 2022
3.c.2.
Installed systems must simulate the applicable airplane system operation, both X X X
on the ground and in flight. Installed systems must be operative to the extent
that applicable normal, abnormal, and emergency operating procedures
included in the sponsor's training programs can be accomplished.
Level 6 must simulate all applicable airplane flight, navigation, and systems
operation.
Level 5 must have at least functional flight and navigational controls,
displays, and instrumentation.
Level 4 must have at least one airplane system installed and functional.
Simulated airplane systems must operate as the airplane systems operate
X Airplane system operation
under normal, abnormal, and emergency operating conditions on the ground
should be predicated on, and
and in flight.
traceable to, the system data
supplied by the airplane
Once activated, proper systems operation must result from system
manufacturer, original
management by the crew member and not require any further input from the
equipment manufacturer or
instructor's controls.
alternative approved data for
the airplane system or
component.
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ER09DE22.065
The FTD must provide control forces and control travel of sufficient precision
X
to manually fly an instrument approach.
X
3.e.
FTD control feel dynamics must replicate the airplane. This must be
determined by comparing a recording of the control feel dynamics of the FTD
to airplane measurements. For initial and upgrade qualification evaluations,
the control dynamic characteristics must be measured and recorded directly
from the flight deck controls, and must be accomplished in takeoff, cruise,
and landing flight conditions and configurations.
4. Instructor or Evaluator Facilities.
X X X
These seats need not be a
4.a.1.
In addition to the flight crewmember stations, suitable seating arrangements
for an instructor/check airman and FAA Inspector must be available. These
replica of an aircraft seat and
seats must provide adequate view of crewmember's panel(s).
may be as simple as an office
chair placed in an appropriate
position.
X The responsible Flight
4.a.2.
In addition to the flight crewmember stations, the FTD must have at least two
suitable seats for the instructor/check airman and FAA inspector. These seats
Standards office will consider
must provide adequate vision to the pilot's panel and forward windows. All
alternatives to this standard for
seats other than flight crew seats need not represent those found in the
additional seats based on
airplane, but must be adequately secured to the floor and equipped with
unique flight deck
similar positive restraint devices.
configurations.
X X X
4.b.1.
The FTD must have instructor controls that permit activation of normal,
abnormal, and emergency conditions as appropriate. Once activated, proper
system operation must result from system management by the crew and not
require input from the instructor controls.
X
4.b.2.
The FTD must have controls that enable the instructor/evaluator to control all
required system variables and insert all abnormal or emergency conditions
into the simulated airplane systems as described in the sponsor's FAAapproved training program; or as described in the relevant operating manual
as appropriate.
X
4.c.
The FTD must have instructor controls for all environmental effects expected
to be available at the IOS; e.g., clouds, visibility, icing, precipitation,
temperature, storm cells and microbursts, turbulence, and intermediate and
high altitude wind speed and direction.
X For example, another airplane
4.d.
The FTD must provide the instructor or evaluator the ability to present ground
and air hazards.
crossing the active runway or
converging airborne traffic.
5. Motion System.
3.f.
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6. Visual System.
The FTD may have a visual system, if desired, although it is not required. If a visual
6.a.
system is installed, it must meet the following criteria:
The
visual system must respond to abrupt input at the pilot's position.
6.a.1.
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6.a.2.
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6.a.3.
An SOC is required.
The visual system must be at least a single channel, non-collimated display.
An SOC is required.
The visual system must provide at least a field-of-view of 18° vertical/ 24 °
horizontal for the pilot flying.
X X X The motion system standards
set out in part 60, Appendix A
for at least Level A simulators
is acceptable.
X X The motion system standards
set out in part 60, Appendix A
for at least Level A simulators
is acceptable.
X
X
X
X
X
X
X
X
X
X
X
E:\FR\FM\09DER2.SGM
6.a.4.
An SOC is required.
The visual system must provide for a maximum parallax of 10° per pilot.
X
X
X
6.a.5.
An SOC is required.
The visual scene content may not be distracting.
X
X
X
X
X
X
An SOC is required.
The minimum distance from the pilot's eye position to the surface of a direct view
display may not be less than the distance to any front panel instrument.
6.a.7.
An SOC is required.
The visual system must provide for a minimum resolution of 5 arc-minutes for both
computed and displayed pixel size.
6.b.
If a visual system is installed and additional training, testing, or checking credits are
09DER2
6.a.6.
An SOC is required.
ER09DE22.066
X
Directly projected, noncollimated visual displays may
prove to be unacceptable for
dual pilot applications.
75781
being sought on the basis of having a visual system, a visual system meeting the
standards set out for at least a Level A FPS (see Appendix A of this part) will be
required. A "direct-view," non-collimated visual system (with the other requirements
for a Level A visual system met) may be considered satisfactory for those
Federal Register / Vol. 87, No. 236 / Friday, December 9, 2022 / Rules and Regulations
18:43 Dec 08, 2022
5.b.
The FTD may have a motion system, if desired, although it is not required. If
a motion system is installed and additional training, testing, or checking
credits are being sought on the basis of having a motion system, the motion
system operation may not be distracting and must be coupled closely to
provide integrated sensory cues. The motion system must also respond to
abrupt input at the pilot's position within the allotted time, but not before the
time when the airplane responds under the same conditions.
If a motion system is installed, it must be measured by latency tests or
transport delay tests and may not exceed 300 milliseconds. Instrument
response may not occur prior to motion onset.
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An SOC is required.
The FTD must have a visual system providing an out-of-the-flight deck view.
The FTD must provide a continuous visual field-of-view of at leastl 76°
horizontally and 36° vertically or the number of degrees necessary to meet the
visual ground segment requirement, whichever is greater. The minimum
horizontal field-of-view coverage must be plus and minus one-half(½) of the
minimum continuous field-of-view requirement, centered on the zero degree
azimuth line relative to the aircraft fuselage.
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An SOC is required and must explain the system geometry measurements
including system linearity and field-of-view.
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6.f.
09DER2
6.g.
6.i.
Collimation is not required but parallax effects must be minimized (not
greater than 10° for each pilot when aligned for the point midway between the
left and right seat eyepoints).
The visual system must be free from optical discontinuities and artifacts that
create non-realistic cues.
The FTD must have operational landing lights for night scenes. Where used,
dusk ( or twilight) scenes require operational landing lights.
The FTD must have instructor controls for the following:
(1) Visibility in statute miles (km) and runway visual range (RVR) in ft.(m);
(2) Airport selection; and
(3) Airport lighting.
The FTD must provide visual system compatibility with dynamic response
programming.
The FTD must show that the segment of the ground visible from the FTD
flight deck is the same as from the airplane flight deck (within established
X
X The horizontal field-of-view is
traditionally described as a
180° field-of-view. However,
the field-of-view is technically
no less than 176°. Additional
field-of-view capability may
be added at the sponsor's
discretion provided the
minimum fields of view are
retained.
X Non-realistic cues might
include image "swimming"
and image "roll-off," that may
lead a pilot to make incorrect
assessments of speed,
acceleration, or situational
awareness.
X
X
X
X This will show the modeling
accuracy ofRVR, glideslope, and
localizer for a given weight,
configuration, and speed within
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18:43 Dec 08, 2022
6.c.
6.d.
6.h.
ER09DE22.067
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installations where the visual system design "eye point" is appropriately adjusted for
each pilot's position such that the parallax error is at or less than 10° simultaneously
for each pilot.
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6.o.
The FTD must provide visual cues necessary to assess sink rates (provide
depth perception) during takeoffs and landings, to include:
(1) Surface on runways, taxiways, and ramps; and
(2) Terrain features.
The FTD must provide for accurate portrayal of the visual environment
relating to the FTD attitude.
The FTD must provide for quick confirmation of visual system color, RVR,
focus, and intensity.
09DER2
X Visual attitude vs. FTD
attitude is a comparison of
pitch and roll of the horizon as
displayed in the visual scene
compared to the display on the
attitude indicator.
X
X
X
X
75783
An SOC is required.
The FTD must be capable of producing at least 10 levels of occulting.
Night Visual Scenes. When used in training, testing, or checking activities,
the FTD must provide night visual scenes with sufficient scene content to
recognize the airport, the terrain, and major landmarks around the airport. The
scene content must allow a pilot to successfully accomplish a visual landing.
Scenes must include a definable horizon and typical terrain characteristics
such as fields, roads and bodies of water and surfaces illuminated by airplane
landing lights.
Dusk (or Twilight) Visual Scenes. When used in training, testing, or checking
activities, the FTD must provide dusk (or twilight) visual scenes with
sufficient scene content to recognize the airport, the terrain, and major
landmarks around the airport. The scene content must allow a pilot to
successfully accomplish a visual landing. Dusk (or twilight) scenes, as a
minimum, must provide full color presentations of reduced ambient intensity,
sufficient surfaces with appropriate textural cues that include self-illuminated
objects such as road networks, ramp lighting and airport signage, to conduct a
visual approach, landing and airport movement (taxi). Scenes must include a
definable horizon and typical terrain characteristics such as fields, roads and
bodies of water and surfaces illuminated by airplane landing lights. If
provided, directional horizon lighting must have correct orientation and be
consistent with surface shading effects. Total night or dusk (twilight) scene
X
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18:43 Dec 08, 2022
ER09DE22.068
the airplane's operational
envelope for a normal approach
and landing.
tolerances) when at the correct airspeed, in the landing configuration, at the
appropriate height above the touchdown zone, and with appropriate visibility.
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6.q.
An SOC is required.
Daylight Visual Scenes. The FTD must provide daylight visual scenes with
sufficient scene content to recognize the airport, the terrain, and major
landmarks around the airport. The scene content must allow a pilot to
successfully accomplish a visual landing. Any ambient lighting must not
"washout" the displayed visual scene. Total daylight scene content must be
comparable in detail to that produced by 10,000 visible textured surfaces and
6,000 visible lights with sufficient system capacity to display 16
simultaneously moving objects. The visual display must be free of apparent
and distracting quantization and other distracting visual effects while the FTD
is in motion.
An SOC is required.
The FTD must provide operational visual scenes that portray physical
relationships known to cause landing illusions to pilots.
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6.r.
09DER2
6.s.
The FTD must provide special weather representations of light, medium, and
heavy precipitation near a thunderstorm on takeoff and during approach and
landing. Representations need only be presented at and below an altitude of
2,000 ft. (610 m) above the airport surface and within 10 miles (16 km) of the
airport.
The FTD must present visual scenes of wet and snow-covered runways,
including runway lighting reflections for wet conditions, partially obscured
lights for snow conditions, or suitable alternative effects.
The FTD must present realistic color and directionality of all airport lighting.
The following weather effects as observed on the visual system must be
simulated and respective instructor controls provided.
(1) Multiple cloud layers with adjustable bases, tops, sky coverage and
scud effect;
(2) Storm cells activation and/or deactivation;
X
X For example: short runways,
landing approaches over water,
uphill or downhill runways,
rising terrain on the approach
path, unique topographic
features.
X
X
X
X Scud effects are low, detached,
and irregular clouds below a
defined cloud layer.
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18:43 Dec 08, 2022
6.p.
6.t.
6.u.
ER09DE22.069
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content must be comparable in detail to that produced by 10,000 visible
textured surfaces and 15,000 visible lights with sufficient system capacity to
display 16 simultaneously moving objects.
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7. Sound System.
The FTD must provide flight deck sounds that result from pilot actions that
7.a.
correspond to those that occur in the airplane.
The volume control must have an indication of sound level setting which
7.b.
meets all qualification requirements.
7.c.
09DER2
The FTD must accurately simulate the sound of precipitation, windshield
wipers, and other significant airplane noises perceptible to the pilot during
normal and abnormal operations, and include the sound of a crash (when the
FTD is landed in an unusual attitude or in excess of the structural gear
limitations); normal engine and thrust reversal sounds; and the sounds of flap,
gear, and spoiler extension and retraction.
Sounds must be directionally representative.
X Visual effects for light poles
and raised edge lights are for
the purpose of providing
additional depth perception
during takeoff, landing, and
taxi training tasks. Three
dimensional modeling of the
actual poles and stanchions is
not required.
X X
X This indication is of the sound
level setting as evaluated
during the FTD's initial
evaluation.
X
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18:43 Dec 08, 2022
6.v.
(3) Visibility and runway visual range (RVR), including fog and patchy
fog effect;
(4) Effects on ownship external lighting;
(5) Effects on airport lighting (including variable intensity and fog
effects);
(6) Surface contaminants (including wind blowing effect);
(7) Variable precipitation effects (rain, hail, snow);
(8) In-cloud airspeed effect; and
(9) Gradual visibility changes entering and breaking out of cloud.
The simulator must provide visual effects for:
(1) Light poles;
(2) Raised edge lights as appropriate; and
(3) Glow associated with approach lights in low visibility before physical
lights are seen,
An SOC is required.
75785
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The FTD must provide realistic amplitude and frequency of flight deck noises
and sounds. FTD performance must be recorded, subjectively assessed for the
initial evaluation, and be made a part of the QTG.
X
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09DER2
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18:43 Dec 08, 2022
ER09DE22.071
7.d.
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*
*
*
*
Attachment 2 to Appendix B to Part 60—
Flight Training Device (FTD) Objective Tests
*
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*
*
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*
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*
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Tolerance
Entry I
Number
Title
Flight
Conditions
Notes
51617
Taxi.
Minimum radius
tum.
±0.9 m (3 ft) or ±20%
of airplane tum radius.
Ground.
1.a.2
Rate of turn versus
nosewheel steering
angle (NWA).
±10% or ±2°/s of turn
rate.
Ground.
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1.b.
Takeoff.
1.b.l
Ground acceleration
time and distance.
±1.5 s or
±5% of time; and
±61 m (200 ft) or ±5%
of distance.
Takeoff.
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1. Performance.
1.a.1
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09DER2
ER09DE22.072
Test
Details
Plot both main and nose gear loci and key engine
parameter(s ). Data for no brakes and the
minimum thrust required to maintain a steady
tum except for airplanes requiring asymmetric
thrust or braking to achieve the minimum radius
tum.
Record for a minimum of two speeds, greater
than minimum turning radius speed with one at a
typical taxi speed, and with a spread of at least 5
kt.
Note.- For Level 7 FTD, all airplane
manufacturer commonly-used certificated takeoffflap settings must be demonstrated at least
once either in minimum unstick speed (J.b.3),
normal take-o.ff(l.b.4), critical engine failure on
take-of( (1.b.5) or crosswind take-of( (1.b.6).
Acceleration time and distance must be recorded
for a minimum of 80% of the total time from
brake release to V,. Preliminary aircraft
certification data may be used.
X
X
X
X
For Level 6 FTD:
±1.5 s or ±5% of time.
l.b.2
Minimum control
speed, ground (Vmcg)
using aerodynamic
controls only per
applicable
airworthiness
requirement or
alternative engine
inoperative test to
demonstrate ground
control
characteristics.
±25% of maximum
airplane lateral
deviation reached or
±1.5 m (5 ft).
For airplanes with
reversible flight control
systems:
±10% or ±2.2 daN (5 lbt)
rudder pedal force.
Takeoff.
Engine failure speed must be within ±1 kt of
airplane engine failure speed. Engine thrust decay
must be that resulting from the mathematical
model for the engine applicable to the FTD under
test. If the modeled engine is not the same as the
airplane manufacturer's flight test engine, a
further test may be run with the same initial
conditions using the thrust from the flight test
data as the driving parameter.
X
May be combined with normal
takeoff(l.b.4.) or rejected
takeoff(l.b.7.). Plotted data
should be shown using
appropriate scales for each
portion of the maneuver.
For Level 6 FTD, this test is
required only if RTO training
credit is sought.
If a V mcg test is not available, an
acceptable alternative is a flight
test snap engine deceleration to
idle at a speed between V 1 and
V 1-IO kt, followed by control of
heading using aerodynamic
control only and recovery should
be achieved with the main gear
on the ground.
To ensure only aerodynamic
control, nosewheel steering must
be disabled (i.e. castored) or the
nosewheel held slightly off the
ground.
Federal Register / Vol. 87, No. 236 / Friday, December 9, 2022 / Rules and Regulations
18:43 Dec 08, 2022
Test
INFORMATION
FTD
Level
75788
VerDate Sep<11>2014
Table B2A - Flight Training Device (FTD) Objective Tests
QPS REQUIREMENTS
lotter on DSK11XQN23PROD with RULES2
VerDate Sep<11>2014
l.b.3
±3 kt airspeed.
±1.5° pitch angle.
Takeoff.
Record time history data from 10 knots before
start of rotation until at least 5 seconds after the
occurrence of main gear lift-off.
X
Jkt 259001
PO 00000
Frm 00087
l.b.4
Normal take-off.
±3 kt airspeed.
±1.5° pitch angle.
Fmt 4701
±1.5° AOA.
Sfmt 4725
For airplanes with
reversible flight control
systems:
E:\FR\FM\09DER2.SGM
±2.2 daN (5 lbt) or
±10% of colunm force.
±3 kt airspeed.
±6 m (20 ft) height.
1.b.5
Critical engine failure
on take-off.
±1.5° pitch angle.
±1.5° AOA.
Data required for near maximum certificated
takeoff weight at mid center of gravity location
and light takeoff weight at an aft center of gravity
location. If the airplane has more than one
certificated take-off configuration, a different
configuration must be used for each weight.
Takeoff.
Record takeoff profile to at least 61 m (200 ft)
AGL.
09DER2
Engine failure speed must be within ±3 kt of
airplane data.
±2° roll angle.
Test at near maximum takeoff weight
±2° side-slip angle.
±3 ° heading angle.
±2.2 daN (5 lbt) or
±10% of colunm force;
If either of these alternative
solutions is selected, aft body
contact/tail strike protection
functionality, if present on the
aimlane, should be active.
The test may be used for ground
acceleration time and distance
(1.b.1).
Plotted data should be shown
using appropriate scales for each
portion of the maneuver.
X
75789
±1.3 daN (3 lbt) or
±10% of wheel force;
and
X
Record takeoff profile from brake release to at
least 61 m (200 ft) AGL.
±6 m (20 ft) height.
For airplanes with
reversible flight control
systems:
ER09DE22.073
Takeoff.
V mu is defined as the minimum
speed at which the last main
landing gear leaves the ground.
Main landing gear strut
compression or equivalent
air/ground signal should be
recorded. If a Vmu test is not
available, alternative acceptable
flight tests are a constant highattitude takeoff run through main
gear lift-off or an early rotation
takeoff.
Federal Register / Vol. 87, No. 236 / Friday, December 9, 2022 / Rules and Regulations
18:43 Dec 08, 2022
Minimum unstick
speed (Vmu) or
equivalent test to
demonstrate early
rotation take-off
characteristics.
lotter on DSK11XQN23PROD with RULES2
Crosswind take-off.
75790
VerDate Sep<11>2014
l.b.6
±2.2 daN (5 lbt) or
±10% of rudder pedal
force.
± 3 kt airspeed.
Takeoff.
X
Autobrakes will be used where
applicable.
This test requires test data, including wind
profile, for a crosswind component of at least
60% of the airplane performance data value
measured at 10 m (33 ft) above the runway.
±1.5° AOA.
±6 m (20 ft) height.
Jkt 259001
±2° roll angle.
Wind components must be provided as headwind
and crosswind values with respect to the runway.
±2° side-slip angle.
PO 00000
±3 ° heading angle.
Frm 00088
Correct trends at ground
speeds below 40 kt for
rudder/pedal and
heading angle.
Fmt 4701
Sfmt 4725
±2.2 daN (5 lbt) or
±10% of column force;
E:\FR\FM\09DER2.SGM
In those situations where a
maximum crosswind or a
maximum demonstrated
crosswind is not known, contact
the responsible Flight Standards
office.
±1.3 daN (3 lbt) or
±10% of wheel force;
and
l.b.7.a.
Rejected Takeoff.
±2.2 daN (5 lbt) or
± I 0% of rudder pedal
force.
±5% of time or ±1.5 s.
Takeoff.
09DER2
Speed for reject must be at least 80% ofV 1.
±7.5% of distance or
±76 m (250 ft).
Maximum braking effort, auto or manual.
For Level 6 FTD: ±5%
of time or ±1.5 s.
l.b.7.b.
Rejected Takeoff.
±5% of time or ±1.5 s.
Record at mass near maximum takeoff weight.
Where a maximum braking demonstration is not
available, an acceptable alternative is a test using
approximately 80% braking and full reverse, if
applicable.
Takeoff
Time and distance must be recorded from brake
release to a full stoo.
Record time for at least 80% of the segment from
initiation of the rejected takeoff to full stop.
X
For Level 6 FTD, this test is
required only ifRTO training
credit is sought.
Federal Register / Vol. 87, No. 236 / Friday, December 9, 2022 / Rules and Regulations
18:43 Dec 08, 2022
X
±1.5° pitch angle.
For airplanes with
reversible flight control
systems:
ER09DE22.074
Record takeoff profile from brake release to at
least 61 m (200 ft) AGL.
lotter on DSK11XQN23PROD with RULES2
VerDate Sep<11>2014
l.b.8.
Dynamic Engine
Failure After
Takeoff.
±2 °/s or ±20% of body
angular rates.
Takeoff.
X
For safety considerations,
airplane flight test may be
performed out of ground effect
at a safe altitude, but with
correct airplane configuration
and airspeed.
X
For Level 5 and Level 6 FTDs,
this may be a snapshot test
result.
Engine failure may be a snap deceleration to idle.
Record hands-off from 5 s before engine failure
to +5 s or 30° roll angle, whichever occurs first.
CCA: Test in Normal and Non-normal control
state.
Climb.
1.c.1.
Normal Climb, all
engines operating.
Jkt 259001
1.c.
±3 kt airspeed.
Clean.
±0.5 mis (100 ft/ min)
or ±5% of rate of climb.
Flight test data are preferred; however, airplane
performance manual data are an acceptable
alternative.
X
X
PO 00000
Record at nominal climb speed and mid initial
climb altitude.
Frm 00089
FTD performance is to be recorded over an
interval of at least 300 m (I, 000 ft).
1.c.2.
Fmt 4701
One-engineinoperative 2nd
segment climb.
±3 kt airspeed.
2nd segment climb.
Sfmt 4725
±0.5 mis (100 ft/ min)
or ±5% of rate of climb,
but not less than
airplane performance
data requirements.
Flight test data is preferred; however, airplane
performance manual data is an acceptable
alternative.
X
Record at nominal climb speed.
FTD performance is to be recorded over an
interval ofat least 300 m (1,000 ft).
E:\FR\FM\09DER2.SGM
Test at WAT (weight, altitude or temperature)
limiting condition.
One Engine
Inoperative En route
Climb.
±10% time, ±10%
distance, ±10% fuel
used
Clean
1.c.4.
One Engine
Inoperative Approach
Climb for airplanes
with icing
accountability if
provided in the
airplane performance
data for this phase of
flight.
±3 kt airspeed.
Approach
09DER2
1.c.3.
Cruise/ Descent.
1.d.1.
Level flight
acceleration
±5%Time
Test for at least a 1,550 m (5,000 ft) segment.
Flight test data or airplane performance manual
data may be used.
X
X
FTD performance to be recorded over an interval
of at least 300 m (1,000 ft).
All icing accountability
considerations, in accordance
with the airplane performance
data for an approach in icing
conditions, should be annlied.
Test near maximum certificated landing weight
as may be applicable to an approach in icing
conditions.
Cruise
Time required to increase airspeed a minimum of
50 kt, using maximum continuous thrust rating or
equivalent.
Airplane should be configured
with all anti-ice and de-ice
systems operating normally, gear
up and go-around flap.
X
75791
1.d.
±0.5 mis (100 ft/ min)
or ±5% rate of climb,
but not less than
airplane performance
data.
Flight test data or airplane performance manual
data may be used.
Federal Register / Vol. 87, No. 236 / Friday, December 9, 2022 / Rules and Regulations
18:43 Dec 08, 2022
ER09DE22.075
Engine failure speed must be within ±3 kt of
airplane data.
lotter on DSK11XQN23PROD with RULES2
Level flight
deceleration.
Jkt 259001
Cruise performance.
1.d.4.
Idle descent.
±.05 EPR or ±3% Nl
or ±5% of torque.
±5% of fuel flow.
±3 kt airspeed.
Cruise
Cruise.
Clean.
PO 00000
±1.0 mis (200 ft/min) or
±5% ofrate of descent.
1.d.5.
Emergency descent.
±5 kt airspeed.
As per airplane
performance data.
For airplanes with a small operating speed range,
speed change may be reduced to 80% of
operational speed change.
The test may be a single snapshot showing
instantaneous fuel flow, or a minimum of two
consecutive snapshots with a spread of at least 3
minutes in steady flight.
Idle power stabilized descent at normal descent
speed at mid altitude.
FTD performance to be recorded over an interval
ofat least 300 m (1,000 ft).
FTD performance to be recorded over an interval
of at least 900 m (3,000 ft).
X
X
X
X
Frm 00090
±1.5 mis (300 ft/min) or
±5% of rate of descent.
Fmt 4701
Stopping.
1.e.1.
Deceleration time
and distance, manual
wheel brakes, dry
runway, no reverse
thrust.
Sfmt 4725
Le.
E:\FR\FM\09DER2.SGM
1.e.2.
09DER2
Deceleration time
and distance, reverse
thrust, no wheel
brakes, dry runway.
±1.5 s or±5% of time.
Landing.
For distances up to
1,220 m (4,000 ft), the
smaller of ±61 m (200
ft) or ±10% of distance.
Time and distance must be recorded for at least
80% of the total time from touchdown to a full
stop.
X
Position of ground spoilers and brake system
pressure must be plotted (if applicable).
For distances greater
than 1,220 m (4,000 ft),
±5% of distance.
Data required for medium and near maximum
certificated landing weight.
±1.5 s or±5% of time;
and
Engineering data may be used for the medium
weight condition.
Time and distance must be recorded for at least
80% of the total time from initiation of reverse
thrust to full thrust reverser minimum operating
speed.
Landing
the smaller of ±61 m
(200 ft) or ±10% of
distance.
X
Position of ground spoilers must be plotted (if
applicable).
Data required for medium and near maximum
certificated landing weight.
1.e.3.
ER09DE22.076
Stopping distance,
wheel brakes, wet
runway.
±61 m (200 ft) or ±10%
of distance.
Landing.
Engineering data may be used for the medium
weight condition.
Either flight test or manufacturer's performance
manual data must be used, where available.
X
Stabilized descent to be
conducted with speed brakes
extended if applicable, at mid
altitude and near Vmo or
according to emergency descent
procedure.
Federal Register / Vol. 87, No. 236 / Friday, December 9, 2022 / Rules and Regulations
18:43 Dec 08, 2022
1.d.3.
±5%Time
75792
VerDate Sep<11>2014
1.d.2.
For airplanes with a small operating speed range,
speed change may be reduced to 80% of
ooerational soeed change.
Time required to decrease airspeed a minimum of
50 kt, using idle power.
lotter on DSK11XQN23PROD with RULES2
VerDate Sep<11>2014
1.e.4.
Jkt 259001
1.f.
Engines.
1.f.1.
Acceleration.
±61 m (200 ft) or ±10%
of distance.
Landing.
X
Engineering data, based on dry runway flight test
stopping distance and the effects of contaminated
runway braking coefficients, are an acceptable
alternative.
For Level 7 FTD:
±10% Ti or ±0.25 s; and
±10% Tt or ±0.25 s.
Total response is the incremental change in the
critical engine parameter from idle power to goaround power.
X
X
X
See Appendix F of this part for
definitions ofTi_and T,.
Ground
Total response is the incremental change in the
critical engine parameter from maximum take-off
power to idle power.
X
X
X
See Appendix F of this part for
definitions ofTi_and T,.
For Level 6 FTD:
±10% Tt or ±0.25 s.
PO 00000
Frm 00091
Approach or landing
1.f.2.
Deceleration.
For Level 5 FTD: ±1 s
For Level 7 FTD:
±10% Ti or ±0.25 s; and
±10% Tt or ±0.25 s.
Fmt 4701
For Level 6 FTD:
±10% Tt or ±0.25 s.
Sfmt 4725
For Level 5 FTD: ±1 s
2. Handling Qualities.
2.a.
E:\FR\FM\09DER2.SGM
09DER2
2.a.1.a.
Static Control Tests.
Note. I - Testing ofposition versus force is not applicable ifforces are generated solely by use of airplane hardware in the FTD.
Note 2 - Pitch, roll and yaw controller position versus force or time should be measured at the control. An alternative method in lieu of external test fixtures
at the flight controls would be to have recording and measuring instrumentation built into the FTD. The force and position data from this instrumentation could
be directly recorded and matched to the airplane data. Provided the instrumentation was verified by using external measuring equipment while conducting the
static control checks, or equivalent means, and that evidence of the satisfactory comparison is included in the MQTG, the instrumentation could be used for both
initial and recurrent evaluations for the measurement of all required control checks. Verification of the instrumentation by using external measuring equipment
should be repeated if major modifications and/or repairs are made to the control loading system. Such a permanent installation could be used without any time
being lost for the installation of external devices. Static and dynamic flight control tests should be accomplished at the same feel or impact pressures as the
validation data where applicable.
Note 3 - (Level 7 FTD only) FTD static control testing from the second set ofpilot controls is only required if both sets of controls are not mechanically interconnected on the
FTD. A rationale is requiredfrom the data provider if a single set of data is applicable to both sides. lf controls are mechanically interconnected in the FTD, a
sin,de set of tests is sufficient.
Pitch controller
Ground.
Record results for an uninterrupted control sweep
±0.9 daN (2 lbt)
X X Test results should be validated
position versus force
to the stops.
with in-flight data from tests
breakout.
and surface position
such as longitudinal static
calibration.
stability, stalls, etc.
±2.2 daN (5 lbt) or
±10% of force.
2.a.1.b.
±2° elevator angle.
±0.9 daN (2 lbt)
breakout.
As determined by
sponsor
Record results during initial qualification
evaluation for an uninterrupted control sweep to
the stops. The recorded tolerances apply to
subsequent comparisons on continuing
Qualification evaluations.
X
Applicable only on continuing
qualification evaluations. The
intent is to design the control
feel for Level 5 to be able to
manuallv flv an instrument
75793
ER09DE22.077
Pitch controller
position versus force
Federal Register / Vol. 87, No. 236 / Friday, December 9, 2022 / Rules and Regulations
18:43 Dec 08, 2022
Stopping distance,
wheel brakes, icy
runway.
Engineering data, based on dry runway flight test
stopping distance and the effects of contaminated
runway braking coefficients, are an acceptable
alternative.
Either flight test or manufacturer's performance
manual data must be used, where available.
lotter on DSK11XQN23PROD with RULES2
2.a.2.a.
Jkt 259001
2.a.2.b.
Roll controller
position versus force
2.a.3.a.
Fmt 4701
Sfmt 4725
E:\FR\FM\09DER2.SGM
As determined by
sponsor
Record results during initial qualification
evaluation for an uninterrupted control sweep to
the stops. The recorded tolerances apply to
subsequent comparisons on continuing
qualification evaluations.
Ground.
Record results for an uninterrupted control sweep
to the stops.
As determined by
sponsor
Record results during initial qualification
evaluation for an uninterrupted control sweep to
the stops. The recorded tolerances apply to
subsequent comparisons on continuing
qualification evaluations.
Ground.
Record results of an uninterrupted control sweep to
the stops.
Ground.
Record results of an uninterrupted control sweep to
the stops.
X
±1.3 daN (3 !bf) or
±10% of force.
±2°NWA.
Ground.
Record results of an uninterrupted control sweep to
the stops.
X
X
±0.5° trim angle.
Ground.
X
X
X
X
±1.3 daN (3 !bf) or
±10% of force.
±3° spoiler angle.
±0.9 daN (2 !bf)
breakout.
±1.3 daN (3 !bf) or
±10% of force.
PO 00000
Frm 00092
Record results for an uninterrupted control sweep
to the stops.
±2 ° aileron angle.
2.a.3.b.
Rudder pedal
position versus force
and surface position
calibration.
Rudder pedal
position versus force
±2.2 daN (5 lbf)
breakout.
2.a.4.a.
Nosewheel Steering
Controller Force and
Position Calibration.
X
X
X
±2.2 daN (5 lbf) or
±10% of force.
±2° rudder angle.
±2.2 daN (5 lbf)
breakout.
±2.2 daN (5 lbf) or
±10% of force.
±0.9 daN (2 !bf)
breakout.
Applicable only on continuing
qualification evaluations. The
intent is to design the control
feel for Level 5 to be able to
manually fly an instrument
approach; and not to compare
results to flight test or other such
data.
Test results should be validated
with in-flight data from tests
such as engine-out trims, steady
state side-slips, etc.
Applicable only on continuing
qualification evaluations. The
intent is to design the contro I
feel for Level 5 to be able to
manually fly an instrument
approach; and not to compare
results to flight test or other such
data.
X
X
09DER2
±1.3 daN (3 !bf) or
±10% of force.
2.a.4.b.
2.a.5.
2.a.6.
ER09DE22.078
Ground.
±0.9 daN (2 !bf)
breakout.
Nosewheel Steering
Controller Force
Rudder Pedal
Steering Calibration.
Pitch Trim Indicator
vs. Surface Position
Calibration.
±2°NWA.
±0.9 daN (2 !bf)
breakout.
The purpose of the test is to
compare FSTD surface position
indicator against the FSTD flight
controls model computed value.
Federal Register / Vol. 87, No. 236 / Friday, December 9, 2022 / Rules and Regulations
18:43 Dec 08, 2022
Roll controller
position versus force
and surface position
calibration.
approach; and not to compare
results to flight test or other such
data.
Test results should be validated
with in-flight data from tests
such as engine-out trims, steady
state side-slips, etc.
75794
VerDate Sep<11>2014
±2.2 daN (5 lbf) or
±10% of force.
lotter on DSK11XQN23PROD with RULES2
VerDate Sep<11>2014
2.a.7.
Pitch Trim Rate.
±10% of trim rate ( 0 /s)
or
X
Trim rate to be checked at pilot primary induced
trim rate (ground) and autopilot or pilot primary
trim rate in-flight at go-around flight conditions.
±0.1 °/strim rate.
Alignment of cockpit
throttle lever versus
selected engine
parameter.
When matching engine
parameters:
Ground.
±5° ofTLA.
Jkt 259001
PO 00000
±3% Nl or ±.03 EPR or
±3% torque, or
±3 % maximum rated
manifold pressure, or
equivalent.
Frm 00093
Fmt 4701
2.a.9.a.
Brake pedal position
versus force and
brake system
pressure calibration.
Sfmt 4725
E:\FR\FM\09DER2.SGM
2.a.9.b.
Brake pedal position
versus force
Ground.
X
Data from a test airplane or
engineering test bench are
acceptable, provided the correct
engine controller (both hardware
and software) is used.
In the case of propeller-driven
airplanes, if an additional lever,
usually referred to as the
propeller lever, is present, it
should also be checked. This test
may be a series of snapshot tests.
X
Relate the hydraulic system pressure to pedal
position in a ground static test.
FTD computer output results
may be used to show
compliance.
Both left and right pedals must be checked.
±1.0 MPa (150 psi) or
±10% of brake system
pressure.
±2.2 daN (5 lbf) or
±10% of force.
X
For airplanes with throttle detents, all detents to
be presented and at least one position between
detents/ endpoints (where practical). For
airplanes without detents, end points and at least
three other positions are to be presented.
When matching detents:
Where the levers do not
have angular travel, a
tolerance of ±2 cm
(±0.8 in) applies.
±2.2 daN (5 !bf) or
±10% of force.
For CCA, representative flight test conditions must
be used.
Simultaneous recording for all engines. The
tolerances apply against airplane data.
Ground.
Two data points are required: zero and maximum
deflection. Computer output results may be used
to show compliance.
FTD computer output results
may be used to show
compliance.
X
Test not required unless RTO
credit is sought.
2.b.
09DER2
2.b.1.
Dynamic Control Tests.
X
n = the sequential period of a
full oscillation.
Refer to paragraph 4 of
Appendix A, Attachment 2 for
additional information.
For overdamped and critically
damped systems, see Figure
A2B of Appendix A for an
illustration of the reference
measurement.
75795
Note.- Tests 2.b.l, 2.b.2 and 2.b.3 are not applicable for FTDs where the control forces are completely generated within the
airplane controller unit installed in the FTD. Power setting may be that requiredfor level flight unless otherwise specified. See
varaf!Yavh 4 ofAvvendix A, Attachment 2.
Pitch Control.
Takeoff, Cruise, and
Data must be for normal control displacements in
For underdamped
Landing.
both directions (approximately 25% to 50% of
systems:
full throw or approximately 25% to 50% of
T(Po) ±10% of Po or
maximum allowable pitch controller deflection
±0.05 s.
for flight conditions limited by the maneuvering
load envelope).
T(P 1) ±20% of P 1 or
±0.05 s.
Tolerances apply against the absolute values of
each period (considered independently).
T(P2) ±30% of P2 or
±0.05 s.
Federal Register / Vol. 87, No. 236 / Friday, December 9, 2022 / Rules and Regulations
18:43 Dec 08, 2022
2.a.8.
T(Pn) ±10*(n+1)% of Pn
ER09DE22.079
Ground and approach.
lotter on DSK11XQN23PROD with RULES2
Jkt 259001
T(A,i) ±5% of Ai=
residual band or ±0.5%
of the maximum control
travel = residual band.
PO 00000
±1 significant
overshoots (minimum of
1 significant overshoot).
Steady state position
within residual band.
Frm 00094
Fmt 4701
Note 1.- Tolerances
should not be applied on
period or amplitude
after the last significant
overshoot.
Sfmt 4725
Note2.Oscillations within the
residual band are not
considered significant
and are not subject to
tolerances.
E:\FR\FM\09DER2.SGM
09DER2
2.b.2.
Roll Control.
Yaw Control.
For overdamped and
critically damped
systems only, the
following tolerance
applies:
T(P0) ±10% of Po or
±0.05 s.
Same as 2.b.1.
Same as 2.b.1.
Takeoff, Cruise, and
Landing.
Takeoff, Cruise, and
Landing.
Data must be for normal control displacement
(approximately 25% to 50% of full throw or
approximately 25% to 50% of maximum
allowable roll controller deflection for flight
conditions limited by the maneuvering load
envelope).
X
Data must be for normal control displacement
(approximately 25% to 50% of full throw).
X
Refer to paragraph 4 of
Appendix A, Attachment 2 for
additional information.
For overdamped and critically
damped systems, see Figure
A2B of Appendix A for an
illustration of the reference
measurement.
Refer to paragraph 4 of
Appendix A, Attachment 2 for
additional information.
Federal Register / Vol. 87, No. 236 / Friday, December 9, 2022 / Rules and Regulations
18:43 Dec 08, 2022
T(An) ±10% of Amax,
where Amax is the largest
amplitude or ±0.5% of
the total control travel
(stop to stop).
2.b.3.
ER09DE22.080
75796
VerDate Sep<11>2014
or ±0.05 s.
lotter on DSK11XQN23PROD with RULES2
VerDate Sep<11>2014
2.b.4.
Small Control Inputs
-Pitch.
±0.15°/s body pitch rate
or ±20% of peak body
pitch rate applied
throughout the time
history.
Approach or Landing.
Control inputs must be typical of minor
corrections made while established on an ILS
approach (approximately 0.5 to 2°/s pitch rate).
Test in both directions.
Jkt 259001
Show time history data from 5 s before until at
least 5 s after initiation of control input.
PO 00000
If a single test is used to demonstrate both
directions, there must be a minimum of 5 s before
control reversal to the opposite direction.
Frm 00095
2.b.5.
Small Control Inputs
-Roll.
Fmt 4701
±0.15°/s body roll rate or
±20% of peak body roll
rate applied throughout
the time history.
X
Approach or landing.
CCA: Test in normal and non-normal control state.
Control inputs must be typical of minor
corrections made while established on an ILS
approach (approximately 0.5 to 2°/s roll rate).
X
Test in one direction. For airplanes that exhibit
non-symmetrical behavior, test in both directions.
Sfmt 4725
Show time history data from 5 s before until at
least 5 s after initiation of control input.
E:\FR\FM\09DER2.SGM
If a single test is used to
demonstrate both directions, there must be a
minimum of 5 s before control reversal to the
opposite direction.
2.b.6.
09DER2
Small Control Inputs
-Yaw.
±0.15°/s body yaw rate
or ±20% of peak body
yaw rate applied
throughout the time
history.
Approach or landing.
CCA: Test in normal and non-normal control
state.
Control inputs must be typical of minor
corrections made while established on an ILS
approach (approximately 0.5 to 2°/s yaw rate).
Test in both directions.
Show time history data from 5 s before until at
least 5 s after initiation of control input.
X
Federal Register / Vol. 87, No. 236 / Friday, December 9, 2022 / Rules and Regulations
18:43 Dec 08, 2022
For overdamped and critically
damped systems, see Figure
A2B of Appendix A for an
illustration of the reference
measurement.
If a single test is used to demonstrate both
directions, there must be a minimum of 5 s before
control reversal to the opposite direction.
ER09DE22.081
75797
CCA: Test in normal and non-normal control
state.
lotter on DSK11XQN23PROD with RULES2
Longitudinal Control Tests.
Power setting is that required for level flight unless otherwise specified.
2.c.1.a.
Power Change
Dynamics.
Approach.
X
Time history of uncontrolled free response for a
time increment equal to at least 5 s before
initiation of the power change to the completion
of the power change
+ 15 s.
Jkt 259001
Power Change Force.
±5 lb (2.2 daN) or,
±20% pitch control
force.
Approach.
2.c.2.a.
Flap/Slat Change
Dynamics.
±3 kt airspeed.
Takeoff through initial
flap retraction, and
approach to landing.
PO 00000
2.c.1.b.
Frm 00096
±30 m (100 ft) altitude.
Fmt 4701
±1.5° or ±20% of pitch
angle.
Sfmt 4725
E:\FR\FM\09DER2.SGM
Flap/Slat Change
Force.
±5 lb (2.2 daN) or,
±20% pitch control
force.
Takeoff through initial
flap retraction, and
approach to landing.
2.c.3.
Spoiler/Speedbrake
Change Dynamics.
±3 kt airspeed.
Cruise.
±30 m (100 ft) altitude.
±1.5° or ±20% of pitch
angle.
±3 kt airspeed.
Takeoff(retraction), and
Approach (extension).
±30 m (100 ft) altitude.
±1.5° or ±20% of pitch
angle.
2.c.4.b.
Gear Change Force.
±5 lb (2.2 daN) or,
±20% pitch control
force.
X
X
X
May be a series of snapshot test results. Flap/Slat
change dynamics test as described in test 2.c.2.a.
will be accepted.
CCA: Test in Normal and Non-normal control
mode.
Time history of uncontrolled free response for a
time increment equal to at least 5 s before
initiation of the configuration change to the
completion of the configuration change + 15 s.
X
X
X
Results required for both extension and
retraction.
09DER2
Gear Change
Dynamics.
CCA: Test in normal and non-normal control
mode
May be a series of snapshot test results. Power
change dynamics test as described in test 2.c.1.a.
will be accepted.
CCA: Test in Normal and Non-normal control
mode.
Time history of uncontrolled free response for a
time increment equal to at least 5 s before
initiation of the reconfiguration change to the
completion of the reconfiguration change+ 15 s.
CCA: Test in normal and non-normal control
mode
2.c.2.b.
2.c.4.a.
ER09DE22.082
Power change from thrust for approach or level
flight to maximum continuous or go-around
power.
Takeoff(retraction) and
Approach (extension).
CCA: Test in normal and non-normal control
mode
Time history of uncontrolled free response for a
time increment equal to at least 5 s before
initiation of the configuration change to the
completion of the configuration change
+ 15 s.
CCA: Test in normal and non-normal control
mode
May be a series of snapshot test results. Gear
change dynamics test as described in test 2.c.4.a.
will be accepted.
X
X
X
Federal Register / Vol. 87, No. 236 / Friday, December 9, 2022 / Rules and Regulations
18:43 Dec 08, 2022
±3 kt airspeed.
±30 m (100 ft) altitude.
±1.5° or ±20% of pitch
angle.
75798
VerDate Sep<11>2014
2.c.
lotter on DSK11XQN23PROD with RULES2
VerDate Sep<11>2014
2.c.5.
Longitudinal Trim.
±1 ° elevator angle.
Cruise, Approach, and
Landing.
X
Jkt 259001
X
X
X
X
X
Level 5 FTD may use equivalent stick and trim
controllers in lieu of elevator and trim surface.
±1 ° pitch angle.
2.c.6.
Longitudinal
Maneuvering
Stability (Stick
Force/g).
±5% of net thrust or
equivalent.
±2.2 daN (5 lbt) or
±10% of pitch controller
force.
CCA: Test in normal or non-normal control
mode, as applicable.
Cruise, Approach, and
Landing.
Continuous time history data or a series of
snapshot tests may be used.
Test up to approximately 30° of roll angle for
approach and landing configurations. Test up to
approximately 45° of roll angle for the cruise
configuration.
PO 00000
Alternative method:
±1 ° or ±10% of the
change of elevator angle.
Frm 00097
Force tolerance not applicable if forces are
generated solely by the use of airplane hardware
in theFTD.
Fmt 4701
Alternative method applies to airplanes which do
not exhibit stick-force-per-g characteristics.
Sfmt 4725
X
Federal Register / Vol. 87, No. 236 / Friday, December 9, 2022 / Rules and Regulations
18:43 Dec 08, 2022
±0.5° stabilizer or trim
surface angle.
CCA: Test in Normal and Non-normal control
mode.
Steady-state wings level trim with thrust for level
flight. This test may be a series of snapshot tests.
2.c.7.
Longitudinal Static
Stability.
±2.2 daN (5 lbt) or
±10% of pitch controller
force.
Approach.
E:\FR\FM\09DER2.SGM
CCA: Test in normal or non-normal control mode
Data for at least two speeds above and two speeds
below trim speed. The speed range must be
sufficient to demonstrate stick force versus speed
characteristics.
X
Alternative method:
This test may be a series of snapshot tests.
±1° or±10% of the
change of elevator angle.
Force tolerance is not applicable if forces are
generated solely by the use of airplane hardware
in theFTD.
09DER2
Alternative method applies to airplanes which do
not exhibit speed stability characteristics.
Level 5 must exhibit positive static stability, but
need not comply with the numerical tolerance.
2.c.8.a.
Approach to Stall
Characteristics
±3 kt airspeed for initial
buffet, stall warning,
and stall speeds.
ER09DE22.083
X
Tests may be conducted at
centers of gravity typically
required for airplane
certification stall testing.
75799
Control inputs must be
plotted and demonstrate
Second Segment Climb,
High Altitude Cruise
(Near Performance
Limited Condition), and
Approach or Landing
CCA: Test in normal or non-normal control mode,
as aoolicable.
Each of the following stall entry methods must be
demonstrated in at least one of the three required
flight conditions:
■
Stall entry at wings level (lg)
■
Stall entry in turning flight of at least 25° bank
angle (accelerated stall)
lotter on DSK11XQN23PROD with RULES2
■
Jkt 259001
PO 00000
Frm 00098
Fmt 4701
2.c.9.a.
Phugoid Dynamics.
±10% of period.
For airplanes that exhibit stall buffet as the first
indication of a stall, for qualification of this task,
the FTD must be equipped with a vibration system
that meets the applicable subjective and objective
requirements in Appendix A of this Part.
Second Segment Climb,
and Approach or
Landing.
Cruise.
Sfmt 4725
2.c.9.b.
Phugoid Dynamics.
±10% period,
Representative
damping.
Cruise.
E:\FR\FM\09DER2.SGM
±10% of time to one half
or double amplitude or
±0.02 of damping ratio.
2.c.10
Short Period
Dynamics.
±1.5° pitch angle or
±2°/s pitch rate.
Cruise.
09DER2
2.d.
X
CCA: Test in Normal and Non-normal control
states.
Test must include three full cycles or that
necessary to determine time to one half or double
amplitude, whichever is less.
CCA: Test in non-normal control mode.
The test must include whichever is less of the
following: Three full cycles (six overshoots after
the input is completed), or the number of cycles
sufficient to determine representative damping.
CCA: Test in non-normal control mode.
CCA: (Level 7 FTD) Test in normal and nonnormal control mode.
X
X
X
X
X
X
(Level 6 FTD) Test in non-normal control mode.
±0.1 g normal
acceleration
2.c.11.
The stall maneuver must be entered with thrust at
or near idle power and wings level (lg). Record
the stall warning signal and initial buffet if
applicable.
(Reserved)
Lateral Directional Tests.
Power setting is that required for level flight unless otherwise specified.
2.d.1.
ER09DE22.084
Minimum control
speed, air (Vmca) or
landing (Vmc1), per
applicable
airworthiness
requirement or low
speed engineinoperative handling
characteristics in the
air.
±3 kt airspeed.
Takeoff or Landing
(whichever is most
critical in the airplane).
Takeoff thrust must be set on the operating
engine(s).
Time history or snapshot data may be used.
CCA: Test in normal or non-normal control state,
as applicable.
X
Minimum speed may be defined
by a performance or control
limit which prevents
demonstration of Vmea or V me! in
the conventional manner.
Federal Register / Vol. 87, No. 236 / Friday, December 9, 2022 / Rules and Regulations
18:43 Dec 08, 2022
2.c.8.b.
Stall entry in a power-on condition (required
only for turboprop aircraft)
The required cruise condition must be conducted
in a flaps-up (clean) configuration. The second
segment climb and approach/landing conditions
must be conducted at different flap settings.
±2.0° pitch angle
±2.0° angle of attack
±2.0° bank angle
±2.0° sideslip angle
Additionally, for those
simulators with
reversible flight control
systems:
±10% or ±5 lb (2.2
daN)) Stick/Column
force (prior to "g break"
onlv).
Stall Warning (actuation ±3 kts. airspeed,
of stall warning device.) ±2 ° bank for speeds
greater than actuation of
stall warning device or
initial buffet.
75800
VerDate Sep<11>2014
correct trend and
magnitude.
lotter on DSK11XQN23PROD with RULES2
VerDate Sep<11>2014
2.d.2.
Roll Response
(Rate).
±2°/s or ±10% of roll
rate.
Cruise, and Approach or
Landing.
2.d.3.
Step input offlight
deck roll controller.
±1.3 daN (3 !bf) or
±10% of wheel force.
±2° or±10% of roll
angle.
X
X
X
X
X
This test may be combined with step input of
flight deck roll controller test 2.d.3.
Approach or Landing.
This test may be combined with roll response
(rate) test 2.d.2.
Jkt 259001
CCA: (Level 7 FTD) Test in normal and nonnormal control mode.
PO 00000
(Level 6 FTD) Test in non-normal control mode.
2.d.4.a.
Spiral Stability.
Frm 00099
Correct trend and ±2° or
±10% of roll angle in 20
s.
Cruise, and Approach or
Landing.
Fmt 4701
Sfmt 4725
Spiral Stability.
Correct trend and ±3 ° or
±10% of roll angle in 20
s.
X
Airplane data averaged from multiple tests may
be used.
Test for both directions.
As an alternative test, show lateral control
required to maintain a steady tum with a roll
angle of approximately 30°.
If alternate test is used:
correct trend and ±2 °
aileron angle.
2.d.4.b.
With wings level, apply a step
roll control input using
approximately one-third of the
roll controller travel. When
reaching approximately 20° to
30° of bank, abruptly return the
roll controller to neutral and
allow approximately 10 seconds
of airnlane free resnonse.
Cruise
CCA: Test in non-normal control mode.
Airplane data averaged from multiple tests may
be used.
X
E:\FR\FM\09DER2.SGM
Test for both directions.
As an alternative test, show lateral control
required to maintain a steady tum with a roll
angle of approximately 30°.
09DER2
2.d.4.c.
Spiral Stability.
Correct trend
Cruise
2.d.5.
Engine Inoperative
Trim.
±1 ° rudder angle or ±1 °
tab angle or equivalent
rudder pedal.
Second Segment Climb,
and Approach or
Landing.
CCA: Test in non-normal control mode.
Airplane data averaged from multiple tests may
be used.
X
CCA: Test in non-normal control mode.
This test may consist of snapshot tests.
X
Test should be performed in a
manner similar to that for which
a pilot is trained to trim an
engine failure condition.
±2° side-slip angle.
2nd segment climb test should
be at takeoff thrust. Approach or
landing test should be at thrust
for level flight.
ER09DE22.085
Rudder Response.
±2°/s or ±10% of yaw
rate.
Approach or Landing.
For Level 7 FTD: Test with stability
augmentation on and off.
X
X
75801
2.d.6.a.
Federal Register / Vol. 87, No. 236 / Friday, December 9, 2022 / Rules and Regulations
18:43 Dec 08, 2022
For airplanes with
reversible flight control
systems (Level 7 FTD
only):
Test with normal roll control displacement
(approximately one-third of maximum roll
controller travel).
lotter on DSK11XQN23PROD with RULES2
2.d.6.b.
Jkt 259001
2.d.7.
Rudder Response.
Dutch Roll
Roll rate ±2°/sec, bank
angle ±3°.
PO 00000
±0.5 s or ±10% of
period.
Approach or Landing.
CCA: Test in normal and non-normal control
mode
May be roll response to a given rudder deflection.
Cruise, and Approach or
Landing.
CCA: Test in Normal and Non-normal control
states.
Test for at least six cycles with stability
augmentation off.
May be accomplished as a yaw
response test, in which case the
procedures and requirements of
test 2.d.6.a. will apply.
X
X
X
(Level 7 FTD only): ±1
s or ±20% of time
difference between
peaks of roll angle and
side-slip angle.
Fmt 4701
Sfmt 4725
X
CCA: Test in non-normal control mode.
±10% of time to one
half or double amplitude
or ±.02 of damping
ratio.
Frm 00100
X
2.d.8.
Steady State Sideslip.
For a given rudder
position:
E:\FR\FM\09DER2.SGM
±2° roll angle;
±1 ° side-slip angle;
±2° or ±10% of aileron
angle; and
09DER2
±5° or ±10% of spoiler
or equivalent roll
controller position or
force.
±1.3 daN (3 lbt) or
±10% of wheel force.
Approach or Landing.
This test may be a series of snapshot tests using
at least two rudder positions (in each direction for
propeller-driven airplanes), one of which must be
near maximum allowable rudder.
(Level 5 and Level 6 FTD only): Sideslip angle is
matched only for repeatability and only on
continuing qualification evaluations.
X
Federal Register / Vol. 87, No. 236 / Friday, December 9, 2022 / Rules and Regulations
18:43 Dec 08, 2022
Not required if rudder input and response is
shown in Dutch Roll test (test 2.d.7).
For airplanes with
reversible flight control
systems (Level 7 FTD
only):
ER09DE22.086
75802
VerDate Sep<11>2014
Test with a step input at approximately 25% of
full rudder pedal throw.
lotter on DSK11XQN23PROD with RULES2
VerDate Sep<11>2014
±2.2 daN (5 lbf) or
±10% of rudder pedal
force.
Landings.
2.e.1.
Normal Landing.
±3 kt airspeed.
Landing.
Test from a minimum of61 m (200 ft) AGL to
nosewheel touchdown.
X
±1.5° pitch angle.
CCA: Test in normal and
non-normal control mode, if applicable.
±1.5° AOA.
Jkt 259001
±3 m (10 ft) or ±10% of
height.
PO 00000
For airplanes with
reversible flight control
systems:
Frm 00101
±2.2 daN (5 lbf) or
±10% ofcolumn force.
±3 kt airspeed.
2.e.2.
Minimum Flap
Landing.
Fmt 4701
±1.5° pitch angle.
Minimum Certified
Landing Flap
Configuration.
Test from a minimum of 61 m (200 ft) AGL to
nosewheel touchdown.
Two tests should be shown,
including two normal landing
flaps (if applicable) one of
which should be near maximum
certificated landing mass, the
other at light or medium mass.
X
Test at near maximum certificated landing weight.
±1.5° AOA.
Sfmt 4725
±3 m (10 ft) or ±10% of
height.
E:\FR\FM\09DER2.SGM
For airplanes with
reversible flight control
systems:
2.e.3.
Crosswind Landing.
±2.2 daN (5 lbf) or
±10% ofcolumn force.
±3 kt airspeed.
09DER2
±1.5° pitch angle.
±1.5° AOA.
±3 m (10 ft) or ±10% of
height.
±2° roll angle.
Landing.
Test from a minimum of 61 m (200 ft) AGL to a
50% decrease in main landing gear touchdown
speed.
It requires test data, including wind profile, for a
crosswind component of at least 60% of airplane
performance data value measured at 10 m (33 ft)
above the runway.
Wind components must be provided as headwind
and crosswind values with respect to the runway.
X
In those situations where a
maximum crosswind or a
maximum demonstrated
crosswind is not known, contact
the responsible Flight Standards
office.
Federal Register / Vol. 87, No. 236 / Friday, December 9, 2022 / Rules and Regulations
18:43 Dec 08, 2022
2.e.
±2° side-slip angle.
ER09DE22.087
75803
±3° heading angle.
lotter on DSK11XQN23PROD with RULES2
75804
VerDate Sep<11>2014
For airplanes with
reversible flight control
systems:
±1.3 daN (3 lbt) or
±10% of wheel force.
Jkt 259001
2.e.4.
PO 00000
One Engine
Inoperative Landing.
±2.2 daN (5 lbt) or
±10% of rudder pedal
force.
±3 kt airspeed.
Test from a minimum of61 m (200 ft) AGL to a
50% decrease in main landing gear touchdown
speed.
X
Landing.
If autopilot provides roll-out guidance, record
lateral deviation from touchdown to a 50%
decrease in main landing gear touchdown speed.
X
±1.5° pitch angle.
±1.5° AOA.
Frm 00102
±3 m (10 ft) or ±10% of
height.
Fmt 4701
Sfmt 4725
Landing.
±2° roll angle.
±2° side-slip angle.
2.e.5.
Autopilot landing (if
applicable).
±3° heading angle.
±1.5 m (5 ft) flare
height.
E:\FR\FM\09DER2.SGM
±0.5 s or± 10% ofTf.
Time of autopilot flare mode engage and main
gear touchdown must be noted.
±0.7 mis (140 ft/min)
rate of descent at
touchdown.
09DER2
2.e.6.
All-engine autopilot
go-around.
±3 m ( 10 ft) lateral
deviation during rollout.
±3 kt airspeed.
As per airplane
performance data.
Normal all-engine autopilot go-around must be
demonstrated (if applicable) at medium weight.
X
As per airplane
performance data.
Engine inoperative go-around required near
maximum certificated landing weight with
critical engine inoperative.
X
±1.5° pitch angle.
2.e.7.
One engine
inoperative go
around.
±1.5° AOA.
±3 kt airspeed.
±1.5° pitch angle.
±1.5° AOA.
±2° roll angle.
ER09DE22.088
Provide one test with autopilot (if applicable) and
one without autopilot.
See Appendix F of this part for
definition of Tr-
Federal Register / Vol. 87, No. 236 / Friday, December 9, 2022 / Rules and Regulations
18:43 Dec 08, 2022
±2.2 daN (5 lbt) or
±10% of
column force.
lotter on DSK11XQN23PROD with RULES2
VerDate Sep<11>2014
CCA: Non-autopilot test to be conducted in nonnormal mode.
±2° side-slip angle.
2.e.8.
Jkt 259001
2.f.
±5 kt airspeed.
Landing.
Apply rudder pedal input in both directions using
full reverse thrust until reaching full thrust
reverser minimum operating speed.
X
Landing.
With full reverse thrust on the operating
engine(s), maintain heading with rudder pedal
input nntil maximum rudder pedal input or thrust
reverser minimum operation speed is reached.
X
Landing.
A rationale must be provided with justification of
results.
X
±2°/s yaw rate.
±5 kt airspeed.
±3° heading angle.
Ground Effect.
Test to demonstrate
Gronnd Effect.
±1 ° elevator angle.
±0.5° stabilizer angle.
See paragraph on Ground Effect
in this attachment for additional
information.
PO 00000
CCA: Test in normal or non-normal control
mode, as applicable.
±5% of net thrust or
equivalent.
Frm 00103
±1° AOA.
Fmt 4701
±1.5 m (5 ft) or ±10%
of height.
±3 kt airspeed.
Sfmt 4725
±1 ° oitch angle.
E:\FR\FM\09DER2.SGM
09DER2
Reserved
2.h.
Flight Maneuver and Envelope Protection Functions.
2.h.1.
Note. - The requirements of 2.h are only applicable to computer-controlled airplanes. Time history results of response
to control inputs during entry into each envelope protection function (i.e. with normal and degraded control states if their function
is different) are required. Set thrust as required to reach the envelope protection function.
Overs peed.
±5 kt airspeed.
Cruise.
2.h.2.
Minimum Speed.
±3 kt airspeed.
2.h.3.
Load Factor.
±0.lg normal load factor
Takeoff, Cruise, and
Aooroach or Landing_
Takeoff, Cruise.
2.h.4.
Pitch Angle.
±1.5° pitch angle
Cruise, Approach.
2.h.5.
Bank Angle.
±2° or ±10% bank angle
Approach.
2.h.6.
Angle of Attack.
±1.5° angle of attack
Second Segment Climb,
and Approach or
Landing.
Visual display providing
each pilot with a
minimum of 176°
horizontal and 36°
vertical continuous field
of view.
Not applicable.
X
X
X
X
X
X
3. Reserved
4. Visual System.
ER09DE22.089
4.a.
Visual scene quality
4.a.1.
Continuous crosscockpit visual field of
view.
Required as part ofMQTG but not required as
part of continuing evaluations.
X
Field of view should be
measured using a visual test
pattern filling the entire visual
scene (all channels) consisting of
a matrix of black and white 5°
squares.
75805
2.g.
Federal Register / Vol. 87, No. 236 / Friday, December 9, 2022 / Rules and Regulations
18:43 Dec 08, 2022
2.e.9.
Directional control
(rudder effectiveness)
with symmetric
reverse thrust.
Directional control
(rudder effectiveness)
with asymmetric
reverse thrust.
lotter on DSK11XQN23PROD with RULES2
System Geometry
4.a.3
Surface resolution
(object detection).
Geometry of image
should have no
distracting
discontinuities.
Not greater than 4 arc
minutes.
X
Not applicable.
X
Jkt 259001
Resolution will be demonstrated
by a test of objects shown to
occupy the required visual angle
in each visual display used on a
scene from the pilot's eyepoint.
PO 00000
The object will subtend 4 arc
minutes to the eye.
Frm 00104
This may be demonstrated using
threshold bars for a horizontal
test.
A vertical test should also be
demonstrated.
Fmt 4701
4.a.4
Light point size.
Sfmt 4725
Not greater than 8 arc
minutes.
Not applicable.
X
E:\FR\FM\09DER2.SGM
The subtended angles should be
confirmed by calculations in an
SOC.
Light point size should be
measured using a test pattern
consisting of a centrally located
single row of white light points
displayed as both a horizontal
and vertical row.
It should be possible to move the
light points relative to the
eyepoint in all axes.
09DER2
At a point where modulation is
just discernible in each visual
channel, a calculation should be
made to determine the light
spacing.
4.a.5
Raster surface
contrast ratio.
Not less than 5: 1.
Not applicable.
X
An SOC is required to state test
method and calculation.
Surface contrast ratio should be
measured using a raster drawn
test pattern filling the entire
visual scene (all channels).
The test pattern should consist of
black and white squares, 5° per
square, with a white square in
the center of each channel.
ER09DE22.090
Federal Register / Vol. 87, No. 236 / Friday, December 9, 2022 / Rules and Regulations
18:43 Dec 08, 2022
4.a.2.
75806
VerDate Sep<11>2014
Installed alignment should be
confirmed in an SOC (this
would generally consist of
results from acceptance testing).
lotter on DSK11XQN23PROD with RULES2
VerDate Sep<11>2014
Jkt 259001
The contrast ratio is the bright
square value divided by the dark
square value.
PO 00000
Note I. - During contrast
ratio testing, FTD aft-cab and
flight deck ambient light levels
should be as low as possible.
Frm 00105
Fmt 4701
4.a.6
Light point contrast
ratio.
Not less than 10:1.
Not applicable.
X
Sfmt 4725
Note 2. - Measurements
should be taken at the center of
squares to avoid light spill into
the measurement device.
Light point contrast ratio should
be measured using a test pattern
demonstrating an area of greater
than I O area filled with white
light points and should be
compared to the adjacent
background.
E:\FR\FM\09DER2.SGM
Note. - light point
modulation should be just
discernible on calligraphic
systems but will not be
discernable on raster systems.
09DER2
Measurements of the
background should be taken
such that the bright square is just
out of the light meter FOV.
4.a.7
Light point
brightness.
Not less than 20 cdlm'
(5.8 ft-lamberts).
Not applicable.
X
Note. - During contrast
ratio testing, FTD aft-cab and
flight deck ambient light levels
should be as low as practical.
Light points should be displayed
as a matrix creating a square.
ER09DE22.091
75807
On calligraphic systems the light
points should just merge.
Federal Register / Vol. 87, No. 236 / Friday, December 9, 2022 / Rules and Regulations
18:43 Dec 08, 2022
Measurement should be made on
the center bright square for each
channel using a I O spot
pholomeler. This value should
have a minimum brightness of 7
cd/m2 (2 ft-lamberts}. Measure
any adjacent dark squares.
lotter on DSK11XQN23PROD with RULES2
Not less than 14 cd/m2
(4.1 ft-lamberts) on the
display.
Not applicable.
X
Light points are not acceptable.
Jkt 259001
Use of calligraphic capabilities
to enhance raster brightness is
acceptable.
PO 00000
4.b
Head-Up Display
4.b.1
Static Alignment.
(HUD)
Frm 00106
Sfmt 4725
E:\FR\FM\09DER2.SGM
X
Alignment requirement only
applies to the pilot flying.
X
A statement of the system
capabilities should be provided
and the capabilities
demonstrated
Alignment requirement only
applies to the pilot flying.
HUD bore sight must
align with the center of
the displayed image
spherical pattern.
Fmt 4701
09DER2
ER09DE22.092
Static alignment with
displayed image.
4.b.2
System display.
4.b.3
HUD attitude versus
FTD attitude
indicator (pitch and
roll of horizon).
Enhanced Flight
Vision System
(EFVS)
Registration test.
4.c
4.c.1
4.c.2
EFVSRVRand
visibility calibration.
4.c.3
Thermal crossover.
Tolerance+/- 6 arc min.
All functionality in all
flight modes must be
demonstrated.
Pitch and roll align with
aircraft instruments.
Flight
X
Alignment between
EFVS display and out of
the window image must
represent the alignment
typical of the aircraft
and system type.
The scene represents the
EFVS view at 350 m
(1,200 ft) and 1,609 m
(1 sm) RVR including
correct light intensitv.
Demonstrate thermal
crossover effects during
day to night transition.
Takeoff point and on
approach at 200 ft.
X
Flight
X
Day and night
X
Alignment requirement only
applies to the pilot flying.
Note.-The effects of the
alignment tolerance in 4.b.l
should be taken into account.
Infra-red scene representative of
both 350 m (1,200 ft), and
1,609 m (1 sm) RVR.
Visual scene mav be removed.
The scene will correctly
represent the thermal
Federal Register / Vol. 87, No. 236 / Friday, December 9, 2022 / Rules and Regulations
18:43 Dec 08, 2022
Surface brightness.
75808
VerDate Sep<11>2014
4.a.8
On raster systems the light
points should overlap such that
the square is continuous
( individual light points will not
be visible).
Surface brightness should be
measured on a white raster,
measuring the brightness using
the 1° spot photometer.
lotter on DSK11XQN23PROD with RULES2
VerDate Sep<11>2014
characteristics of the scene
during a day to night transition.
4.d
Visual ground segment
4.d.l
Visual ground
segment (VGS).
Far end: ±20% of the
computed VGS.
Trimmed in the landing
configuration at 30 m
(100 ft) wheel height
above touchdown zone
on glide slope at an
RVR setting of300 m
(1,000 ft) or 350 m
(1,200 ft).
Jkt 259001
PO 00000
The threshold lights
computed to be visible
must be visible in the
FTD.
This test is designed to assess items impacting the
accuracy of the visual scene presented to a pilot
at DH on an ILS approach.
These items include:
Sfmt 4725
E:\FR\FM\09DER2.SGM
Pre-position for this test is
encouraged but may be achieved
via manual or autopilot control
to the desired position.
X
Demonstrated through use of a
visual scene rendered with the
same image generator modes
used to produce scenes for
training.
1) RVRNisibility;
2) glide slope (G/S) and localizer modeling
accuracy (location and slope) for an ILS;
3) for a given weight, configuration and speed
representative of a point within the airplane's
operational envelope for a normal approach and
landing; and
4) Radio altimeter.
Frm 00107
Fmt 4701
X
Note. -If non-homogeneous fog is
used, the vertical variation in horizontal visibility
should be described and included in the slant
range visibility calculation used in the VGS
comvutation.
4.e
4.e.1
4.e.2
Visual System
Capacity
System capacity Day mode.
09DER2
System capacity Twilight/night mode.
Not less than: 10,000
visible textured
surfaces, 6,000 light
points, 16 moving
models.
Not less than: 10,000
visible textured
surfaces, 15,000 light
points, 16 moving
models.
Not applicable
Not applicable
X
The required surfaces, light
points, and moving models
should be displayed
simultaneously.
Demonstrated through use of a
visual scene rendered with the
same image generator modes
used to produce scenes for
training.
The required surfaces, light
points, and moving models
should be displayed
simultaneously.
ER09DE22.093
75809
5. Sound System.
The sponsor will not be required to repeat the operational sound tests (i.e., tests 5.a. l. through 5.a.8. (or 5.b.l. through 5.b.9.) and 5.c., as
appropriate) during continuing qualification evaluations if frequency response and background noise test results are within tolerance when
compared to the initial qualification evaluation results, and the sponsor shows that no software changes have occurred that will affect the FTD's
sound system. If the frequency response test method is chosen and fails, the sponsor may elect to fix the frequency response problem and repeat
the test or the sponsor mav elect to repeat the ooerational sound tests. If the ooerational sound tests are reoeated during continuing aualification
Federal Register / Vol. 87, No. 236 / Friday, December 9, 2022 / Rules and Regulations
18:43 Dec 08, 2022
Near end: the correct
number of approach
lights within the
computed VGS must be
visible.
lotter on DSK11XQN23PROD with RULES2
75810
VerDate Sep<11>2014
evaluations, the results may be compared against initial qualification evaluation results. All tests in this section must be presented using an
unweighted 1/3-octave band format from band 17 to 42 (50 Hz to 16 kHz). A minimum 20 second average must be taken at a common location
from where the initial evaluation sound results were gathered.
Turbo-jet airplanes.
5.a.
Jkt 259001
A measurement of minimum 20
s should be taken at the location
corresponding to the approved
data set.
PO 00000
Refer to paragraph 7 of
Appendix A, Attachment 2.
5.a.1.
Ready for engine
start.
Frm 00108
Fmt 4701
Sfmt 4725
E:\FR\FM\09DER2.SGM
5.a.2.
All engines at idle.
09DER2
5.a.3.
All engines at
maximum allowable
thrust with brakes
set.
Initial evaluation:
Subjective assessment
of 1/3 octave bands.
Recurrent evaluation:
cannot exceed ±5 dB
difference on three
consecutive bands when
compared to initial
evaluation and the
average of the absolute
differences between
initial and recurrent
evaluation results
cannot exceed 2 dB.
Initial evaluation:
Subjective assessment
of 1/3 octave bands.
Recurrent evaluation:
cannot exceed ±5 dB
difference on three
consecutive bands when
compared to initial
evaluation and the
average of the absolute
differences between
initial and recurrent
evaluation results
cannot exceed 2 dB.
Initial evaluation:
Subjective assessment
of 1/3 octave bands.
Recurrent evaluation:
cannot exceed ±5 dB
difference on three
consecutive bands when
ER09DE22.094
Ground.
Normal condition prior to engine start.
X
The APU must be on if appropriate.
Ground.
Normal condition prior to takeoff.
X
Ground.
Normal condition prior to takeoff.
X
Federal Register / Vol. 87, No. 236 / Friday, December 9, 2022 / Rules and Regulations
18:43 Dec 08, 2022
All tests in this section should be
presented using an unweighted
1/3-octave band format from at
least band 17 to 42 (50 Hz to 16
kHz).
lotter on DSK11XQN23PROD with RULES2
VerDate Sep<11>2014
Climb
Jkt 259001
PO 00000
Frm 00109
5.a.5.
Cruise
Fmt 4701
Sfmt 4725
E:\FR\FM\09DER2.SGM
5.a.6.
Speed brake/spoilers
extended (as
appropriate).
09DER2
ER09DE22.095
Initial approach.
Recurrent evaluation:
cannot exceed ±5 dB
difference on three
consecutive bands when
compared to initial
evaluation and the
average of the absolute
differences between
initial and recurrent
evaluation results
cannot exceed 2 dB.
Initial evaluation:
Subjective assessment
of 1/3 octave bands.
Recurrent evaluation:
cannot exceed ±5 dB
difference on three
consecutive bands when
compared to initial
evaluation and the
average of the absolute
differences between
initial and recurrent
evaluation results
cannot exceed 2 dB.
Initial evaluation:
Subjective assessment
of 1/3 octave bands.
Medium altitude.
X
Cruise.
Normal cruise configuration.
X
Cruise.
Normal and constant speed brake deflection for
descent at a constant airspeed and power setting.
X
Approach.
Constant airspeed,
gear up,
flaps/slats as appropriate.
X
75811
5.a.7
Recurrent evaluation:
cannot exceed ±5 dB
difference on three
consecutive bands when
compared to initial
evaluation and the
average of the absolute
differences between
initial and recurrent
evaluation results
cannot exceed 2 dB.
Initial evaluation:
Subjective assessment
of 1/3 octave bands.
En-route climb.
Federal Register / Vol. 87, No. 236 / Friday, December 9, 2022 / Rules and Regulations
18:43 Dec 08, 2022
5.a.4.
compared to initial
evaluation and the
average of the absolute
differences between
initial and recurrent
evaluation results
cannot exceed 2 dB.
Initial evaluation:
Subjective assessment
of 1/3 octave bands.
lotter on DSK11XQN23PROD with RULES2
Jkt 259001
5.b
Recurrent evaluation:
cannot exceed ±5 dB
difference on three
consecutive bands when
compared to initial
evaluation and the
average of the absolute
differences between
initial and recurrent
evaluation results
cannot exceed 2 dB.
Propeller-driven airplanes
PO 00000
Final approach.
Landing.
Constant airspeed,
gear down, landing
configuration flaps.
X
Frm 00110
Fmt 4701
Sfmt 4725
All tests in this section should be
presented using an unweighted
1/3-octave band format from at
least band 17 to 42 (50 Hz to
16 kHz).
E:\FR\FM\09DER2.SGM
A measurement of minimum 20
s should be taken at the location
corresponding to the approved
data set.
Refer to paragraph 7 of
Appendix A, Attachment 2.
09DER2
5.b.1.
Ready for engine
start.
Initial evaluation:
Subjective assessment
of 1/3 octave bands.
Recurrent evaluation:
cannot exceed ±5 dB
difference on three
consecutive bands when
compared to initial
evaluation and the
average of the absolute
differences between
initial and recurrent
evaluation results
cannot exceed 2 dB.
ER09DE22.096
Ground.
Normal condition prior to engine start.
The APU must be on if appropriate.
X
Federal Register / Vol. 87, No. 236 / Friday, December 9, 2022 / Rules and Regulations
18:43 Dec 08, 2022
5.a.8
75812
VerDate Sep<11>2014
Recurrent evaluation:
cannot exceed ±5 dB
difference on three
consecutive bands when
compared to initial
evaluation and the
average of the absolute
differences between
initial and recurrent
evaluation results
cannot exceed 2 dB.
Initial evaluation:
Subjective assessment
of 1/3 octave bands.
lotter on DSK11XQN23PROD with RULES2
VerDate Sep<11>2014
5.b.2
All propellers
feathered, if
applicable.
Jkt 259001
PO 00000
Ground idle or
equivalent.
Frm 00111
Fmt 4701
Sfmt 4725
5.b.4
Flight idle or
equivalent.
E:\FR\FM\09DER2.SGM
09DER2
5.b.5
All engines at
maximum allowable
power with brakes
set.
Recurrent evaluation:
cannot exceed ±5 dB
difference on three
consecutive bands when
compared to initial
evaluation and the
average of the absolute
differences between
initial and recurrent
evaluation results
cannot exceed 2 dB.
Initial evaluation:
Subjective assessment
of 1/3 octave bands.
Recurrent evaluation:
cannot exceed ±5 dB
difference on three
consecutive bands when
compared to initial
evaluation and the
average of the absolute
differences between
initial and recurrent
evaluation results
cannot exceed 2 dB.
Initial evaluation:
Subjective assessment
of 1/3 octave bands.
Recurrent evaluation:
cannot exceed ±5 dB
difference on three
consecutive bands when
compared to initial
evaluation and the
average of the absolute
differences between
initial and recurrent
evaluation results
cannot exceed 2 dB.
Initial evaluation:
Subjective assessment
of 1/3 octave bands.
ER09DE22.097
Normal condition prior to take-off.
X
Ground.
Normal condition prior to takeoff.
X
Ground.
Normal condition prior to takeoff.
X
Ground.
Normal condition prior to takeoff.
X
75813
Recurrent evaluation:
cannot exceed ±5 dB
difference on three
consecutive bands when
compared to initial
evaluation and the
Ground.
Federal Register / Vol. 87, No. 236 / Friday, December 9, 2022 / Rules and Regulations
18:43 Dec 08, 2022
5.b.3.
Initial evaluation:
Subjective assessment
of 1/3 octave bands.
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Jkt 259001
PO 00000
Frm 00112
5.b.7
Cruise
Fmt 4701
Sfmt 4725
E:\FR\FM\09DER2.SGM
5.b.8
Initial approach.
09DER2
5.b.9
ER09DE22.098
Final approach.
Recurrent evaluation:
cannot exceed ±5 dB
difference on three
consecutive bands when
compared to initial
evaluation and the
average of the absolute
differences between
initial and recurrent
evaluation results
cannot exceed 2 dB.
Initial evaluation:
Subjective assessment
of 1/3 octave bands.
Recurrent evaluation:
cannot exceed ±5 dB
difference on three
consecutive bands when
compared to initial
evaluation and the
average of the absolute
differences between
initial and recurrent
evaluation results
cannot exceed 2 dB.
Initial evaluation:
Subjective assessment
of 1/3 octave bands.
Recurrent evaluation:
cannot exceed ±5 dB
difference on three
consecutive bands when
compared to initial
evaluation and the
average of the absolute
differences between
initial and recurrent
evaluation results
cannot exceed 2 dB.
Initial evaluation:
Subjective assessment
of 1/3 octave bands.
En-route climb.
Medium altitude.
X
Cruise.
Normal cruise configuration.
X
Approach.
Constant airspeed,
gear up,
flaps extended as appropriate,
RPM as per operating manual.
X
Landing.
Constant airspeed,
gear down, landing
configuration flaps,
RPM as per operating manual.
X
Federal Register / Vol. 87, No. 236 / Friday, December 9, 2022 / Rules and Regulations
18:43 Dec 08, 2022
Climb.
75814
VerDate Sep<11>2014
5.b.6
average of the absolute
differences between
initial and recurrent
evaluation results
cannot exceed 2 dB.
Initial evaluation:
Subjective assessment
of 1/3 octave bands.
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VerDate Sep<11>2014
Special cases.
Jkt 259001
PO 00000
Frm 00113
Fmt 4701
5.d
FTD background
noise
Sfmt 4725
E:\FR\FM\09DER2.SGM
Recurrent evaluation:
cannot exceed ±5 dB
difference on three
consecutive bands when
compared to initial
evaluation and the
average of the absolute
differences between
initial and recurrent
evaluation results
cannot exceed 2 dB.
Initial evaluation:
background noise levels
must fall below the
sound levels described
in Appendix A,
Attachment 2,
Paragraph 7 .c ( 5).
Results of the background noise at initial
qualification must be included in the QTG
document and approved by the responsible Flight
Standards office. The measurements are to be
made with the simulation running, the sound
muted and a dead cockpit.
X
This applies to special steadystate cases identified as
particularly significant to the
pilot, important in training, or
unique to a specific airplane type
or model.
X
The simulated sound will be
evaluated to ensure that the
background noise does not
interfere with training.
Refer to paragraph 7 of this
Appendix A, Attachment 2.
Recurrent evaluation:
±3 dB per 1/3 octave
band compared to initial
evaluation.
09DER2
5.e
Frequency response
Initial evaluation: not
applicable.
This test should be presented
using an unweighted 1/3 octave
band format from band 17 to 42
(50 Hz to 16 kHz).
X
Only required if the results are to
be used during continuing
qualification evaluations in lieu
of airplane tests.
The results must be approved by
the responsible Flight Standards
office during the initial
qualification.
This test should be presented
using an unweighted 1/3 octave
band format from band 17 to 42
(50 Hz to 16 kHz).
75815
Recurrent evaluation:
cannot exceed ±5 dB
difference on three
consecutive bands when
compared to initial
evaluation and the
average of the absolute
differences between
initial and recurrent
evaluation results
cannot exceed 2 dB.
ER09DE22.099
As appropriate.
Federal Register / Vol. 87, No. 236 / Friday, December 9, 2022 / Rules and Regulations
18:43 Dec 08, 2022
5.c.
Recurrent evaluation:
cannot exceed ±5 dB
difference on three
consecutive bands when
compared to initial
evaluation and the
average of the absolute
differences between
initial and recurrent
evaluation results
cannot exceed 2 dB.
Initial evaluation:
Subjective assessment
of 1/3 octave bands.
lotter on DSK11XQN23PROD with RULES2
*
75816
*
*
VerDate Sep<11>2014
*
Jkt 259001
6.a.
PO 00000
6.a.1
SYSTEMS
INTEGRATION
System response
time
Transport delay.
Instrument response:
100 ms (or less) after
airplane response.
Pitch, roll and yaw.
X
Frm 00114
Where EFVS systems are
installed, the EFVS response
should be within+ or - 30 ms
from visual system response,
and not before motion system
response.
Visual system response:
120 ms (or less) after
airplane response.
Fmt 4701
Sfmt 4700
E:\FR\FM\09DER2.SGM
09DER2
ER09DE22.100
6.a.2
Transport delay.
300 milliseconds or less
after controller
movement.
One separate test is required in
each axis.
Pitch, roll and yaw.
X
X
Note.-The delay.from the
airplane EFVS electronic
elements should be added to the
30 ms tolerance before
comparison with visual system
reference.
If transport delay is the chosen
method to demonstrate relative
responses, the sponsor and the
responsible Flight Standards
office will use the latency values
to ensure proper FTD response
when reviewing those existing
tests where latency can be
identified (e.g., short period, roll
response, rudder response).
Federal Register / Vol. 87, No. 236 / Friday, December 9, 2022 / Rules and Regulations
*
18:43 Dec 08, 2022
6
Federal Register / Vol. 87, No. 236 / Friday, December 9, 2022 / Rules and Regulations
75817
Table B2F
Alternative Data Sources, Procedures, and Instrumentation
Level6 FTD
QPS REQUIREMENTS
The standards in this table are required if the data gathering
INFORMATION
methods described in pararraph 9 of Appendix B are not used.
Objective Test
Alternative Data
Reference Number
Sources, Procedures,
and Title
and Instrumentation
*
*
*
2.a.1.a.
Handling qualities.
Static control tests.
Pitch controller position vs.
force and surface position
calibration
2.a.2.a.
Handling qualities.
Static control tests.
Wheel position vs. force and
surface position calibration.
2.a.3.a.
Handling qualities.
Static control tests.
Rudder pedal position vs. force
and surface position
calibration.
*
lotter on DSK11XQN23PROD with RULES2
*
*
*
*
*
*
*
*
For airplanes with
reversible control
systems, surface
position data acquisition
should be accomplished
with winds less than 5
kts.
For airplanes with
reversible control
systems, surface
position data acquisition
should be accomplished
with winds less than 5
kts.
For airplanes with
reversible control
systems, surface
position data acquisition
should be accomplished
with winds less than 5
kts.
*
Attachment 3 to Appendix B to Part 60—
Flight Training Device (FTD) Subjective
Evaluation
*
18:43 Dec 08, 2022
*
Surface position data may be acquired
from flight data recorder (FDR) sensor
or, if no FDR sensor, at selected,
significant column positions
(encompassing significant column
position data points), acceptable to the
responsible Flight Standards office,
using a control surface protractor on the
ground. Force data may be acquired by
using a hand held force gauge at the
same column position data points.
Surface position data may be acquired
from flight data recorder (FDR) sensor
or, ifno FDR sensor, at selected,
significant wheel positions
(encompassing significant wheel
position data points), acceptable to the
responsible Flight Standards office,
using a control surface protractor on the
ground. Force data may be acquired by
using a hand held force gauge at the
same wheel position data points.
Surface position data may be acquired
from flight data recorder (FDR) sensor
or, ifno FDR sensor, at selected,
significant rudder pedal positions
(encompassing significant rudder pedal
position data points), acceptable to the
responsible Flight Standards office,
using a control surface protractor on the
ground. Force data may be acquired by
using a hand held force gauge at the
same rudder pedal position data points.
*
*
VerDate Sep<11>2014
*
Jkt 259001
PO 00000
*
*
Frm 00115
*
Fmt 4701
*
Sfmt 4700
E:\FR\FM\09DER2.SGM
09DER2
ER09DE22.101
*
*
Notes
75818
Federal Register / Vol. 87, No. 236 / Friday, December 9, 2022 / Rules and Regulations
Table B3C
Entry
No.
1.
Table of Functions and Subjective Tests
Level 4 FTD
QPS requirements
Operations tasks
Tasks in this table are subject to evaluation if appropriate for the airplane system or systems
simulated as indicated in the SOQ Configuration List as defined in Appendix B, Attachment
2 of this part.
Level 4 FTDs are required to have at least one operational system. The responsible Flight
Standards office will accomplish a functions check of all installed systems, switches,
indicators, and equipment at all crewmembers' and instructors' stations, and determine that
the flight deck (or flight deck area) design and functions replicate the appropriate airplane.
Attachment 4 to Appendix B to Part 60—
Sample Documents
Attachment 4 to Appendix B to Part 60—
Figure B4A—Sample Letter, Request for
Initial, Upgrade, or Reinstatement
Evaluation
*
Information
*
*
*
*
*
*
*
*
*
Date - - RE: Request for Initial/Upgrade Evaluation Date
This is to advise you of our intent to request an (initial or upgrade) evaluation of our (FTD Manufacturer), (Aircraft
Type/Level) Flight Training Device (FTD), (FAA ID Number, if previously qualified), located in (City, State) at
the (Facility) on (Proposed Evaluation Date). (The proposed evaluation date shall not be more than 180 days
following the date of this letter.) The FTD will be sponsored by (Name of Training Center/Air Carrier). FAA
Designator (4 Letter Code). The FTD will be sponsored as follows; (Select One)
The FTD will be used within the sponsor's FAA approved training program and placed on the sponsor's
Training/Operations Specifications.
The FTD will be used for dry lease only.
We agree to provide the formal request for the evaluation to your staff as follows: (check one)
For QTG tests run at the factory, not later, than 45 days prior to the proposed evaluation date with the
additional "1/3 on-site" tests provided not later than 14 days prior to the proposed evaluation date.
For QTG tests run on-site, not later than 30 days prior to the proposed evaluation date.
We understand that the formal request will contain the following documents:
1. Sponsor's Letter of Request (Company Compliance Letter).
2. Principal Operations Inspector (POI) or Training Center Program Manager's (TCPM) endorsement.
3. Complete QTG.
If we are unable to meet the above requirements, we understand this may result in a significant delay, perhaps 45
days or more, in rescheduling and completing the evaluation.
The s onsor should add additional comments as necess
D
D
D
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Please contact (Name Telephone and Fax Number of Sponsor's Contact) to confirm the date for this initial
evaluation. We understand a member of your National Simulator Program staff will respond to this request within
14 days.
A copy of this letter of intent has been provided to (Name), the Principal Operations Inspector (POI) and/or
Training Center Program Manager (TCPM).
Sincerely,
Attachment: FTD Information and Characteristics Form
cc: POI/TCPM
ER09DE22.102
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D
Federal Register / Vol. 87, No. 236 / Friday, December 9, 2022 / Rules and Regulations
*
*
*
*
75819
Attachment 4 to Appendix B to Part 60—
Figure B4C—Sample Letter of Compliance
*
Information
Mr. (Name of Training Program Approval Authority):
(Name of responsible Flight Standards office)
(Address)
(City/State/Zip)
Dear Mr. (Name ofTPAA):
RE:
Letter of Compliance
(Operator Sponsor Name) requests evaluation of our (Aircraft Type) FTD for Level LJ
qualification. The (FTD Manufacturer Name) FTD with (Visual System Manufacturer
Name/Model) system is fully defined on the FTD Information page of the accompanying
Qualification Test Guide (QTG). We have completed the tests of the FTD and certify that it meets
all applicable requirements of FAR parts 121, 125, or 135), and the guidance of (AC 120-40B or
14 CFR Part 60). Appropriate hardware and software configuration control procedures have been
established. Our Pilot(s), (Name(s)), who are qualified on (Aircraft Type) aircraft have assessed
the FTD and have found that it conforms to the (Operator/Sponsor) (Aircraft Type) flight deck
configuration and that the simulated systems and subsystems function equivalently to those in the
aircraft. The above named pilot(s) have also assessed the performance and the flying qualities of
the FTD and find that it represents the respective aircraft.
(Added Comments may be placed here)
Sincerely,
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(Sponsor Representative)
75820
Federal Register / Vol. 87, No. 236 / Friday, December 9, 2022 / Rules and Regulations
Attachment 4 to Appendix B to Part 60—
Figure B4D—Sample Qualification Test
Guide Cover Page
Information
SPONSOR NAME
SPONSOR ADDRESS
FAA QUALIFICATION TEST GUIDE
(SPECIFIC AIRPLANE MODEL)
for example
Stratos BA797-320A
(Type of FTD)
(FTD Identification Including Manufacturer, Serial Number, Visual System Used)
(FTD Level)
(Qualification Performance Standard Used)
(FTD Location)
FAA Initial Evaluation
Date:
-----
Date:
(Sponsor)
Date:
*
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*
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FAA
Federal Register / Vol. 87, No. 236 / Friday, December 9, 2022 / Rules and Regulations
75821
Attachment 4 to Appendix B to Part 60—
Figure B4E—Sample Statement of
Qualification—Certificate
Information
Federal Aviation Administration
This is to certify that representatives of the FAA
Completed an evaluation of the
G Fast
es
Farnsworth 100 Flight Traialag Device
FAA Identification Number 998
And pursuant to 14 CFR Part 60 found it to meet its original qualification basis, AC 120-45A
(MM/DD/YY)
The Master Qualification Test Guide and the attached
Configuration List and Restrictions List
Provide the Qualification Basis for this device to operate at
Level 6
Until March 31, 2010
VerDate Sep<11>2014
February 15, 2009
B. Williamson
(date)
(for the FAA)
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Unless sooner rescinded or extended by the FAA
75822
Federal Register / Vol. 87, No. 236 / Friday, December 9, 2022 / Rules and Regulations
*
*
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*
42. In appendix C to part 60:
a. In the introductory ‘‘Begin
Information’’ text:
■ i. Remove the word ‘‘NSPM’’ and add
in its place the words ‘‘Flight Standards
Service’’ in the first sentence; and
■ ii. In the last sentence, remove the
phrase ‘‘NSPM, or a person assigned by
the NSPM,’’ and add in its place the
words ‘‘responsible Flight Standards
office’’.
■ b. In section 1:
■ i. Remove and reserve paragraph b.;
■ ii. Remove the last sentence of
paragraph c.;
■ iii. In paragraph d.(10), add the words
‘‘Flightcrew Member’’ after ‘‘as
amended,’’; and
■ iv. Revise paragraph d.(25).
■ c. In section 11:
■ i. In paragraph o. introductory text,
remove the words ‘‘an NSP pilot’’ and
add in their place the words ‘‘a pilot
from the responsible Flight Standards
office’’ and remove the word ‘‘NSP’’;
■ ii. In paragraph r.(1), remove the word
‘‘NSP’’; and
■ iii. In paragraph v., remove the phrase
‘‘NSPM or visit the NSPM website’’ and
add in its place the words ‘‘responsible
Flight Standards office’’.
■ d. In attachment 1, in table C1A,
revise the entries for 4.a., 6.c., 6.d., and
6.u.;
■ e. In attachment 2:
■ i. In section 8, paragraph d., remove
the first instance of the word ‘‘NSPM’’
and add in its place the words ‘‘the
responsible Flight Standards office’’;
■ ii. In table C2A, revise the entries for
1.j.4., 2.a., and 4.a.2;
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■
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iii. In table C2E, revise the entry for
1.b.2.;
■ f. In attachment 3:
■ i. In section 2, in the first paragraph
(h), remove the last sentence and
redesignate the second paragraph h. and
paragraph i. as paragraphs i. and j,
respectively; and
■ ii. In table C3C, revise the
introductory text.
■ g. In attachment 4:
■ i. Revise the table of contents entry for
Figure C4H to read ‘‘Figure C4H
[Reserved]’’;
■ ii. Revise figures C4A C4C, C4D, and
C4E; and
■ iii. Remove and reserve figure C4H.
■ h. Remove the word ‘‘NSPM’’ and in
its place add the words ‘‘responsible
Flight Standards office’’ in the following
places:
■ i. Section 1, paragraph c., the first two
instances;
■ ii. Section 9, paragraphs d., d.(1),
d.(2), g., h., and i.;
■ iii. Section 10, paragraph a;
■ iv. Section 11, paragraphs b.(2), b.(3),
d., e.(2), f., g.(1), h., j. k., l., m., n., n.(2),
o., p., q., r.(2), s., t., and w.;
■ v. Section 13, paragraphs a.(1), a.(3),
a.(4), a.(5), d., and i.;
■ vi. Section 14, paragraphs a., d., e.,
and e.(1);
■ vii. Section 17, paragraphs b.(1) and
b.(2);
■ viii. Section 19;
■ ix. Section 20;
■ x. Attachment 2, section 1, paragraph
b.;
■ xi. Attachment 2, section 2,
paragraphs a., h., j., k., and l.;
■ xii. Attachment 2, section 4,
paragraph b.(1);
■
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xiii. Attachment 2, section 6,
paragraph d.(2);
■ xiv. Attachment 2, section 8,
paragraphs b., c., the second instance of
d., f., and g.;
■ xv. Attachment 2, section 9,
paragraphs a., b., b.(2) and c.(2)(i);
■ xvi. Attachment 2, section 12,
paragraph a.;
■ xvii. Attachment 2, section 14,
paragraph b.(4)(d);
■ xviii. Attachment 2, section 16,
paragraphs a.(2) and b.(2);
■ xix. Attachment 2, section 17,
paragraphs c., d.(2), e., and g.;
■ xx. Attachment 3, section 1,
paragraphs f. and g.; and
■ xxi. Attachment 3, section 2,
paragraph b.
■ i. In appendix C to part 60, remove the
word ‘‘NSP’’ from the following places:
■ i. Section 14, paragraph g.; and
■ ii. Attachment 3, paragraphs 2.d. and
2.f.
The revisions read as follows:
■
Appendix C to Part 60 Qualification
Performance Standards for Helicopter
Full Flight Simulators
*
*
*
*
*
*
*
1. Introduction
*
*
*
d. * * *
(25) FAA Airman Certification Standards
and Practical Test Standards for Airline
Transport Pilot, Type Ratings, Commercial
Pilot, and Instrument Ratings.
*
*
*
*
*
Attachment 1 to Appendix C to Part 60—
General Simulator Requirements
*
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*
09DER2
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*
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Table ClA
Minimum Simulator Requirements
Entry
Number
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*
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6.c.
*
*
*
*
*
*
*
*
Levels
Blcio
INFORMATION
Notes
*
X
X
X
The responsible Flight Standards
office will consider alternatives to
this standard for additional seats
based on unique flight deck
configurations
*
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09DER2
The simulator must provide a continuous visual field-of-view of at least 146°
horizontally and 36° vertically per pilot seat. Both pilot seat visual systems must be
operable simultaneously. Horizontal field-of-view is centered on the zero degree azimuth
line relative to the aircraft fuselage. The minimum horizontal field-of-view coverage
must be plus and minus one-half(½) of the minimum continuous field-of-view
requirement, centered on the zero degree azimuth line relative to the aircraft fuselage. An
SOC must explain the geometry of the installation. Capability for a field-of-view in
excess of the minimum is not required for qualification at Level C. However, where
specific tasks require extended fields of view beyond the 146° by 36° (e.g., to accommodate
the use of"chin windows" where the accommodation is either integral with or separate from
the primary visual system display), then the extended fields of view must be provided.
When considering the installation and use of augmented fields of view, the sponsor must
meet with the NSPM to determine the training, testing, checking, and experience tasks
for which the augmented field-of-view capability may be required.
An SOC is required.
X
Optimization of the vertical fieldof-view may be considered with
respect to the specific helicopter
flight deck cut-off angle.
The sponsor may request the
responsible Flight Standards
office to evaluate the FFS for
specific authorization(s) for the
following:
(1) Specific areas within the
database needing higher
resolution to support landings,
take-offs and ground cushion
exercises and training away from
a heliport, including elevated
heliport, helidecks and confined
areas.
(2) For cross-country flights,
sufficient scene details to allow
for ground to map navigation over
a sector length equal to 3 0
75823
ER09DE22.107
*
In addition to the flight crewmember stations, the simulator must have at least two
suitable seats for the instructor/check airman and FAA inspector. These seats must
provide adequate vision to the pilot's panel and forward windows. All seats other than
flight crew seats need not represent those found in the helicopter but must be adequately
secured to the floor and equipped with similar positive restraint devices.
4.a.
*
General Simulator Requirements
Simulator
Federal Register / Vol. 87, No. 236 / Friday, December 9, 2022 / Rules and Regulations
18:43 Dec 08, 2022
QPS REQUIREMENTS
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*
ER09DE22.108
*
*
*
*
The simulator must present visual scenes of wet and snow-covered runways, including
runway lighting reflections for wet conditions, and partially obscured lights for snow
conditions.
6.u.
*
*
*
*
*
*
*
*
X X
The responsible Flight Standards
office will consider suitable
alternative effects.
Federal Register / Vol. 87, No. 236 / Friday, December 9, 2022 / Rules and Regulations
18:43 Dec 08, 2022
An SOC is required.
75824
VerDate Sep<11>2014
The simulator must provide a continuous visual field-of-view of at least 176°
horizontally and 56° vertically per pilot seat. Both pilot seat visual systems must be
operable simultaneously. Horizontal field-of-view is centered on the zero degree azimuth
line relative to the aircraft fuselage. The minimum horizontal field-of-view coverage
must be plus and minus one-half(½) of the minimum continuous field-of-view
requirement, centered on the zero degree azimuth line relative to the aircraft fuselage. An
SOC must explain the geometry of the installation. Capability for a field-of-view in
excess of the minimum is not required for qualification at Level D. However, where
specific tasks require extended fields of view beyond the 176° by 56° (e.g., to accommodate
the use of"chin windows" where the accommodation is either integral with or separate from
the primary visual system display), then the extended fields of view must be provided.
When considering the installation and use of augmented fields of view, the sponsor must
meet with the responsible Flight Standards office to determine the training, testing,
checking, and experience tasks for which the augmented field-of-view capability may be
required.
6.d.
minutes at an average cruise
speed.
(3) For offshore airborne radar
approaches (ARA), harmonized
visual/radar representations of
installations.
X Optimization of the vertical fieldof-view may be considered with
respect to the specific helicopter
flight deck cut-off angle.
The sponsor may request the
responsible Flight Standards
office to evaluate the FFS for
specific authorization(s) for the
following:
(1) Specific areas within the
database needing higher
resolution to support landings,
take-offs and ground cushion
exercises and training away from
a heliport, including elevated
heliport, helidecks and confined
areas.
(2) For cross-country flights,
sufficient scene details to allow
for ground to map navigation over
a sector length equal to 3 0
minutes at an average cruise
speed.
(3) For offshore airborne radar
approaches (ARA), harmonized
visual/radar representations of
installations.
Federal Register / Vol. 87, No. 236 / Friday, December 9, 2022 / Rules and Regulations
*
*
*
*
Attachment 2 to Appendix C to Part 60—FFS
Objective Tests
*
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*
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Entry
Number
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*
*
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1.j.4.
I
Tolerance(s)
Title
*
*
Autorotational
Landing.
*
*
Flight
Condition
Test
Details
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*
*
Torque - ±3%, Rotor
Speed- ±3%,
Vertical Velocity ±100 fpm
(0.50m/sec) or 10%,
Pitch Attitude - ±2°,
Bank Attitude - ±2°,
Heading - ±5°,
Longitudinal
Control Position ± 10%, Lateral
Control Position ±10%, Directional
Control Position ±10%, Collective
Control Position ±10%.
*
*
Notes
BICID
*
Landing.
Record the results of an
autorotational deceleration and
landing from a stabilized
autorotational descent, to touch
down.
If flight test data containing all
required parameters for a
complete power-off landing is not
available from the aircraft
manufacturer for this test and
other qualified flight test
personnel are not available to
acquire this data, the sponsor may
coordinate with the responsible
Flight Standards office to
determine if it is appropriate to
accept alternative testing means.
09DER2
2.a.
*
INFORMATION
Simulator
Level
X
X
Alternative
approaches for
acquiring this data
may be acceptable,
depending on the
aircraft as well as
the personnel and
the data recording,
reduction, and
interpretation
facilities to be used,
are: 1) a simulated
autorotational flare
and reduction of
rate of descent
(ROD) at altitude;
or 2) a power-on
termination
following an
autorotational
approach and flare.
*
Control System Mechanical Characteristics.
For simulators requiring Static or Dynamic tests at the controls (i.e., cyclic, collective, and
pedal), special test fixtures will not be required during initial or upgrade evaluations if the
Contact the
responsible Flight
Federal Register / Vol. 87, No. 236 / Friday, December 9, 2022 / Rules and Regulations
18:43 Dec 08, 2022
Test
*
ER09DE22.109
75826
VerDate Sep<11>2014
Table C2A
Full Fli2ht Simulator (FFS) Ob.iective Tests
QPS REQUIREMENTS
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*
*
*
*
*
*
*
Transport Delay
4.a.2.
Fmt 4701
If Transport Delay
is the chosen
method to
demonstrate
relative responses,
the sponsor and the
responsible Flight
Standards office
will use the latency
values to ensure
proper simulator
response when
reviewing those
existing tests where
latency can be
identified (e.g.,
short period, roll
response, rudder
response).
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09DER2
*
*
*
*
*
*
75827
*
ER09DE22.110
Standards office for
clarification of any
issue regarding
helicopters with
reversible controls
or where the
required validation
data is not
attainable.
Federal Register / Vol. 87, No. 236 / Friday, December 9, 2022 / Rules and Regulations
18:43 Dec 08, 2022
sponsor's QTG/MQTG shows both test fixture results and the results of an alternative approach,
such as computer plots produced concurrently showing satisfactory agreement. Repeat of the
alternative method during the initial or upgrade evaluation satisfies this test requirement. For
initial and upgrade evaluations, the control dynamic characteristics must be measured at and
recorded directly from the flight deck controls, and must be accomplished in hover, climb,
cruise, and autorotation.
75828
Federal Register / Vol. 87, No. 236 / Friday, December 9, 2022 / Rules and Regulations
Table C2E
Alternative Data Sources, Procedures, and Instrumentation
QPS REQUIREMENTS
The standards in this table are required if the data gathering methods described in
INFORMATION
paragraph 9 of Appendix C are not used.
--Table of Ob_jective Tests -Level
Alternative Data
Sources, Procedures,
B
Notes
Test Entry Number
Only
and Instrumentation
and Title
*
*
*
*
*
*
*
*
*
*
*
*
*
Data may be acquired by using a
constant tiller position (measured with a
protractor), or full pedal application for
steady state turn, and synchronized
video of heading indicator. If less than
full pedal is used, pedal position must
be recorded.
X
1.b.2.
Performance. On Surface Taxi
Rate of Turn vs. Nosewheel
Steering Angle
*
*
*
*
A single procedure may
not be adequate for all
rotorcraft steering
systems. Appropriate
measurement
procedures must be
devised and proposed
for responsible Flight
Standards office
concurrence.
*
Attachment 3 to Appendix C to Part 60—
Simulator Subjective Evaluation
*
*
*
*
*
*
Table C3C
Functions and Subjective Tests
QPS REQUIREMENTS
Visual Scene Content
Additional Airport or Landing Area Models Beyond Minimum
Required for Qualification
Entry
Number
Class II Airport or Landine: Area Models
Simulator
Level
B
C
D
This table specifies the minimum airport or helicopter landing area visual model content and
functionality necessary to add visual models to a simulator's visual model library (i.e., beyond those
necessary for qualification at the stated level) without the necessity of further involvement of the
responsible Flight Standards office or TPAA.
*
*
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*
*
*
*
*
*
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*
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*
Federal Register / Vol. 87, No. 236 / Friday, December 9, 2022 / Rules and Regulations
75829
Attachment 4 to Appendix C to Part 60—
Figure C4A—Sample Letter, Request for
Initial, Upgrade, or Reinstatement
Evaluation
Information
Date - - -
RE: Request for Initial/Upgrade Evaluation Date
This is to advise you of our intent to request an (initial or upgrade) evaluation of our (FFS Manufacturer), (Aircraft
Type/Level) Full Flight Simulator (FFS), (FAA ID Number, if previously qualified), located in (City, State) at the
(Facility) on (Proposed Evaluation Date). (The proposed evaluation date shall not be more than 180 days following
the date of this letter.) The FFS will be sponsored by (Name of Training Center/Air Carrier). FAA Designator {1
Letter Code). The FFS will be sponsored as follows; (Select One)
D The FFS will be used within the sponsor's FAA approved training program and placed on the sponsor's
Training/Operations Specifications.
D The FFS will be used for dry lease only.
We agree to provide the formal request for the evaluation to your staff as follows: (check one)
D For QTG tests run at the factory, not later, than 45 days prior to the proposed evaluation date with the
additional "1/3 on-site" tests provided not later than 14 days prior to the proposed evaluation date.
D For QTG tests run on-site, not later than 30 days prior to the proposed evaluation date.
We understand that the formal request will contain the following documents:
1. Sponsor's Letter of Request (Company Compliance Letter).
2. Principal Operations Inspector (POI) or Training Center Program Manager's (TCPM) endorsement.
3. Complete QTG.
Ifwe are unable to meet the above requirements, we understand this may result in a significant delay, perhaps 45 days
or more, in rescheduling and completing the evaluation.
(The sponsor should add additional comments as necessary).
Please contact (Name Telephone and Fax Number of Sponsor's Contact) to confirm the date for this initial
evaluation. We understand a member of your National Simulator Program staff will respond to this request within 14
days
A copy of this letter of intent has been provided to (Name), the Principal Operations Inspector (POI) and/or Training
Center Program Manager (TCPM).
Sincerely,
Attachment: FFS Information Form
cc: POI/TCPM
*
*
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*
*
18:43 Dec 08, 2022
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*
75830
Federal Register / Vol. 87, No. 236 / Friday, December 9, 2022 / Rules and Regulations
Attachment 4 to Appendix C to Part 60—
Figure C4C—Sample Letter of Compliance
Information
Mr. (Name of Training Program Approval Authority):
(Name of responsible Flight Standards office)
(Address)
(City/State/Zip)
Dear Mr. (Name of TPAA):
RE:
Letter of Compliance
(Operator Sponsor Name) requests evaluation of our (Aircraft Type) FFS for Level LJ
qualification. The (FFS Manufacturer Name) FFS with (Visual System Manufacturer
Name/Model) system is fully defined on the FFS Information page of the accompanying
Qualification Test Guide (QTG). We have completed the tests of the FFS and certify that it meets
all applicable requirements of FAR parts 121, 125, or 135), and the guidance of (AC 120-40B or
14 CFR Part 60). Appropriate hardware and software configuration control procedures have been
established. Our Pilot(s), (Name(s)), who are qualified on (Aircraft Type) aircraft have assessed
the FFS and have found that it conforms to the (Operator/Sponsor) (Aircraft Type) flight deck
configuration and that the simulated systems and subsystems function equivalently to those in the
aircraft. The above named pilot(s) have also assessed the performance and the flying qualities of
the FFS and find that it represents the respective aircraft.
(Added Comments may be placed here)
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Sincerely,
(Sponsor Representative)
Federal Register / Vol. 87, No. 236 / Friday, December 9, 2022 / Rules and Regulations
75831
Attachment 4 to Appendix C to Part 60—
Figure C4D—Sample Qualification Test
Guide Cover Page
Information
SPONSOR NAME
SPONSOR ADDRESS
FAA QUALIFICATION TEST GUIDE
(SPECIFIC Helicopter MODEL)
for example
Farnsworth z.100
(Type of Simulator)
(Simulator Identification Including Manufacturer, Serial Number, Visual System Used)
(Simulator Level)
(Qualification Performance Standard Used)
(Simulator Location)
FAA Initial Evaluation
Date:
Date:
(Sponsor)
Date:
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FAA
75832
Federal Register / Vol. 87, No. 236 / Friday, December 9, 2022 / Rules and Regulations
Attachment 4 to Appendix C to Part 60—
Figure C4E—Sample Statement of
Qualification—Certificate
Information
Federal Aviation Administration
Certificate of Qualification
This is to certify that representatives of the FAA
Completed an evaluation of the
Go-Fast Airlines
Farnsworth Z-100 Full Flight Simulator
FAA Identification Number 0999
And pursuant to 14 CFR Part 60 found it to meet its original qualification basis, AC 12063 (MM/DD/YY)
The Master Qualification Test Guide and the attached
Configuration List and List of Qualified Tasks
Provide the Qualification Basis for this device to operate at
Level D
Until April 30, 2010
*
*
*
C. Nordlie
(date)
(for the FAA)
*
43. In appendix D to part 60:
a. In the introductory ‘‘Begin
Information’’ text:
■
■
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i. Remove ‘‘NSPM’’ and add in its
place the words ‘‘Flight Standards
Service’’ in the first sentence; and
■ ii. Remove the phrase ‘‘NSPM, or a
person or persons assigned by the
NSPM’’ and add in its place the words
■
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‘‘responsible Flight Standards office’’ in
the last sentence.
■ b. In section 1:
■ i. Remove and reserve paragraph b.;
■ ii. Remove the last sentence of
paragraph c.;
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Unless sooner rescinded or extended by the FAA
Federal Register / Vol. 87, No. 236 / Friday, December 9, 2022 / Rules and Regulations
iii. In paragraph d.(12), add the words
‘‘Flightcrew Member’’ after ‘‘as
amended,’’; and
■ iv. Revise paragraph d.(28;
■ c. In section 11:
■ i. In paragraph o. introductory text,
remove the words ‘‘an NSP pilot’’ and
add in their place the words ‘‘a pilot
from the responsible Flight Standards
office’’ and remove the second instance
of the word ‘‘NSP’’;
■ ii. In paragraph r.(1), remove the word
‘‘NSP’’; and
■ iii. In paragraph v., remove the phrase
‘‘NSPM or visit the NSPM website’’ and
add in its place the words ‘‘responsible
Flight Standards office’’.
■ d. In section 17, paragraph c., remove
the word ‘‘D4H’’ and add in its place the
word ‘‘D4I’’;
■ e. In attachment 1, in table D1A,
revise the entry for 6.c.;
■ f. In attachment 2, in table D2A, revise
the entries for 1.j.4. and 2.a.;
■ g. In attachment 3:
■ i. In section 1, paragraph g., remove
the first instance of the word ‘‘NPSM’’
and add in its place the words
‘‘responsible Flight Standards office’’
and remove the last sentence; and
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ii. Revise the introductory text to table
D3C.
■ h. In attachment 4:
■ i. Remove the table of contents entry
‘‘Figure A4C Sample Letter of
Compliance’’ and add in its place
‘‘Figure D4C Sample Letter of
Compliance’’;
■ ii. Revise the table of contents entry
‘‘Figure D4H Sample Continuing
Qualification Evaluation Requirements
Page’’ to read ‘‘Figure D4H [Reserved]’’;
■ iii. Revise figures D4A, D4C, D4D, and
D4E;
■ iv. Redesignate Figure A4H as Figure
D4H; and
■ v. Remove and reserve newly
redesignated Figure D4H.
■ i. Remove the word ‘‘NSPM’’ and in
its place add the words ‘‘responsible
Flight Standards office’’ in the following
places:
■ i. Section 1, paragraph c., the first two
instances;
■ ii. Section 9, paragraphs d., d.(1),
d.(1)(a), g., h., and i.;
■ iii. Section 10, paragraph a.;
■ iv. Section 11, paragraphs b.(2), b.(3),
d., e.(2), f., g.(1), h., j., k., l., m., n., n.(2),
o., p., q., r.(2), s., t., and w.;
■ v. Section 13, paragraphs a.(1), a.(3),
a.(4), a.(5), d., i., and j.;
■
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75833
vi. Section 14, paragraphs a., d., h.;
vii. Section 17, paragraphs b.(1) and
(2);
■ viii. Section 19 and 20;
■ ix. Attachment 2, section 2,
paragraphs a., h., i., j., and k.; and
■ x. Attachment 3, section 1, paragraph
f.
■ j. In appendix D to part 60, remove the
word ‘‘NSP’’ from the following places:
■ i. Section 14, paragraph f.; and
■ ii. Attachment 3, paragraphs 2.c. and
2.d.
■
■
Appendix D to Part 60 Qualification
Performance Standards for Helicopter
Flight Training Devices
*
*
*
*
*
*
*
1. Introduction
*
*
*
d. * * *
(28) FAA Airman Certification Standards
and Practical Test Standards for Airline
Transport Pilot, Type Ratings, Commercial
Pilot, and Instrument Ratings.
*
*
*
*
*
Attachment 1 to Appendix D to Part 60—
General FTD Requirements
*
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*
*
09DER2
*
*
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Entry
Number
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*
*
General FTD Requirements
4
*
*
*
*
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An SOC is required and must explain the geometry of the installation.
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*
*
*
*
*
I s I
6
Notes
I
7
*
The FTD must provide a continuous visual field-of-view of at least 146°
horizontally and 36° vertically for both pilot seats, simultaneously. The
minimum horizontal field-of-view coverage must be plus and minus
one-half(½) of the minimum continuous field-of-view requirement,
centered on the zero degree azimuth line relative to the aircraft fuselage.
Additional horizontal field-of-view capability may be added at the
sponsor's discretion provided the minimum field-of-view is retained.
Capability for a field-of-view in excess of these minima is not required
for qualification at Level 7. However, where specific tasks require
extended fields of view beyond the 146° by 36° (e.g., to accommodate the
use of "chin windows" where the accommodation is either integral with or
separate from the primary visual system display), then such extended
fields of view must be provided.
6.c.
INFORMATION
FTD
Level
*
X
Optimization of the
vertical field-of-view may
be considered with respect
to the specific helicopter
flight deck cut-off angle.
When considering the
installation/use of
augmented fields of view,
as described here, it will
be the responsibility of the
sponsor to meet with the
responsible Flight
Standards office to
determine the training,
testing, checking, or
experience tasks for
which the augmented
field-of-view capability
may be critical to that
approval.
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18:43 Dec 08, 2022
TableDlA
Minimum FTD Requirements
QPS REQUIREMENTS
Federal Register / Vol. 87, No. 236 / Friday, December 9, 2022 / Rules and Regulations
*
*
*
*
Attachment 2 to Appendix D to Part 60—
Flight Training Device (FTD) Objective Tests
*
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*
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*
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*
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ER09DE22.118
Fli2ht Trainin2 Device (FTD) Ob_jective Tests
QPS REQUIREMENTS
Test
Entry
Number
*
1.j.4.
*
I
Title
*
Flight
Conditions
Tolerances
*
*
*
INFORMATION
FTD Level
Test Details
s
I 6
I
7
Notes
*
Autorotationa Torque - ±3%,
1Landing.
Rotor Speed- ±3%,
Vertical Velocity ±100 fpm (0.50
m/sec) or 10%,
Pitch Attitude - ±2°,
Bank Attitude - ±2°,
Heading - ±5°,
Longitudinal Control
Position - ±10%,
Lateral Control
Position - ±10%,
Directional Control
Position - ±10%,
Collective Control
Position - ±10%.
Landing.
Record the results of an
autorotational deceleration
and landing from a stabilized
autorotational descent, to
touch down.
X
If flight test data
containing all
required parameters
for a complete
power-off landing
is not available
from the aircraft
manufacturer for
this test, and other
qualified flight test
personnel are not
available to acquire
this data, the
sponsor must
coordinate with the
responsible Flight
Standards office to
determine if it
would be
appropriate to
accept alternative
testing means.
Alternative
approaches to this
Federal Register / Vol. 87, No. 236 / Friday, December 9, 2022 / Rules and Regulations
18:43 Dec 08, 2022
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2.
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Handling
Qualities.
Control
System
Mechanical
Characteristic
s.
2.a.
09DER2
*
*
*
*
Contact the
responsible Flight
Standards office for
clarification of any
issue regarding
helicopters with
reversible controls.
*
*
*
Federal Register / Vol. 87, No. 236 / Friday, December 9, 2022 / Rules and Regulations
18:43 Dec 08, 2022
data acquisition
that may be
acceptable are:
1) a simulated
autorotational flare
and reduction of
rate of descent
(ROD) at altitude;
or 2) a power-on
termination
following an
autorotational
approach and flare.
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*
*
Federal Register / Vol. 87, No. 236 / Friday, December 9, 2022 / Rules and Regulations
*
*
Attachment 3 to Appendix D to Part 60—
Flight Training Device (FTD) Subjective
Evaluation
*
*
*
*
*
*
Table D3C
Table of Functions and Subjective Tests
Level 7 FTD
Visual Requirements
Additional Visual Models Beyond Minimum Required for Qualification
Class II Airport or Helicopter Landin2 Area Models
QPS REQUIREMENTS
Entry
Number
Operations Tasks
This table specifies the minimum airport or helicopter landing area visual model content and functionality
necessary to add visual models to an FTD's visual model library (i.e., beyond those necessary for
qualification at the stated level) without the necessity of further involvement of the responsible Flight
Standards office or TP AA.
*
*
*
*
*
*
*
*
*
*
*
*
*
Figure D4C
*
Attachment 4 to Appendix D to Part 60—
Sample Documents
Table of Contents
*
*
*
*
Sample Letter of Compliance
*
Figure D4H
*
*
*
*
[Reserved]
*
*
*
Attachment 4 to Appendix D to Part 60—
Figure D4A—Sample Letter, Request for
Initial, Upgrade, or Reinstatement
Evaluation
Information
*
Date - - RE: Request for Initial/Upgrade Evaluation Date
This is to advise you of our intent to request an (initial or upgrade) evaluation of our (FTD Manufacturer),
(Aircraft Type/Level) Flight Training Device (FTD), (FAA ID Number, if previously qualified), located in .(£i!y,_
State) at the (Facility) on (Proposed Evaluation Date). (The proposed evaluation date shall not be more than 180
days following the date of this letter.) The FTD will be sponsored by (Name of Training Center/Air Carrier),
FAA Designator (4 Letter Code). The FTD will be sponsored as follows; (Select One)
D The FTD will be used within the sponsor's FAA approved training program and placed on the sponsor's
Training/Operations Specifications.
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D The FTD will be used for dry lease only.
Federal Register / Vol. 87, No. 236 / Friday, December 9, 2022 / Rules and Regulations
75839
D For QTG tests run at the factory, not later, than 45 days prior to the proposed evaluation date with the
additional "1/3 on-site" tests provided not later than 14 days prior to the proposed evaluation date.
D For QTG tests run on-site, not later than 30 days prior to the proposed evaluation date.
We understand that the formal request will contain the following documents:
1. Sponsor's Letter of Request (Company Compliance Letter).
2. Principal Operations Inspector (POI) or Training Center Program Manager's (TCPM) endorsement.
3. Complete QTG.
If we are unable to meet the above requirements, we understand this may result in a significant delay, perhaps 45
days or more, in rescheduling and completing the evaluation.
(The sponsor should add additional comments as necessary).
Please contact (Name Telephone and Fax Number of Sponsor's Contact) to confirm the date for this initial
evaluation. We understand a member of your National Simulator Program staff will respond to this request within
14 days.
A copy of this letter of intent has been provided to (Name), the Principal Operations Inspector (POI) and/or
Training Center Program Manager (TCPM).
Sincerely,
Attachment: FTD Information Form
cc: POI/TCPM
*
*
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*
*
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*
75840
Federal Register / Vol. 87, No. 236 / Friday, December 9, 2022 / Rules and Regulations
Attachment 4 to Appendix D to Part 60—
Figure D4C—Sample Letter of Compliance
Information
Mr. (Name of Training Program Approval Authority):
(Name of responsible Flight Standards office)
(Address)
(City/State/Zip)
Dear Mr. (Name of TPAA):
RE:
Letter of Compliance
(Operator Sponsor Name) requests evaluation of our (Aircraft Type) FTD for Level LJ
qualification. The (FTD Manufacturer Name) FTD with (Visual System Manufacturer
Name/Model) system is fully defined on the FTD Information page of the accompanying
Qualification Test Guide (QTG). We have completed the tests of the FTD and certify that it meets
all applicable requirements of FAR parts 121, 125, or 135), and the guidance of (AC 120-40B or
14 CFR Part 60). Appropriate hardware and software configuration control procedures have been
established. Our Pilot(s), (Name(s)), who are qualified on (Aircraft Type) aircraft have assessed
the FTD and have found that it conforms to the (Operator/Sponsor) (Aircraft Type) flight deck
configuration and that the simulated systems and subsystems function equivalently to those in the
aircraft. The above named pilot(s) have also assessed the performance and the flying qualities of
the FTD and find that it represents the respective aircraft.
(Added Comments may be placed here)
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Sincerely,
(Sponsor Representative)
Federal Register / Vol. 87, No. 236 / Friday, December 9, 2022 / Rules and Regulations
75841
Attachment 4 to Appendix D to Part 60—
Figure D4D—Sample Qualification Test
Guide Cover Page
Information
SPONSOR NAME
SPONSOR ADDRESS
FAA QUALIFICATION TEST GUIDE
(SPECIFIC HELICOPTER MODEL)
(
(
for example
)
Vertiflite AB-320
)
(FTD Identification Including Manufacturer, Serial Number, Visual System Used)
(FTD Level)
(Qualification Performance Standard Used)
(FTD Location)
FAA Initial Evaluation
Date:
Date:
(Sponsor)
Date:
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FAA
75842
Federal Register / Vol. 87, No. 236 / Friday, December 9, 2022 / Rules and Regulations
Attachment 4 to Appendix D to Part 60—
Figure D4E—Sample Statement of
Qualification—Certificate
Information
Federal Aviation Administration
Certificate of Qualification
This is to certify that representatives of the FAA
Completed an evaluation of the
Go-Fast Tndnlna Center
Vertlfflte AB-320 F t Tndnlng Device
FAA Identification Number 889
And found it to meet the standards set forth in
14 CFR Part 68. Appendix D
Qudfkatioo Performance Stoclards
The Master Qualification Test Guide and the attached
Configuration List and List of Qualified Tasks
Provide the Qualification Basis for this device to operate at
£nelfS
Until April 30, 2010
*
*
*
*
March 15, 2009
C. Nordlie
(date)
(for the FAA)
*
44. In appendix E to part 60:
■ a. Remove the word ‘‘NSPM’’ and in
its place add the words ‘‘responsible
Flight Standards office’’ in paragraphs
■
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18:43 Dec 08, 2022
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a., b., d.(2), d.(3), e., f., g., h., h.(4), i.(1),
j.(2)(b), and j.(4)(d).
■ b. Remove the word ‘‘NSPM’’ in
paragraphs h.(1) and (2).
■ c. Remove paragraph i.(4).
■ d. Revise table E1.
The revision reads as follows:
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Appendix E to Part 60 Qualification
Performance Standards for Quality
Management Systems for Flight
Simulation Training Devices
*
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*
*
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*
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Unless sooner rescinded or extended by the FAA
Federal Register / Vol. 87, No. 236 / Friday, December 9, 2022 / Rules and Regulations
75843
TABLE E1—FSTD QUALITY MANAGEMENT SYSTEM
QPS Requirement
E1.1. .....................
A QMS manual that prescribes the policies, processes, or procedures outlined in this
table.
A policy, process, or procedure specifying how the sponsor will identify deficiencies in
the QMS.
A policy, process, or procedure specifying how the sponsor will document how the QMS
program will be changed to address deficiencies.
A policy, process, or procedure specifying how the sponsor will address proposed program changes (for programs that do not meet the minimum requirements as notified
by the responsible Flight Standards office) to the responsible Flight Standards office
and receive approval prior to their implementation.
A policy, process, or procedure specifying how the sponsor will document that at least
one FSTD is used within the sponsor’s FAA-approved flight training program for the
aircraft or set of aircraft at least once within the 12-month period following the initial
or upgrade evaluation conducted by the responsible Flight Standards office and at
least once within each subsequent 12-month period thereafter.
A policy, process, or procedure specifying how the sponsor will document that at least
one FSTD is used within the sponsor’s FAA-approved flight training program for the
aircraft or set of aircraft at least once within the 12-month period following the first
continuing qualification evaluation conducted by the responsible Flight Standards office and at least once within each subsequent 12-month period thereafter.
A policy, process, or procedure specifying how the sponsor will obtain an annual written
statement from a qualified pilot (who has flown the subject aircraft or set of aircraft
during the preceding 12-month period) that the performance and handling qualities of
the subject FSTD represents the subject aircraft or set of aircraft (within the normal
operating envelope). Required only if the subject FSTD is not used in the sponsor’s
FAA-approved flight training program for the aircraft or set of aircraft at least once
within the preceding 12-month period.
A policy, process, or procedure specifying how independent feedback (from persons recently completing training, evaluation, or obtaining flight experience; instructors and
check airmen using the FSTD for training, evaluation or flight experience sessions;
and FSTD technicians and maintenance personnel) will be received and addressed
by the sponsor regarding the FSTD and its operation.
A policy, process, or procedure specifying how and where the FSTD SOQ will be posted, or accessed by an appropriate terminal or display, in or adjacent to the FSTD.
A policy, process, or procedure specifying how the sponsor’s management representative (MR) is selected and identified by name to the responsible Flight Standards office.
A policy, process, or procedure specifying the MR authority and responsibility for the
following:
Monitoring the on-going qualification of assigned FSTDs to ensure all matters regarding
FSTD qualification are completed as required by this part.
Ensuring that the QMS is properly maintained by overseeing the QMS policies, practices, or procedures and modifying as necessary.
Regularly briefing sponsor’s management on the status of the on-going FSTD qualification program and the effectiveness and efficiency of the QMS.
Serving as the primary contact point for all matters between the sponsor and the responsible Flight Standards office regarding the qualification of assigned FSTDs.
Delegating the MR assigned duties to an individual at each of the sponsor’s locations,
as appropriate.
A policy, process, or procedure specifying how the sponsor will: ......................................
E1.2. .....................
E1.3. .....................
E1.4. .....................
E1.5. .....................
E1.6. .....................
E1.7. .....................
E1.8. .....................
E1.9. .....................
E1.10. ...................
E1.11. ...................
E1.11.a. ................
E1.11.b. ................
E1.11.c. ................
E1.11.d. ................
E1.11.e. ................
E1.12. ...................
E1.12.a. ................
E1.12.b. ................
E1.12.c. ................
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E1.13. ...................
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Ensure that the data made available to the responsible Flight Standards office (the validation data package) includes the aircraft manufacturer’s flight test data (or other
data approved by the responsible Flight Standards office) and all relevant data developed after the type certificate was issued (e.g., data developed in response to an airworthiness directive) if the data results from a change in performance, handling qualities, functions, or other characteristics of the aircraft that must be considered for flight
crewmember training, evaluation, or experience requirements.
Notify the responsible Flight Standards office within 10 working days of becoming aware
that an addition to or a revision of the flight related data or airplane systems related
data is available if this data is used to program or operate a qualified FSTD.
Maintain a liaison with the manufacturer of the aircraft being simulated (or with the holder of the aircraft type certificate for the aircraft being simulated if the manufacturer is
no longer in business), and if appropriate, with the person who supplied the aircraft
data package for the FFS for the purposes of receiving notification of data package
changes.
A policy, process, or procedure specifying how the sponsor will make available all special equipment and qualified personnel needed to conduct tests during initial, continuing qualification, or special evaluations.
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§ 60.5(a).
§ 60.5(b).
§ 60.5(b).
§ 60.5(c).
§ 60. 7(b)(5).
§ 60.7(b)(6).
§ 60.5(b)(7) and § 60.7(d)(2).
§ 60.9(b)(1).
§ 60.9(b)(2).
§ 60.9(c) and Appendix E, paragraph(d).
§ 60.9(c)(2), (3), and (4).
§ 60.13; QPS Appendices A, B,
C, and D.
§ 60.14.
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TABLE E1—FSTD QUALITY MANAGEMENT SYSTEM—Continued
QPS Requirement
E1.14. ...................
A policy, process, or procedure specifying how the sponsor will submit to the responsible Flight Standards office a request to evaluate the FSTD for initial qualification at
a specific level and simultaneously request the TPAA forward a concurring letter to
the responsible Flight Standards office; including how the MR will use qualified personnel to confirm the following:.
That the performance and handling qualities of the FSTD represent those of the aircraft
or set of aircraft within the normal operating envelope.
The FSTD systems and sub-systems (including the simulated aircraft systems) functionally represent those in the aircraft or set of aircraft.
The flight deck represents the configuration of the specific type or aircraft make, model,
and series aircraft being simulated, as appropriate.
A policy, process, or procedure specifying how the subjective and objective tests are
completed at the sponsor’s training facility for an initial evaluation.
A policy, process, or procedure specifying how the sponsor will update the QTG with
the results of the FAA-witnessed tests and demonstrations together with the results of
the objective tests and demonstrations after the responsible Flight Standards office
completes the evaluation for initial qualification.
A policy, process, or procedure specifying how the sponsor will make the MQTG available to the responsible Flight Standards office upon request.
A policy, process, or procedure specifying how the sponsor will apply to the responsible
Flight Standards office for additional qualification(s) to the SOQ.
E1.14.a. ................
E1.14.b. ................
E1.14.c. ................
E1.15. ...................
E1.16. ...................
E1.17. ...................
E1.18. ...................
E1.19. ...................
E1.20. ...................
E1.21. ...................
E1.22. ...................
E1.23. ...................
E1.23.a. ................
E1.23.b. ................
E1.24. ...................
E1.25. ...................
E1.26. ...................
E1.27. ...................
E1.28. ...................
E1.29. ...................
E1.29.a. ................
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E1.29.b. ................
E1.29.c. ................
E1.30 ....................
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A policy, process, or procedure specifying how the sponsor completes all required Attachment 2 objective tests each year in a minimum of four evenly spaced inspections
as specified in the appropriate QPS.
A policy, process, or procedure specifying how the sponsor completes and records a
functional preflight check of the FSTD within the preceding 24 hours of FSTD use, including a description of the functional preflight.
A policy, process, or procedure specifying how the sponsor schedules continuing qualification evaluations with the responsible Flight Standards office.
A policy, process, or procedure specifying how the sponsor ensures that the FSTD has
received a continuing qualification evaluation at the interval described in the MQTG.
A policy, process, or procedure describing how discrepancies are recorded in the FSTD
discrepancy log, including.
A description of how the discrepancies are entered and maintained in the log until corrected.
A description of the corrective action taken for each discrepancy, the identity of the individual taking the action, and the date that action is taken.
A policy, process, or procedure specifying how the discrepancy log is kept in a form
and manner acceptable to the Administrator and kept in or adjacent to the FSTD. (An
electronic log that may be accessed by an appropriate terminal or display in or adjacent to the FSTD is satisfactory.).
A policy, process, or procedure that requires each instructor, check airman, or representative of the Administrator conducting training, evaluation, or flight experience,
and each person conducting the preflight inspection, who discovers a discrepancy, including any missing, malfunctioning, or inoperative components in the FSTD, to write
or cause to be written a description of that discrepancy into the discrepancy log at the
end of the FSTD preflight or FSTD use session.
A policy, process, or procedure specifying how the sponsor will apply for initial qualification based on the final aircraft data package approved by the aircraft manufacturer if
operating an FSTD based on an interim qualification.
A policy, process, or procedure specifying how the sponsor determines whether an
FSTD change qualifies as a modification as defined in § 60.23.
A policy, process, or procedure specifying how the sponsor will ensure the FSTD is
modified in accordance with any FSTD Directive regardless of the original qualification basis.
A policy, process, or procedure specifying how the sponsor will notify the responsible
Flight Standards office and TPAA of their intent to use a modified FSTD and to ensure that the modified FSTD will not be used prior to:.
Twenty-one days since the sponsor notified the responsible Flight Standards office and
the TPAA of the proposed modification and the sponsor has not received any response from either the responsible Flight Standards office or the TPAA; or.
Twenty-one days since the sponsor notified the responsible Flight Standards office and
the TPAA of the proposed modification and one has approved the proposed modification and the other has not responded; or.
The FSTD successfully completing any evaluation the responsible Flight Standards office may require in accordance with the standards for an evaluation for initial qualification or any part thereof before the modified FSTD is placed in service.
A policy, process, or procedure specifying how, after an FSTD modification is approved
by the responsible Flight Standards office, the sponsor will:
19:49 Dec 08, 2022
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§ 60.15(a)–(d);
§ 60.15(b)(i);
§ 60.15(b)(iii).
§ 60.15(b);
§ 60.15(b)(ii);
§ 60.15(e).
§ 60.15(h).
§ 60.15(i).
§ 60.16(a);
§ 60.16(a)(1)(i); and
§ 60.16(a)(1)(ii).
§ 60.19(a)(1)
QPS Appendices A, B, C, or D.
§ 60.19(a)(2) QPS Appendices
A, B, C, or D.
§ 60.19(b)(2).
§ 60.19(b)(5)–(6).
§ 60.19(c);
§ 60.19(c)(2)(i);
§ 60.19(c)(2)(ii).
§ 60.19(c)(2)(iii).
§ 60.20.
§ 60.21(c).
§ 60.23(a)(1)–(2).
§ 60.23(b).
§ 60.23(c)(1)(i),(ii), and (iv).
§ 60.23(d)–(e).
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75845
TABLE E1—FSTD QUALITY MANAGEMENT SYSTEM—Continued
Information
(Reference)
Entry No.
QPS Requirement
E1.30.a. ................
Post an addendum to the SOQ until as the responsible Flight Standards office issues a
permanent, updated SOQ.
Update the MQTG with current objective test results and appropriate objective data for
each affected objective test or other MQTG section affected by the modification.
File in the MQTG the requirement from the responsible Flight Standards office to make
the modification and the record of the modification completion.
A policy, process, or procedure specifying how the sponsor will track the length of time
a component has been missing, malfunctioning, or inoperative (MMI), including:.
E1.30.b. ................
E1.30.c. ................
E1.31. ...................
E1.31.a. ................
E1.31.b. ................
E1.32. ...................
E1.33. ...................
E1.33.a. ................
E1.33.b. ................
E1.33.c. ................
E1.33.d. ................
E1.33.e. ................
E1.33.f. .................
E1.33.g. ................
E1.33.g.1. .............
E1.33.g.2. .............
E1.33.g.3. .............
E1.33.g.4. .............
How the sponsor will post a list of MMI components in or adjacent to the FSTD .............
How the sponsor will notify the responsible Flight Standards office if the MMI has not
been repaired or replaced within 30 days.*.
A policy, process, or procedure specifying how the sponsor will notify the responsible
Flight Standards office and how the sponsor will seek requalification of the FSTD if
the FSTD is moved and reinstalled in a different location.
A policy, process, or procedure specifying how the sponsor will maintain control of the
following: (The sponsor must specify how these records are maintained in plain language form or in coded form; but if the coded form is used, the sponsor must specify
how the preservation and retrieval of information will be conducted.).
The MQTG and each amendment ......................................................................................
A record of all FSTD modifications required by this part since the issuance of the original SOQ.
Results of the qualification evaluations (initial and each upgrade) since the issuance of
the original SOQ.
Results of the objective tests conducted in accordance with this part for a period of 2
years.
Results of the previous three continuing qualification evaluations, or the continuing qualification evaluations from the previous 2 years, whichever covers a longer period..
Comments obtained in accordance with § 60.9(b); .............................................................
A record of all discrepancies entered in the discrepancy log over the previous 2 years,
including the following:
A list of the components or equipment that were or are missing, malfunctioning, or inoperative.
The action taken to correct the discrepancy .......................................................................
The date the corrective action was taken ...........................................................................
The identity of the person determining that the discrepancy has been corrected. ............
§ 60.25(b)–(c), and
QPS Appendices
A, B, C, or D.
§ 60.27(a)(3).
§ 60.31.
* Note: If the sponsor has an approved discrepancy prioritization system, this item is satisfied by describing how discrepancies are prioritized,
what actions are taken, and how the sponsor will notify the responsible Flight Standards office if the MMI has not been repaired or replaced within the specified timeframe.
2307 Pub. L. 114–190, 130 Stat. 615 (49
U.S.C. 44703 note).
Appendix F to Part 60—[Amended]
45. In appendix F to part 60:
a. In section 2, remove the word
‘‘NSPM’’ and in its place add the words
‘‘responsible Flight Standards office’’
and remove the phrase ‘‘National
Simulator Program Manager (NSPM)—
the FAA manager responsible for the
overall administration and direction of
the National Simulator Program (NSP),
or a person approved by that FAA
manager.’’; and
■ b. In section 3, remove the phrase
‘‘NSPM National Simulator Program
Manager’’.
■
§ 61.58
[Amended]
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■
PART 61—CERTIFICATION: PILOTS,
FLIGHT INSTRUCTORS, AND GROUND
INSTRUCTORS
Jkt 259001
[Amended]
[Amended]
51. Amend § 67.409 in paragraph (a)
by removing the phrase ‘‘and in
duplicate’’ and by removing the
numbers ‘‘26080’’ and adding in their
place the numbers ‘‘25082’’.
■
PART 73—SPECIAL USE AIRSPACE
48. Amend § 61.313 in paragraph
(h)(1) by removing the word ‘‘light’’ and
adding in its place the word ‘‘flight’’.
■
PART 67—MEDICAL STANDARDS AND
CERTIFICATION
Authority: 49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g), 40103,
40113, 40120; E.O. 10854, 24 FR 9565, 3 CFR,
1959–1963 Comp., p. 389.
■
49. The authority citation for part 67
continues to read as follows:
■
Authority: 49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701–
44703, 44707, 44709–44711, 45102–45103,
45301–45303.
[Amended]
50. Amend § 67.4 in paragraph (b) by
removing the numbers ‘‘26200’’ and
adding in their place the numbers
‘‘25082’’.
■
Authority: 49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g), 40113,
44701–44703, 44707, 44709–44711, 44729,
44903, 45102–45103, 45301–45302; Sec.
19:49 Dec 08, 2022
§ 61.313
§ 67.4
46. The authority citation for part 61
continues to read as follows:
■
VerDate Sep<11>2014
47. Amend § 61.58 by removing
paragraphs (j) and (k).
■
§ 67.409
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52. The authority citation for part 73
continues to read as follows:
53. Amend § 73.19 by revising
paragraphs (a), (b) introductory text, and
(c) to read as follows:
■
§ 73.19
Reports by using agency.
(a) Each using agency must prepare a
report on the use of each restricted area
assigned thereto during any part of the
preceding 12-month period ended
September 30, and transmit it by the
following January 31 of each year to the
Manager, Operations Support Group in
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the ATO Service Center office of the
Federal Aviation Administration having
jurisdiction over the area in which the
restricted area is located, with a copy to
the Manager, Airspace Policy Group,
Federal Aviation Administration, 800
Independence Avenue SW, Washington,
DC 20591.
(b) In the report under this section the
using agency must:
*
*
*
*
*
(c) If it is determined that the
information submitted under paragraph
(b) of this section is not sufficient to
evaluate the nature and extent of the use
of a restricted area, the FAA may
request the using agency to submit
supplementary reports. Within 60 days
after receiving a request for additional
information, the using agency must
submit such information as the FAA
Service Center Operations Support
Group Manager considers appropriate.
Supplementary reports must be sent to
the FAA officials designated in
paragraph (a) of this section.
PART 91—GENERAL OPERATING AND
FLIGHT RULES
54. The authority citation for part 91
continues to read as follows:
■
Authority: 49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g), 40101,
40103, 40105, 40113, 40120, 44101, 44111,
44701, 44704, 44709, 44711, 44712, 44715,
44716, 44717, 44722, 46306, 46315, 46316,
46504, 46506–46507, 47122, 47508, 47528–
47531, 47534, Pub. L. 114–190, 130 Stat. 615
(49 U.S.C. 44703 note); articles 12 and 29 of
the Convention on International Civil
Aviation (61 Stat. 1180), (126 Stat. 11).
§ 91.9
[Amended]
55. Amend § 91.9 in paragraph (c) by
removing the phrase ‘‘part 45’’ and
adding in its place the phrase ‘‘part 45
or 48’’.
■
§ 91.157
[Amended]
[Amended]
59. Amend § 91.609 in paragraph (g)
by adding the words ‘‘49 CFR’’ before
both instances of the words ‘‘part 830’’.
■
§ 91.1001
[Amended]
60. Amend § 91.1001 in paragraph
(b)(9) by removing ‘‘(b)(1)(v)’’ and
adding in its place ‘‘(b)(5)(vi)’’.
■
PART 97—STANDARD INSTRUMENT
PROCEDURES
61. The authority citation for part 97
continues to read as follows:
■
Authority: 49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g), 40103,
40106, 40113, 40114, 40120, 44502, 44514,
44701, 44719, and 44721–44722.
§ 97.20
[Amended]
62. Amend § 97.20 in paragraph (b)
by:
■ a. Removing the phrase ‘‘FAA’s Rules
Docket (AGC–200) and at the National
Flight Data Center, 800 Independence
Avenue SW., Washington, DC 20590’’
and adding in its place the phrase ‘‘U.S.
Department of Transportation, Docket
Operations, 1200 New Jersey Avenue
SE, West Building Ground Floor, Room
W12–140, Washington, DC 20590, and
at Aeronautical Information Services,
1305 East-West Highway, Silver Spring,
MD 20910’’; and
■ b. Removing the phrase ‘‘call 202–
741–6030’’ and adding in its place the
words phrase ‘‘email: fedreg.legal@
nara.gov’’.
■
63. The authority citation for part 101
continues to read as follows:
■
Authority: 49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g), 40101
note, 40103, 40113–40114, 45302, 44502,
44514, 44701–44702, 44721, 46308.
[Amended]
64. Amend § 101.21 in paragraph (a)
by removing citation ‘‘§ 101.25(b)(7)(ii)’’
and adding in its place citation
‘‘§ 101.25(g)(2)’’.
■
PART 107—SMALL UNMANNED
AIRCRAFT SYSTEMS
[Amended]
57. Amend § 91.203 in paragraph
(a)(1) by removing the phrase ‘‘part 47’’
and adding in its place the phrase ‘‘part
47 or 48’’.
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■
§ 91.511
[Amended]
65. The authority citation for part 107
continues to read as follows:
■
Authority: 49 U.S.C. 106(f), 40101 note,
40103(b), 44701(a)(5), 44807.
66. Revise the heading for § 107.9 to
read as follows:
■
58. Amend § 91.511 in paragraph (a)
introductory text by adding the words
‘‘operating under this subpart’’ after the
word ‘‘person’’ in the first sentence.
■
VerDate Sep<11>2014
18:43 Dec 08, 2022
Jkt 259001
PART 121—OPERATING
REQUIREMENTS: DOMESTIC, FLAG,
AND SUPPLEMENTAL OPERATIONS
67. The authority citation for part 121
continues to read as follows:
■
Authority: 49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g), 40103,
40113, 40119, 41706, 42301 preceding note
added by Pub. L. 112–95, sec. 412, 126 Stat.
89, 44101, 44701–44702, 44705, 44709–
44711, 44713, 44716–44717, 44722, 44729,
44732; 46105; Pub. L. 111–216, 124 Stat.
2348 (49 U.S.C. 44701 note); Pub. L. 112–95
126 Stat 62 (49 U.S.C. 44732 note).
§ 121.310
§ 107.9
*
PO 00000
*
Safety event reporting.
*
Frm 00144
*
Fmt 4701
*
Sfmt 4700
[Amended]
68. Amend § 121.310 in paragraph
(b)(2)(iii) by removing the words
‘‘turbopropeller powered’’ and adding
in their place the words
‘‘turbopropeller-powered’’.
■
§ 121.311 Seats, safety belts, and shoulder
harnesses. [Amended]
69. Amend § 121.311 in paragraph
(b)(2)(ii)(C) introductory text by
removing the citation ‘‘(B)(2)(ii)(A)’’ and
adding in its place the citation
‘‘(b)(2)(ii)(A)’’.
■
§ 121.359
[Amended]
70. Amend § 121.359 in paragraph (h)
by adding the phrase ‘‘49 CFR’’ before
both instances of the phrase ‘‘part 830’’.
■
§ 121.391
[Amended]
71. Amend § 121.391 in paragraph (d)
by removing the word ‘‘exists’’ and
adding in its place the word ‘‘exits’’.
■
§ 121.523
PART 101—MOORED BALLOONS,
KITES, AMATEUR ROCKETS,
UNMANNED FREE BALLOONS
§ 101.21
56. Amend § 91.157 in paragraph
(b)(4) introductory text by adding the
word ‘‘less’’ after the phrase ‘‘6 degrees
or’’ and by removing the word ‘‘more’’
before the phrase ‘‘below the horizon’’.
■
§ 91.203
§ 91.609
[Amended]
72. Amend § 121.523 in paragraph (c)
by removing the second instance of the
word ‘‘duty’’ in the third sentence and
adding in its place the word ‘‘during’’.
■
§ 121.703
[Amended]
73. Amend § 121.703 in paragraph (f)
by removing the citation ‘‘14 CFR part
830’’ and adding in its place the citation
‘‘49 CFR part 830’’.
■
§ 121.909
[Amended]
74. Amend § 121.909 in paragraph (a)
by removing the phrase ‘‘made, through
the FAA office responsible for approval
of the certificate holder’s operations
specifications, to the Manager of the Air
Transportation Division’’ and adding in
its place the phrase ‘‘made to the
responsible Flight Standards office’’.
■
§ 121.923
[Amended]
75. Amend § 121.923 in paragraph
(a)(2) by removing the phrase ‘‘made,
through the FAA office directly
responsible for oversight of the training
provider, to the Manager of the Air
Transportation Division’’ and adding in
■
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Federal Register / Vol. 87, No. 236 / Friday, December 9, 2022 / Rules and Regulations
its place the phrase ‘‘made to the
responsible Flight Standards office’’.
76. Amend § 121.1115 by revising
table 2 to read as follows:
■
§ 121.1115
Limit of validity.
*
*
*
*
75847
*
TABLE 2—AIRPLANES EXCLUDED FROM § 26.21
Default LOV
[flight cycles (FC)
or flight hours
(FH)]
Airplane model
Airbus:
Caravelle .................................................................................................................................................................................
Avions Marcel Dassault:
Breguet Aviation Mercure 100C .............................................................................................................................................
15,000 FC/24,000
FH
20,000 FC/16,000
FH
Boeing:
Boeing 707 (–100 Series and –200 Series) ...........................................................................................................................
Boeing 707 (–300 Series and –400 Series) ...........................................................................................................................
Boeing 720 .............................................................................................................................................................................
Bombardier:
CL–44D4 and CL–44J ............................................................................................................................................................
BD–700 ...................................................................................................................................................................................
Bristol Aeroplane Company:
Britannia 305 ..........................................................................................................................................................................
British Aerospace Airbus, Ltd.:
BAC 1–11 (all models) ...........................................................................................................................................................
British Aerospace (Commercial Aircraft) Ltd.:
Armstrong Whitworth Argosy A.W. 650 Series 101 ...............................................................................................................
BAE Systems (Operations) Ltd.:
BAe 146–100A (all models) ...................................................................................................................................................
BAe 146–200–07 ....................................................................................................................................................................
BAe 146–200–07 Dev ............................................................................................................................................................
BAe 146–200–11 ....................................................................................................................................................................
BAe 146–200–07A .................................................................................................................................................................
BAe 146–200–11 Dev ............................................................................................................................................................
BAe 146–300 (all models) ......................................................................................................................................................
Avro 146–RJ70A (all models) ................................................................................................................................................
Avro 146–RJ85A and 146–RJ100A (all models) ...................................................................................................................
D & R Nevada, LLC:
Convair Model 22 ...................................................................................................................................................................
20,000 FC
20,000 FC
30,000 FC
20,000 FC
15,000 FC
10,000 FC
85,000 FC
20,000 FC
50,000
50,000
50,000
50,000
47,000
43,000
40,000
40,000
50,000
1,000 FC/1,000
FH
1,000 FC/1,000
FH
Convair Model 23M ................................................................................................................................................................
deHavilland Aircraft Company, Ltd.:
D.H. 106 Comet 4C ................................................................................................................................................................
Gulfstream:
GV ...........................................................................................................................................................................................
GV–SP ....................................................................................................................................................................................
Ilyushin Aviation Complex:
IL–96T .....................................................................................................................................................................................
8,000 FH
40,000 FH
40,000 FH
10,000 FC/30,000
FH
Lockhead:
300–50A01(USAF C 141A) ....................................................................................................................................................
*
*
*
*
§ 125.285
*
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PART 125— CERTIFICATION AND
OPERATIONS: AIRPLANES HAVING A
SEATING CAPACITY OF 20 OR MORE
PASSENGERS OR A MAXIMUM
PAYLOAD CAPACITY OF 6,000
POUNDS OR MORE; AND RULES
GOVERNING PERSONS ON BOARD
SUCH AIRCRAFT
[Amended]
78. Amend § 125.285 in paragraph (d)
by removing the citation ‘‘(c)(3)’’ and
adding in its place the citation ‘‘(c)(2)’’.
■
PART 129—OPERATIONS: FOREIGN
AIR CARRIERS AND FOREIGN
OPERATORS OF U.S.-REGISTERED
AIRCRAFT ENGAGED IN COMMON
CARRIAGE
77. The authority citation for part 125
continues to read as follows:
■
Authority: 49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g), 40113,
44701–44702, 44705, 44710–44711, 44713,
44716–44717, 44722.
Authority: 49 U.S.C. 1372, 40113, 40119,
44101, 44701–44702, 44705, 44709–44711,
■
VerDate Sep<11>2014
18:43 Dec 08, 2022
Jkt 259001
79. The authority citation for part 129
continues to read as follows:
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Fmt 4701
Sfmt 4700
FC
FC
FC
FC
FC
FC
FC
FC
FC
20,000 FC
44713, 44716–44717, 44722, 44901–44904,
44906, 44912, 46105, Pub. L. 107–71 sec.
104.
§ 129.18
[Amended]
80. Amend § 129.18 in paragraph (b)
introductory text by removing the word
‘‘or’’ and adding in its place the word
‘‘of’’.
■
81. Amend § 129.115 by revising table
2 to read as follows:
■
§ 129.115
*
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*
Limit of validity.
*
09DER2
*
*
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TABLE 2—AIRPLANES EXCLUDED FROM § 26.21
Default LOV [flight cycles (FC)
or flight hours (FH)]
Airplane model
Airbus:
Caravelle .............................................................................................................................................................
Avions Marcel Dassault:
Breguet Aviation Mercure 100C .........................................................................................................................
Boeing:
Boeing 707 (–100 Series and –200 Series) .......................................................................................................
Boeing 707 (–300 Series and –400 Series) .......................................................................................................
Boeing 720 .........................................................................................................................................................
Bombardier:
CL–44D4 and CL–44J ........................................................................................................................................
BD–700 ...............................................................................................................................................................
Bristol Aeroplane Company:
Britannia 305 ......................................................................................................................................................
British Aerospace Airbus, Ltd.:
BAC 1–11 (all models) .......................................................................................................................................
British Aerospace (Commercial Aircraft) Ltd.:
Armstrong Whitworth Argosy A.W. 650 Series 101 ...........................................................................................
BAE Systems (Operations) Ltd.:
BAe 146–100A (all models) ...............................................................................................................................
BAe 146–200–07 ................................................................................................................................................
BAe 146–200–07 Dev ........................................................................................................................................
BAe 146–200–11 ................................................................................................................................................
BAe 146–200–07A .............................................................................................................................................
BAe 146–200–11 Dev ........................................................................................................................................
BAe 146–300 (all models) ..................................................................................................................................
Avro 146–RJ70A (all models) ............................................................................................................................
Avro 146–RJ85A and 146–RJ100A (all models) ...............................................................................................
D & R Nevada, LLC:
Convair Model 22 ...............................................................................................................................................
Convair Model 23M ............................................................................................................................................
deHavilland Aircraft Company, Ltd.:
D.H. 106 Comet 4C ............................................................................................................................................
Gulfstream:
GV .......................................................................................................................................................................
GV–SP ................................................................................................................................................................
Ilyushin Aviation Complex:
IL–96T .................................................................................................................................................................
Lockheed:
300–50A01 (USAF C 141A) ...............................................................................................................................
*
*
*
*
Authority: 49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g), 40113,
44701–44703, 44707, 44709, 44711, 45102–
45103, 45301–45302.
*
PART 135—OPERATING
REQUIREMENTS: COMMUTER AND
ON DEMAND OPERATIONS AND
RULES GOVERNING PERSONS ON
BOARD SUCH AIRCRAFT
85. Amend appendix I to part 141 by
revising paragraph 4.(a)(3)(ii) and
adding paragraphs 4.(i)(2)(i) and (ii) to
read as follows:
■
82. The authority citation for part 135
continues to read as follows:
■
Authority: 49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g), 40113,
41706, 44701–44702, 44705, 44709, 44711–
44713, 44715–44717, 44722, 44730, 45101–
45105; Public Law 112–95, 126 Stat. 58 (49
U.S.C. 44730).
§ 135.415
[Amended]
83. Amend § 135.415 in paragraph (f)
by adding the words ‘‘49 CFR’’ before
the words ‘‘part 830’’.
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■
PART 141—PILOT SCHOOLS
84. The authority citation for part 141
continues to read as follows:
■
VerDate Sep<11>2014
18:43 Dec 08, 2022
Jkt 259001
Appendix I to Part 141—Additional
Aircraft Category and/or Class Rating
Course
*
*
*
*
*
4. Flight Training
(a) * * *
(3) * * *
(ii) Ten hours of training in a complex
airplane, a turbine-powered airplane, or a
technically advanced airplane that meets the
requirements of § 61.129(j), or any
combination thereof. The airplane must be
appropriate to land or sea for the rating
sought;
*
*
*
*
*
(i) * * *
(2) * * *
(i) Five training flights in a glider with a
certificated flight instructor on the launch/
tow procedures approved for the course and
PO 00000
Frm 00146
Fmt 4701
Sfmt 4700
15,000 FC/24,000 FH
20,000 FC/16,000 FH
20,000 FC
20,000 FC
30,000 FC
20,000 FC
15,000 FC
10,000 FC
85,000 FC
20,000 FC
50,000
50,000
50,000
50,000
47,000
43,000
40,000
40,000
50,000
FC
FC
FC
FC
FC
FC
FC
FC
FC
1,000 FC/1,000 FH
1,000 FC/1,000 FH
8,000 FH
40,000 FH
40,000 FH
10,000 FC/30,000 FH
20,000 FC
on the appropriate approved areas of
operation listed in appendix D of part 141,
paragraph 4.(d)(6); and
(ii) Three training flights in a glider with
a certificated flight instructor in preparation
for the practical test within 2 calendar
months preceding the date of the test.
*
*
*
*
*
PART 183—REPRESENTATIVES OF
THE ADMINISTRATOR
86. The authority citation for part 183
continues to read as follows:
■
Authority: 31 U.S.C. 9701; 49 U.S.C.
106(f), 106(g), 40113, 44702, 45303.
§ 183.11
[Amended]
87. Amend § 183.11 in paragraph (d)
by:
■ a. Removing the words ‘‘Associate
Administrator for Air Traffic’’ and
adding in their place the words
‘‘Associate Administrator for Aviation
Safety’’; and
■
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Federal Register / Vol. 87, No. 236 / Friday, December 9, 2022 / Rules and Regulations
temporary control tower operator
certificates to qualified applicants.
*
*
*
*
*
b. Adding the word ‘‘Designated’’
before the phrase ‘‘Air Traffic Control
Tower Operator Examiners’’.
■ 88. Amend § 183.25 by revising
paragraph (c) to read as follows:
■
§ 183.25
PART 440—FINANCIAL
RESPONSIBILITY
Technical personnel examiners.
*
*
*
*
(c) A designated air traffic control
tower operator examiner may—
(1) Accept applications for, and
conduct, written and practical tests
necessary for issuing control tower
operator certificates under part 65 of
this chapter; and
(2) In the discretion of the Associate
Administrator for Aviation Safety issue
lotter on DSK11XQN23PROD with RULES2
*
VerDate Sep<11>2014
18:43 Dec 08, 2022
Jkt 259001
89. The authority citation for part 440
continues to read as follows:
■
Authority: 51 U.S.C. 50901–50923.
90. Amend § 440.19 by adding
paragraphs (a)(1) and (2) to read as
follows:
■
§ 440.19 United States payment of excess
third-party liability claims.
(1) Exceeds the amount of insurance
required under § 440.9(b); and
(2) Is not more than $1,500,000,000
(as adjusted for inflation occurring after
January 1, 1989) above that amount.
*
*
*
*
*
Issued under authority provided by 49
U.S.C. 106(f), 44701(a), and 44703 in
Washington, DC, on October 21, 2022.
Brandon Roberts,
Executive Director, Office of Rulemaking.
[FR Doc. 2022–23327 Filed 12–8–22; 8:45 am]
BILLING CODE 4910–13–P
(a) * * *
PO 00000
Frm 00147
Fmt 4701
Sfmt 9990
75849
E:\FR\FM\09DER2.SGM
09DER2
Agencies
[Federal Register Volume 87, Number 236 (Friday, December 9, 2022)]
[Rules and Regulations]
[Pages 75704-75849]
From the Federal Register Online via the Government Publishing Office [www.gpo.gov]
[FR Doc No: 2022-23327]
[[Page 75703]]
Vol. 87
Friday,
No. 236
December 9, 2022
Part II
Department of Transportation
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Federal Aviation Administration
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14 CFR Parts 21, 23, 25, et al.
Miscellaneous Amendments; Final Rule
Federal Register / Vol. 87, No. 236 / Friday, December 9, 2022 /
Rules and Regulations
[[Page 75704]]
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DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION
Federal Aviation Administration
14 CFR Parts 21, 23, 25, 29, 33, 36, 47, 49, 60, 61, 67, 73, 91,
97, 101, 107, 121, 125, 129, 135, 141, 183, and 440
[Docket No. FAA-2022-1355; Amdt. Nos. 21-106, 23-65, 25-146, 29-58, 33-
1, 36-32, 47-32, 49-11, 60-7, 61-151, 67-22, 73-1, 91-366, 97-1339,
101-9, 107-10, 121-387, 125-72, 129-54, 135-143, 141-24, 183-18, 440-6]
RIN 2120-AL53
Miscellaneous Amendments
AGENCY: Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), Department of
Transportation (DOT).
ACTION: Final rule; technical amendments.
-----------------------------------------------------------------------
SUMMARY: This technical amendment contains non-substantive corrections
to address typographical errors, editorial errors, and outdated or
incorrect references in various parts of FAA regulations.
DATES: Effective December 9, 2022.
FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT: For questions concerning this action,
contact Jesse Holston, Office of Rulemaking, ARM-200, Federal Aviation
Administration, 800 Independence Ave. SW, Washington, DC 20591;
telephone (202) 267-0810; email [email protected].
SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:
I. Good Cause for Immediate Adoption Without Prior Notice
Section 553(b)(3)(B) of the Administrative Procedure Act (APA) (5
U.S.C. 551 et seq.) authorizes agencies to dispense with notice and
comment procedures for rules when the agency for ``good cause'' finds
that those procedures are ``impracticable, unnecessary, or contrary to
the public interest.'' Under this section, an agency, upon finding good
cause, may issue a final rule without seeking comment prior to the
rulemaking.
Additionally, the APA requires agencies to delay the effective date
of regulations for 30 days after publication, unless the agency finds
good cause to make the regulations effective sooner. See, 5 U.S.C.
553(d). This action makes technical amendments that affect the clarity
of existing regulations. These amendments will not impose any
additional substantive restrictions or requirements on the persons
affected by these regulations. Because this action merely makes
technical amendments, the FAA finds that notice and public comment
under 5 U.S.C. 553(b) is unnecessary. For the same reason, the FAA
finds that good cause exists under 5 U.S.C. 553(d) for making this rule
effective in less than 30 days.
II. Authority for This Rulemaking
The FAA's authority to issue rules is found in title 49 of the
United States Code. Subtitle I, section 106 describes the authority of
the FAA Administrator. This rulemaking is promulgated under the
authority described in 49 U.S.C. 106(f) and (g), which establish the
authority of the Administrator to promulgate and revise regulations and
rules related to aviation safety. This regulation is within the scope
of that authority because the rule makes non-substantive edits to
regulations related to aviation safety promulgated under authorities
listed in 49 U.S.C. 106(g).
Portions of this rulemaking are also authorized under 51 U.S.C.
50903(c), which authorizes the promulgation of regulations related to
commercial space launches and reentries.
III. Technical Amendments
The FAA is making technical amendments to parts 21, 23, 25, 29, 33,
36, 47, 49, 60, 61, 67, 73, 91, 97, 101, 107, 121, 125, 129, 135, 141,
183, and 440 of those regulations found in Title 14 of the Code of
Federal Regulations. All amendments are non-substantive and correct
typographical errors, editorial errors, and outdated or incorrect
references. The following is a summary of the various amendments to
each of the above-listed parts.
Part 21
In Sec. 21.619(a), permits the manufacturer of an article under a
Technical Standard Order (TSO) authorization to make a minor design
change without FAA approval, so long as the manufacturer forwards to
the FAA any revised data necessary for compliance with the application
requirements in Sec. 21.603. However, the reference to Sec. 21.603(b)
is incorrect, as that section addresses the use of open brackets to
identify minor changes. The correct reference is to Sec. 21.603(a),
which contains the requirements to include a statement of conformity
and required technical data in an application for TSO authorization.
Part 23
In the following sections, the FAA corrects minor typographical and
grammatical errors: Sec. Sec. 23.2115(c), 23.2165(a)(1)(i),
23.2200(d), 23.2315(a), 23.2440(c)(2), 23.2520(a), and 23.2620(b).
In Sec. 23.2120(a), the word ``configuration'' is removed and
replaced with the word ``configuration(s)'' to clarify that there could
be multiple initial climb configurations.
In Sec. 23.2255(c), the word ``aircraft'' is removed and replaced
with the word ``airplane'' for consistency with this section and part
23, which sets forth airworthiness standards for normal category
airplanes.
In Sec. 23.2400(b), the word ``FAA'' is removed and replaced with
the word ``Administrator'' to align with 49 U.S.C. 44704, which
identifies that the Administrator issues type certificates. In Sec.
23.2500(b), the change clarifies that the reference to paragraph (a)
refers to paragraph (a) of Sec. 23.2500. Additional updates are made
to punctuation for clarity.
In Sec. 23.2600(b), the term ``qualified flightcrew'' is removed
and replaced with ``flightcrew members'' to clarify that the term
``qualified flightcrew'' was not intended to have a different meaning
than the term ``flightcrew member'' as defined in 14 CFR part 1.\1\
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
\1\ See 81 FR 96572 (Dec. 30, 2016).
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
Part 25
In Sec. 25.471(b)(2), the reference to paragraph (c)(1) of Sec.
25.1583 is no longer accurate because Sec. 25.1583 was subsequently
revised, and the paragraph numbering changed.\2\ Thus, Sec.
25.471(b)(2) is corrected to refer to Sec. 25.1583(c)(2).
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
\2\ See 43 FR 4302 (Jan. 16, 1978).
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
In Sec. 25.525(b), the reference to ``Sec. 25.533(b)'' is
incorrect and is replaced with a reference to ``25.533(c)''. Section
25.533(b) provides local pressures rather than distributed pressures,
which are the proper pressures to calculate distributed loads as
described in Sec. 25.525(b). The distributed pressures are provided in
Sec. 25.533(c).
In Sec. 25.535(d), the number ``3.25'' is incorrect and is
replaced with the number ``0.25'' as originally stated in the final
rule.\3\
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
\3\ See 29 FR 18289 (Dec. 24, 1964).
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
In Sec. 25.571, the FAA corrects a minor typographical error.
In Sec. 25.903(a)(3)(ii), the effective date of Sec. 33.68 is
corrected to read ``March 26, 1984'' because that is the effective date
of Amendment 33-10.
In Sec. 25.903(a)(3)(iii), the effective date of Sec. 33.68 is
corrected to read ``October 31, 1974'' because that is the effective
date of Amendment 33-6.
In Sec. 25.1517(b), the term ``VMO--35 KTAS'' is removed and
replaced with ``VMO minus 35 KTAS'' to clarify that
[[Page 75705]]
the ``-'' symbol was logically intended to be a minus sign and not a
dash.
Part 29
In Sec. 29.1557(d), the cross reference to Sec. 29.811(h)(2),
which does not exist, is replaced with the correct cross reference,
Sec. 29.811(f)(2).
Part 33
In Sec. 33.97(a), a comma is added between the words ``endurance''
and ``calibration'' to clarify that both endurance tests and
calibration tests are required to evaluate thrust reversers and are
separate tests.
Part 36
In Sec. 36.1(a)(4), a spelling error is corrected.
Part 47
Section 47.9(b) differentiates aircraft registered prior to January
1, 1980 and aircraft registered after 1980. As the aircraft
registration dates for all aircraft currently on the registry are after
January 1, 1980, this differentiation is no longer necessary. The FAA
has revised Sec. 47.9(b), (b)(1) and (b)(2) to remove the reference to
January 1, 1980 and make conforming changes resulting from the removal
of such reference.
In Sec. 47.19, the phrase ``must be mailed to the Registry,
Department of Transportation, Post Office Box 25504, Oklahoma City,
Oklahoma 73125-0504, or delivered to the Registry at 6425 S. Denning
Ave., Oklahoma City, Oklahoma 73169,'' is removed and replaced with,
``must be delivered to the Registry by a means acceptable to the
Administrator,'' to conform to the Registry's current practice of
accepting digitally signed documents and communications by email as an
alternative to delivery of hard copies, as well as submission of
documents and communications by other means acceptable to the
Administrator.
Part 49
In Sec. 49.1(a)(2), the horsepower threshold for aircraft engines
incorrectly references 750 and is corrected to 550 consistent with
Sec. 49.41.\4\
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\4\ See 70 FR 239 (Jan. 3, 2005).
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
Section 49.11 is revised to conform to the Registry's current
practice of accepting digitally signed documents by email in addition
to accepting delivery of hard copies or acceptance of delivery by other
means.
In Sec. 49.13(a), the phrase ``must be in ink'' is removed and
replaced with ``must be signed in a manner acceptable to the
Administrator,'' to conform to the Registry's continued acceptance of
digital signatures.\5\
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\5\ Notice of Policy Clarification for Acceptance of Documents
With Digital Signatures by the Federal Aviation Administration
Aircraft Registry, 81 FR 23348, (April 20, 2016).
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
Part 60
Part 60 has multiple references to the ``National Simulator Program
Manager'', ``NSPM'', and ``NSP''. This office and manager position no
longer exist by those names due to the reorganization of the Air
Transportation Division. Thus, this technical amendment updates all of
these references by deleting or replacing them with ``responsible
Flight Standards office'', ``Flight Standards Service'', or ``FAA'', as
appropriate. Further, references to outdated websites, references to
outdated contact information, and incorrect numbering are corrected.
The following table identifies the nomenclature changes in 14 CFR
part 60 to account for the reorganization of the Air Transportation
Division:
Table 1--Revised Nomenclature and Affected Sections of 14 CFR Part 60
------------------------------------------------------------------------
New nomenclature/ Affected sections of
Old nomenclature/current CFR revision 14 CFR part 60
------------------------------------------------------------------------
National Simulator Program responsible Flight Sec. 60.5,
Manager (NSPM). Standards office. Attachment 6 to
Appendix A to Part
60.
NSPM........................ responsible Flight Sec. 60.5, Sec.
Standards office. 60.7, Sec. 60.9,
Sec. 60.11, Sec.
60.13, Sec.
60.14, Sec.
60.15, Sec.
60.16, Sec.
60.17, Sec.
60.19, Sec.
60.21, Sec.
60.23, Sec.
60.25, Sec.
60.27, Sec.
60.29, Sec.
60.31, Sec.
60.37, Appendix A
to Part 60,
Attachment 1 to
Appendix A to Part
60, Attachment 2 to
Appendix A to Part
60, Attachment 3 to
Appendix A to Part
60, Attachment 5 to
Appendix A to Part
60, Attachment 6 to
Appendix A to Part
60, Appendix B to
Part 60, Attachment
1 to Appendix B to
Part 60, Attachment
2 to Appendix B to
Part 60, Appendix C
to Part 60,
Attachment 1 to
Appendix C to Part
60, Attachment 2 to
Appendix C to Part
60, Attachment 3 to
Appendix C to Part
60, Appendix D to
Part 60, Attachment
1 to Appendix D to
Part 60, Attachment
2 to Appendix D to
Part 60, Attachment
3 to Appendix D to
Part 60, Appendix E
to Part 60,
Appendix F to Part
60.
NSPM........................ the responsible Sec. 60.19,
Flight Standards Attachment 2 to
office. Appendix A to Part
60, Attachment 2 to
Appendix C to Part
60.
an NSPM..................... a responsible Flight Sec. 60.19.
Standards office.
NSPM........................ Flight Standards Appendix A to Part
Service. 60, Attachment 2 to
Appendix A to Part
60, Appendix C to
Part 60, Appendix D
to Part 60.
NSPM, or a person assigned responsible Flight Appendix A to Part
by the NSPM. Standards office. 60, Appendix C to
Part 60.
an NSP pilot................ a pilot from the Appendix A to Part
responsible Flight 60, Appendix B to
Standards office. Part 60, Appendix C
to Part 60,
Appendix D to Part
60.
[[Page 75706]]
NSPM or visit the NSPM Web responsible Flight Appendix A to Part
site. Standards office. 60, Appendix B to
Part 60, Appendix C
to Part 60,
Appendix D to Part
60.
FAA FSDO.................... responsible Flight Appendix A to Part
Standards office. 60, Appendix B to
Part 60, Appendix C
to Part 60,
Appendix D to Part
60.
NSPM, or a person or persons responsible Flight Appendix B to Part
assigned by the NSPM. Standards office. 60, Appendix D to
Part 60.
NSP......................... FAA................. Attachment 2 to
Appendix B to Part
60.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
In addition to the above nomenclature changes, this technical
amendment makes several other minor technical changes to 14 CFR part
60.
In appendices A, B, C, and D to part 60, paragraph 1. Introduction,
the following changes are made to reflect the reorganization of the Air
Transportation Division:
Removed paragraph b.;
Removed the last sentence of paragraph c.;
Added ``Flightcrew Member'' after ``as amended,'' in
appendix A, paragraph d.(12); appendix B, paragraph d.(12); appendix C,
paragraph d.(10); and appendix D, paragraph d.(12); and
Removed the phrase ``FAA Airman Testing Standards for the
Airline Transport Pilot Certificate, Type Ratings, Commercial Pilot
Certificate, and Instrument Ratings.'' and replaced with ``FAA Airman
Certification Standards and Practical Test Standards for Airline
Transport Pilot, Type Ratings, Commercial Pilot, and Instrument
Ratings.'' in appendix A, paragraph d.(27); appendix B, paragraph
d.(26); appendix C, paragraph d.(25); and appendix D, paragraph d.(28).
``NSP'' is removed from the following places to reflect the
reorganization of the Air Transportation Division:
Appendix A;
Attachment 3 to appendix A;
Appendix B;
Attachment 3 to appendix B;
Appendix C;
Attachment 3 to appendix C;
Appendix D; and
Attachment 3 to appendix D.
In attachment 3 to appendix A, 2. Discussion, the last sentence of
paragraph g. is removed to reflect the reorganization of the Air
Transportation Division.
In the following Figures, the letter heading addressed to ``Edward
D. Cook'' is removed because it is outdated contact information that is
no longer accurate:
Attachment 4 to appendix A, Figure A4A; and
Attachment 4 to appendix B, Figure B4A.
In the following Figures, ``FAA National Simulator Program'' is
removed to reflect the reorganization of the Air Transportation
Division:
Attachment 4 to appendix A, Figure A4C;
Attachment 4 to appendix B, Figure B4C;
Attachment 4 to appendix C, Figure C4C; and
Attachment 4 to appendix D, Figure D4C.
In the following Figures, ``Manager, National Simulator Program''
is removed to reflect the reorganization of the Air Transportation
Division:
Attachment 4 to appendix A, Figure A4D;
Attachment 4 to appendix B, Figure B4D;
Attachment 4 to appendix C, Figure C4D; and
Attachment 4 to appendix D, Figure D4D.
In the following Figures, ``National Simulator Program'' and
``NSPM'' are removed and replaced with ``FAA'' to reflect the
reorganization of the Air Transportation Division:
Attachment 4 to appendix A, Figure A4E;
Attachment 4 to appendix B, Figure B4E;
Attachment 4 to appendix C, Figure C4E; and
Attachment 4 to appendix D, Figure D4E.
``NSP's'' is removed from attachment 6 to appendix A to reflect the
reorganization of the Air Transportation Division.
``NSPM'' is removed from the second sentence of appendix B to
reflect the reorganization of the Air Transportation Division.
In attachment 3 to appendix C, the last sentence of the first
paragraph h. is removed to reflect the reorganization of the Air
Transportation Division. Also, the second paragraph h. is redesignated
as paragraph i. and paragraph i. is redesignated as paragraph j.
In the following Figures, the letter heading addressed to ``Charles
A. Spillner'' is removed because it is outdated contact information
that is no longer accurate:
Attachment 4 to appendix C, figure C4A; and
Attachment 4 to appendix D, figure D4A.
In appendix D, 17. Modifications to FTDs, an incorrect reference is
updated.
In appendix E, paragraph i.(4) is removed and ``NSPM'' is removed
from paragraphs h.(1) and h.(2) to reflect the reorganization of the
Air Transportation Division.
In appendix F, the definition for ``National Simulator Program
Manager (NSPM)'' is removed and the abbreviation ``NSPM'' is removed to
reflect the reorganization of the Air Transportation Division.
In the Flight Simulation Training Device Qualification Standards
for Extended Envelope and Adverse Weather Event Training Tasks Final
Rule, the FAA removed Figure A4H Sample Continuing Qualification
Evaluation Requirements Page from attachment 4 to appendix A because
the final rule amendment to Sec. 60.19 made the figure obsolete and
unnecessary. This same figure should have also been removed from
Appendices B-D for the same reason. Thus, the following changes are
made:
In attachment 4 to appendix B, figure B4H is removed and
the table of contents is updated accordingly;
In attachment 4 to appendix C, figure C4H is removed and
the table of contents is updated accordingly; and
In attachment 4 to appendix D, figure D4H is removed and
the table of contents is updated accordingly.
In the Flight Simulation Training Device Qualification Standards
for Extended Envelope and Adverse Weather Event Training Tasks Final
Rule, the FAA added Level 7 FTDs to appendix B. However, the first
sentence in this appendix does not include Level 7. Thus, in the first
sentence of appendix B, the phrase ``or Level 6'' is replaced with
``Level 6, or Level 7''.
[[Page 75707]]
Part 61
In Sec. 61.58, paragraphs (j) and (k) are removed because the
October 12, 2012, time limitation has passed and accordingly, those
paragraphs are now obsolete.
The FAA also corrects a spelling error in Sec. 61.313(h).
Part 67
A mailing address is updated in Sec. Sec. 67.4 and 67.409(a).
Additionally, in Sec. 67.409(a) a requirement that a duplicate
document be submitted is removed because these documents are no longer
reviewed in hardcopy.
Part 73
This technical amendment updates office titles in Sec. 73.19(a)
and (c) to reflect reorganization within the FAA. It also updates the
FAA headquarters address in Sec. 73.19(a) and replaces the word
``shall'' with ``must'' in Sec. 73.19(a), (b) and (c).
Part 91
In Sec. 91.9(c), ``or part 48'' is added to indicate that an
aircraft operating under part 91 may also be marked under part 48. This
change aligns this provision with Sec. 91.203(a)(2).
In Sec. 91.157(b)(4), aimed to specifically qualify daytime in
Alaska because the time between sunrise and sunset is often a longer
duration of time than in most of the United States. However, in a 1991
final rule, the FAA stated that daytime in Alaska is ``when the sun is
6[deg] or more above the horizon''. 56 FR 65660 (Dec. 17, 1991).
According to the Air Almanac, issued annually by the United States
Naval Observatory, civil twilight (daytime) begins and ends when the
sun is 6 degrees below the horizon. As such, civil twilight (daytime)
is any time when the sun is 6 degrees or less below the horizon. In
1995, the FAA issued a technical amendment to correct the regulatory
text to accurately capture daytime in Alaska amending it to state
``when the sun is 6 degrees or more below the horizon''. 60 FR 66874
(Dec. 27, 1995). However, this correction was inaccurate as more than 6
degrees below the horizon is nighttime. This technical amendment is
meant to achieve the original intent to refer to daytime in Alaska by
amending the language to read ``when the sun is 6 degrees or less below
the horizon''.
In Sec. 91.203(a)(1), ``or part 48'' is added to indicate that an
aircraft operating under part 91 may also be marked under part 48. This
change aligns this provision with Sec. 91.203(a)(2).
In Sec. 91.511(a), the phrase ``operating under this subpart'' is
added to clarify who is subject to the prohibition.
In Sec. 91.609(g), ``49 CFR'' is added prior to ``part 830''
everywhere that it appears to clarify which title of the CFR is being
referenced.
In Sec. 91.1001(b)(9), the reference to ``paragraph (b)(1)(v)'' is
incorrect because no such paragraph exists. The reference to
``paragraph (b)(1)(v)'' is replaced with the correct reference to
``paragraph (b)(5)(vi)'', which addresses multi-year program
agreements.
Part 97
In Sec. 97.20(b), the FAA updates a mailing address and email
address.
Part 101
In Sec. 101.21(a), the reference to paragraph ``Sec.
101.25(b)(7)(ii)'' is removed and replaced with the correct reference,
``Sec. 101.25(g)(2)'', due to a technical amendment to Sec.
101.25.\6\
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
\6\ See 74 FR 38092 (July 31, 2009).
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
Part 107
In Sec. 107.9, the word ``accident'' in the title is removed and
replaced with the words ``safety event'' to eliminate confusion and to
distinguish it from the statutory authority afforded exclusively to the
National Transportation Safety Board published in 49 U.S.C. 1101.
Part 121
In Sec. Sec. 121.310(b)(2)(iii), 121.311(b)(2)(ii)(C), 121.391(d),
Sec. 121.523(c), the FAA corrects typographical, grammatical, and
spelling errors.
In Sec. Sec. 121.359(h) and 121.703(f), ``49 CFR'' is added prior
to ``part 830'' everywhere that it appears to clarify which title of
the CFR is being referenced.
In Sec. 121.909(a) and Sec. 121.923(a)(2), the phrase ``through
the FAA office responsible for approval of the certificate holder's
operations specifications, to the Manager of the Air Transportation
Division'' is removed and replaced with ``to the responsible Flight
Standards office'' to reflect the reorganization in the Air
Transportation Division.
In Sec. 121.1115(f), Table 2, Bombardier: BD-700, the acronym
``FH'', which stood for flight hours, is removed because it is
incorrect and it is replaced with the correct acronym, ``FC'', which
stands for flight cycles. Bombardier submitted information to the FAA
to establish that the default limit of validity is 15,000 flight cycles
rather than flight hours for the Bombardier Model BD-700; however, the
FAA inadvertently used the acronym ``FH'' when listing the default LOV
for the Bombardier Model BD-700 in Table 2.
Part 125
In Sec. 125.285(d), the reference to ``(c)(3)'' is removed because
it is incorrect and it is replaced with the correct reference,
``(c)(2)'', which prescribes the observation of landings.
Part 129
The FAA corrects a spelling error in Sec. 129.18(b). In Sec.
129.115(f), Table 2, Bombardier: BD-700, the FAA removes the acronym
``FH'', which stood for flight hours because it is incorrect and it is
replaced with the correct acronym, ``FC'', which stands for flight
cycles. Bombardier submitted information to the FAA to establish that
the default limit of validity is 15,000 flight cycles rather than
flight hours for the Bombardier Model BD-700; however, the FAA
inadvertently used the acronym ``FH'' when listing the default LOV for
the Bombardier Model BD-700 in Table 2.
Part 135
In Sec. 135.415(f), ``49 CFR'' is added prior to ``part 830'' to
clarify which title of the CFR is being referenced.
Part 141
In a final rule published in the Federal Register on August 21,
2009 (74 FR 42499), Pilot, Flight Instructor, and Pilot School
Certification, the FAA revised paragraph 4 of appendix I to 14 CFR part
141, to change the presentation of information in response to confusion
about what is the amount of ground and flight training required for an
add-on category and/or class rating course. In the process of changing
the presentation of this information, the FAA inadvertently omitted the
existing training requirements for an additional glider category rating
for holders of a commercial pilot certificate. By correcting this
typographical error, this technical amendment provides these existing
requirements by specifying the required contents of such training
programs.
In a final rule published in the Federal Register on June 27, 2018
(83 FR 30232), Regulatory Relief: Aviation Training Devices; Pilot
Certification, Training, and Pilot Schools; and Other Provisions, the
FAA inadvertently failed to revise part 141 appendix I, to allow the
use of a technically advanced airplane (TAA) to satisfy the experience
requirements, for those pilot applicants who would add category and
class (specifically, Airplane Single Engine) to an existing Commercial
Pilot Certificate. The original proposal was to provide relief to all
regulated entities providing flight training for the Commercial Pilot
Certificate with single engine land
[[Page 75708]]
rating under any applicable rule part, including part 141, appendix I.
This was an inadvertent omission and has caused some confusion and
concern within the flight training community. With that understanding,
the FAA is providing a technical amendment to paragraph 4.(a)(3)(ii) of
appendix I to part 141 to otherwise permit the use of a complex
airplane, turbine-powered airplane, or a technically advanced airplane
to meet the experience requirement.
Part 183
The FAA is making updates to part 183 which are necessary to
reflect organizational changes within the FAA. The Administrator
established the Air Traffic Safety Oversight Service (AOV) within the
Aviation Safety Organization (AVS) to provide independent oversight of
the Air Traffic Organization in 2004. In 2006, the Administrator gave
AOV the authority to manage the Control Tower Operator Certification
Program but did not update part 183 to reflect this organizational
change. Due to these changes, the FAA is revising Sec. Sec. 183.11(d)
and 183.25(c)(2) to replace ``the Associate Administrator for Air
Traffic'' with ``the Associate Administrator for Aviation Safety''.
Additionally, Sec. Sec. 183.11(d) and 183.25(c) will specify that the
air traffic control tower operator examiner is ``designated'' to be
consistent with the terminology used for other positions involving
delegated authority under 49 U.S.C. 44702(d).
Part 440
In Sec. 440.19, this technical amendment restores paragraphs
(a)(1) and (a)(2) which were inadvertently deleted from this section in
a 2012 technical amendment.\7\
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
\7\ Correction of Authority Citations for Commercial Space
Transportation, 77 FR 20531, April 5, 2012.
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
IV. Regulatory Notices and Analyses
Federal agencies consider impacts of regulatory actions under a
variety of executive orders and other requirements. First, Executive
Order 12866 and Executive Order 13563 direct that each Federal agency
shall propose or adopt a regulation only upon a reasoned determination
that the benefits of the intended regulation justify the costs. Second,
the Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980 (Pub. L. 96-354) requires
agencies to analyze the economic impact of regulatory changes on small
entities. Third, the Trade Agreements Act (Pub. L. 96-39) prohibits
agencies from setting standards that create unnecessary obstacles to
the foreign commerce of the United States. Fourth, the Unfunded
Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4) requires agencies to
prepare a written assessment of the costs, benefits, and other effects
of proposed or final rules that include a Federal mandate that may
result in the expenditure by State, local, and tribal governments, in
the aggregate, or by the private sector, of $100,000,000 or more
(adjusted annually for inflation) in any one year. The current
threshold after adjustment for inflation is $165,000,000, using the
most current (2021) Implicit Price Deflator for the Gross Domestic
Product. This portion of the preamble summarizes the FAA's analysis of
the economic impacts of this rule.
In conducting these analyses, the FAA has determined that this
rule: will result in benefits that justify costs; is not a
``significant regulatory action'' as defined in section 3(f) of
Executive Order 12866; will not create unnecessary obstacles to the
foreign commerce of the United States; and will not impose an unfunded
mandate on State, local, or tribal governments, or on the private
sector.
A. Regulatory Impact Analysis
This final rule corrects several technical errors that affect the
clarity of the regulatory text. As all the amendments in this final
rule are non-substantive and intended to correct typographical errors,
editorial errors, and outdated or incorrect references, the FAA does
not expect that these technical corrections will result in any
substantive incremental costs or benefits. These changes include
corrections of grammatical and typographical errors, corrections of
incorrect cross references, updates to mailing addresses and contact
information, and updates to terms and titles following the
reorganization or the Air Transportation Division. Since this rule
involves non-substantive and clarifying editorial changes only, the
impacts of the rule will be minimal.
B. Regulatory Flexibility Act
The Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA), in 5 U.S.C. 603, requires an
agency to prepare an initial regulatory flexibility analysis describing
impacts on small entities whenever 5 U.S.C. 553 or any other law
requires an agency to publish a general notice of proposed rulemaking
for any proposed rule. Similarly, 5 U.S.C. 604 requires an agency to
prepare a final regulatory flexibility analysis when an agency issues a
final rule under 5 U.S.C. 553, after that section or any other law
requires publication of a general notice of proposed rulemaking. The
FAA concludes good cause exists to forgo notice and comment and to not
delay the effective date for this rule. As 5 U.S.C. 553 does not
require notice and comment in this situation, 5 U.S.C. 603 and 604
similarly do not require regulatory flexibility analyses.
C. International Trade Impact Assessment
The Trade Agreements Act of 1979 (Pub. L. 96-39), as amended,
prohibits Federal agencies from establishing standards or engaging in
related activities that create unnecessary obstacles to the foreign
commerce of the United States. Pursuant to this Act, the establishment
of standards is not considered an unnecessary obstacle to the foreign
commerce of the United States, so long as the standard has a legitimate
domestic objective, such as the protection of safety, and does not
operate in a manner that excludes imports that meet this objective. The
statute also requires consideration of international standards and,
where appropriate, that they be the basis for U.S. standards.
The FAA has assessed the potential effect of this rule and has
determined that the rule is in accord with the Trade Agreements Act as
the rule applies equally to domestic and foreign persons engaged in
aviation activities under 14 CFR. As previously discussion, this action
corrects several technical errors that affect the clarity of the
regulatory text. These corrections will not impose any additional
substantive restrictions or requirements on the persons affected by
these regulations.
D. Unfunded Mandates Assessment
The Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (2 U.S.C. 1531-1538)
governs the issuance of Federal regulations that require unfunded
mandates. An unfunded mandate is a regulation that requires a state,
local, or tribal government or the private sector to incur direct costs
without the Federal government having first provided the funds to pay
those costs. The FAA determined that the rule will not result in the
expenditure of $165,000,000 or more by State, local, or tribal
governments, in the aggregate, or the private sector, in any one year.
E. Paperwork Reduction Act
The Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3507(d)) requires
that the FAA consider the impact of paperwork and other information
collection burdens imposed on the public. The FAA has determined that
there is no new requirement for information collection associated with
this immediately adopted final rule.
[[Page 75709]]
F. International Compatibility
In keeping with U.S. obligations under the Convention on
International Civil Aviation, it is FAA policy to conform to
International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) Standards and
Recommended Practices to the maximum extent practicable. The FAA has
reviewed the corresponding ICAO Standards and Recommended Practices and
has identified no differences with these proposed regulations.
G. Environmental Analysis
FAA Order 1050.1F identifies FAA actions that are categorically
excluded from preparation of an environmental assessment or
environmental impact statement under the National Environmental Policy
Act in the absence of extraordinary circumstances. The FAA has
determined this rulemaking action qualifies for the categorical
exclusion identified in paragraph 5-6.6(f) for regulations and involves
no extraordinary circumstances.
V. Executive Order Determinations
A. Executive Order 13132, Federalism
The FAA has analyzed this immediately adopted final rule under the
principles and criteria of Executive Order 13132, ``Federalism.'' The
agency determined that this action will not have a substantial direct
effect on the States, or the relationship between the Federal
Government and the States, or on the distribution of power and
responsibilities among the various levels of government, and,
therefore, does not have Federalism implications.
B. Executive Order 13211, Regulations That Significantly Affect Energy
Supply, Distribution, or Use
The FAA analyzed this immediately adopted final rule under
Executive Order 13211, ``Actions Concerning Regulations that
Significantly Affect Energy Supply, Distribution, or Use'' (May 18,
2001). The agency has determined that it is not a ``significant energy
action'' under the executive order and it is not likely to have a
significant adverse effect on the supply, distribution, or use of
energy.
C. Executive Order 13609, International Cooperation
Executive Order 13609, ``Promoting International Regulatory
Cooperation,'' promotes international regulatory cooperation to meet
shared challenges involving health, safety, labor, security,
environmental, and other issues and to reduce, eliminate, or prevent
unnecessary differences in regulatory requirements. The FAA has
analyzed this action under the policies and agency responsibilities of
Executive Order 13609, and has determined that this action would have
no effect on international regulatory cooperation.
VI. How To Obtain Additional Information
A. Rulemaking Documents
An electronic copy of a rulemaking document may be obtained from
the internet by--
1. Searching the Federal eRulemaking Portal (www.regulations.gov);
2. Visiting the FAA's Regulations and Policies web page at
www.faa.gov/regulations_policies/; or
3. Accessing the Government Printing Office's web page at
www.GovInfo.gov.
Copies may also be obtained by sending a request (identified by
notice, amendment, or docket number of this rulemaking) to the Federal
Aviation Administration, Office of Rulemaking, ARM-1, 800 Independence
Avenue SW, Washington, DC 20591, or by calling (202) 267-9680.
B. Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act
The Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act (SBREFA) of
1996 requires FAA to comply with small entity requests for information
or advice about compliance with statutes and regulations within its
jurisdiction. A small entity with questions regarding this document,
may contact its local FAA official, or the person listed under the FOR
FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT heading at the beginning of the preamble.
To find out more about SBREFA on the internet, visit www.faa.gov/regulations_policies/rulemaking/sbre_act/.
List of Subjects
14 CFR Part 21
Aircraft, Aviation safety, Exports, Imports, Reporting and
recordkeeping requirements.
14 CFR Part 23
Aircraft, Aviation safety, Signs and symbols.
14 CFR Part 25
Aircraft, Aviation safety, Reporting and recordkeeping
requirements.
14 CFR Part 29
Aircraft, Aviation safety, Reporting and recordkeeping
requirements.
14 CFR Part 33
Aircraft, Aviation safety, Reporting and recordkeeping
requirements.
14 CFR Part 36
Agriculture, Aircraft, Noise control.
14 CFR Part 47
Aircraft, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
14 CFR Part 49
Aircraft, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
14 CFR Part 60
Airmen, Aviation safety, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
14 CFR Part 61
Aircraft, Airmen, Alcohol abuse, Aviation safety, Drug abuse,
Recreation and recreation areas, Reporting and recordkeeping
requirements, Security measures, Teachers.
14 CFR Part 67
Airmen, Authority delegations (Government agencies), Health,
Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
14 CFR Part 73
Airspace, Navigation (air), Restricted areas, Security measures.
14 CFR Part 91
Afghanistan, Agriculture, Air carriers, Air taxis, Air traffic
control, Aircraft, Airmen, Airports, Alaska, Aviation safety, Canada,
Charter flights, Cuba, Drug traffic control, Ethiopia, Freight,
Incorporation by reference, Iraq, Libya, Mexico, Noise control, North
Korea, Political candidates, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements,
Security measures, Somalia, Syria, Transportation, Yugoslavia.
14 CFR Part 97
Air traffic control, Airports, Incorporation by reference,
Navigation (air), Weather.
14 CFR Part 101
Aircraft, Aviation safety, Reporting and recordkeeping
requirements.
14 CFR Part 107
Aircraft, Airmen, Aviation safety, Recreation and recreation areas,
Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Security measures, Signs and
symbols.
14 CFR Part 121
Air carriers, Aircraft, Airmen, Alcohol abuse, Aviation safety,
Charter flights, Drug abuse, Drug testing, Reporting and recordkeeping
requirements, Safety, Transportation.
[[Page 75710]]
14 CFR Part 125
Aircraft, Airmen, Aviation safety, Reporting and recordkeeping
requirements.
14 CFR Part 129
Air carriers, Administration, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Reporting
and recordkeeping requirements, Security measures, Smoking.
14 CFR Part 135
Air taxis, Aircraft, Airmen, Alcohol abuse, Aviation safety, Drug
abuse, Drug testing, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
14 CFR Part 141
Airmen, Educational facilities, Reporting and recordkeeping
requirements, Schools.
14 CFR Part 183
Aircraft, Airmen, Authority delegations (Government agencies),
Health professions, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
14 CFR Part 440
Indemnity payments, Insurance, Reporting and recordkeeping
requirements, Space transportation and exploration.
The Amendments
In consideration of the foregoing, the Federal Aviation
Administration amends chapter I of title 14, Code of Federal
Regulations (CFR) parts 21, 23, 25, 29, 33, 36, 47, 49, 60, 61, 67, 73,
91, 97, 101, 107, 121, 125, 129, 135, 141, 183, and 440 as follows:
PART 21--CERTIFICATION PROCEDURES FOR PRODUCTS AND ARTICLES
0
1. The authority citation for part 21 continues to read as follows:
Authority: 42 U.S.C. 7572; 49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g), 40105,
40113, 44701-44702, 44704, 44707, 44709, 44711, 44713, 44715, 45303.
Sec. 21.619 [Amended]
0
2. Amend Sec. 21.619 in paragraph (a) by removing the citation ``Sec.
21.603(b)'' and adding in its place the citation ``21.603(a)''.
PART 23--AIRWORTHINESS STANDARDS: NORMAL CATEGORY AIRPLANES
0
3. The authority citation for part 23 continues to read as follows:
Authority: 49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g), 40113, 44701-44702, 44704,
Pub. L. 113-53, 127 Stat. 584 (49 U.S.C. 44704) note.
Sec. 23.2115 [Amended]
0
4. Amend Sec. 23.2115 in paragraph (c) introductory text by adding the
word ``of'' after the word ``determination''.
Sec. 23.2120 [Amended]
0
5. Amend Sec. 23.2120 in paragraph (a) introductory text by removing
the word ``configuration'' and adding in its place the word
``configuration(s)''.
Sec. 23.2165 [Amended]
0
6. Amend Sec. 23.2165 in paragraph (a)(1)(i) by removing the words
``knots CAS'' and adding in their place the word ``KCAS''.
Sec. 23.2200 [Amended]
0
7. Amend Sec. 23.2200 in paragraph (d) by removing the words ``high
lift'' and adding in their place the words ``high-lift''.
Sec. 23.2255 [Amended]
0
8. Amend Sec. 23.2255 in paragraph (c) by removing the word
``aircraft'' and adding in its place the word ``airplane''.
Sec. 23.2315 [Amended]
0
9. Amend Sec. 23.2315 as follows:
0
a. In paragraph (a)(1), add a comma after the words ``level 2'';
0
b. In paragraph (a)(1), remove the words ``single engine'' and add in
its place ``single-engine''; and
0
c. In paragraph (a)(2), add a comma after the first mention of the word
``exits''.
Sec. 23.2400 [Amended]
0
10. Amend Sec. 23.2400 in paragraph (b) by removing both instances of
``FAA'' and adding in their places the word ``Administrator''.
0
11. Amend Sec. 23.2440 by revising paragraph (c)(2) to read as
follows:
Sec. 23.2440 Powerplant fire protection.
* * * * *
(c) * * *
(2) Be fire-resistant if carrying flammable fluid, gas or air, or
is required to operate in the event of a fire; and
* * * * *
Sec. 23.2500 [Amended]
0
12. Amend Sec. 23.2500 in paragraph (b) by removing the phrase ``(a),
considered separately and in relation to other systems, must'' and
adding in its place the phrase ``(a) of this section--considered
separately and in relation to other systems--must''.
Sec. 23.2520 [Amended]
0
13. Amend Sec. 23.2520 in paragraph (a) introductory text by removing
the phrase ``systems that perform'' and adding in its place the phrase
``system that performs''.
Sec. 23.2600 [Amended]
0
14. Amend Sec. 23.2600 in paragraph (b) by removing the words
``qualified flightcrew'' and adding in their place the words
``flightcrew members''.
Sec. 23.2620 [Amended]
0
15. Amend Sec. 23.2620 in paragraph (b) introductory text by removing
the word ``administrator'' and adding in its place the word
``Administrator''.
PART 25--AIRWORTHINESS STANDARDS: TRANSPORT CATEGORY AIRPLANES
0
16. The authority citation for part 25 continues to read as follows:
Authority: 49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g), 40113, 44701, 44702 and
44704.
Sec. 25.471 [Amended]
0
17. Amend Sec. 25.471 in paragraph (b)(2) by removing the citation
``Sec. 25.1583(c)(1)'' and adding in its place the citation ``Sec.
25.1583(c)(2)''.
Sec. 25.525 [Amended]
0
18. Amend Sec. 25.525 in paragraph (b) by removing the citation
``Sec. 25.533(b)'' and adding in its place the citation ``Sec.
25.533(c)''.
Sec. 25.535 [Amended]
0
19. Amend Sec. 25.535 in paragraph (d) by removing the numbers
``3.25'' and adding in their place the numbers ``0.25''.
0
20. Amend Sec. 25.571 by revising the section heading to read as
follows:
Sec. 25.571 Damage-tolerance and fatigue evaluation of structure.
* * * * *
Sec. 25.903 [Amended]
0
21. Amend Sec. 25.903 as follows:
0
a. In paragraph (a)(3)(ii), remove the date ``February 23, 1984'' and
add in its place the date ``March 26, 1984''; and
0
b. In paragraph (a)(3)(iii), remove the date ``October 1, 1974''and add
in its place the date ``October 31, 1974''.
Sec. 25.1517 [Amended]
0
22. Amend Sec. 25.1517 in paragraph (b) by removing ``VMO -
35 KTAS'' and adding in its place ``VMO minus 35 KTAS''.
PART 29--AIRWORTHINESS STANDARDS: TRANSPORT CATEGORY ROTOCRAFT
0
23. The authority citation for part 29 continues to read as follows:
[[Page 75711]]
Authority: 49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g), 40113, 44701-44702, 44704.
Sec. 29.1557 [Amended]
0
24. Amend Sec. 29.1557 in paragraph (d) by removing the citation
``Sec. 29.811(h)(2)'' and adding in its place the citation ``Sec.
29.811(f)(2)''.
PART 33--AIRWORTHINESS STANDARDS: AIRCRAFT ENGINES
0
25. The authority citation for part 33 continues to read as follows:
Authority: 49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701, 44702, 44704.
Sec. 33.97 [Amended]
0
26. Amend Sec. 33.97 in paragraph (a) by adding a comma after the word
``endurance'' in the first sentence.
PART 36--NOISE STANDARDS: AIRCRAFT TYPE AND AIRWORTHINESS
CERTIFICATION
0
27. The authority citation for part 36 continues to read as follows:
Authority: 42 U.S.C. 4321 et seq.; 49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113,
44701-44702, 44704, 44715; sec. 305, Pub. L. 96-193, 94 Stat. 50,
57; E.O. 11514, 35 FR 4247, 3 CFR, 1966-1970 Comp., p. 902.
Sec. 36.1 [Amended]
0
28. Amend Sec. 36.1 in paragraph (a)(4) by removing the word
``argicultural'' and adding in its place the word ``agricultural''.
PART 47--AIRCRAFT REGISTRATION
0
29. The authority citation for part 47 continues to read as follows:
Authority: 4 U.S.T. 1830; Public Law 108-297, 118 Stat. 1095 (49
U.S.C. 40101 note, 49 U.S.C. 44101 note); 49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g),
40113-40114, 44101-44108, 44110-44113, 44703-44704, 44713, 45302,
45305, 46104, 46301.
0
30. Amend Sec. 47.9 by revising paragraph (b) to read as follows:
Sec. 47.9 Corporations not US citizens.
* * * * *
(b) For the purposes of registration, an aircraft is based and
primarily used in the United States if the flight hours accumulated
within the United States amount to at least 60 percent of the total
flight hours of the aircraft during the period consisting in the
remainder of the registration month and the succeeding 6 calendar
months and each 6 calendar month period thereafter.
* * * * *
Sec. 47.19 [Amended]
0
31. Amend Sec. 47.19 by removing the phrase ``must be mailed to the
Registry, Department of Transportation, Post Office Box 25504, Oklahoma
City, Oklahoma 73125-0504, or delivered to the Registry at 6425 S.
Denning Ave., Oklahoma City, Oklahoma 73169'' and adding in its place
the phrase ``must be delivered to the Registry by a means acceptable to
the Administrator''.
PART 49--RECORDING OF AIRCRAFT TITLES AND SECURITY DOCUMENTS
0
32. The authority citation for part 49 continues to read as follows:
Authority: 4 U.S.T. 1830; Pub. L. 108-297, 118 Stat. 1095 (49
U.S.C. 40101 note, 49 U.S.C. 44101 note); 49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113-
40114, 44101-44108, 44110-44113, 44704, 44713, 45302, 46104, 46301.
Sec. 49.1 [Amended]
0
33. Amend Sec. 49.1 in paragraph (a)(2) by removing the number ``750''
and adding in their place the number ``550''.
Sec. 49.11 [Amended]
0
34. Amend Sec. 49.11 by removing the phrase ``must be mailed to the
FAA Aircraft Registry, Department of Transportation, Post Office Box
25504, Oklahoma City, Oklahoma 73125-0504, or delivered to the Registry
at 6425 S. Denning Ave., Oklahoma City, Oklahoma 73169'' and adding in
its place the phrase ``must be delivered to the Registry by a means
acceptable to the Administrator''.
Sec. 49.13 [Amended]
0
35. Amend Sec. 49.13 in paragraph (a) by removing the phrase ``must be
in ink'' and adding in its place the phrase ``must be signed in a
manner acceptable to the Administrator''.
PART 60--FLIGHT SIMULATION TRAINING DEVICE INITIAL AND CONTINUING
QUALIFICATION AND USE
0
36. The authority citation for part 60 continues to read as follows:
Authority: 49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g), 40113, and 44701; Public
Law 111-216, 124 Stat. 2348 (49 U.S.C. 44701 note).
Sec. 60.5, Sec. 60.7, Sec. 60.9, Sec. 60.11, Sec. 60.13, Sec.
60.14, Sec. 60.15, Sec. 60.16, Sec. 60.17, Sec. 60.19, Sec. 60.21,
Sec. 60.23, Sec. 60.25, Sec. 60.27, Sec. 60.29, Sec. 60.31, Sec.
60.37 [Amended]
0
37. Remove the word ``NSPM'' and add in its place the words
``responsible Flight Standards office'' wherever it appears in the
following places:
0
a. Sec. 60.5(c) and (d);
0
b. Sec. 60.7(a)(2), (b)(3), (4), and (6), and (d)(2);
0
c. Sec. 60.9(a), (b)(2), (c) introductory text, and (c)(3);
0
d. Sec. 60.11(d);
0
e. Sec. 60.13(a) and (c) through (f);
0
f. Sec. 60.14;
0
g. Sec. 60.15(a), (b)(1) through (3), (c)(1) introductory text,
(c)(1)(i) and (ii), (f), (g) introductory text, (g)(6), (h), and (i);
0
h. Sec. 60.16(a)(1)(i) through (iii), (a)(2)(i) and (ii), (b), and
(c);
0
i. Sec. 60.17(e) and (f);
0
j. Sec. 60.19(b)(2) and (3);
0
k. Sec. 60.21(a) introductory text, (b), and (c);
0
l. Sec. 60.23(c)(1) introductory text and (c)(1)(i) through (iv);
0
m. Sec. 60.25(b);
0
n. Sec. 60.27(b)(1)(i) and (ii), (b)(2), and (c);
0
o. Sec. 60.29(a) introductory text, (a)(1) through (3), (a)(4)
introductory text, (a)(4)(i) and (ii), (b) introductory text, (b)(3),
(c) introductory text, (c)(1) and (2), (d)(1) and (2), and (e);
0
p. Sec. 60.31(b); and
0
q. Sec. 60.37(a) introductory text.
Sec. 60.5 [Amended]
0
38. Amend Sec. 60.5 in paragraph (a) by removing the words ``National
Simulator Program Manager (NSPM)'' and adding in their place the words
``responsible Flight Standards office''.
Sec. 60.19 [Amended]
0
39. Amend Sec. 60.19 as follows:
0
a. Amend paragraph (b)(4) by removing the first instance of the word
``NSPM'' and adding in its place the words ``the responsible Flight
Standards office'';
0
b. Amend paragraph (b)(4) by removing the second instance of the word
``NSPM'' and adding in its place the words ``responsible Flight
Standards office''; and
0
c. Amend paragraph (b)(6) by removing the words ``an NSPM'' and adding
in its place the words ``a responsible Flight Standards office''.
0
40. In appendix A to part 60:
0
a. In the introductory ``Begin Information'' text, remove the phrase
``NSPM, or a person assigned by the NSPM,'' and add in its place the
words ``responsible Flight Standards office''.
0
b. In section 1:
0
i. Remove and reserve paragraph b;
0
ii. Remove the last sentence of paragraph c;
0
iii. In paragraph d.(12), add the words ``Flightcrew Member'' after
``as amended,''; and
0
iv. Revise paragraph d.(27).
0
c. In section 11:
0
i. In paragraph o. introductory text, remove the words ``an NSP pilot''
and add in its place the words, ``a pilot from the responsible Flight
Standards office'' and remove the second instance of the word ``NSP'';
[[Page 75712]]
0
ii. In paragraph r.(1), remove the word ``NSP''; and
0
iii. In paragraph v., remove the phrase ``NSPM or visit the NSPM
website'' and add in its place the words, ``responsible Flight
Standards office''.
0
d. In attachment 1, revise table A1A;
0
e. In attachment 2:
0
i. Revise table A2A;
0
ii. In section 8, in the first instance of paragraph d., remove the
word ``NSPM'' and add in its place the words ``the responsible Flight
Standards office''; and
0
iii. In table A2E, revise the entries for 1.a.2, 2.a.1.a., 2.a.2.a.,
and 2.a.3.a.
0
f. In attachment 3:
0
i. In section 2, remove the last sentence of paragraph g; and
0
ii. Revise the table A3C introductory text.
0
g. In attachment 4, revise figures A4A, A4C, A4D, and A4E;
0
h. In attachment 6, FTSD Directive 2:
0
i. In the undesignated paragraph following summary paragraph (e),
remove the words ``National Simulator Program Manager (NSPM)'' and add
in their place the words ``responsible Flight Standards office''.
0
ii. Remove the phrase ``For Further Information Contact'' paragraph
before the heading ``Specific Requirements'';
0
iii. In section I, paragraph 5 introductory text, remove the word
``NSP's'';
0
iv. In section II, paragraph 5 introductory text, remove the word
``NSP's'';
0
v. In section III, paragraph 5 introductory text, remove the word
``NSP's'';
0
vi. In section IV, paragraph 4 introductory text, remove the word
``NSP's''; and
0
vii. In section V, paragraph 4 introductory text, remove the word
``NSP's''.
0
i. Remove the word ``NSPM'' and adding in its place the words
``responsible Flight Standards office'' in the following places:
0
i. Section 1, paragraph c, the first two instances;
0
ii. Section 9, paragraphs d., d.(1), d.(2), g., h., and i.;
0
iii. Section 10, paragraph a.;
0
iv. Section 11, paragraphs b.(2), b.(3), d., f., g.(1), h., j. k., l.,
m., n., n.(2), o., p. q., r.(2), s., t., and w.;
0
v. Section 13, paragraphs a.(1), a.(3), a.(4), a.(5), d., and i.;
0
vi. Section 14, paragraphs a., d., e., and e.(1);
0
vii. Section 17, paragraphs b.(1) and b.(2);
0
viii. Sections 19 and 20;
0
ix. Attachment 2, section 2, paragraphs a., h., j., k., and l.;
0
x. Attachment 2, section 4, the second instance in paragraph b.(1);
0
xi. Attachment 2, section 5, paragraph b.;
0
xii. Attachment 2, section 8, paragraphs b., c., the second instance of
d., f., and g.;
0
xiii. Attachment 2, section 9, paragraphs a., b. introductory text,
b.(2), and c.(2)(i);
0
xiv. Attachment 2, section 12, paragraph a.;
0
xv. Attachment 2, section 13, paragraph b.(6);
0
xvi. Attachment 2, section 14, paragraph b.(4)(d);
0
xvii. Attachment 2, section 16, paragraphs a.(2) and b.(2);
0
xviii. Attachment 2, section 17, paragraphs c., d.(2), e., and f.;
0
xix. Attachment 3, section 1, paragraphs f., and g.;
0
xx. Attachment 3, section 2, paragraphs, b., and f.;
0
xxi. Attachment 5, section 7, paragraph a;
0
xxii. Attachment 5, section 8, introductory text and paragraph c.;
0
xxiii. Attachment 6, FSTD Directive 2, section I, paragraphs 5 and 6;
0
xxiv. Attachment 6, FSTD Directive 2, section II, paragraphs 3, 5, and
6;
0
xxv. Attachment 6, FSTD Directive 2, section III, paragraphs 3, 5, and
6;
0
xxvi. Attachment 6, FSTD Directive 2, section IV, paragraphs 4 and 5;
and
0
xxii. Attachment 6, FSTD Directive 2, section V, paragraphs 4 and 5;
0
i. Remove the word ``NSPM'', and add in its place the words ``Flight
Standards Service'' in the following places:
0
i. The introductory ``Begin Information'' text; and
0
ii. The first instance in attachment 2, section 4, paragraph b.(1).
0
j. Remove the word ``NSP'' from the following places:
0
i. Section 14, paragraph g.; and
0
ii. Attachment 3, paragraph 2.d.
The revisions read as follows:
Appendix A to Part 60--Qualification Performance Standards for Airplane
Full Flight Simulators
* * * * *
1. Introduction
(d) * * *
(27) FAA Airman Certification Standards and Practical Test
Standards for Airline Transport Pilot, Type Ratings, Commercial
Pilot, and Instrument Ratings
* * * * *
[[Page 75713]]
Attachment 1 * * *
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* * * * *
[[Page 75730]]
Attachment 2 * * *
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* * * * *
[[Page 75764]]
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[[Page 75765]]
[GRAPHIC] [TIFF OMITTED] TR09DE22.052
* * * * *
[[Page 75766]]
Attachments 3 * * *
[GRAPHIC] [TIFF OMITTED] TR09DE22.053
* * * * *
Attachment 4 * * *
Attachment 4 to Appendix A to Part 60--Figure A4A--Sample Letter,
Request for Initial, Upgrade, or Reinstatement Evaluation
Information
Attachment 4 to Appendix A to Part 60--FigureA4C--Sample Letter of
Compliance
[[Page 75767]]
[GRAPHIC] [TIFF OMITTED] TR09DE22.054
[[Page 75768]]
Information
[GRAPHIC] [TIFF OMITTED] TR09DE22.055
[[Page 75769]]
Attachment 4 to Appendix A to Part 60--Figure A4D--Sample Qualification
Test Guide Cover Page
INFORMATION
[GRAPHIC] [TIFF OMITTED] TR09DE22.056
[[Page 75770]]
Attachment 4 to Appendix A to Part 60--Figure A4E--Sample Statement of
Qualification--Certificate
INFORMATION
[GRAPHIC] [TIFF OMITTED] TR09DE22.127
[[Page 75771]]
* * * * *
0
41. In appendix B to part 60:
0
a. In the introductory ``Begin Information'' text:
0
i. In the first sentence, remove ``or Level 6'' and in its place add
``Level 6, or Level 7'';
0
ii. In the second sentence, remove ``, NSPM,'';
0
iii. In the last sentence, remove the phrase ``NSPM, or a person or
persons assigned by the NSPM'' and add in its place the words
``responsible Flight Standards office''.
0
b. In section 1:
0
i. Remove and reserve paragraph b.;
0
ii. Remove the last sentence of paragraph c.;
0
iii. In paragraph d.(12), add the words ``Flightcrew Member'' after
``as amended,''; and
0
iv. Revise paragraph d.(26).
0
c. In section 11:
0
i. In paragraph o. introductory text, remove the words ``an NSP pilot''
and add in their place the phrase ``a pilot from the responsible Flight
Standards office'' and remove second instance of the word ``NSP'';
0
ii. In paragraph r.(1), remove the word ``NSP''; and
0
iii. In paragraph v., remove the phrase ``NSPM or visit the NSPM
website'' and add in its place the words ``responsible Flight Standards
office''.
0
d. In attachment 1, revise table B1A;
0
e. In attachment 2:
0
i. Revise table B2A;
0
ii. In section 4.b., remove the word ``NSP'' and add in its place the
word ``FAA''; and
0
iii. In table B2F, revise entries 2.a.1.a., 2.a.2.a., and 2.a.3.a.;
0
f. In attachment 3, revise table B3C;
0
g. In attachment 4:
0
i. In the table of contents, revise the entry for Figure B4H to read
``[Reserved]'';
0
ii. Revise figures B4A, B4C, B4D, and B4E;
0
iii. Remove and reserve figure B4H;
0
h. Remove the word ``NSPM'' and in its place add the words
``responsible Flight Standards office'' in the following places:
0
i. Section 1. Introduction, paragraph c., first two instances;
0
ii. Section 9. FTD Objective Data Requirements, paragraphs d., d.(1),
d.(2), g., h. and i.;
0
iii. Section 10. Special Equipment and Personnel Requirements for
Qualification of the FTD, paragraph a;
0
iv. Section 11. Initial (and Upgrade) Qualification Requirements,
paragraphs b.(2), b.(3), d., f., g.(1), h., j., k., l., m., n., n.(2),
o., p., q., r.(2), s., t., and w.;
0
v. Section 13. Previously Qualified FTDs, paragraphs a.(1), a.(3),
a.(4), a.(5), d., and i.;
0
vi. Section 14. Inspection, Continuing Qualification Evaluation, and
Maintenance Requirements, paragraphs a., d., and h.;
0
vii. Section 17. Modifications to FTDs, paragraphs b.(1) and b.(2);
0
viii. Section 19. Automatic Loss of Qualification and Procedures for
Restoration of Qualification;
0
ix. Section 20. Other Losses of Qualification and Procedures for
Restoration of Qualification; Section
0
x. Attachment 2, section 2. Test Requirements, paragraphs a., h., j.,
k., and l.; and
0
xi. Attachment 2, section 5. Alternative Data Sources, Procedures, and
Instrumentation: Level 6 FTD Only, paragraphs c., d.(2), and e.
0
n. Remove the word ``NSP'' in the following places:
0
i. Section 14, paragraph f; and
0
ii. Attachment 3, paragraphs 1.b, and 1.c.
The revisions read as follows:
Appendix B to Part 60 Qualification Performance Standards for Airplane
Flight Training Devices
* * * * *
1. Introduction
* * * * *
d. * * *
26. FAA Airman Certification Standards and Practical Test
Standards for Airline Transport Pilot, Type Ratings, Commercial
Pilot, and Instrument Ratings.
* * * * *
Attachment 1 to Appendix B to Part 60--General FTD REQUIREMENTS
* * * * *
[[Page 75772]]
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[[Page 75773]]
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[[Page 75786]]
[GRAPHIC] [TIFF OMITTED] TR09DE22.071
[[Page 75787]]
* * * * *
Attachment 2 to Appendix B to Part 60--Flight Training Device (FTD)
Objective Tests
* * * * *
[[Page 75788]]
[GRAPHIC] [TIFF OMITTED] TR09DE22.072
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[GRAPHIC] [TIFF OMITTED] TR09DE22.100
* * * * *
[[Page 75817]]
[GRAPHIC] [TIFF OMITTED] TR09DE22.101
* * * * *
Attachment 3 to Appendix B to Part 60--Flight Training Device (FTD)
Subjective Evaluation
* * * * *
[[Page 75818]]
[GRAPHIC] [TIFF OMITTED] TR09DE22.102
* * * * *
Attachment 4 to Appendix B to Part 60--Sample Documents
* * * * *
Attachment 4 to Appendix B to Part 60--Figure B4A--Sample Letter,
Request for Initial, Upgrade, or Reinstatement Evaluation
Information
[GRAPHIC] [TIFF OMITTED] TR09DE22.103
[GRAPHIC] [TIFF OMITTED] TR09DE22.104
[[Page 75819]]
* * * * *
Attachment 4 to Appendix B to Part 60--Figure B4C--Sample Letter of
Compliance
Information
[GRAPHIC] [TIFF OMITTED] TR09DE22.105
[[Page 75820]]
Attachment 4 to Appendix B to Part 60--Figure B4D--Sample Qualification
Test Guide Cover Page
Information
[GRAPHIC] [TIFF OMITTED] TR09DE22.106
* * * * *
[[Page 75821]]
Attachment 4 to Appendix B to Part 60-- Figure B4E--Sample Statement of
Qualification--Certificate
Information
[GRAPHIC] [TIFF OMITTED] TR09DE22.128
[[Page 75822]]
* * * * *
0
42. In appendix C to part 60:
0
a. In the introductory ``Begin Information'' text:
0
i. Remove the word ``NSPM'' and add in its place the words ``Flight
Standards Service'' in the first sentence; and
0
ii. In the last sentence, remove the phrase ``NSPM, or a person
assigned by the NSPM,'' and add in its place the words ``responsible
Flight Standards office''.
0
b. In section 1:
0
i. Remove and reserve paragraph b.;
0
ii. Remove the last sentence of paragraph c.;
0
iii. In paragraph d.(10), add the words ``Flightcrew Member'' after
``as amended,''; and
0
iv. Revise paragraph d.(25).
0
c. In section 11:
0
i. In paragraph o. introductory text, remove the words ``an NSP pilot''
and add in their place the words ``a pilot from the responsible Flight
Standards office'' and remove the word ``NSP'';
0
ii. In paragraph r.(1), remove the word ``NSP''; and
0
iii. In paragraph v., remove the phrase ``NSPM or visit the NSPM
website'' and add in its place the words ``responsible Flight Standards
office''.
0
d. In attachment 1, in table C1A, revise the entries for 4.a., 6.c.,
6.d., and 6.u.;
0
e. In attachment 2:
0
i. In section 8, paragraph d., remove the first instance of the word
``NSPM'' and add in its place the words ``the responsible Flight
Standards office'';
0
ii. In table C2A, revise the entries for 1.j.4., 2.a., and 4.a.2;
0
iii. In table C2E, revise the entry for 1.b.2.;
0
f. In attachment 3:
0
i. In section 2, in the first paragraph (h), remove the last sentence
and redesignate the second paragraph h. and paragraph i. as paragraphs
i. and j, respectively; and
0
ii. In table C3C, revise the introductory text.
0
g. In attachment 4:
0
i. Revise the table of contents entry for Figure C4H to read ``Figure
C4H [Reserved]'';
0
ii. Revise figures C4A C4C, C4D, and C4E; and
0
iii. Remove and reserve figure C4H.
0
h. Remove the word ``NSPM'' and in its place add the words
``responsible Flight Standards office'' in the following places:
0
i. Section 1, paragraph c., the first two instances;
0
ii. Section 9, paragraphs d., d.(1), d.(2), g., h., and i.;
0
iii. Section 10, paragraph a;
0
iv. Section 11, paragraphs b.(2), b.(3), d., e.(2), f., g.(1), h., j.
k., l., m., n., n.(2), o., p., q., r.(2), s., t., and w.;
0
v. Section 13, paragraphs a.(1), a.(3), a.(4), a.(5), d., and i.;
0
vi. Section 14, paragraphs a., d., e., and e.(1);
0
vii. Section 17, paragraphs b.(1) and b.(2);
0
viii. Section 19;
0
ix. Section 20;
0
x. Attachment 2, section 1, paragraph b.;
0
xi. Attachment 2, section 2, paragraphs a., h., j., k., and l.;
0
xii. Attachment 2, section 4, paragraph b.(1);
0
xiii. Attachment 2, section 6, paragraph d.(2);
0
xiv. Attachment 2, section 8, paragraphs b., c., the second instance of
d., f., and g.;
0
xv. Attachment 2, section 9, paragraphs a., b., b.(2) and c.(2)(i);
0
xvi. Attachment 2, section 12, paragraph a.;
0
xvii. Attachment 2, section 14, paragraph b.(4)(d);
0
xviii. Attachment 2, section 16, paragraphs a.(2) and b.(2);
0
xix. Attachment 2, section 17, paragraphs c., d.(2), e., and g.;
0
xx. Attachment 3, section 1, paragraphs f. and g.; and
0
xxi. Attachment 3, section 2, paragraph b.
0
i. In appendix C to part 60, remove the word ``NSP'' from the following
places:
0
i. Section 14, paragraph g.; and
0
ii. Attachment 3, paragraphs 2.d. and 2.f.
The revisions read as follows:
Appendix C to Part 60 Qualification Performance Standards for
Helicopter Full Flight Simulators
* * * * *
1. Introduction
* * * * *
d. * * *
(25) FAA Airman Certification Standards and Practical Test
Standards for Airline Transport Pilot, Type Ratings, Commercial
Pilot, and Instrument Ratings.
* * * * *
Attachment 1 to Appendix C to Part 60--General Simulator Requirements
* * * * *
[[Page 75823]]
[GRAPHIC] [TIFF OMITTED] TR09DE22.107
[[Page 75824]]
[GRAPHIC] [TIFF OMITTED] TR09DE22.108
[[Page 75825]]
* * * * *
Attachment 2 to Appendix C to Part 60--FFS Objective Tests
* * * * *
[[Page 75826]]
[GRAPHIC] [TIFF OMITTED] TR09DE22.109
[[Page 75827]]
[GRAPHIC] [TIFF OMITTED] TR09DE22.110
[[Page 75828]]
[GRAPHIC] [TIFF OMITTED] TR09DE22.111
* * * * *
Attachment 3 to Appendix C to Part 60--Simulator Subjective Evaluation
* * * * *
[GRAPHIC] [TIFF OMITTED] TR09DE22.112
* * * * *
[[Page 75829]]
Attachment 4 to Appendix C to Part 60--Figure C4A--Sample Letter,
Request for Initial, Upgrade, or Reinstatement Evaluation
Information
[GRAPHIC] [TIFF OMITTED] TR09DE22.113
* * * * *
[[Page 75830]]
Attachment 4 to Appendix C to Part 60--Figure C4C--Sample Letter of
Compliance
Information
[GRAPHIC] [TIFF OMITTED] TR09DE22.114
[[Page 75831]]
Attachment 4 to Appendix C to Part 60--Figure C4D--Sample Qualification
Test Guide Cover Page
Information
[GRAPHIC] [TIFF OMITTED] TR09DE22.115
[[Page 75832]]
Attachment 4 to Appendix C to Part 60--Figure C4E--Sample Statement of
Qualification--Certificate
Information
[GRAPHIC] [TIFF OMITTED] TR09DE22.116
[GRAPHIC] [TIFF OMITTED] TR09DE22.129
* * * * *
0
43. In appendix D to part 60:
0
a. In the introductory ``Begin Information'' text:
0
i. Remove ``NSPM'' and add in its place the words ``Flight Standards
Service'' in the first sentence; and
0
ii. Remove the phrase ``NSPM, or a person or persons assigned by the
NSPM'' and add in its place the words ``responsible Flight Standards
office'' in the last sentence.
0
b. In section 1:
0
i. Remove and reserve paragraph b.;
0
ii. Remove the last sentence of paragraph c.;
[[Page 75833]]
0
iii. In paragraph d.(12), add the words ``Flightcrew Member'' after
``as amended,''; and
0
iv. Revise paragraph d.(28;
0
c. In section 11:
0
i. In paragraph o. introductory text, remove the words ``an NSP pilot''
and add in their place the words ``a pilot from the responsible Flight
Standards office'' and remove the second instance of the word ``NSP'';
0
ii. In paragraph r.(1), remove the word ``NSP''; and
0
iii. In paragraph v., remove the phrase ``NSPM or visit the NSPM
website'' and add in its place the words ``responsible Flight Standards
office''.
0
d. In section 17, paragraph c., remove the word ``D4H'' and add in its
place the word ``D4I'';
0
e. In attachment 1, in table D1A, revise the entry for 6.c.;
0
f. In attachment 2, in table D2A, revise the entries for 1.j.4. and
2.a.;
0
g. In attachment 3:
0
i. In section 1, paragraph g., remove the first instance of the word
``NPSM'' and add in its place the words ``responsible Flight Standards
office'' and remove the last sentence; and
0
ii. Revise the introductory text to table D3C.
0
h. In attachment 4:
0
i. Remove the table of contents entry ``Figure A4C Sample Letter of
Compliance'' and add in its place ``Figure D4C Sample Letter of
Compliance'';
0
ii. Revise the table of contents entry ``Figure D4H Sample Continuing
Qualification Evaluation Requirements Page'' to read ``Figure D4H
[Reserved]'';
0
iii. Revise figures D4A, D4C, D4D, and D4E;
0
iv. Redesignate Figure A4H as Figure D4H; and
0
v. Remove and reserve newly redesignated Figure D4H.
0
i. Remove the word ``NSPM'' and in its place add the words
``responsible Flight Standards office'' in the following places:
0
i. Section 1, paragraph c., the first two instances;
0
ii. Section 9, paragraphs d., d.(1), d.(1)(a), g., h., and i.;
0
iii. Section 10, paragraph a.;
0
iv. Section 11, paragraphs b.(2), b.(3), d., e.(2), f., g.(1), h., j.,
k., l., m., n., n.(2), o., p., q., r.(2), s., t., and w.;
0
v. Section 13, paragraphs a.(1), a.(3), a.(4), a.(5), d., i., and j.;
0
vi. Section 14, paragraphs a., d., h.;
0
vii. Section 17, paragraphs b.(1) and (2);
0
viii. Section 19 and 20;
0
ix. Attachment 2, section 2, paragraphs a., h., i., j., and k.; and
0
x. Attachment 3, section 1, paragraph f.
0
j. In appendix D to part 60, remove the word ``NSP'' from the following
places:
0
i. Section 14, paragraph f.; and
0
ii. Attachment 3, paragraphs 2.c. and 2.d.
Appendix D to Part 60 Qualification Performance Standards for
Helicopter Flight Training Devices
* * * * *
1. Introduction
* * * * *
d. * * *
(28) FAA Airman Certification Standards and Practical Test
Standards for Airline Transport Pilot, Type Ratings, Commercial
Pilot, and Instrument Ratings.
* * * * *
Attachment 1 to Appendix D to Part 60--General FTD Requirements
* * * * *
[[Page 75834]]
[GRAPHIC] [TIFF OMITTED] TR09DE22.117
[[Page 75835]]
* * * * *
Attachment 2 to Appendix D to Part 60--Flight Training Device (FTD)
Objective Tests
* * * * *
[[Page 75836]]
[GRAPHIC] [TIFF OMITTED] TR09DE22.118
[[Page 75837]]
[GRAPHIC] [TIFF OMITTED] TR09DE22.119
[[Page 75838]]
* * * * *
Attachment 3 to Appendix D to Part 60--Flight Training Device (FTD)
Subjective Evaluation
* * * * *
[GRAPHIC] [TIFF OMITTED] TR09DE22.120
* * * * *
Attachment 4 to Appendix D to Part 60--Sample Documents
Table of Contents
* * * * *
Figure D4C Sample Letter of Compliance
* * * * *
Figure D4H [Reserved]
* * * * *
Attachment 4 to Appendix D to Part 60--Figure D4A--Sample Letter,
Request for Initial, Upgrade, or Reinstatement Evaluation
Information
[GRAPHIC] [TIFF OMITTED] TR09DE22.121
[[Page 75839]]
[GRAPHIC] [TIFF OMITTED] TR09DE22.122
* * * * *
[[Page 75840]]
Attachment 4 to Appendix D to Part 60--Figure D4C--Sample Letter of
Compliance
Information
[GRAPHIC] [TIFF OMITTED] TR09DE22.123
[GRAPHIC] [TIFF OMITTED] TR09DE22.124
[[Page 75841]]
Attachment 4 to Appendix D to Part 60--Figure D4D--Sample Qualification
Test Guide Cover Page
Information
[GRAPHIC] [TIFF OMITTED] TR09DE22.125
[GRAPHIC] [TIFF OMITTED] TR09DE22.126
[[Page 75842]]
Attachment 4 to Appendix D to Part 60--Figure D4E--Sample Statement of
Qualification--Certificate
Information
[GRAPHIC] [TIFF OMITTED] TR09DE22.130
* * * * *
0
44. In appendix E to part 60:
0
a. Remove the word ``NSPM'' and in its place add the words
``responsible Flight Standards office'' in paragraphs a., b., d.(2),
d.(3), e., f., g., h., h.(4), i.(1), j.(2)(b), and j.(4)(d).
0
b. Remove the word ``NSPM'' in paragraphs h.(1) and (2).
0
c. Remove paragraph i.(4).
0
d. Revise table E1.
The revision reads as follows:
Appendix E to Part 60 Qualification Performance Standards for Quality
Management Systems for Flight Simulation Training Devices
* * * * *
[[Page 75843]]
Table E1--FSTD Quality Management System
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Entry No. QPS Requirement Information (Reference)
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
E1.1................................. A QMS manual that prescribes the policies, Sec. 60.5(a).
processes, or procedures outlined in this table.
E1.2................................. A policy, process, or procedure specifying how Sec. 60.5(b).
the sponsor will identify deficiencies in the
QMS.
E1.3................................. A policy, process, or procedure specifying how Sec. 60.5(b).
the sponsor will document how the QMS program
will be changed to address deficiencies.
E1.4................................. A policy, process, or procedure specifying how Sec. 60.5(c).
the sponsor will address proposed program
changes (for programs that do not meet the
minimum requirements as notified by the
responsible Flight Standards office) to the
responsible Flight Standards office and receive
approval prior to their implementation.
E1.5................................. A policy, process, or procedure specifying how Sec. 60. 7(b)(5).
the sponsor will document that at least one
FSTD is used within the sponsor's FAA-approved
flight training program for the aircraft or set
of aircraft at least once within the 12-month
period following the initial or upgrade
evaluation conducted by the responsible Flight
Standards office and at least once within each
subsequent 12-month period thereafter.
E1.6................................. A policy, process, or procedure specifying how Sec. 60.7(b)(6).
the sponsor will document that at least one
FSTD is used within the sponsor's FAA-approved
flight training program for the aircraft or set
of aircraft at least once within the 12-month
period following the first continuing
qualification evaluation conducted by the
responsible Flight Standards office and at
least once within each subsequent 12-month
period thereafter.
E1.7................................. A policy, process, or procedure specifying how Sec. 60.5(b)(7) and
the sponsor will obtain an annual written Sec. 60.7(d)(2).
statement from a qualified pilot (who has flown
the subject aircraft or set of aircraft during
the preceding 12-month period) that the
performance and handling qualities of the
subject FSTD represents the subject aircraft or
set of aircraft (within the normal operating
envelope). Required only if the subject FSTD is
not used in the sponsor's FAA-approved flight
training program for the aircraft or set of
aircraft at least once within the preceding 12-
month period.
E1.8................................. A policy, process, or procedure specifying how Sec. 60.9(b)(1).
independent feedback (from persons recently
completing training, evaluation, or obtaining
flight experience; instructors and check airmen
using the FSTD for training, evaluation or
flight experience sessions; and FSTD
technicians and maintenance personnel) will be
received and addressed by the sponsor regarding
the FSTD and its operation.
E1.9................................. A policy, process, or procedure specifying how Sec. 60.9(b)(2).
and where the FSTD SOQ will be posted, or
accessed by an appropriate terminal or display,
in or adjacent to the FSTD.
E1.10................................ A policy, process, or procedure specifying how Sec. 60.9(c) and
the sponsor's management representative (MR) is Appendix E,
selected and identified by name to the paragraph(d).
responsible Flight Standards office.
E1.11................................ A policy, process, or procedure specifying the Sec. 60.9(c)(2), (3),
MR authority and responsibility for the and (4).
following:
E1.11.a.............................. Monitoring the on-going qualification of .......................
assigned FSTDs to ensure all matters regarding
FSTD qualification are completed as required by
this part.
E1.11.b.............................. Ensuring that the QMS is properly maintained by .......................
overseeing the QMS policies, practices, or
procedures and modifying as necessary.
E1.11.c.............................. Regularly briefing sponsor's management on the .......................
status of the on-going FSTD qualification
program and the effectiveness and efficiency of
the QMS.
E1.11.d.............................. Serving as the primary contact point for all .......................
matters between the sponsor and the responsible
Flight Standards office regarding the
qualification of assigned FSTDs.
E1.11.e.............................. Delegating the MR assigned duties to an .......................
individual at each of the sponsor's locations,
as appropriate.
E1.12................................ A policy, process, or procedure specifying how Sec. 60.13; QPS
the sponsor will:. Appendices A, B, C,
and D.
E1.12.a.............................. Ensure that the data made available to the .......................
responsible Flight Standards office (the
validation data package) includes the aircraft
manufacturer's flight test data (or other data
approved by the responsible Flight Standards
office) and all relevant data developed after
the type certificate was issued (e.g., data
developed in response to an airworthiness
directive) if the data results from a change in
performance, handling qualities, functions, or
other characteristics of the aircraft that must
be considered for flight crewmember training,
evaluation, or experience requirements.
E1.12.b.............................. Notify the responsible Flight Standards office .......................
within 10 working days of becoming aware that
an addition to or a revision of the flight
related data or airplane systems related data
is available if this data is used to program or
operate a qualified FSTD.
E1.12.c.............................. Maintain a liaison with the manufacturer of the .......................
aircraft being simulated (or with the holder of
the aircraft type certificate for the aircraft
being simulated if the manufacturer is no
longer in business), and if appropriate, with
the person who supplied the aircraft data
package for the FFS for the purposes of
receiving notification of data package changes.
E1.13................................ A policy, process, or procedure specifying how Sec. 60.14.
the sponsor will make available all special
equipment and qualified personnel needed to
conduct tests during initial, continuing
qualification, or special evaluations.
[[Page 75844]]
E1.14................................ A policy, process, or procedure specifying how Sec. 60.15(a)-(d);
the sponsor will submit to the responsible Sec. 60.15(b); Sec.
Flight Standards office a request to evaluate 60.15(b)(i); Sec.
the FSTD for initial qualification at a 60.15(b)(ii); Sec.
specific level and simultaneously request the 60.15(b)(iii).
TPAA forward a concurring letter to the
responsible Flight Standards office; including
how the MR will use qualified personnel to
confirm the following:.
E1.14.a.............................. That the performance and handling qualities of .......................
the FSTD represent those of the aircraft or set
of aircraft within the normal operating
envelope.
E1.14.b.............................. The FSTD systems and sub-systems (including the .......................
simulated aircraft systems) functionally
represent those in the aircraft or set of
aircraft.
E1.14.c.............................. The flight deck represents the configuration of .......................
the specific type or aircraft make, model, and
series aircraft being simulated, as appropriate.
E1.15................................ A policy, process, or procedure specifying how Sec. 60.15(e).
the subjective and objective tests are
completed at the sponsor's training facility
for an initial evaluation.
E1.16................................ A policy, process, or procedure specifying how Sec. 60.15(h).
the sponsor will update the QTG with the
results of the FAA-witnessed tests and
demonstrations together with the results of the
objective tests and demonstrations after the
responsible Flight Standards office completes
the evaluation for initial qualification.
E1.17................................ A policy, process, or procedure specifying how Sec. 60.15(i).
the sponsor will make the MQTG available to the
responsible Flight Standards office upon
request.
E1.18................................ A policy, process, or procedure specifying how Sec. 60.16(a);
the sponsor will apply to the responsible Sec. 60.16(a)(1)(i);
Flight Standards office for additional and
qualification(s) to the SOQ. Sec. 60.16(a)(1)(ii).
E1.19................................ A policy, process, or procedure specifying how Sec. 60.19(a)(1)
the sponsor completes all required Attachment 2 QPS Appendices A, B, C,
objective tests each year in a minimum of four or D.
evenly spaced inspections as specified in the
appropriate QPS.
E1.20................................ A policy, process, or procedure specifying how Sec. 60.19(a)(2) QPS
the sponsor completes and records a functional Appendices A, B, C, or
preflight check of the FSTD within the D.
preceding 24 hours of FSTD use, including a
description of the functional preflight.
E1.21................................ A policy, process, or procedure specifying how Sec. 60.19(b)(2).
the sponsor schedules continuing qualification
evaluations with the responsible Flight
Standards office.
E1.22................................ A policy, process, or procedure specifying how Sec. 60.19(b)(5)-(6).
the sponsor ensures that the FSTD has received
a continuing qualification evaluation at the
interval described in the MQTG.
E1.23................................ A policy, process, or procedure describing how Sec. 60.19(c);
discrepancies are recorded in the FSTD Sec. 60.19(c)(2)(i);
discrepancy log, including. Sec. 60.19(c)(2)(ii).
E1.23.a.............................. A description of how the discrepancies are .......................
entered and maintained in the log until
corrected.
E1.23.b.............................. A description of the corrective action taken for .......................
each discrepancy, the identity of the
individual taking the action, and the date that
action is taken.
E1.24................................ A policy, process, or procedure specifying how Sec.
the discrepancy log is kept in a form and 60.19(c)(2)(iii).
manner acceptable to the Administrator and kept
in or adjacent to the FSTD. (An electronic log
that may be accessed by an appropriate terminal
or display in or adjacent to the FSTD is
satisfactory.).
E1.25................................ A policy, process, or procedure that requires Sec. 60.20.
each instructor, check airman, or
representative of the Administrator conducting
training, evaluation, or flight experience, and
each person conducting the preflight
inspection, who discovers a discrepancy,
including any missing, malfunctioning, or
inoperative components in the FSTD, to write or
cause to be written a description of that
discrepancy into the discrepancy log at the end
of the FSTD preflight or FSTD use session.
E1.26................................ A policy, process, or procedure specifying how Sec. 60.21(c).
the sponsor will apply for initial
qualification based on the final aircraft data
package approved by the aircraft manufacturer
if operating an FSTD based on an interim
qualification.
E1.27................................ A policy, process, or procedure specifying how Sec. 60.23(a)(1)-(2).
the sponsor determines whether an FSTD change
qualifies as a modification as defined in Sec.
60.23.
E1.28................................ A policy, process, or procedure specifying how Sec. 60.23(b).
the sponsor will ensure the FSTD is modified in
accordance with any FSTD Directive regardless
of the original qualification basis.
E1.29................................ A policy, process, or procedure specifying how Sec.
the sponsor will notify the responsible Flight 60.23(c)(1)(i),(ii),
Standards office and TPAA of their intent to and (iv).
use a modified FSTD and to ensure that the
modified FSTD will not be used prior to:.
E1.29.a.............................. Twenty-one days since the sponsor notified the .......................
responsible Flight Standards office and the
TPAA of the proposed modification and the
sponsor has not received any response from
either the responsible Flight Standards office
or the TPAA; or.
E1.29.b.............................. Twenty-one days since the sponsor notified the .......................
responsible Flight Standards office and the
TPAA of the proposed modification and one has
approved the proposed modification and the
other has not responded; or.
E1.29.c.............................. The FSTD successfully completing any evaluation .......................
the responsible Flight Standards office may
require in accordance with the standards for an
evaluation for initial qualification or any
part thereof before the modified FSTD is placed
in service.
E1.30................................ A policy, process, or procedure specifying how, Sec. 60.23(d)-(e).
after an FSTD modification is approved by the
responsible Flight Standards office, the
sponsor will:
[[Page 75845]]
E1.30.a.............................. Post an addendum to the SOQ until as the .......................
responsible Flight Standards office issues a
permanent, updated SOQ.
E1.30.b.............................. Update the MQTG with current objective test .......................
results and appropriate objective data for each
affected objective test or other MQTG section
affected by the modification.
E1.30.c.............................. File in the MQTG the requirement from the .......................
responsible Flight Standards office to make the
modification and the record of the modification
completion.
E1.31................................ A policy, process, or procedure specifying how Sec. 60.25(b)-(c),
the sponsor will track the length of time a and
component has been missing, malfunctioning, or QPS Appendices
inoperative (MMI), including:. A, B, C, or D.
E1.31.a.............................. How the sponsor will post a list of MMI .......................
components in or adjacent to the FSTD.
E1.31.b.............................. How the sponsor will notify the responsible .......................
Flight Standards office if the MMI has not been
repaired or replaced within 30 days.*.
E1.32................................ A policy, process, or procedure specifying how Sec. 60.27(a)(3).
the sponsor will notify the responsible Flight
Standards office and how the sponsor will seek
requalification of the FSTD if the FSTD is
moved and reinstalled in a different location.
E1.33................................ A policy, process, or procedure specifying how Sec. 60.31.
the sponsor will maintain control of the
following: (The sponsor must specify how these
records are maintained in plain language form
or in coded form; but if the coded form is
used, the sponsor must specify how the
preservation and retrieval of information will
be conducted.).
E1.33.a.............................. The MQTG and each amendment..................... .......................
E1.33.b.............................. A record of all FSTD modifications required by .......................
this part since the issuance of the original
SOQ.
E1.33.c.............................. Results of the qualification evaluations .......................
(initial and each upgrade) since the issuance
of the original SOQ.
E1.33.d.............................. Results of the objective tests conducted in .......................
accordance with this part for a period of 2
years.
E1.33.e.............................. Results of the previous three continuing .......................
qualification evaluations, or the continuing
qualification evaluations from the previous 2
years, whichever covers a longer period..
E1.33.f.............................. Comments obtained in accordance with Sec. .......................
60.9(b);.
E1.33.g.............................. A record of all discrepancies entered in the .......................
discrepancy log over the previous 2 years,
including the following:
E1.33.g.1............................ A list of the components or equipment that were .......................
or are missing, malfunctioning, or inoperative.
E1.33.g.2............................ The action taken to correct the discrepancy..... .......................
E1.33.g.3............................ The date the corrective action was taken........ .......................
E1.33.g.4............................ The identity of the person determining that the .......................
discrepancy has been corrected..
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
* Note: If the sponsor has an approved discrepancy prioritization system, this item is satisfied by describing
how discrepancies are prioritized, what actions are taken, and how the sponsor will notify the responsible
Flight Standards office if the MMI has not been repaired or replaced within the specified timeframe.
Appendix F to Part 60--[Amended]
0
45. In appendix F to part 60:
0
a. In section 2, remove the word ``NSPM'' and in its place add the
words ``responsible Flight Standards office'' and remove the phrase
``National Simulator Program Manager (NSPM)--the FAA manager
responsible for the overall administration and direction of the
National Simulator Program (NSP), or a person approved by that FAA
manager.''; and
0
b. In section 3, remove the phrase ``NSPM National Simulator Program
Manager''.
PART 61--CERTIFICATION: PILOTS, FLIGHT INSTRUCTORS, AND GROUND
INSTRUCTORS
0
46. The authority citation for part 61 continues to read as follows:
Authority: 49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g), 40113, 44701-44703, 44707,
44709-44711, 44729, 44903, 45102-45103, 45301-45302; Sec. 2307 Pub.
L. 114-190, 130 Stat. 615 (49 U.S.C. 44703 note).
Sec. 61.58 [Amended]
0
47. Amend Sec. 61.58 by removing paragraphs (j) and (k).
Sec. 61.313 [Amended]
0
48. Amend Sec. 61.313 in paragraph (h)(1) by removing the word
``light'' and adding in its place the word ``flight''.
PART 67--MEDICAL STANDARDS AND CERTIFICATION
0
49. The authority citation for part 67 continues to read as follows:
Authority: 49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701-44703, 44707, 44709-
44711, 45102-45103, 45301-45303.
Sec. 67.4 [Amended]
0
50. Amend Sec. 67.4 in paragraph (b) by removing the numbers ``26200''
and adding in their place the numbers ``25082''.
Sec. 67.409 [Amended]
0
51. Amend Sec. 67.409 in paragraph (a) by removing the phrase ``and in
duplicate'' and by removing the numbers ``26080'' and adding in their
place the numbers ``25082''.
PART 73--SPECIAL USE AIRSPACE
0
52. The authority citation for part 73 continues to read as follows:
Authority: 49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g), 40103, 40113, 40120; E.O.
10854, 24 FR 9565, 3 CFR, 1959-1963 Comp., p. 389.
0
53. Amend Sec. 73.19 by revising paragraphs (a), (b) introductory
text, and (c) to read as follows:
Sec. 73.19 Reports by using agency.
(a) Each using agency must prepare a report on the use of each
restricted area assigned thereto during any part of the preceding 12-
month period ended September 30, and transmit it by the following
January 31 of each year to the Manager, Operations Support Group in
[[Page 75846]]
the ATO Service Center office of the Federal Aviation Administration
having jurisdiction over the area in which the restricted area is
located, with a copy to the Manager, Airspace Policy Group, Federal
Aviation Administration, 800 Independence Avenue SW, Washington, DC
20591.
(b) In the report under this section the using agency must:
* * * * *
(c) If it is determined that the information submitted under
paragraph (b) of this section is not sufficient to evaluate the nature
and extent of the use of a restricted area, the FAA may request the
using agency to submit supplementary reports. Within 60 days after
receiving a request for additional information, the using agency must
submit such information as the FAA Service Center Operations Support
Group Manager considers appropriate. Supplementary reports must be sent
to the FAA officials designated in paragraph (a) of this section.
PART 91--GENERAL OPERATING AND FLIGHT RULES
0
54. The authority citation for part 91 continues to read as follows:
Authority: 49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g), 40101, 40103, 40105,
40113, 40120, 44101, 44111, 44701, 44704, 44709, 44711, 44712,
44715, 44716, 44717, 44722, 46306, 46315, 46316, 46504, 46506-46507,
47122, 47508, 47528-47531, 47534, Pub. L. 114-190, 130 Stat. 615 (49
U.S.C. 44703 note); articles 12 and 29 of the Convention on
International Civil Aviation (61 Stat. 1180), (126 Stat. 11).
Sec. 91.9 [Amended]
0
55. Amend Sec. 91.9 in paragraph (c) by removing the phrase ``part
45'' and adding in its place the phrase ``part 45 or 48''.
Sec. 91.157 [Amended]
0
56. Amend Sec. 91.157 in paragraph (b)(4) introductory text by adding
the word ``less'' after the phrase ``6 degrees or'' and by removing the
word ``more'' before the phrase ``below the horizon''.
Sec. 91.203 [Amended]
0
57. Amend Sec. 91.203 in paragraph (a)(1) by removing the phrase
``part 47'' and adding in its place the phrase ``part 47 or 48''.
Sec. 91.511 [Amended]
0
58. Amend Sec. 91.511 in paragraph (a) introductory text by adding the
words ``operating under this subpart'' after the word ``person'' in the
first sentence.
Sec. 91.609 [Amended]
0
59. Amend Sec. 91.609 in paragraph (g) by adding the words ``49 CFR''
before both instances of the words ``part 830''.
Sec. 91.1001 [Amended]
0
60. Amend Sec. 91.1001 in paragraph (b)(9) by removing ``(b)(1)(v)''
and adding in its place ``(b)(5)(vi)''.
PART 97--STANDARD INSTRUMENT PROCEDURES
0
61. The authority citation for part 97 continues to read as follows:
Authority: 49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g), 40103, 40106, 40113,
40114, 40120, 44502, 44514, 44701, 44719, and 44721-44722.
Sec. 97.20 [Amended]
0
62. Amend Sec. 97.20 in paragraph (b) by:
0
a. Removing the phrase ``FAA's Rules Docket (AGC-200) and at the
National Flight Data Center, 800 Independence Avenue SW., Washington,
DC 20590'' and adding in its place the phrase ``U.S. Department of
Transportation, Docket Operations, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, West
Building Ground Floor, Room W12-140, Washington, DC 20590, and at
Aeronautical Information Services, 1305 East-West Highway, Silver
Spring, MD 20910''; and
0
b. Removing the phrase ``call 202-741-6030'' and adding in its place
the words phrase ``email: [email protected]''.
PART 101--MOORED BALLOONS, KITES, AMATEUR ROCKETS, UNMANNED FREE
BALLOONS
0
63. The authority citation for part 101 continues to read as follows:
Authority: 49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g), 40101 note, 40103, 40113-
40114, 45302, 44502, 44514, 44701-44702, 44721, 46308.
Sec. 101.21 [Amended]
0
64. Amend Sec. 101.21 in paragraph (a) by removing citation ``Sec.
101.25(b)(7)(ii)'' and adding in its place citation ``Sec.
101.25(g)(2)''.
PART 107--SMALL UNMANNED AIRCRAFT SYSTEMS
0
65. The authority citation for part 107 continues to read as follows:
Authority: 49 U.S.C. 106(f), 40101 note, 40103(b), 44701(a)(5),
44807.
0
66. Revise the heading for Sec. 107.9 to read as follows:
Sec. 107.9 Safety event reporting.
* * * * *
PART 121--OPERATING REQUIREMENTS: DOMESTIC, FLAG, AND SUPPLEMENTAL
OPERATIONS
0
67. The authority citation for part 121 continues to read as follows:
Authority: 49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g), 40103, 40113, 40119,
41706, 42301 preceding note added by Pub. L. 112-95, sec. 412, 126
Stat. 89, 44101, 44701-44702, 44705, 44709-44711, 44713, 44716-
44717, 44722, 44729, 44732; 46105; Pub. L. 111-216, 124 Stat. 2348
(49 U.S.C. 44701 note); Pub. L. 112-95 126 Stat 62 (49 U.S.C. 44732
note).
Sec. 121.310 [Amended]
0
68. Amend Sec. 121.310 in paragraph (b)(2)(iii) by removing the words
``turbopropeller powered'' and adding in their place the words
``turbopropeller-powered''.
Sec. 121.311 Seats, safety belts, and shoulder harnesses. [Amended]
0
69. Amend Sec. 121.311 in paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(C) introductory text by
removing the citation ``(B)(2)(ii)(A)'' and adding in its place the
citation ``(b)(2)(ii)(A)''.
Sec. 121.359 [Amended]
0
70. Amend Sec. 121.359 in paragraph (h) by adding the phrase ``49
CFR'' before both instances of the phrase ``part 830''.
Sec. 121.391 [Amended]
0
71. Amend Sec. 121.391 in paragraph (d) by removing the word
``exists'' and adding in its place the word ``exits''.
Sec. 121.523 [Amended]
0
72. Amend Sec. 121.523 in paragraph (c) by removing the second
instance of the word ``duty'' in the third sentence and adding in its
place the word ``during''.
Sec. 121.703 [Amended]
0
73. Amend Sec. 121.703 in paragraph (f) by removing the citation ``14
CFR part 830'' and adding in its place the citation ``49 CFR part
830''.
Sec. 121.909 [Amended]
0
74. Amend Sec. 121.909 in paragraph (a) by removing the phrase ``made,
through the FAA office responsible for approval of the certificate
holder's operations specifications, to the Manager of the Air
Transportation Division'' and adding in its place the phrase ``made to
the responsible Flight Standards office''.
Sec. 121.923 [Amended]
0
75. Amend Sec. 121.923 in paragraph (a)(2) by removing the phrase
``made, through the FAA office directly responsible for oversight of
the training provider, to the Manager of the Air Transportation
Division'' and adding in
[[Page 75847]]
its place the phrase ``made to the responsible Flight Standards
office''.
0
76. Amend Sec. 121.1115 by revising table 2 to read as follows:
Sec. 121.1115 Limit of validity.
* * * * *
Table 2--Airplanes Excluded From Sec. 26.21
------------------------------------------------------------------------
Default LOV
[flight cycles
Airplane model (FC) or flight
hours (FH)]
------------------------------------------------------------------------
Airbus:
Caravelle........................................ 15,000 FC/24,000
FH
Avions Marcel Dassault:
Breguet Aviation Mercure 100C.................... 20,000 FC/16,000
FH
Boeing:
Boeing 707 (-100 Series and -200 Series)......... 20,000 FC
Boeing 707 (-300 Series and -400 Series)......... 20,000 FC
Boeing 720....................................... 30,000 FC
Bombardier:
CL-44D4 and CL-44J............................... 20,000 FC
BD-700........................................... 15,000 FC
Bristol Aeroplane Company:
Britannia 305.................................... 10,000 FC
British Aerospace Airbus, Ltd.:
BAC 1-11 (all models)............................ 85,000 FC
British Aerospace (Commercial Aircraft) Ltd.:
Armstrong Whitworth Argosy A.W. 650 Series 101... 20,000 FC
BAE Systems (Operations) Ltd.:
BAe 146-100A (all models)........................ 50,000 FC
BAe 146-200-07................................... 50,000 FC
BAe 146-200-07 Dev............................... 50,000 FC
BAe 146-200-11................................... 50,000 FC
BAe 146-200-07A.................................. 47,000 FC
BAe 146-200-11 Dev............................... 43,000 FC
BAe 146-300 (all models)......................... 40,000 FC
Avro 146-RJ70A (all models)...................... 40,000 FC
Avro 146-RJ85A and 146-RJ100A (all models)....... 50,000 FC
D & R Nevada, LLC:
Convair Model 22................................. 1,000 FC/1,000 FH
Convair Model 23M................................ 1,000 FC/1,000 FH
deHavilland Aircraft Company, Ltd.:
D.H. 106 Comet 4C................................ 8,000 FH
Gulfstream:
GV............................................... 40,000 FH
GV-SP............................................ 40,000 FH
Ilyushin Aviation Complex:
IL-96T........................................... 10,000 FC/30,000
FH
Lockhead:
300-50A01(USAF C 141A)........................... 20,000 FC
------------------------------------------------------------------------
* * * * *
PART 125-- CERTIFICATION AND OPERATIONS: AIRPLANES HAVING A SEATING
CAPACITY OF 20 OR MORE PASSENGERS OR A MAXIMUM PAYLOAD CAPACITY OF
6,000 POUNDS OR MORE; AND RULES GOVERNING PERSONS ON BOARD SUCH
AIRCRAFT
0
77. The authority citation for part 125 continues to read as follows:
Authority: 49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g), 40113, 44701-44702, 44705,
44710-44711, 44713, 44716-44717, 44722.
Sec. 125.285 [Amended]
0
78. Amend Sec. 125.285 in paragraph (d) by removing the citation
``(c)(3)'' and adding in its place the citation ``(c)(2)''.
PART 129--OPERATIONS: FOREIGN AIR CARRIERS AND FOREIGN OPERATORS OF
U.S.-REGISTERED AIRCRAFT ENGAGED IN COMMON CARRIAGE
0
79. The authority citation for part 129 continues to read as follows:
Authority: 49 U.S.C. 1372, 40113, 40119, 44101, 44701-44702,
44705, 44709-44711, 44713, 44716-44717, 44722, 44901-44904, 44906,
44912, 46105, Pub. L. 107-71 sec. 104.
Sec. 129.18 [Amended]
0
80. Amend Sec. 129.18 in paragraph (b) introductory text by removing
the word ``or'' and adding in its place the word ``of''.
0
81. Amend Sec. 129.115 by revising table 2 to read as follows:
Sec. 129.115 Limit of validity.
* * * * *
[[Page 75848]]
Table 2--Airplanes Excluded From Sec. 26.21
------------------------------------------------------------------------
Default LOV [flight cycles
Airplane model (FC) or flight hours (FH)]
------------------------------------------------------------------------
Airbus:
Caravelle............................. 15,000 FC/24,000 FH
Avions Marcel Dassault:
Breguet Aviation Mercure 100C......... 20,000 FC/16,000 FH
Boeing:
Boeing 707 (-100 Series and -200 20,000 FC
Series)..............................
Boeing 707 (-300 Series and -400 20,000 FC
Series)..............................
Boeing 720............................ 30,000 FC
Bombardier:
CL-44D4 and CL-44J.................... 20,000 FC
BD-700................................ 15,000 FC
Bristol Aeroplane Company:
Britannia 305......................... 10,000 FC
British Aerospace Airbus, Ltd.:
BAC 1-11 (all models)................. 85,000 FC
British Aerospace (Commercial Aircraft)
Ltd.:
Armstrong Whitworth Argosy A.W. 650 20,000 FC
Series 101...........................
BAE Systems (Operations) Ltd.:
BAe 146-100A (all models)............. 50,000 FC
BAe 146-200-07........................ 50,000 FC
BAe 146-200-07 Dev.................... 50,000 FC
BAe 146-200-11........................ 50,000 FC
BAe 146-200-07A....................... 47,000 FC
BAe 146-200-11 Dev.................... 43,000 FC
BAe 146-300 (all models).............. 40,000 FC
Avro 146-RJ70A (all models)........... 40,000 FC
Avro 146-RJ85A and 146-RJ100A (all 50,000 FC
models)..............................
D & R Nevada, LLC:
Convair Model 22...................... 1,000 FC/1,000 FH
Convair Model 23M..................... 1,000 FC/1,000 FH
deHavilland Aircraft Company, Ltd.:
D.H. 106 Comet 4C..................... 8,000 FH
Gulfstream:
GV.................................... 40,000 FH
GV-SP................................. 40,000 FH
Ilyushin Aviation Complex:
IL-96T................................ 10,000 FC/30,000 FH
Lockheed:
300-50A01 (USAF C 141A)............... 20,000 FC
------------------------------------------------------------------------
* * * * *
PART 135--OPERATING REQUIREMENTS: COMMUTER AND ON DEMAND OPERATIONS
AND RULES GOVERNING PERSONS ON BOARD SUCH AIRCRAFT
0
82. The authority citation for part 135 continues to read as follows:
Authority: 49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g), 40113, 41706, 44701-44702,
44705, 44709, 44711-44713, 44715-44717, 44722, 44730, 45101-45105;
Public Law 112-95, 126 Stat. 58 (49 U.S.C. 44730).
Sec. 135.415 [Amended]
0
83. Amend Sec. 135.415 in paragraph (f) by adding the words ``49 CFR''
before the words ``part 830''.
PART 141--PILOT SCHOOLS
0
84. The authority citation for part 141 continues to read as follows:
Authority: 49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g), 40113, 44701-44703, 44707,
44709, 44711, 45102-45103, 45301-45302.
0
85. Amend appendix I to part 141 by revising paragraph 4.(a)(3)(ii) and
adding paragraphs 4.(i)(2)(i) and (ii) to read as follows:
Appendix I to Part 141--Additional Aircraft Category and/or Class
Rating Course
* * * * *
4. Flight Training
(a) * * *
(3) * * *
(ii) Ten hours of training in a complex airplane, a turbine-
powered airplane, or a technically advanced airplane that meets the
requirements of Sec. 61.129(j), or any combination thereof. The
airplane must be appropriate to land or sea for the rating sought;
* * * * *
(i) * * *
(2) * * *
(i) Five training flights in a glider with a certificated flight
instructor on the launch/tow procedures approved for the course and
on the appropriate approved areas of operation listed in appendix D
of part 141, paragraph 4.(d)(6); and
(ii) Three training flights in a glider with a certificated
flight instructor in preparation for the practical test within 2
calendar months preceding the date of the test.
* * * * *
PART 183--REPRESENTATIVES OF THE ADMINISTRATOR
0
86. The authority citation for part 183 continues to read as follows:
Authority: 31 U.S.C. 9701; 49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g), 40113,
44702, 45303.
Sec. 183.11 [Amended]
0
87. Amend Sec. 183.11 in paragraph (d) by:
0
a. Removing the words ``Associate Administrator for Air Traffic'' and
adding in their place the words ``Associate Administrator for Aviation
Safety''; and
[[Page 75849]]
0
b. Adding the word ``Designated'' before the phrase ``Air Traffic
Control Tower Operator Examiners''.
0
88. Amend Sec. 183.25 by revising paragraph (c) to read as follows:
Sec. 183.25 Technical personnel examiners.
* * * * *
(c) A designated air traffic control tower operator examiner may--
(1) Accept applications for, and conduct, written and practical
tests necessary for issuing control tower operator certificates under
part 65 of this chapter; and
(2) In the discretion of the Associate Administrator for Aviation
Safety issue temporary control tower operator certificates to qualified
applicants.
* * * * *
PART 440--FINANCIAL RESPONSIBILITY
0
89. The authority citation for part 440 continues to read as follows:
Authority: 51 U.S.C. 50901-50923.
0
90. Amend Sec. 440.19 by adding paragraphs (a)(1) and (2) to read as
follows:
Sec. 440.19 United States payment of excess third-party liability
claims.
(a) * * *
(1) Exceeds the amount of insurance required under Sec. 440.9(b);
and
(2) Is not more than $1,500,000,000 (as adjusted for inflation
occurring after January 1, 1989) above that amount.
* * * * *
Issued under authority provided by 49 U.S.C. 106(f), 44701(a),
and 44703 in Washington, DC, on October 21, 2022.
Brandon Roberts,
Executive Director, Office of Rulemaking.
[FR Doc. 2022-23327 Filed 12-8-22; 8:45 am]
BILLING CODE 4910-13-P