Procedures for Determining Eligibility for Access to Classified Matter or Special Nuclear Material, 57105-57115 [2017-25257]
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57105
Rules and Regulations
Federal Register
Vol. 82, No. 231
Monday, December 4, 2017
This section of the FEDERAL REGISTER
contains regulatory documents having general
applicability and legal effect, most of which
are keyed to and codified in the Code of
Federal Regulations, which is published under
50 titles pursuant to 44 U.S.C. 1510.
The Code of Federal Regulations is sold by
the Superintendent of Documents.
I. Background
DEPARTMENT OF ENERGY
10 CFR Part 710
[Docket No. AU–RM–17–PACNM]
RIN 1992–AA56
Procedures for Determining Eligibility
for Access to Classified Matter or
Special Nuclear Material
Department of Energy.
Final rule.
AGENCY:
ACTION:
The Department of Energy
(DOE) is amending its regulations which
set forth the policies and procedures for
resolving questions concerning
eligibility for DOE access authorization.
The revisions update appendix A, and
related text, with the most current
national standards for determining
eligibility for access to classified matter
and special nuclear material, and delete
references to Executive Order 10450,
which was revoked pursuant to
Executive Order 13764, dated January
17, 2017.
DATES: This rule is effective January 3,
2018.
FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT: U.S.
Department of Energy, Office of
Departmental Personnel Security, (202)
586–3249,
officeofdepartmentalpersonnelsecurity@
hq.doe.gov, or Christina Pak, Office of
the General Counsel, (202) 586–4114,
christina.pak@hq.doe.gov.
SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:
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SUMMARY:
I. Background
II. Section-by-Section Analysis
III. Procedural Analysis
A. Review Under the Administrative
Procedure Act
B. Review Under Executive Order 12866
and 13563
C. Review Under Executive Order 12988
D. Review Under the Regulatory Flexibility
Act
E. Review Under the Paperwork Reduction
Act
F. Review Under the National
Environmental Policy Act
G. Review Under Executive Order 13132
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H. Review Under the Unfunded Mandates
Reform Act of 1995
I. Review Under the Treasury and General
Government Appropriations Act, 1999
J. Review Under Executive Order 13211
K. Review Under the Treasury and General
Government Appropriations Act, 2001
L. Approval by the Office of the Secretary
of Energy
M. Congressional Notification
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The Department of Energy is
publishing this final rule in order to
ensure it contains the most current
national standards for determining
access to classified matter and special
nuclear material and to ensure listed
authorities are still valid.
Appendix A to 10 CFR part 710
contained the Adjudicative Guidelines
for Determining Eligibility for Access to
Classified Information (Adjudicative
Guidelines), originally issued in 1997.
These were included because they were
the standard to which all such access
eligibility determinations within the
Department of Energy were rendered.
On December 10, 2016, the Director of
National Intelligence, in his role as
Security Executive Agent, signed
Security Executive Agent Directive
(SEAD) 4, National Security
Adjudicative Guidelines, which became
effective June 8, 2017. The standards
enumerated in SEAD 4 supersede the
former standards. This final rule now
includes SEAD 4 as appendix A. Also,
Executive Order (E.O.) 10450, Security
Requirements for Government
Employees, issued April 27, 1953, has
historically been cited as one of the
authorities within the rule. E.O. 10450
was revoked pursuant to E.O. 13764 of
January 17, 2017. This rule deletes
references to E.O. 10450.
Laws, regulations and directives
which may apply to part 710 include,
but are not limited to: The Atomic
Energy Act of 1954; Executive Order
13764 (81 FR 8115, January 23, 2017)
Executive Order 13467 (73 FR 38103),
June 30, 2008; Executive Order 12968
(60 FR 40245, August 2, 1995, as
amended); Executive Order 13526 (75
FR 707, January 5, 2010); Executive
Order 10865 (25 FR 1583, February 24,
1960, as amended); Presidential Policy
Directive 19 (October 10, 2012).
II. Section-by-Section Analysis
DOE amends 10 CFR part 710 as
follows:
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1. In the contents section, appendix A
has been revised to reflect it now
contains Security Executive Agency
Directive 4—National Security
Adjudicative Guidelines.
2. In the contents section, under
‘‘Authority’’, reference to E.O. 10450 has
been deleted.
3. Section 710.1 ‘‘Purpose’’ deletes
references to E.O. 10450 and the former
Adjudicative Guidelines and replaces
them with current citations.
4. Section 710.2 ‘‘Scope’’ removes
reference to the Adjudicative
Guidelines.
5. Section 710.3 ‘‘Reference’’ replaces
‘‘Adjudicative Guidelines’’ with
‘‘National Security Adjudicative
Guidelines.’’
6. Section 710.7 ‘‘Application of the
Adjudicative Guidelines’’, is retitled
‘‘Application of the National Security
Adjudicative Guidelines.’’
7. Section 710.7(b) replaces
‘‘Adjudicative Guidelines’’ with
‘‘National Security Adjudicative
Guidelines.’’
8. Appendix A is retitled ‘‘SEAD 4,
National Security Adjudicative
Guidelines’’ and its content is changed
to delete the former Adjudicative
Guidelines and replace with the current
SEAD 4 standards.
III. Procedural Requirements
A. Review Under the Administrative
Procedure Act
The Administrative Procedure Act
(APA) requires that a notice of proposed
rulemaking be published in the Federal
Register unless certain exceptions
apply. 5 U.S.C. 553(b). These exceptions
include rules of agency procedure or
practice, as well as rules for which the
agency finds good cause to waive notice
and comment as unnecessary,
impracticable or contrary to the public
interest. Id. This rule amends DOE
regulations that set forth the policies
and procedures for resolving questions
concerning eligibility for DOE access
authorization. Specifically, the revisions
update Appendix A, and related text,
with the most current national
standards for determining eligibility for
access to classified matter and special
nuclear material, and delete references
to Executive Order 10450, which was
revoked pursuant to Executive Order
13764. The rule provides the means by
which DOE determines eligibility for
access to its own data—classified matter
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and special nuclear material. As such,
the rule is one of agency procedure or
practice exempt from the notice and
comment requirements of the APA. In
addition, the Department has no
discretion in adopting the guidelines,
which by their terms are ‘‘applicable to
any executive branch agency authorized
or designated to conduct adjudications
of covered individuals to determine
eligibility for initial or continued access
to classified national security
information or eligibility to hold a
sensitive position.’’ (See SEAD 4,
Section C. Applicability.) The new
SEAD 4 standards also do not differ
substantively from the Adjudicative
Guidelines. SEAD 4 continues to set
forth 13 criteria (Guidelines A to M) that
may raise a security concern, but was
revised to add or remove conditions that
could raise and/or mitigate security
concerns. Variations between the two
versions are not expected to result in
differing access eligibility
determinations depending upon which
standard was employed. For these
reasons, DOE also finds that notice and
comment on the adoption of SEAD 4 is
also unnecessary, impracticable and
contrary to the public interest. The 30day delay in effective date specified in
5 U.S.C. 553(d) is waived for these same
reasons.
B. Review Under Executive Orders
12866 and 13563
This final rule has been determined
not to be a ‘‘significant regulatory
action’’ under Executive Order 12866,
‘‘Regulatory Planning and Review,’’ 58
FR 51735 (October 4, 1993).
Accordingly, this rule is not subject to
review under the Executive Order by the
Office of Information and Regulatory
Affairs within the Office of Management
and Budget.
DOE has also reviewed the regulation
pursuant to Executive Order 13563,
issued on January 18, 2011 (76 FR 3281
(Jan. 21, 2011)). Executive Order 13563
is supplemental to and explicitly
reaffirms the principles, structures, and
definitions governing regulatory review
established in Executive Order 12866.
To the extent permitted by law, agencies
are required by Executive Order 13563
to: (1) Propose or adopt a regulation
only upon a reasoned determination
that its benefits justify its costs
(recognizing that some benefits and
costs are difficult to quantify); (2) tailor
regulations to impose the least burden
on society, consistent with obtaining
regulatory objectives, taking into
account, among other things, and to the
extent practicable, the costs of
cumulative regulations; (3) select, in
choosing among alternative regulatory
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approaches, those approaches that
maximize net benefits (including
potential economic, environmental,
public health and safety, and other
advantages; distributive impacts; and
equity); (4) to the extent feasible, specify
performance objectives, rather than
specifying the behavior or manner of
compliance that regulated entities must
adopt; and (5) identify and assess
available alternatives to direct
regulation, including providing
economic incentives to encourage the
desired behavior, such as user fees or
marketable permits, or providing
information upon which choices can be
made by the public.
DOE emphasizes as well that
Executive Order 13563 requires agencies
to use the best available techniques to
quantify anticipated present and future
benefits and costs as accurately as
possible. In its guidance, the Office of
Information and Regulatory Affairs has
emphasized that such techniques may
include identifying changing future
compliance costs that might result from
technological innovation or anticipated
behavioral changes. DOE believes that
this rule is consistent with these
principles, including the requirement
that, to the extent permitted by law,
agencies adopt a regulation only upon a
reasoned determination that its benefits
justify its costs and, in choosing among
alternative regulatory approaches, those
approaches maximize net benefits.
C. Review Under Executive Order 12988
With respect to the review of existing
regulations and the promulgation of
new regulations, section 3(a) of
Executive Order 12988, ‘‘Civil Justice
Reform,’’ 61 FR 4729 (February 7, 1996),
imposes on Executive agencies the
general duty to adhere to the following
requirements: (1) Eliminate drafting
errors and ambiguity; (2) write
regulations to minimize litigation; and
(3) provide a clear legal standard for
affected conduct rather than a general
standard and promote simplification
and burden reduction.
With regard to the review required by
section 3(a), section 3(b) of Executive
Order 12988 specifically requires that
Executive agencies make every
reasonable effort to ensure that the
regulation: (1) Clearly specifies the
preemptive effect, if any; (2) clearly
specifies any effect on existing Federal
law or regulation; (3) provides a clear
legal standard for affected conduct
while promoting simplification and
burden reduction; (4) specifies the
retroactive effect, if any; (5) adequately
defines key terms; and (6) addresses
other important issues affecting clarity
and general draftsmanship under any
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guidelines issued by the Attorney
General. Section 3(c) of Executive Order
12988 requires Executive agencies to
review regulations in light of applicable
standards in section 3(a) and section
3(b) to determine whether they are met
or it is unreasonable to meet one or
more of them. DOE has completed the
required review and determined that, to
the extent permitted by law, this
regulation meets the relevant standards
of Executive Order 12988.
D. Review Under the Regulatory
Flexibility Act
The Regulatory Flexibility Act (5
U.S.C. 601 et seq.) requires preparation
of an initial regulatory flexibility
analysis for any rule that by law must
be proposed for public comment, unless
the agency certifies that the rule, if
promulgated, will not have a significant
economic impact on a substantial
number of small entities. As required by
Executive Order 13272, ‘‘Proper
Consideration of Small Entities in
Agency Rulemaking,’’ (67 FR 53461,
August 16, 2002), DOE published
procedures and policies on February 19,
2003, to ensure that the potential
impacts of its rules on small entities are
properly considered during the
rulemaking process (68 FR 7990). DOE
has made its procedures and policies
available on the Office of the General
Counsel’s Web site at https://
www.gc.doe.gov.
This rule amends procedures that
apply to the determination of eligibility
of individuals for access to classified
information and access to special
nuclear material. The rule applies to
individuals, and would not apply to
‘‘small entities,’’ as that term is defined
in the Regulatory Flexibility Act. In
addition, as stated above, the
Department has no discretion in
adopting the guidelines; it is the
guidelines themselves that impose any
impact on affected individuals. As a
result, the rule does not have a
significant economic impact on a
substantial number of small entities.
Accordingly, DOE certifies that the
rule will not have a significant
economic impact on a substantial
number of small entities, and, therefore,
no regulatory flexibility analysis is
required. DOE’s certification and
supporting statement of factual basis
will be provided to the Chief Counsel
for Advocacy of the Small Business
Administration for review under 5
U.S.C. 605(b).
E. Review Under the Paperwork
Reduction Act
This rule does not impose a collection
of information requirement subject to
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the Paperwork Reduction Act, 44 U.S.C.
3501 et seq.
F. Review Under the National
Environmental Policy Act
DOE has concluded that promulgation
of this rule falls into a class of actions
which would not individually or
cumulatively have significant impact on
the human environment, as determined
by DOE’s regulations (10 CFR part 1021,
subpart D) implementing the National
Environmental Policy Act (NEPA) of
1969 (42 U.S.C. 4321 et seq.).
Specifically, this rule is categorically
excluded from NEPA review because
the amendments to the previous rule are
strictly procedural (categorical
exclusion A6). Therefore, this rule does
not require an environmental impact
statement or environmental assessment
pursuant to NEPA.
G. Review Under Executive Order 13132
Executive Order 13132, 64 FR 43255
(August 4, 1999), imposes certain
requirements on agencies formulating
and implementing policies or
regulations that preempt State law or
that have federalism implications.
Agencies are required to examine the
constitutional and statutory authority
supporting any action that would limit
the policymaking discretion of the
States and carefully assess the necessity
for such actions. DOE has examined this
rule and has determined that it does not
preempt State law and does not have a
substantial direct effect on the States, on
the relationship between the national
government and the States, or on the
distribution of power and
responsibilities among the various
levels of government. No further action
is required by Executive Order 13132.
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H. Review Under the Unfunded
Mandates Reform Act of 1995
The Unfunded Mandates Reform Act
of 1995 (Public Law 104–4) generally
requires a Federal agency to perform a
detailed assessment of costs and
benefits of any rule imposing a Federal
Mandate with costs to State, local or
tribal governments, or to the private
sector, of $100 million or more. This
rulemaking does not impose a Federal
mandate on State, local or tribal
governments or on the private sector.
I. Review Under the Treasury and
General Government Appropriations
Act, 1999
Section 654 of the Treasury and
General Government Appropriations
Act, 1999 (Pub. L. 105–277), requires
Federal agencies to issue a Family
Policymaking Assessment for any rule
or policy that may affect family well
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being. This rule, has no impact on
family well-being. Accordingly, DOE
has concluded that it is not necessary to
prepare a Family Policymaking
Assessment.
The report will state that it has been
determined that the rule is not a ‘‘major
rule’’ as defined by 5 U.S.C. 804(2).
J. Review Under Executive Order 13211
Executive Order 13211, ‘‘Actions
Concerning Regulations That
Significantly Affect Energy Supply,
Distribution, or Use,’’ 66 FR 28355 (May
22, 2001), requires Federal agencies to
prepare and submit to the Office of
Information and Regulatory Affairs
(OIRA), Office of Management and
Budget, a Statement of Energy Effects for
any significant energy action. A
‘‘significant energy action’’ is defined as
any action by an agency that
promulgates or is expected to lead to
promulgation of a final rule, and that:
(1) Is a significant regulatory action
under Executive Order 12866, or any
successor order; and (2) is likely to have
a significant adverse effect on the
supply, distribution, or use of energy, or
(3) is designated by the Administrator of
OIRA as a significant energy action. For
any proposed significant energy action,
the agency must give a detailed
statement of any adverse effects on
energy supply, distribution or use
should the proposal be implemented,
and of reasonable alternatives to the
action and their expected benefits on
energy supply, distribution and use.
This rule is not a significant energy
action. Accordingly, DOE has not
prepared a Statement of Energy Effects.
Administrative practice and
procedure, Classified information,
Government contracts, Government
employees, Nuclear energy.
K. Review Under the Treasury and
General Government Appropriations
Act, 2001
The Treasury and General
Government Appropriations Act, 2001
(44 U.S.C. 3516, note) provides for
agencies to review most disseminations
of information to the public under
implementing guidelines established by
each agency pursuant to general
guidelines issued by OMB. OMB’s
guidelines were published at 67 FR
8452 (February 22, 2002), and DOE’s
guidelines were published at 67 FR
62446 (October 7, 2002). DOE has
reviewed this rule under the OMB and
DOE guidelines and has concluded that
it is consistent with applicable policies
in those guidelines.
L. Approval by the Office of the
Secretary of Energy
The Secretary of Energy has approved
issuance of this rule.
M. Congressional Notification
As required by 5 U.S.C. 801, DOE will
report to Congress on the promulgation
of this rule prior to its effective date.
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List of Subjects in 10 CFR Part 710
Issued in Washington, DC, on October 31,
2017.
Rick Perry,
Secretary of Energy.
For the reasons set out in the
preamble, DOE amends part 710 of title
10 of the Code of Federal Regulations as
set forth below.
PART 710—PROCEDURES FOR
DETERMINING ELIGIBILITY FOR
ACCESS TO CLASSIFIED MATTER
AND SPECIAL NUCLEAR MATERIAL
1. The authority citation for part 710
is revised to read as follows:
■
Authority: 42 U.S.C. 2165, 2201, 5815,
7101, et seq., 7383h-l; 50 U.S.C. 2401 et seq.;
E.O. 10865, 3 CFR 1959–1963 comp., p. 398,
as amended, 3 CFR Chap. IV; E.O. 13526, 3
CFR 2010 Comp., pp. 298–327 (or successor
orders); E.O. 12968, 3 CFR 1995 Comp., p.
391.
2. Section 710.1 is amended by
revising paragraph (b) to read as follows:
■
§ 710.1
Purpose.
*
*
*
*
*
(b) This part implements: Executive
Order 12968, 60 FR 40245 (August 2,
1995), as amended; Executive Order
13526, 75 FR 707 (January 5, 2010) as
amended; Executive Order 10865, 25 FR
1583 (February 24, 1960), as amended;
and the National Security Adjudicative
Guidelines, issued as Security Executive
Agent Directive 4 by the Director of
National Intelligence on December 10,
2016.
3. Section 710.2 is amended by
revising the introductory text to read as
follows:
■
§ 710.2
Scope.
The procedures outlined in this rule
apply to determinations of eligibility for
access authorization for:
*
*
*
*
*
■
4. Revise § 710.3 to read as follows:
§ 710.3
Reference.
The National Security Adjudicative
Guidelines are set forth in Appendix A
to this part.
5. Section 710.7 is amended by
revising the section heading and
paragraph (b) to read as follows:
■
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§ 710.7 Application of the National
Security Adjudicative Guidelines.
*
*
*
*
*
(b) All such determinations shall be
based upon the application of the
National Security Adjudicative
Guidelines (Adjudicative Guidelines), or
any successor national standard issued
under authority of the President.
*
*
*
*
*
■ 6. Appendix A is revised to read as
follows:
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Appendix A to Part 710—Security
Executive Agent Directive 4, National
Security Adjudicative Guidelines (June
8, 2017)
(The following guidelines, included in this
part for reference purposes only, are
reproduced by DOE with minor formatting
changes to comply with the Document
Drafting Handbook issued by the Office of the
Federal Register. The original guidelines were
signed by James Clapper, Security Executive
Agent, on December 10, 2016, with an
effective date 180 days after signature (June
8, 2017). For any discrepancies between the
original guidelines and the guidelines
published in this appendix, the original
guidelines control.)
A. Authority: The National Security Act of
1947, as amended; Intelligence Reform and
Terrorism Prevention Act of 2004 (IRTPA), as
amended; Executive Order (E.O.) 10450,
Security Requirements for Government
Employment, as amended; EO 12968, Access
to Classified Information, as amended; E.O.
13467, Reforming Processes Related to
Suitability for Government Employment,
Fitness for Contractor Employees, and
Eligibility for Access to Classified National
Security Information; E.O. 13549, Classified
National Security Information Program for
State, Local, Tribal and Private Sector
Entities; Performance Accountability Council
memorandum, Assignment of Functions
Relating to Coverage of Contractor Employee
Fitness in the Federal Investigative
Standards, 6 December 2012; and other
applicable provisions of law.
B. Purpose: This Security Executive Agent
(SecEA) Directive establishes the single,
common adjudicative criteria for all covered
individuals who require initial or continued
eligibility for access to classified information
or eligibility to hold a sensitive position. The
Guidelines reflected herein supersede all
previously issued national security
adjudicative criteria or guidelines.
C. Applicability: This Directive applies to
any executive branch agency authorized or
designated to conduct adjudications of
covered individuals to determine eligibility
for initial or continued access to classified
national security information or eligibility to
hold a sensitive position.
D. Definitions: As used in this Directive,
the following terms have the meanings set
forth in the following paragraphs 1 through
8:
1. Agency: Any ‘‘Executive agency’’ as
defined in Section 105 of Title 5, United
States Code (U.S.C.), including the ‘‘military
departments,’’ as defined in Section 102 of
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Title 5, U.S.C. and any other entity within
the Executive Branch that comes into
possession of classified information or has
positions designated as sensitive.
2. Authorized adjudicative agency: An
agency authorized by law, executive order, or
designation by the SecEA to determine
eligibility for access to classified information
in accordance with E.O. 12968, as amended,
or eligibility to hold a sensitive position.
3. Authorized investigative agency: An
agency authorized by law, executive order, or
designation by the SecEA to conduct a
background investigation of individuals who
are proposed for access to classified
information or eligibility to hold a sensitive
position or to ascertain whether such
individuals continue to satisfy the criteria for
retaining access to such information or
eligibility to hold such positions.
4. Classified national security information
or classified information: Information that
has been determined pursuant to E.O. 13526
or any predecessor or successor order, or the
Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, to
require protection against unauthorized
disclosure.
5. Covered individual:
a. A person who performs work for or on
behalf of the executive branch or who seeks
to perform work for or on behalf of the
executive branch, but does not include the
President or (except to the extent otherwise
directed by the President) employees of the
President under 3 U.S.C. 105 or 107, the Vice
President, or (except to the extent otherwise
directed by the Vice President) employees of
the Vice President under 3 U.S.C. 106 or
annual legislative branch appropriations acts;
b. A person who performs work for or on
behalf of a state, local, tribal, or private sector
entity as defined in E.O. 13549 requiring
eligibility for access to classified information;
c. A person working in or for the legislative
or judicial branches requiring eligibility for
access to classified information and the
investigation or determination is conducted
by the executive branch, but does not include
members of Congress; Justices of the
Supreme Court; and Federal judges
appointed by the President.
d. Covered individuals are not limited to
government employees and include all
persons, not excluded under paragraphs
D.5.a., b., or c. of this appendix, who require
eligibility for access to classified information
or eligibility to hold a sensitive position,
including, but not limited to, contractors,
subcontractors, licensees, certificate holders,
grantees, experts, consultants, and
government employees.
6. Foreign Intelligence Entity: Known or
suspected foreign state or non-state
organizations or persons that conduct
intelligence activities to acquire U.S.
information, block or impair U.S. intelligence
collection, influence U.S. policy, or disrupt
U.S. systems and programs. The term
includes foreign intelligence and security
services and international terrorists.
7. National Security Eligibility: Eligibility
for access to classified information or
eligibility to hold a sensitive position, to
include access to sensitive compartmented
information, restricted data, and controlled
or special access program information.
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8. Sensitive Position: Any position within
or in support of an agency in which the
occupant could bring about, by virtue of the
nature of the position, a material adverse
effect on the national security regardless of
whether the occupant has access to classified
information, and regardless of whether the
occupant is an employee, military service
member, or contractor.
E. Policy:
1. The National Security Adjudicative
Guidelines in annex A to this appendix shall
be used by all authorized adjudicative
agencies when rendering a determination for
initial or continued eligibility for access to
classified information or initial or continued
eligibility to hold a sensitive position.
2. Annex B to this appendix sets forth
statutory restrictions on agencies making
certain eligibility determinations for access to
classified information, as well as waiver and
congressional reporting requirements. These
amendments to the IRTPA are commonly
referred to as the Bond Amendment. By
definition, the risk to national security is
equivalent for covered individuals with
access to classified information and covered
individuals occupying a sensitive position.
Occupants of sensitive positions could bring
about, by virtue of the nature of the position,
a material adverse effect on the national
security regardless of whether the occupant
has access to classified information. Due to
the equivalent adverse effect on the national
security and to ensure uniformity,
consistency, and reciprocity of national
security background investigations and
adjudications, the statutory restrictions
imposed by the Bond Amendment are
extended to apply to all covered individuals
who require initial or continued eligibility
for access to classified information or
eligibility to hold a sensitive position.
Authorized adjudicative agencies shall
maintain a record of the number and type of
meritorious waivers granted under Bond
Amendment criteria, to include the rationale
for each waiver, and shall report this data
annually to the SecEA in advance of the
annual report to Congress. Authorized
adjudicative agencies will also maintain a
record of all disqualifications due to Bond
Amendment criteria.
3. Exceptions, as provided for in annex C
to this appendix, shall be used when a
favorable adjudicative decision to grant
initial or continued eligibility for access to
classified information or to hold a sensitive
position is made, despite failure to meet
adjudicative or investigative standards.
4. Eligibility shall be determined by
appropriately trained adjudicative personnel
through the evaluation of all information
bearing on an individual’s loyalty and
allegiance to the United States, including any
information relevant to strength of character,
honesty, discretion, sound judgment,
reliability, ability to protect classified or
sensitive information, and trustworthiness.
Eligibility for access to classified information
or eligibility to occupy a sensitive position
shall only be granted when the evaluation of
all such information demonstrates that such
eligibility is clearly consistent with the
interests of the United States; any doubt shall
be resolved in favor of the national security.
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5. All adjudicative determinations,
including any associated exceptions, shall be
recorded in either Scattered Castles, the Joint
Personnel Adjudication System within the
Department of Defense, or the Central
Verification System database within U.S.
Office of Personnel Management or successor
databases, unless authorized by the SecEA to
withhold information from the database for
national security purposes.
6. When an adjudicative determination is
made to deny or revoke eligibility for access
to classified information or eligibility to hold
a sensitive position, review proceedings, to
the extent they are made available in E.O.
12968, as amended, Part 5, shall be afforded
covered individuals at a minimum.
7. The agency with adjudicative authority
remains responsible for the final
determination.
8. Agencies shall update internal policies
and replace existing national security
adjudicative criteria or guidelines with the
guidelines in this appendix A no later than
June 8, 2017.
9. This Directive is not intended to, and
does not, create any right to administrative or
judicial review, or any other right or benefit,
or trust responsibility substantive or
procedural, enforceable by a party against the
United States, its agencies or
instrumentalities, its officers or employees,
or any other person.
F. Effective Date: This Directive becomes
effective June 8, 2017.
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Annex A to Appendix A to Part 710—
National Security Adjudicative
Guidelines for Determining Eligibility
for Access to Classified Information or
Eligibility to Hold a Sensitive Position
1. Introduction
(a) The following National Security
Adjudicative Guidelines (‘‘guidelines’’) are
established as the single common criteria for
all U.S. Government civilian and military
personnel, consultants, contractors,
licensees, certificate holders or grantees and
their employees, and other individuals who
require initial or continued eligibility for
access to classified information or eligibility
to hold a sensitive position, to include access
to sensitive compartmented information,
restricted data, and controlled or special
access program information (hereafter
referred to as ‘‘national security eligibility’’).
These guidelines shall be used by all
Executive Branch Agencies when rendering
any final national security eligibility
determination.
(b) National security eligibility
determinations take into account a person’s
stability, trustworthiness, reliability,
discretion, character, honesty, and judgment.
Individuals must be unquestionably loyal to
the United States. No amount of oversight or
security procedures can replace the selfdiscipline and integrity of an individual
entrusted to protect the nation’s secrets or
occupying a sensitive position. When a
person’s life history shows evidence of
unreliability or untrustworthiness, questions
arise as to whether the individual can be
relied upon and trusted to exercise the
responsibility necessary for working in an
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environment where protecting the national
security is paramount.
(c) The U.S. Government does not
discriminate on the basis of race, color,
religion, sex, national origin, disability, or
sexual orientation in making a national
security eligibility determination. No
negative inference concerning eligibility
under these guidelines may be raised solely
on the basis of mental health counseling. No
adverse action concerning these guidelines
may be taken solely on the basis of polygraph
examination technical calls in the absence of
adjudicatively significant information.
(d) In accordance with E.O. 12968, as
amended, eligibility for covered individuals
shall be granted only when facts and
circumstances indicate that eligibility is
clearly consistent with the national security
interests of the United States, and any doubt
shall be resolved in favor of national security.
2. The Adjudicative Process
(a) The adjudicative process is an
examination of a sufficient period and a
careful weighing of a number of variables of
an individual’s life to make an affirmative
determination that the individual is an
acceptable security risk. This is known as the
whole-person concept. All available, reliable
information about the person, past and
present, favorable and unfavorable, should be
considered in reaching a national security
eligibility determination.
(b) Each case must be judged on its own
merits, and the final determination remains
the responsibility of the authorized
adjudicative agency. Any doubt concerning
personnel being considered for national
security eligibility will be resolved in favor
of the national security.
(c) The ultimate determination of whether
the granting or continuing of national
security eligibility is clearly consistent with
the interests of national security must be an
overall common sense judgment based upon
careful consideration of the following
guidelines, each of which is to be evaluated
in the context of the whole person.
(1) GUIDELINE A: Allegiance to the United
States
(2) GUIDELINE B: Foreign Influence
(3) GUIDELINE C: Foreign Preference
(4) GUIDELINE D: Sexual Behavior
(5) GUIDELINE E: Personal Conduct
(6) GUIDELINE F: Financial Considerations
(7) GUIDELINE G: Alcohol Consumption
(8) GUIDELINE H: Drug Involvement and
Substance Misuse
(9) GUIDELINE I: Psychological Conditions
(10) GUIDELINE J: Criminal Conduct
(11) GUIDELINE K: Handling Protected
Information
(12) GUIDELINE L: Outside Activities
(13) GUIDELINE M: Use of Information
Technology
(d) In evaluating the relevance of an
individual’s conduct, the adjudicator should
consider the following factors:
(1) The nature, extent, and seriousness of
the conduct;
(2) The circumstances surrounding the
conduct, to include knowledgeable
participation;
(3) The frequency and recency of the
conduct;
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(4) The individual’s age and maturity at the
time of the conduct;
(5) The extent to which participation is
voluntary;
(6) The presence or absence of
rehabilitation and other permanent
behavioral changes;
(7) The motivation for the conduct;
(8) The potential for pressure, coercion,
exploitation, or duress; and
(9) The likelihood of continuation or
recurrence.
(e) Although adverse information
concerning a single criterion may not be
sufficient for an unfavorable eligibility
determination, the individual may be found
ineligible if available information reflects a
recent or recurring pattern of questionable
judgment, irresponsibility, or unstable
behavior. However, a single criterion may be
sufficient to make an unfavorable eligibility
determination even in the absence of a recent
occurrence or a recurring pattern.
Notwithstanding the whole-person concept,
pursuit of further investigation may be
terminated by an appropriate adjudicative
agency in the face of reliable, significant,
disqualifying, adverse information.
(f) When information of security concern
becomes known about an individual who is
currently eligible for access to classified
information or eligible to hold a sensitive
position, the adjudicator should consider
whether the individual:
(1) Voluntarily reported the information;
(2) Was truthful and complete in
responding to questions;
(3) Sought assistance and followed
professional guidance, where appropriate;
(4) Resolved or appears likely to favorably
resolve the security concern;
(5) Has demonstrated positive changes in
behavior; and
(6) Should have his or her national security
eligibility suspended pending final
adjudication of the information.
(g) If after evaluating information of
security concern, the adjudicator decides the
information is serious enough to warrant a
recommendation of denial or revocation of
the national security eligibility, but the
specific risk to national security can be
managed with appropriate mitigation
measures, an adjudicator may recommend
approval to grant initial or continued
eligibility for access to classified information
or to hold a sensitive position with an
exception as defined in Appendix C of this
document.
(h) If after evaluating information of
security concern, the adjudicator decides that
the information is not serious enough to
warrant a recommendation of denial or
revocation of the national security eligibility,
an adjudicator may recommend approval
with a warning that future incidents of a
similar nature or other incidents of
adjudicative concern may result in
revocation of national security eligibility.
(i) It must be noted that the adjudicative
process is predicated upon individuals
providing relevant information pertaining to
their background and character for use in
investigating and adjudicating their national
security eligibility. Any incident of
intentional material falsification or
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purposeful non-cooperation with security
processing is of significant concern. Such
conduct raises questions about an
individual’s judgment, reliability, and
trustworthiness and may be predictive of
their willingness or ability to protect the
national security.
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Guidelines
Guideline A: Allegiance to the United States
3. The Concern. The willingness to
safeguard classified or sensitive information
is in doubt if there is any reason to suspect
an individual’s allegiance to the United
States. There is no positive test for allegiance,
but there are negative indicators. These
include participation in or support for acts
against the United States or placing the
welfare or interests of another country above
those of the United States. Finally, the failure
to adhere to the laws of the United States
may be relevant if the violation of law is
harmful to stated U.S. interests. An
individual who engages in acts against the
United States or provides support or
encouragement to those who do has already
demonstrated willingness to compromise
national security.
4. Conditions that could raise a security
concern and may be disqualifying include:
(a) Involvement in, support of, training to
commit, or advocacy of any act of sabotage,
espionage, treason, terrorism, or sedition
against the United States;
(b) Association or sympathy with persons
who are attempting to commit, or who are
committing, any of the above acts; and
(c) Association or sympathy with persons
or organizations that advocate, threaten, or
use force or violence, or use any other illegal
or unconstitutional means, in an effort to:
(1) Overthrow or influence the U.S.
Government or any state or local government;
(2) Prevent Federal, state, or local
government personnel from performing their
official duties;
(3) Gain retribution for perceived wrongs
caused by the Federal, state, or local
government; and
(4) Prevent others from exercising their
rights under the Constitution or laws of the
United States or of any state.
5. Conditions that could mitigate security
concerns include:
(a) The individual was unaware of the
unlawful aims of the individual or
organization and severed ties upon learning
of these;
(b) The individual’s involvement was
humanitarian and permitted under U.S. law;
(c) Involvement in the above activities
occurred for only a short period of time and
was attributable to curiosity or academic
interest; and
(d) The involvement or association with
such activities occurred under such unusual
circumstances, or so much time has elapsed,
that it is unlikely to recur and does not cast
doubt on the individual’s current reliability,
trustworthiness, or allegiance.
Guideline B: Foreign Influence
6. The Concern. Foreign contacts and
interests, including, but not limited to,
business, financial, and property interests,
are a national security concern if they result
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in divided allegiance. They may also be a
national security concern if they create
circumstances in which the individual may
be manipulated or induced to help a foreign
person, group, organization, or government
in a way inconsistent with U.S. interests or
otherwise made vulnerable to pressure or
coercion by any foreign interest. Assessment
of foreign contacts and interests should
consider the country in which the foreign
contact or interest is located, including, but
not limited to, considerations such as
whether it is known to target U.S. citizens to
obtain classified or sensitive information or
is associated with a risk of terrorism.
7. Conditions that could raise a security
concern and may be disqualifying include:
(a) Contact, regardless of method, with a
foreign family member, business or
professional associate, friend, or other person
who is a citizen of or resident in a foreign
country if that contact creates a heightened
risk of foreign exploitation, inducement,
manipulation, pressure, or coercion;
(b) Connections to a foreign person, group,
government, or country that create a potential
conflict of interest between the individual’s
obligation to protect classified or sensitive
information or technology and the
individual’s desire to help a foreign person,
group, or country by providing that
information or technology;
(c) Failure to report or fully disclose, when
required, association with a foreign person,
group, government, or country;
(d) Counterintelligence information,
whether classified or unclassified, that
indicates the individual’s access to classified
information or eligibility for a sensitive
position may involve unacceptable risk to
national security;
(e) Shared living quarters with a person or
persons, regardless of citizenship status, if
that relationship creates a heightened risk of
foreign inducement, manipulation, pressure,
or coercion;
(f) Substantial business, financial, or
property interests in a foreign country, or in
any foreignowned or foreign-operated
business that could subject the individual to
a heightened risk of foreign influence or
exploitation or personal conflict of interest;
(g) Unauthorized association with a
suspected or known agent, associate, or
employee of a foreign intelligence entity;
(h) Indications that representatives or
nationals from a foreign country are acting to
increase the vulnerability of the individual to
possible future exploitation, inducement,
manipulation, pressure, or coercion; and
(i) Conduct, especially while traveling or
residing outside the U.S., that may make the
individual vulnerable to exploitation,
pressure, or coercion by a foreign person,
group, government, or country.
8. Conditions that could mitigate security
concerns include:
(a) The nature of the relationships with
foreign persons, the country in which these
persons are located, or the positions or
activities of those persons in that country are
such that it is unlikely the individual will be
placed in a position of having to choose
between the interests of a foreign individual,
group, organization, or government and the
interests of the United States;
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(b) There is no conflict of interest, either
because the individual’s sense of loyalty or
obligation to the foreign person, or allegiance
to the group, government, or country is so
minimal, or the individual has such deep and
longstanding relationships and loyalties in
the United States, that the individual can be
expected to resolve any conflict of interest in
favor of the U.S. interest;
(c) Contact or communication with foreign
citizens is so casual and infrequent that there
is little likelihood that it could create a risk
for foreign influence or exploitation;
(d) The foreign contacts and activities are
on U.S. Government business or are
approved by the agency head or designee;
(e) The individual has promptly complied
with existing agency requirements regarding
the reporting of contacts, requests, or threats
from persons, groups, or organizations from
a foreign country; and
(f) The value or routine nature of the
foreign business, financial, or property
interests is such that they are unlikely to
result in a conflict and could not be used
effectively to influence, manipulate, or
pressure the individual.
Guideline C: Foreign Preference
9. The Concern. When an individual acts
in such a way as to indicate a preference for
a foreign country over the United States, then
he or she may provide information or make
decisions that are harmful to the interests of
the United States. Foreign involvement raises
concerns about an individual’s judgment,
reliability, and trustworthiness when it is in
conflict with U.S. national interests or when
the individual acts to conceal it. By itself, the
fact that a U.S. citizen is also a citizen of
another country is not disqualifying without
an objective showing of such conflict or
attempt at concealment. The same is true for
a U.S. citizen’s exercise of any right or
privilege of foreign citizenship and any
action to acquire or obtain recognition of a
foreign citizenship.
10. Conditions that could raise a security
concern and may be disqualifying include:
(a) Applying for and/or acquiring
citizenship in any other country;
(b) Failure to report, or fully disclose when
required, to an appropriate security official,
the possession of a passport or identity card
issued by any country other than the United
States;
(c) Failure to use a U.S. passport when
entering or exiting the U.S.;
(d) Participation in foreign activities,
including but not limited to:
(1) Assuming or attempting to assume any
type of employment, position, or political
office in a foreign government or military
organization; and
(2) Otherwise acting to serve the interests
of a foreign person, group, organization, or
government in any way that conflicts with
U.S. national security interests;
(e) Using foreign citizenship to protect
financial or business interests in another
country in violation of U.S. law; and
(f) An act of expatriation from the United
States such as declaration of intent to
renounce U.S. citizenship, whether through
words or actions.
11. Conditions that could mitigate security
concerns include:
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(a) The foreign citizenship is not in conflict
with U.S. national security interests;
(b) Dual citizenship is based solely on
parental citizenship or birth in a foreign
country, and there is no evidence of foreign
preference;
(c) The individual has expressed a
willingness to renounce the foreign
citizenship that is in conflict with U.S.
national security interests;
(d) The exercise of the rights, privileges, or
obligations of foreign citizenship occurred
before the individual became a U.S. citizen;
(e) The exercise of the entitlements or
benefits of foreign citizenship do not present
a national security concern;
(f) The foreign preference, if detected,
involves a foreign country, entity, or
association that poses a low national security
risk;
(g) Civil employment or military service
was authorized under U.S. law, or the
employment or service was otherwise
consented to as required by U.S. law; and
(h) Any potentially disqualifying activity
took place after receiving the approval by the
agency head or designee.
Guideline D: Sexual Behavior
12. The Concern. Sexual behavior that
involves a criminal offense; reflects a lack of
judgment or discretion; or may subject the
individual to undue influence of coercion,
exploitation, or duress. These issues, together
or individually, may raise questions about an
individual’s judgment, reliability,
trustworthiness, and ability to protect
classified or sensitive information. Sexual
behavior includes conduct occurring in
person or via audio, visual, electronic, or
written transmission. No adverse inference
concerning the standards in this Guideline
may be raised solely on the basis of the
sexual orientation of the individual.
13. Conditions that could raise a security
concern and may be disqualifying include:
(a) Sexual behavior of a criminal nature,
whether or not the individual has been
prosecuted;
(b) A pattern of compulsive, selfdestructive, or high-risk sexual behavior that
the individual is unable to stop;
(c) Sexual behavior that causes an
individual to be vulnerable to coercion,
exploitation, or duress; and
(d) Sexual behavior of a public nature or
that reflects lack of discretion or judgment.
14. Conditions that could mitigate security
concerns include:
(a) The behavior occurred prior to or
during adolescence and there is no evidence
of subsequent conduct of a similar nature;
(b) The sexual behavior happened so long
ago, so infrequently, or under such unusual
circumstances, that it is unlikely to recur and
does not cast doubt on the individual’s
current reliability, trustworthiness, or
judgment;
(c) The behavior no longer serves as a basis
for coercion, exploitation, or duress;
(d) The sexual behavior is strictly private,
consensual, and discreet; and
(e) The individual has successfully
completed an appropriate program of
treatment, or is currently enrolled in one, has
demonstrated ongoing and consistent
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compliance with the treatment plan, and/or
has received a favorable prognosis from a
qualified mental health professional
indicating the behavior is readily controllable
with treatment.
Guideline E: Personal Conduct
15. The Concern. Conduct involving
questionable judgment, lack of candor,
dishonesty, or unwillingness to comply with
rules and regulations can raise questions
about an individual’s reliability,
trustworthiness, and ability to protect
classified or sensitive information. Of special
interest is any failure to cooperate or provide
truthful and candid answers during national
security investigative or adjudicative
processes. The following will normally result
in an unfavorable national security eligibility
determination, security clearance action, or
cancellation of further processing for national
security eligibility:
(a) Refusal, or failure without reasonable
cause, to undergo or cooperate with security
processing, including but not limited to
meeting with a security investigator for
subject interview, completing security forms
or releases, cooperation with medical or
psychological evaluation, or polygraph
examination, if authorized and required; and
(b) Refusal to provide full, frank, and
truthful answers to lawful questions of
investigators, security officials, or other
official representatives in connection with a
personnel security or trustworthiness
determination.
16. Conditions that could raise a security
concern and may be disqualifying include:
(a) Deliberate omission, concealment, or
falsification of relevant facts from any
personnel security questionnaire, personal
history statement, or similar form used to
conduct investigations, determine
employment qualifications, award benefits or
status, determine national security eligibility
or trustworthiness, or award fiduciary
responsibilities;
(b) Deliberately providing false or
misleading information; or concealing or
omitting information, concerning relevant
facts to an employer, investigator, security
official, competent medical or mental health
professional involved in making a
recommendation relevant to a national
security eligibility determination, or other
official government representative;
(c) Credible adverse information in several
adjudicative issue areas that is not sufficient
for an adverse determination under any other
single guideline, but which, when considered
as a whole, supports a whole-person
assessment of questionable judgment,
untrustworthiness, unreliability, lack of
candor, unwillingness to comply with rules
and regulations, or other characteristics
indicating that the individual may not
properly safeguard classified or sensitive
information;
(d) Credible adverse information that is not
explicitly covered under any other guideline
and may not be sufficient by itself for an
adverse determination, but which, when
combined with all available information,
supports a whole-person assessment of
questionable judgment, untrustworthiness,
unreliability, lack of candor, unwillingness to
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comply with rules and regulations, or other
characteristics indicating that the individual
may not properly safeguard classified or
sensitive information. This includes, but is
not limited to, consideration of:
(1) Untrustworthy or unreliable behavior to
include breach of client confidentiality,
release of proprietary information,
unauthorized release of sensitive corporate or
government protected information;
(2) Any disruptive, violent, or other
inappropriate behavior;
(3) A pattern of dishonesty or rule
violations; and
(4) Evidence of significant misuse of
Government or other employer’s time or
resources;
(e) Personal conduct, or concealment of
information about one’s conduct, that creates
a vulnerability to exploitation, manipulation,
or duress by a foreign intelligence entity or
other individual or group. Such conduct
includes:
(1) Engaging in activities which, if known,
could affect the person’s personal,
professional, or community standing;
(2) While in another country, engaging in
any activity that is illegal in that country;
(3) While in another country, engaging in
any activity that, while legal there, is illegal
in the United States;
(f) Violation of a written or recorded
commitment made by the individual to the
employer as a condition of employment; and
(g) Association with persons involved in
criminal activity.
17. Conditions that could mitigate security
concerns include:
(a) The individual made prompt, good-faith
efforts to correct the omission, concealment,
or falsification before being confronted with
the facts;
(b) The refusal or failure to cooperate,
omission, or concealment was caused or
significantly contributed to by advice of legal
counsel or of a person with professional
responsibilities for advising or instructing the
individual specifically concerning security
processes. Upon being made aware of the
requirement to cooperate or provide the
information, the individual cooperated fully
and truthfully;
(c) The offense is so minor, or so much
time has passed, or the behavior is so
infrequent, or it happened under such unique
circumstances that it is unlikely to recur and
does not cast doubt on the individual’s
reliability, trustworthiness, or good
judgment;
(d) The individual has acknowledged the
behavior and obtained counseling to change
the behavior or taken other positive steps to
alleviate the stressors, circumstances, or
factors that contributed to untrustworthy,
unreliable, or other inappropriate behavior,
and such behavior is unlikely to recur;
(e) The individual has taken positive steps
to reduce or eliminate vulnerability to
exploitation, manipulation, or duress;
(f) The information was unsubstantiated or
from a source of questionable reliability; and
(g) Association with persons involved in
criminal activities was unwitting, has ceased,
or occurs under circumstances that do not
cast doubt upon the individual’s reliability,
trustworthiness, judgment, or willingness to
comply with rules and regulations.
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Guideline F: Financial Considerations
18. The Concern. Failure to live within
one’s means, satisfy debts, and meet financial
obligations may indicate poor self-control,
lack of judgment, or unwillingness to abide
by rules and regulations, all of which can
raise questions about an individual’s
reliability, trustworthiness, and ability to
protect classified or sensitive information.
Financial distress can also be caused or
exacerbated by, and thus can be a possible
indicator of, other issues of personnel
security concern such as excessive gambling,
mental health conditions, substance misuse,
or alcohol abuse or dependence. An
individual who is financially overextended is
at greater risk of having to engage in illegal
or otherwise questionable acts to generate
funds. Affluence that cannot be explained by
known sources of income is also a security
concern insofar as it may result from criminal
activity, including espionage.
19. Conditions that could raise a security
concern and may be disqualifying include:
(a) Inability to satisfy debts;
(b) Unwillingness to satisfy debts
regardless of the ability to do so;
(c) A history of not meeting financial
obligations;
(d) Deceptive or illegal financial practices
such as embezzlement, employee theft, check
fraud, expense account fraud, mortgage
fraud, filing deceptive loan statements and
other intentional financial breaches of trust;
(e) Consistent spending beyond one’s
means or frivolous or irresponsible spending,
which may be indicated by excessive
indebtedness, significant negative cash flow,
a history of late payments or of non-payment,
or other negative financial indicators;
(f) Failure to file or fraudulently filing
annual Federal, state, or local income tax
returns or failure to pay annual Federal, state,
or local income tax as required;
(g) Unexplained affluence, as shown by a
lifestyle or standard of living, increase in net
worth, or money transfers that are
inconsistent with known legal sources of
income;
(h) Borrowing money or engaging in
significant financial transactions to fund
gambling or pay gambling debts; and
(i) Concealing gambling losses, family
conflict, or other problems caused by
gambling.
20. Conditions that could mitigate security
concerns include:
(a) The behavior happened so long ago,
was so infrequent, or occurred under such
circumstances that it is unlikely to recur and
does not cast doubt on the individual’s
current reliability, trustworthiness, or good
judgment;
(b) The conditions that resulted in the
financial problem were largely beyond the
person’s control (e.g., loss of employment, a
business downturn, unexpected medical
emergency, a death, divorce or separation,
clear victimization by predatory lending
practices, or identity theft), and the
individual acted responsibly under the
circumstances;
(c) The individual has received or is
receiving financial counseling for the
problem from a legitimate and credible
source, such as a non-profit credit counseling
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service, and there are clear indications that
the problem is being resolved or is under
control;
(d) The individual initiated and is adhering
to a good-faith effort to repay overdue
creditors or otherwise resolve debts;
(e) The individual has a reasonable basis to
dispute the legitimacy of the past-due debt
which is the cause of the problem and
provides documented proof to substantiate
the basis of the dispute or provides evidence
of actions to resolve the issue;
(f) The affluence resulted from a legal
source of income; and
(g) The individual has made arrangements
with the appropriate tax authority to file or
pay the amount owed and is in compliance
with those arrangements.
Guideline G: Alcohol Consumption
21. The Concern. Excessive alcohol
consumption often leads to the exercise of
questionable judgment or the failure to
control impulses, and can raise questions
about an individual’s reliability and
trustworthiness.
22. Conditions that could raise a security
concern and may be disqualifying include:
(a) Alcohol-related incidents away from
work, such as driving while under the
influence, fighting, child or spouse abuse,
disturbing the peace, or other incidents of
concern, regardless of the frequency of the
individual’s alcohol use or whether the
individual has been diagnosed with alcohol
use disorder;
(b) Alcohol-related incidents at work, such
as reporting for work or duty in an
intoxicated or impaired condition, drinking
on the job, or jeopardizing the welfare and
safety of others, regardless of whether the
individual is diagnosed with alcohol use
disorder;
(c) Habitual or binge consumption of
alcohol to the point of impaired judgment,
regardless of whether the individual is
diagnosed with alcohol use disorder;
(d) Diagnosis by a duly qualified medical
or mental health professional (e.g., physician,
clinical psychologist, psychiatrist, or
licensed clinical social worker) of alcohol use
disorder;
(e) The failure to follow treatment advice
once diagnosed;
(f) Alcohol consumption, which is not in
accordance with treatment recommendations,
after a diagnosis of alcohol use disorder; and
(g) Failure to follow any court order
regarding alcohol education, evaluation,
treatment, or abstinence.
23. Conditions that could mitigate security
concerns include:
(a) So much time has passed, or the
behavior was so infrequent, or it happened
under such unusual circumstances that it is
unlikely to recur or does not cast doubt on
the individual’s current reliability,
trustworthiness, or judgment;
(b) The individual acknowledges his or her
pattern of maladaptive alcohol use, provides
evidence of actions taken to overcome this
problem, and has demonstrated a clear and
established pattern of modified consumption
or abstinence in accordance with treatment
recommendations;
(c) The individual is participating in
counseling or a treatment program, has no
PO 00000
Frm 00008
Fmt 4700
Sfmt 4700
previous history of treatment and relapse,
and is making satisfactory progress in a
treatment program; and
(d) The individual has successfully
completed a treatment program along with
any required aftercare, and has demonstrated
a clear and established pattern of modified
consumption or abstinence in accordance
with treatment recommendations.
Guideline H: Drug Involvement 1 and
Substance Misuse
24. The Concern. The illegal use of
controlled substances, to include the misuse
of prescription and non-prescription drugs,
and the use of other substances that cause
physical or mental impairment or are used in
a manner inconsistent with their intended
purpose can raise questions about an
individual’s reliability and trustworthiness,
both because such behavior may lead to
physical or psychological impairment and
because it raises questions about a person’s
ability or willingness to comply with laws,
rules, and regulations. Controlled substance
means any ‘‘controlled substance’’ as defined
in 21 U.S.C. 802. Substance misuse is the
generic term adopted in this guideline to
describe any of the behaviors listed in this
paragraph.
25. Conditions that could raise a security
concern and may be disqualifying include:
(a) Any substance misuse (see definition
listed in paragraph 24);
(b) Testing positive for an illegal drug;
(c) Illegal possession of a controlled
substance, including cultivation, processing,
manufacture, purchase, sale, or distribution;
or possession of drug paraphernalia;
(d) Diagnosis by a duly qualified medical
or mental health professional (e.g., physician,
clinical psychologist, psychiatrist, or
licensed clinical social worker) of substance
use disorder;
(e) Failure to successfully complete a drug
treatment program prescribed by a duly
qualified medical or mental health
professional;
(f) Any illegal drug use while granted
access to classified information or holding a
sensitive position; and
(g) Expressed intent to continue drug
involvement and substance misuse, or failure
to clearly and convincingly commit to
discontinue such misuse.
26. Conditions that could mitigate security
concerns include:
(a) The behavior happened so long ago,
was so infrequent, or happened under such
circumstances that it is unlikely to recur or
does not cast doubt on the individual’s
current reliability, trustworthiness, or good
judgment;
(b) The individual acknowledges his or her
drug involvement and substance misuse,
provides evidence of actions taken to
overcome this problem, and has established
a pattern of abstinence, including, but not
limited to:
(1) Disassociation from drug-using
associates and contacts;
1 Reference annex B to this appendix regarding
statutory requirements contained in Public Law
110–118 (Bond Amendment) applicable to this
guideline.
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(2) Changing or avoiding the environment
where drugs were used; and
(3) Providing a signed statement of intent
to abstain from all drug involvement and
substance misuse, acknowledging that any
future involvement or misuse is grounds for
revocation of national security eligibility;
(c) Abuse of prescription drugs was after a
severe or prolonged illness during which
these drugs were prescribed, and abuse has
since ended; and
(d) Satisfactory completion of a prescribed
drug treatment program, including, but not
limited to, rehabilitation and aftercare
requirements, without recurrence of abuse,
and a favorable prognosis by a duly qualified
medical professional.
Guideline I: Psychological Conditions 2
27. The Concern. Certain emotional,
mental, and personality conditions can
impair judgment, reliability, or
trustworthiness. A formal diagnosis of a
disorder is not required for there to be a
concern under this guideline. A duly
qualified mental health professional (e.g.,
clinical psychologist or psychiatrist)
employed by, or acceptable to and approved
by the U.S. Government, should be consulted
when evaluating potentially disqualifying
and mitigating information under this
guideline and an opinion, including
prognosis, should be sought. No negative
inference concerning the standards in this
guideline may be raised solely on the basis
of mental health counseling.
28. Conditions that could raise a security
concern and may be disqualifying include:
(a) Behavior that casts doubt on an
individual’s judgment, stability, reliability, or
trustworthiness, not covered under any other
guideline and that may indicate an
emotional, mental, or personality condition,
including, but not limited to, irresponsible,
violent, self-harm, suicidal, paranoid,
manipulative, impulsive, chronic lying,
deceitful, exploitative, or bizarre behaviors;
(b) An opinion by a duly qualified mental
health professional that the individual has a
condition that may impair judgment,
stability, reliability, or trustworthiness;
(c) Voluntary or involuntary inpatient
hospitalization;
(d) Failure to follow a prescribed treatment
plan related to a diagnosed psychological/
psychiatric condition that may impair
judgment, stability, reliability, or
trustworthiness, including, but not limited
to, failure to take prescribed medication or
failure to attend required counseling
sessions; and
(e) Pathological gambling, the associated
behaviors of which may include unsuccessful
attempts to stop gambling; gambling for
increasingly higher stakes, usually in an
attempt to cover losses; concealing gambling
losses; borrowing or stealing money to fund
gambling or pay gambling debts; and family
conflict resulting from gambling.
29. Conditions that could mitigate security
concerns include:
2 Reference annex B to this appendix regarding
statutory requirements contained in Public Law
110–118 (Bond Amendment) applicable to this
guideline.
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(a) The identified condition is readily
controllable with treatment, and the
individual has demonstrated ongoing and
consistent compliance with the treatment
plan;
(b) The individual has voluntarily entered
a counseling or treatment program for a
condition that is amenable to treatment, and
the individual is currently receiving
counseling or treatment with a favorable
prognosis by a duly qualified mental health
professional;
(c) Recent opinion by a duly qualified
mental health professional employed by, or
acceptable to and approved by, the U.S.
Government that an individual’s previous
condition is under control or in remission,
and has a low probability of recurrence or
exacerbation;
(d) The past psychological/psychiatric
condition was temporary, the situation has
been resolved, and the individual no longer
shows indications of emotional instability;
(e) There is no indication of a current
problem.
Guideline J: Criminal Conduct 3
30. The Concern. Criminal activity creates
doubt about a person’s judgment, reliability,
and trustworthiness. By its very nature, it
calls into question a person’s ability or
willingness to comply with laws, rules, and
regulations.
31. Conditions that could raise a security
concern and may be disqualifying include:
(a) A pattern of minor offenses, any one of
which on its own would be unlikely to affect
a national security eligibility decision, but
which in combination cast doubt on the
individual’s judgment, reliability, or
trustworthiness;
(b) Evidence (including, but not limited to,
a credible allegation, an admission, and
matters of official record) of criminal
conduct, regardless of whether the individual
was formally charged, prosecuted, or
convicted;
(c) Individual is currently on parole or
probation;
(d) Violation or revocation of parole or
probation, or failure to complete a courtmandated rehabilitation program; and
(e) Discharge or dismissal from the Armed
Forces for reasons less than ‘‘Honorable.’’
32. Conditions that could mitigate security
concerns include:
(a) So much time has elapsed since the
criminal behavior happened, or it happened
under such unusual circumstances, that it is
unlikely to recur and does not cast doubt on
the individual’s reliability, trustworthiness,
or good judgment;
(b) The individual was pressured or
coerced into committing the act and those
pressures are no longer present in the
person’s life;
(c) No reliable evidence to support that the
individual committed the offense; and
(d) There is evidence of successful
rehabilitation; including, but not limited to,
the passage of time without recurrence of
criminal activity, restitution, compliance
3 Reference annex B to this appendix regarding
statutory requirements contained in Public Law
110–118 (Bond Amendment) applicable to this
guideline.
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57113
with the terms of parole or probation, job
training or higher education, good
employment record, or constructive
community involvement.
Guideline K: Handling Protected
Information
33. The Concern. Deliberate or negligent
failure to comply with rules and regulations
for handling protected information—which
includes classified and other sensitive
government information, and proprietary
information—raises doubt about an
individual’s trustworthiness, judgment,
reliability, or willingness and ability to
safeguard such information, and is a serious
security concern.
34. Conditions that could raise a security
concern and may be disqualifying include:
(a) Deliberate or negligent disclosure of
protected information to unauthorized
persons, including, but not limited to,
personal or business contacts, the media, or
persons present at seminars, meetings, or
conferences;
(b) Collecting or storing protected
information in any unauthorized location;
(c) Loading, drafting, editing, modifying,
storing, transmitting, or otherwise handling
protected information, including images, on
any unauthorized equipment or medium;
(d) Inappropriate efforts to obtain or view
protected information outside one’s need to
know;
(e) Copying or modifying protected
information in an unauthorized manner
designed to conceal or remove classification
or other document control markings;
(f) Viewing or downloading information
from a secure system when the information
is beyond the individual’s need-to-know;
(g) Any failure to comply with rules for the
protection of classified or sensitive
information;
(h) Negligence or lax security practices that
persist despite counseling by management;
and
(i) Failure to comply with rules or
regulations that results in damage to the
national security, regardless of whether it
was deliberate or negligent.
35. Conditions that could mitigate security
concerns include:
(a) So much time has elapsed since the
behavior, or it has happened so infrequently
or under such unusual circumstances, that it
is unlikely to recur and does not cast doubt
on the individual’s current reliability,
trustworthiness, or good judgment;
(b) The individual responded favorably to
counseling or remedial security training and
now demonstrates a positive attitude toward
the discharge of security responsibilities;
(c) The security violations were due to
improper or inadequate training or unclear
instructions; and
(d) The violation was inadvertent, it was
promptly reported, there is no evidence of
compromise, and it does not suggest a
pattern.
Guideline L: Outside Activities
36. The Concern. Involvement in certain
types of outside employment or activities is
of security concern if it poses a conflict of
interest with an individual’s security
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responsibilities and could create an increased
risk of unauthorized disclosure of classified
or sensitive information.
37. Conditions that could raise a security
concern and may be disqualifying include:
(a) Any employment or service, whether
compensated or volunteer, with:
(1) The government of a foreign country;
(2) Any foreign national, organization, or
other entity;
(3) A representative of any foreign interest;
and
(4) Any foreign, domestic, or international
organization or person engaged in analysis,
discussion, or publication of material on
intelligence, defense, foreign affairs, or
protected technology; and
(b) Failure to report or fully disclose an
outside activity when this is required.
38. Conditions that could mitigate security
concerns include:
(a) Evaluation of the outside employment
or activity by the appropriate security or
counterintelligence office indicates that it
does not pose a conflict with an individual’s
security responsibilities or with the national
security interests of the United States; and
(b) The individual terminated the
employment or discontinued the activity
upon being notified that it was in conflict
with his or her security responsibilities.
Guideline M: Use of Information Technology
39. The Concern. Failure to comply with
rules, procedures, guidelines, or regulations
pertaining to information technology systems
may raise security concerns about an
individual’s reliability and trustworthiness,
calling into question the willingness or
ability to properly protect sensitive systems,
networks, and information. Information
Technology includes any computer-based,
mobile, or wireless device used to create,
store, access, process, manipulate, protect, or
move information. This includes any
component, whether integrated into a larger
system or not, such as hardware, software, or
firmware, used to enable or facilitate these
operations.
40. Conditions that could raise a security
concern and may be disqualifying include:
(a) Unauthorized entry into any
information technology system;
(b) Unauthorized modification,
destruction, or manipulation of, or denial of
access to, an information technology system
or any data in such a system;
(c) Use of any information technology
system to gain unauthorized access to
another system or to a compartmented area
within the same system;
(d) Downloading, storing, or transmitting
classified, sensitive, proprietary, or other
protected information on or to any
unauthorized information technology system;
(e) Unauthorized use of any information
technology system;
(f) Introduction, removal, or duplication of
hardware, firmware, software, or media to or
from any information technology system
when prohibited by rules, procedures,
guidelines, or regulations or when otherwise
not authorized;
(g) Negligence or lax security practices in
handling information technology that persists
despite counseling by management; and
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(h) Any misuse of information technology,
whether deliberate or negligent, that results
in damage to the national security.
41. Conditions that could mitigate security
concerns include:
(a) So much time has elapsed since the
behavior happened, or it happened under
such unusual circumstances, that it is
unlikely to recur and does not cast doubt on
the individual’s reliability, trustworthiness,
or good judgment;
(b) The misuse was minor and done solely
in the interest of organizational efficiency
and effectiveness;
(c) The conduct was unintentional or
inadvertent and was followed by a prompt,
good-faith effort to correct the situation and
by notification to appropriate personnel; and
(d) The misuse was due to improper or
inadequate training or unclear instructions.
Annex B to Appendix A to Part 710—
Bond Amendment Guidance
On January 28, 2008, Congress amended
the IRTPA of 2004, adding statutory
restrictions on certain eligibility
determinations and establishing waiver and
congressional reporting requirements. These
modifications are collectively referred to as
the ‘‘Bond Amendments’’ and were made
effective on January 1, 2008.4 For the reasons
identified in paragraph E.2 of this appendix,
application of the Bond Amendment’s
statutory restrictions will be applied to all
adjudications covered under this Directive.
1. Prohibition: Heads of agencies are
prohibited from granting or renewing
national security eligibility for any covered
individual who is an unlawful user of a
controlled substance or is an addict as
defined. If an authorized adjudicative agency
has a case pending review that involves an
unlawful user of a controlled substance or an
addict, the statutory prohibition must be
applied and the individual will receive the
agency’s established administrative review
procedures. A meritorious waiver may not be
authorized with reference to this prohibition.
For purposes of this prohibition:
(a) An ‘‘addict’’ is any individual who
habitually uses any narcotic drug so as to
endanger the public morals, health, safety, or
welfare; or is so far addicted to the use of
narcotic drugs as to have lost the power of
self-control with reference to his addiction.
(b) A ‘‘controlled substance’’ means any
‘‘controlled substance’’ as defined in 21
U.S.C. 802.
2. Disqualification: The Bond Amendment
also contains disqualification provisions
which apply only to those covered
individuals seeking access to Sensitive
Compartmented Information (SCI), Special
Access Programs (SAP), or Restricted Data
(RD). Heads of agencies may not grant or
renew access to SCI, SAP, or RD to a covered
individual who:
(a) Has been convicted in any court of the
U.S. of a crime, was sentenced to
imprisonment for a term exceeding one year,
and was incarcerated as a result of that
sentence for not less than one year;
4 IRTPA
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Frm 00010
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Sfmt 4700
(b) Has been discharged or dismissed from
the Armed Forces under dishonorable
conditions; or
(c) Is determined to be mentally
incompetent; an individual is ‘‘mentally
incompetent’’ when he or she has been
declared mentally incompetent as
determined by competency proceedings
conducted in a court or administrative
agency with proper jurisdiction.
3. Waiver Standard and Procedures: When
a disqualifier reflected in paragraphs 2(a)
through (c) of this annex B exists, the
adjudicator will proceed with the
adjudication using the appropriate mitigation
conditions found in these adjudicative
guidelines. If the adjudicator would have
arrived at a favorable decision but for the
Bond Amendment disqualification, a
meritorious waiver may be appropriate.
(a) Meritorious waivers will be considered
an ‘‘Exception’’ to the adjudicative guidelines
and will be annotated as a ‘‘Waiver’’ in the
adjudicative decision recorded in the
appropriate databases listed in paragraph E.5
of this appendix. Adjudicators will provide
a detailed justification for the meritorious
waiver in the final adjudicative report.
(b) If, after applying the appropriate
mitigating factors listed in these adjudicative
guidelines, a meritorious waiver is not
appropriate, the SCI, SAP, or RD access will
be denied or revoked with a written
explanation that cites the adjudicative
guidelines applied and the Bond Amendment
disqualifier. The authorized adjudicative
agency’s established administrative review
procedures shall be followed in all such
cases.
(c) Each authorized adjudicative agency
shall maintain a record of the number and
type of meritorious waivers granted, to
include the rationale for each waiver, and
shall report this data annually to the SecEA
in advance of the annual report to Congress.
Authorized adjudicative agencies will also
maintain a record of all disqualifications,
broken down by type, due to Bond
Amendment requirements.
4. Authorized adjudicative agencies often
have no ability to predict whether the
covered individual for whom national
security eligibility determinations are being
made will also require access to SCI, SAP, or
RD. Accordingly, the guidance in paragraphs
4(a) and (b) applies to all national security
adjudicative determinations:
(a) All adjudicators will determine whether
any of the Bond Amendment disqualifiers in
paragraphs 2(a) through (c) of this annex B
apply to the case being adjudicated.
(b) If a disqualifier exists, adjudicators
shall annotate that fact in one of the
databases identified in paragraph E.5 of this
annex B to ensure that any subsequent
requests for access to SCI, SAP, or RD for the
individual will undergo appropriate readjudication and waiver procedures in
meritorious cases.
Annex C to Appendix A to Part 710—
Exceptions
Exceptions are an adjudicative decision to
grant initial or continued eligibility for access
to classified information or to hold a
sensitive position despite failure to meet the
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full adjudicative or investigative standards.
The authorized exceptions are defined below
and supersede the definitions in Office of
Management and Budget memorandum,
Reciprocal Recognition of Existing Personnel
Security Clearances, 14 November 2007.
Waiver (W): Eligibility granted or
continued despite the presence of substantial
issue information that would normally
preclude eligibility. Approval authorities
may approve a waiver only when the benefit
of initial or continued eligibility clearly
outweighs any security concerns. A waiver
may also require conditions for eligibility as
described below.
Condition (C): Eligibility granted or
continued, despite the presence of issue
information that can be partially but not
completely mitigated, with the provision that
additional security measures shall be
required to mitigate the issue(s). Such
measures include, but are not limited to,
additional security monitoring, access
restrictions, submission of periodic financial
statements, or attendance at counseling
sessions.
Deviation (D): Eligibility granted or
continued despite either a significant gap in
coverage or scope of the investigation.
‘‘Significant gap’’ for this purpose means
either complete lack of coverage for a period
of six months or longer within the most
recent five years investigated or the lack of
one or more relevant investigative scope
components (e.g., employment checks,
financial review, or a subject interview) in its
entirety.
Out of Scope (O): Reinvestigation is
overdue.
[FR Doc. 2017–25257 Filed 12–1–17; 8:45 am]
BILLING CODE 6450–01–P
DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION
Federal Aviation Administration
14 CFR Part 97
[Docket No. 31166; Amdt. No. 3775]
Standard Instrument Approach
Procedures, and Takeoff Minimums
and Obstacle Departure Procedures;
Miscellaneous Amendments
Federal Aviation
Administration (FAA), DOT.
ACTION: Final rule.
AGENCY:
This rule establishes, amends,
suspends, or removes Standard
Instrument Approach Procedures
(SIAPs) and associated Takeoff
Minimums and Obstacle Departure
Procedures (ODPs) for operations at
certain airports. These regulatory
actions are needed because of the
adoption of new or revised criteria, or
because of changes occurring in the
National Airspace System, such as the
commissioning of new navigational
facilities, adding new obstacles, or
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SUMMARY:
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17:52 Dec 01, 2017
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changing air traffic requirements. These
changes are designed to provide safe
and efficient use of the navigable
airspace and to promote safe flight
operations under instrument flight rules
at the affected airports.
DATES: This rule is effective December 4,
2017. The compliance date for each
SIAP, associated Takeoff Minimums,
and ODP is specified in the amendatory
provisions.
The incorporation by reference of
certain publications listed in the
regulations is approved by the Director
of the Federal Register as of December
4, 2017.
ADDRESSES: Availability of matters
incorporated by reference in the
amendment is as follows:
For Examination
1. U.S. Department of Transportation,
Docket Ops–M30, 1200 New Jersey
Avenue SE., West Bldg., Ground Floor,
Washington, DC 20590–0001.
2. The FAA Air Traffic Organization
Service Area in which the affected
airport is located;
3. The office of Aeronautical
Navigation Products, 6500 South
MacArthur Blvd., Oklahoma City, OK
73169 or,
4. The National Archives and Records
Administration (NARA). For
information on the availability of this
material at NARA, call 202–741–6030,
or go to: https://www.archives.gov/
federal_register/code_of_federal_
regulations/ibr_locations.html.
Availability
All SIAPs and Takeoff Minimums and
ODPs are available online free of charge.
Visit the National Flight Data Center at
nfdc.faa.gov to register. Additionally,
individual SIAP and Takeoff Minimums
and ODP copies may be obtained from
the FAA Air Traffic Organization
Service Area in which the affected
airport is located.
FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:
Thomas J. Nichols, Flight Procedure
Standards Branch (AFS–420), Flight
Technologies and Programs Divisions,
Flight Standards Service, Federal
Aviation Administration, Mike
Monroney Aeronautical Center, 6500
South MacArthur Blvd., Oklahoma City,
OK 73169 (Mail Address: P.O. Box
25082, Oklahoma City, OK 73125)
Telephone: (405) 954–4164.
SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION: This rule
amends Title 14 of the Code of Federal
Regulations, Part 97 (14 CFR part 97), by
establishing, amending, suspending, or
removes SIAPS, Takeoff Minimums
and/or ODPS. The complete regulatory
description of each SIAP and its
PO 00000
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57115
associated Takeoff Minimums or ODP
for an identified airport is listed on FAA
form documents which are incorporated
by reference in this amendment under 5
U.S.C. 552(a), 1 CFR part 51, and 14
CFR part 97.20. The applicable FAA
forms are FAA Forms 8260–3, 8260–4,
8260–5, 8260–15A, and 8260–15B when
required by an entry on 8260–15A.
The large number of SIAPs, Takeoff
Minimums and ODPs, their complex
nature, and the need for a special format
make publication in the Federal
Register expensive and impractical.
Further, airmen do not use the
regulatory text of the SIAPs, Takeoff
Minimums or ODPs, but instead refer to
their graphic depiction on charts
printed by publishers of aeronautical
materials. Thus, the advantages of
incorporation by reference are realized
and publication of the complete
description of each SIAP, Takeoff
Minimums and ODP listed on FAA form
documents is unnecessary. This
amendment provides the affected CFR
sections and specifies the types of
SIAPs, Takeoff Minimums and ODPs
with their applicable effective dates.
This amendment also identifies the
airport and its location, the procedure,
and the amendment number.
Availability and Summary of Material
Incorporated by Reference
The material incorporated by
reference is publicly available as listed
in the ADDRESSES section.
The material incorporated by
reference describes SIAPS, Takeoff
Minimums and/or ODPS as identified in
the amendatory language for part 97 of
this final rule.
The Rule
This amendment to 14 CFR part 97 is
effective upon publication of each
separate SIAP, Takeoff Minimums and
ODP as Amended in the transmittal.
Some SIAP and Takeoff Minimums and
textual ODP amendments may have
been issued previously by the FAA in a
Flight Data Center (FDC) Notice to
Airmen (NOTAM) as an emergency
action of immediate flight safety relating
directly to published aeronautical
charts.
The circumstances that created the
need for some SIAP and Takeoff
Minimums and ODP amendments may
require making them effective in less
than 30 days. For the remaining SIAPs
and Takeoff Minimums and ODPs, an
effective date at least 30 days after
publication is provided.
Further, the SIAPs and Takeoff
Minimums and ODPs contained in this
amendment are based on the criteria
contained in the U.S. Standard for
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Agencies
[Federal Register Volume 82, Number 231 (Monday, December 4, 2017)]
[Rules and Regulations]
[Pages 57105-57115]
From the Federal Register Online via the Government Publishing Office [www.gpo.gov]
[FR Doc No: 2017-25257]
========================================================================
Rules and Regulations
Federal Register
________________________________________________________________________
This section of the FEDERAL REGISTER contains regulatory documents
having general applicability and legal effect, most of which are keyed
to and codified in the Code of Federal Regulations, which is published
under 50 titles pursuant to 44 U.S.C. 1510.
The Code of Federal Regulations is sold by the Superintendent of Documents.
========================================================================
Federal Register / Vol. 82, No. 231 / Monday, December 4, 2017 /
Rules and Regulations
[[Page 57105]]
DEPARTMENT OF ENERGY
10 CFR Part 710
[Docket No. AU-RM-17-PACNM]
RIN 1992-AA56
Procedures for Determining Eligibility for Access to Classified
Matter or Special Nuclear Material
AGENCY: Department of Energy.
ACTION: Final rule.
-----------------------------------------------------------------------
SUMMARY: The Department of Energy (DOE) is amending its regulations
which set forth the policies and procedures for resolving questions
concerning eligibility for DOE access authorization. The revisions
update appendix A, and related text, with the most current national
standards for determining eligibility for access to classified matter
and special nuclear material, and delete references to Executive Order
10450, which was revoked pursuant to Executive Order 13764, dated
January 17, 2017.
DATES: This rule is effective January 3, 2018.
FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT: U.S. Department of Energy, Office of
Departmental Personnel Security, (202) 586-3249,
officeofdepartmentalpersonnelsecurity@hq.doe.gov, or Christina Pak,
Office of the General Counsel, (202) 586-4114,
christina.pak@hq.doe.gov.
SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:
I. Background
II. Section-by-Section Analysis
III. Procedural Analysis
A. Review Under the Administrative Procedure Act
B. Review Under Executive Order 12866 and 13563
C. Review Under Executive Order 12988
D. Review Under the Regulatory Flexibility Act
E. Review Under the Paperwork Reduction Act
F. Review Under the National Environmental Policy Act
G. Review Under Executive Order 13132
H. Review Under the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995
I. Review Under the Treasury and General Government
Appropriations Act, 1999
J. Review Under Executive Order 13211
K. Review Under the Treasury and General Government
Appropriations Act, 2001
L. Approval by the Office of the Secretary of Energy
M. Congressional Notification
I. Background
The Department of Energy is publishing this final rule in order to
ensure it contains the most current national standards for determining
access to classified matter and special nuclear material and to ensure
listed authorities are still valid.
Appendix A to 10 CFR part 710 contained the Adjudicative Guidelines
for Determining Eligibility for Access to Classified Information
(Adjudicative Guidelines), originally issued in 1997. These were
included because they were the standard to which all such access
eligibility determinations within the Department of Energy were
rendered. On December 10, 2016, the Director of National Intelligence,
in his role as Security Executive Agent, signed Security Executive
Agent Directive (SEAD) 4, National Security Adjudicative Guidelines,
which became effective June 8, 2017. The standards enumerated in SEAD 4
supersede the former standards. This final rule now includes SEAD 4 as
appendix A. Also, Executive Order (E.O.) 10450, Security Requirements
for Government Employees, issued April 27, 1953, has historically been
cited as one of the authorities within the rule. E.O. 10450 was revoked
pursuant to E.O. 13764 of January 17, 2017. This rule deletes
references to E.O. 10450.
Laws, regulations and directives which may apply to part 710
include, but are not limited to: The Atomic Energy Act of 1954;
Executive Order 13764 (81 FR 8115, January 23, 2017) Executive Order
13467 (73 FR 38103), June 30, 2008; Executive Order 12968 (60 FR 40245,
August 2, 1995, as amended); Executive Order 13526 (75 FR 707, January
5, 2010); Executive Order 10865 (25 FR 1583, February 24, 1960, as
amended); Presidential Policy Directive 19 (October 10, 2012).
II. Section-by-Section Analysis
DOE amends 10 CFR part 710 as follows:
1. In the contents section, appendix A has been revised to reflect
it now contains Security Executive Agency Directive 4--National
Security Adjudicative Guidelines.
2. In the contents section, under ``Authority'', reference to E.O.
10450 has been deleted.
3. Section 710.1 ``Purpose'' deletes references to E.O. 10450 and
the former Adjudicative Guidelines and replaces them with current
citations.
4. Section 710.2 ``Scope'' removes reference to the Adjudicative
Guidelines.
5. Section 710.3 ``Reference'' replaces ``Adjudicative Guidelines''
with ``National Security Adjudicative Guidelines.''
6. Section 710.7 ``Application of the Adjudicative Guidelines'', is
retitled ``Application of the National Security Adjudicative
Guidelines.''
7. Section 710.7(b) replaces ``Adjudicative Guidelines'' with
``National Security Adjudicative Guidelines.''
8. Appendix A is retitled ``SEAD 4, National Security Adjudicative
Guidelines'' and its content is changed to delete the former
Adjudicative Guidelines and replace with the current SEAD 4 standards.
III. Procedural Requirements
A. Review Under the Administrative Procedure Act
The Administrative Procedure Act (APA) requires that a notice of
proposed rulemaking be published in the Federal Register unless certain
exceptions apply. 5 U.S.C. 553(b). These exceptions include rules of
agency procedure or practice, as well as rules for which the agency
finds good cause to waive notice and comment as unnecessary,
impracticable or contrary to the public interest. Id. This rule amends
DOE regulations that set forth the policies and procedures for
resolving questions concerning eligibility for DOE access
authorization. Specifically, the revisions update Appendix A, and
related text, with the most current national standards for determining
eligibility for access to classified matter and special nuclear
material, and delete references to Executive Order 10450, which was
revoked pursuant to Executive Order 13764. The rule provides the means
by which DOE determines eligibility for access to its own data--
classified matter
[[Page 57106]]
and special nuclear material. As such, the rule is one of agency
procedure or practice exempt from the notice and comment requirements
of the APA. In addition, the Department has no discretion in adopting
the guidelines, which by their terms are ``applicable to any executive
branch agency authorized or designated to conduct adjudications of
covered individuals to determine eligibility for initial or continued
access to classified national security information or eligibility to
hold a sensitive position.'' (See SEAD 4, Section C. Applicability.)
The new SEAD 4 standards also do not differ substantively from the
Adjudicative Guidelines. SEAD 4 continues to set forth 13 criteria
(Guidelines A to M) that may raise a security concern, but was revised
to add or remove conditions that could raise and/or mitigate security
concerns. Variations between the two versions are not expected to
result in differing access eligibility determinations depending upon
which standard was employed. For these reasons, DOE also finds that
notice and comment on the adoption of SEAD 4 is also unnecessary,
impracticable and contrary to the public interest. The 30-day delay in
effective date specified in 5 U.S.C. 553(d) is waived for these same
reasons.
B. Review Under Executive Orders 12866 and 13563
This final rule has been determined not to be a ``significant
regulatory action'' under Executive Order 12866, ``Regulatory Planning
and Review,'' 58 FR 51735 (October 4, 1993). Accordingly, this rule is
not subject to review under the Executive Order by the Office of
Information and Regulatory Affairs within the Office of Management and
Budget.
DOE has also reviewed the regulation pursuant to Executive Order
13563, issued on January 18, 2011 (76 FR 3281 (Jan. 21, 2011)).
Executive Order 13563 is supplemental to and explicitly reaffirms the
principles, structures, and definitions governing regulatory review
established in Executive Order 12866. To the extent permitted by law,
agencies are required by Executive Order 13563 to: (1) Propose or adopt
a regulation only upon a reasoned determination that its benefits
justify its costs (recognizing that some benefits and costs are
difficult to quantify); (2) tailor regulations to impose the least
burden on society, consistent with obtaining regulatory objectives,
taking into account, among other things, and to the extent practicable,
the costs of cumulative regulations; (3) select, in choosing among
alternative regulatory approaches, those approaches that maximize net
benefits (including potential economic, environmental, public health
and safety, and other advantages; distributive impacts; and equity);
(4) to the extent feasible, specify performance objectives, rather than
specifying the behavior or manner of compliance that regulated entities
must adopt; and (5) identify and assess available alternatives to
direct regulation, including providing economic incentives to encourage
the desired behavior, such as user fees or marketable permits, or
providing information upon which choices can be made by the public.
DOE emphasizes as well that Executive Order 13563 requires agencies
to use the best available techniques to quantify anticipated present
and future benefits and costs as accurately as possible. In its
guidance, the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs has
emphasized that such techniques may include identifying changing future
compliance costs that might result from technological innovation or
anticipated behavioral changes. DOE believes that this rule is
consistent with these principles, including the requirement that, to
the extent permitted by law, agencies adopt a regulation only upon a
reasoned determination that its benefits justify its costs and, in
choosing among alternative regulatory approaches, those approaches
maximize net benefits.
C. Review Under Executive Order 12988
With respect to the review of existing regulations and the
promulgation of new regulations, section 3(a) of Executive Order 12988,
``Civil Justice Reform,'' 61 FR 4729 (February 7, 1996), imposes on
Executive agencies the general duty to adhere to the following
requirements: (1) Eliminate drafting errors and ambiguity; (2) write
regulations to minimize litigation; and (3) provide a clear legal
standard for affected conduct rather than a general standard and
promote simplification and burden reduction.
With regard to the review required by section 3(a), section 3(b) of
Executive Order 12988 specifically requires that Executive agencies
make every reasonable effort to ensure that the regulation: (1) Clearly
specifies the preemptive effect, if any; (2) clearly specifies any
effect on existing Federal law or regulation; (3) provides a clear
legal standard for affected conduct while promoting simplification and
burden reduction; (4) specifies the retroactive effect, if any; (5)
adequately defines key terms; and (6) addresses other important issues
affecting clarity and general draftsmanship under any guidelines issued
by the Attorney General. Section 3(c) of Executive Order 12988 requires
Executive agencies to review regulations in light of applicable
standards in section 3(a) and section 3(b) to determine whether they
are met or it is unreasonable to meet one or more of them. DOE has
completed the required review and determined that, to the extent
permitted by law, this regulation meets the relevant standards of
Executive Order 12988.
D. Review Under the Regulatory Flexibility Act
The Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601 et seq.) requires
preparation of an initial regulatory flexibility analysis for any rule
that by law must be proposed for public comment, unless the agency
certifies that the rule, if promulgated, will not have a significant
economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. As required
by Executive Order 13272, ``Proper Consideration of Small Entities in
Agency Rulemaking,'' (67 FR 53461, August 16, 2002), DOE published
procedures and policies on February 19, 2003, to ensure that the
potential impacts of its rules on small entities are properly
considered during the rulemaking process (68 FR 7990). DOE has made its
procedures and policies available on the Office of the General
Counsel's Web site at https://www.gc.doe.gov.
This rule amends procedures that apply to the determination of
eligibility of individuals for access to classified information and
access to special nuclear material. The rule applies to individuals,
and would not apply to ``small entities,'' as that term is defined in
the Regulatory Flexibility Act. In addition, as stated above, the
Department has no discretion in adopting the guidelines; it is the
guidelines themselves that impose any impact on affected individuals.
As a result, the rule does not have a significant economic impact on a
substantial number of small entities.
Accordingly, DOE certifies that the rule will not have a
significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities,
and, therefore, no regulatory flexibility analysis is required. DOE's
certification and supporting statement of factual basis will be
provided to the Chief Counsel for Advocacy of the Small Business
Administration for review under 5 U.S.C. 605(b).
E. Review Under the Paperwork Reduction Act
This rule does not impose a collection of information requirement
subject to
[[Page 57107]]
the Paperwork Reduction Act, 44 U.S.C. 3501 et seq.
F. Review Under the National Environmental Policy Act
DOE has concluded that promulgation of this rule falls into a class
of actions which would not individually or cumulatively have
significant impact on the human environment, as determined by DOE's
regulations (10 CFR part 1021, subpart D) implementing the National
Environmental Policy Act (NEPA) of 1969 (42 U.S.C. 4321 et seq.).
Specifically, this rule is categorically excluded from NEPA review
because the amendments to the previous rule are strictly procedural
(categorical exclusion A6). Therefore, this rule does not require an
environmental impact statement or environmental assessment pursuant to
NEPA.
G. Review Under Executive Order 13132
Executive Order 13132, 64 FR 43255 (August 4, 1999), imposes
certain requirements on agencies formulating and implementing policies
or regulations that preempt State law or that have federalism
implications. Agencies are required to examine the constitutional and
statutory authority supporting any action that would limit the
policymaking discretion of the States and carefully assess the
necessity for such actions. DOE has examined this rule and has
determined that it does not preempt State law and does not have a
substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between
the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power
and responsibilities among the various levels of government. No further
action is required by Executive Order 13132.
H. Review Under the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995
The Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Public Law 104-4)
generally requires a Federal agency to perform a detailed assessment of
costs and benefits of any rule imposing a Federal Mandate with costs to
State, local or tribal governments, or to the private sector, of $100
million or more. This rulemaking does not impose a Federal mandate on
State, local or tribal governments or on the private sector.
I. Review Under the Treasury and General Government Appropriations Act,
1999
Section 654 of the Treasury and General Government Appropriations
Act, 1999 (Pub. L. 105-277), requires Federal agencies to issue a
Family Policymaking Assessment for any rule or policy that may affect
family well being. This rule, has no impact on family well-being.
Accordingly, DOE has concluded that it is not necessary to prepare a
Family Policymaking Assessment.
J. Review Under Executive Order 13211
Executive Order 13211, ``Actions Concerning Regulations That
Significantly Affect Energy Supply, Distribution, or Use,'' 66 FR 28355
(May 22, 2001), requires Federal agencies to prepare and submit to the
Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs (OIRA), Office of
Management and Budget, a Statement of Energy Effects for any
significant energy action. A ``significant energy action'' is defined
as any action by an agency that promulgates or is expected to lead to
promulgation of a final rule, and that: (1) Is a significant regulatory
action under Executive Order 12866, or any successor order; and (2) is
likely to have a significant adverse effect on the supply,
distribution, or use of energy, or (3) is designated by the
Administrator of OIRA as a significant energy action. For any proposed
significant energy action, the agency must give a detailed statement of
any adverse effects on energy supply, distribution or use should the
proposal be implemented, and of reasonable alternatives to the action
and their expected benefits on energy supply, distribution and use.
This rule is not a significant energy action. Accordingly, DOE has not
prepared a Statement of Energy Effects.
K. Review Under the Treasury and General Government Appropriations Act,
2001
The Treasury and General Government Appropriations Act, 2001 (44
U.S.C. 3516, note) provides for agencies to review most disseminations
of information to the public under implementing guidelines established
by each agency pursuant to general guidelines issued by OMB. OMB's
guidelines were published at 67 FR 8452 (February 22, 2002), and DOE's
guidelines were published at 67 FR 62446 (October 7, 2002). DOE has
reviewed this rule under the OMB and DOE guidelines and has concluded
that it is consistent with applicable policies in those guidelines.
L. Approval by the Office of the Secretary of Energy
The Secretary of Energy has approved issuance of this rule.
M. Congressional Notification
As required by 5 U.S.C. 801, DOE will report to Congress on the
promulgation of this rule prior to its effective date. The report will
state that it has been determined that the rule is not a ``major rule''
as defined by 5 U.S.C. 804(2).
List of Subjects in 10 CFR Part 710
Administrative practice and procedure, Classified information,
Government contracts, Government employees, Nuclear energy.
Issued in Washington, DC, on October 31, 2017.
Rick Perry,
Secretary of Energy.
For the reasons set out in the preamble, DOE amends part 710 of
title 10 of the Code of Federal Regulations as set forth below.
PART 710--PROCEDURES FOR DETERMINING ELIGIBILITY FOR ACCESS TO
CLASSIFIED MATTER AND SPECIAL NUCLEAR MATERIAL
0
1. The authority citation for part 710 is revised to read as follows:
Authority: 42 U.S.C. 2165, 2201, 5815, 7101, et seq., 7383h-l;
50 U.S.C. 2401 et seq.; E.O. 10865, 3 CFR 1959-1963 comp., p. 398,
as amended, 3 CFR Chap. IV; E.O. 13526, 3 CFR 2010 Comp., pp. 298-
327 (or successor orders); E.O. 12968, 3 CFR 1995 Comp., p. 391.
0
2. Section 710.1 is amended by revising paragraph (b) to read as
follows:
Sec. 710.1 Purpose.
* * * * *
(b) This part implements: Executive Order 12968, 60 FR 40245
(August 2, 1995), as amended; Executive Order 13526, 75 FR 707 (January
5, 2010) as amended; Executive Order 10865, 25 FR 1583 (February 24,
1960), as amended; and the National Security Adjudicative Guidelines,
issued as Security Executive Agent Directive 4 by the Director of
National Intelligence on December 10, 2016.
0
3. Section 710.2 is amended by revising the introductory text to read
as follows:
Sec. 710.2 Scope.
The procedures outlined in this rule apply to determinations of
eligibility for access authorization for:
* * * * *
0
4. Revise Sec. 710.3 to read as follows:
Sec. 710.3 Reference.
The National Security Adjudicative Guidelines are set forth in
Appendix A to this part.
0
5. Section 710.7 is amended by revising the section heading and
paragraph (b) to read as follows:
[[Page 57108]]
Sec. 710.7 Application of the National Security Adjudicative
Guidelines.
* * * * *
(b) All such determinations shall be based upon the application of
the National Security Adjudicative Guidelines (Adjudicative
Guidelines), or any successor national standard issued under authority
of the President.
* * * * *
0
6. Appendix A is revised to read as follows:
Appendix A to Part 710--Security Executive Agent Directive 4, National
Security Adjudicative Guidelines (June 8, 2017)
(The following guidelines, included in this part for reference
purposes only, are reproduced by DOE with minor formatting changes
to comply with the Document Drafting Handbook issued by the Office
of the Federal Register. The original guidelines were signed by
James Clapper, Security Executive Agent, on December 10, 2016, with
an effective date 180 days after signature (June 8, 2017). For any
discrepancies between the original guidelines and the guidelines
published in this appendix, the original guidelines control.)
A. Authority: The National Security Act of 1947, as amended;
Intelligence Reform and Terrorism Prevention Act of 2004 (IRTPA), as
amended; Executive Order (E.O.) 10450, Security Requirements for
Government Employment, as amended; EO 12968, Access to Classified
Information, as amended; E.O. 13467, Reforming Processes Related to
Suitability for Government Employment, Fitness for Contractor
Employees, and Eligibility for Access to Classified National
Security Information; E.O. 13549, Classified National Security
Information Program for State, Local, Tribal and Private Sector
Entities; Performance Accountability Council memorandum, Assignment
of Functions Relating to Coverage of Contractor Employee Fitness in
the Federal Investigative Standards, 6 December 2012; and other
applicable provisions of law.
B. Purpose: This Security Executive Agent (SecEA) Directive
establishes the single, common adjudicative criteria for all covered
individuals who require initial or continued eligibility for access
to classified information or eligibility to hold a sensitive
position. The Guidelines reflected herein supersede all previously
issued national security adjudicative criteria or guidelines.
C. Applicability: This Directive applies to any executive branch
agency authorized or designated to conduct adjudications of covered
individuals to determine eligibility for initial or continued access
to classified national security information or eligibility to hold a
sensitive position.
D. Definitions: As used in this Directive, the following terms
have the meanings set forth in the following paragraphs 1 through 8:
1. Agency: Any ``Executive agency'' as defined in Section 105 of
Title 5, United States Code (U.S.C.), including the ``military
departments,'' as defined in Section 102 of Title 5, U.S.C. and any
other entity within the Executive Branch that comes into possession
of classified information or has positions designated as sensitive.
2. Authorized adjudicative agency: An agency authorized by law,
executive order, or designation by the SecEA to determine
eligibility for access to classified information in accordance with
E.O. 12968, as amended, or eligibility to hold a sensitive position.
3. Authorized investigative agency: An agency authorized by law,
executive order, or designation by the SecEA to conduct a background
investigation of individuals who are proposed for access to
classified information or eligibility to hold a sensitive position
or to ascertain whether such individuals continue to satisfy the
criteria for retaining access to such information or eligibility to
hold such positions.
4. Classified national security information or classified
information: Information that has been determined pursuant to E.O.
13526 or any predecessor or successor order, or the Atomic Energy
Act of 1954, as amended, to require protection against unauthorized
disclosure.
5. Covered individual:
a. A person who performs work for or on behalf of the executive
branch or who seeks to perform work for or on behalf of the
executive branch, but does not include the President or (except to
the extent otherwise directed by the President) employees of the
President under 3 U.S.C. 105 or 107, the Vice President, or (except
to the extent otherwise directed by the Vice President) employees of
the Vice President under 3 U.S.C. 106 or annual legislative branch
appropriations acts;
b. A person who performs work for or on behalf of a state,
local, tribal, or private sector entity as defined in E.O. 13549
requiring eligibility for access to classified information;
c. A person working in or for the legislative or judicial
branches requiring eligibility for access to classified information
and the investigation or determination is conducted by the executive
branch, but does not include members of Congress; Justices of the
Supreme Court; and Federal judges appointed by the President.
d. Covered individuals are not limited to government employees
and include all persons, not excluded under paragraphs D.5.a., b.,
or c. of this appendix, who require eligibility for access to
classified information or eligibility to hold a sensitive position,
including, but not limited to, contractors, subcontractors,
licensees, certificate holders, grantees, experts, consultants, and
government employees.
6. Foreign Intelligence Entity: Known or suspected foreign state
or non-state organizations or persons that conduct intelligence
activities to acquire U.S. information, block or impair U.S.
intelligence collection, influence U.S. policy, or disrupt U.S.
systems and programs. The term includes foreign intelligence and
security services and international terrorists.
7. National Security Eligibility: Eligibility for access to
classified information or eligibility to hold a sensitive position,
to include access to sensitive compartmented information, restricted
data, and controlled or special access program information.
8. Sensitive Position: Any position within or in support of an
agency in which the occupant could bring about, by virtue of the
nature of the position, a material adverse effect on the national
security regardless of whether the occupant has access to classified
information, and regardless of whether the occupant is an employee,
military service member, or contractor.
E. Policy:
1. The National Security Adjudicative Guidelines in annex A to
this appendix shall be used by all authorized adjudicative agencies
when rendering a determination for initial or continued eligibility
for access to classified information or initial or continued
eligibility to hold a sensitive position.
2. Annex B to this appendix sets forth statutory restrictions on
agencies making certain eligibility determinations for access to
classified information, as well as waiver and congressional
reporting requirements. These amendments to the IRTPA are commonly
referred to as the Bond Amendment. By definition, the risk to
national security is equivalent for covered individuals with access
to classified information and covered individuals occupying a
sensitive position. Occupants of sensitive positions could bring
about, by virtue of the nature of the position, a material adverse
effect on the national security regardless of whether the occupant
has access to classified information. Due to the equivalent adverse
effect on the national security and to ensure uniformity,
consistency, and reciprocity of national security background
investigations and adjudications, the statutory restrictions imposed
by the Bond Amendment are extended to apply to all covered
individuals who require initial or continued eligibility for access
to classified information or eligibility to hold a sensitive
position. Authorized adjudicative agencies shall maintain a record
of the number and type of meritorious waivers granted under Bond
Amendment criteria, to include the rationale for each waiver, and
shall report this data annually to the SecEA in advance of the
annual report to Congress. Authorized adjudicative agencies will
also maintain a record of all disqualifications due to Bond
Amendment criteria.
3. Exceptions, as provided for in annex C to this appendix,
shall be used when a favorable adjudicative decision to grant
initial or continued eligibility for access to classified
information or to hold a sensitive position is made, despite failure
to meet adjudicative or investigative standards.
4. Eligibility shall be determined by appropriately trained
adjudicative personnel through the evaluation of all information
bearing on an individual's loyalty and allegiance to the United
States, including any information relevant to strength of character,
honesty, discretion, sound judgment, reliability, ability to protect
classified or sensitive information, and trustworthiness.
Eligibility for access to classified information or eligibility to
occupy a sensitive position shall only be granted when the
evaluation of all such information demonstrates that such
eligibility is clearly consistent with the interests of the United
States; any doubt shall be resolved in favor of the national
security.
[[Page 57109]]
5. All adjudicative determinations, including any associated
exceptions, shall be recorded in either Scattered Castles, the Joint
Personnel Adjudication System within the Department of Defense, or
the Central Verification System database within U.S. Office of
Personnel Management or successor databases, unless authorized by
the SecEA to withhold information from the database for national
security purposes.
6. When an adjudicative determination is made to deny or revoke
eligibility for access to classified information or eligibility to
hold a sensitive position, review proceedings, to the extent they
are made available in E.O. 12968, as amended, Part 5, shall be
afforded covered individuals at a minimum.
7. The agency with adjudicative authority remains responsible
for the final determination.
8. Agencies shall update internal policies and replace existing
national security adjudicative criteria or guidelines with the
guidelines in this appendix A no later than June 8, 2017.
9. This Directive is not intended to, and does not, create any
right to administrative or judicial review, or any other right or
benefit, or trust responsibility substantive or procedural,
enforceable by a party against the United States, its agencies or
instrumentalities, its officers or employees, or any other person.
F. Effective Date: This Directive becomes effective June 8,
2017.
Annex A to Appendix A to Part 710--National Security Adjudicative
Guidelines for Determining Eligibility for Access to Classified
Information or Eligibility to Hold a Sensitive Position
1. Introduction
(a) The following National Security Adjudicative Guidelines
(``guidelines'') are established as the single common criteria for
all U.S. Government civilian and military personnel, consultants,
contractors, licensees, certificate holders or grantees and their
employees, and other individuals who require initial or continued
eligibility for access to classified information or eligibility to
hold a sensitive position, to include access to sensitive
compartmented information, restricted data, and controlled or
special access program information (hereafter referred to as
``national security eligibility''). These guidelines shall be used
by all Executive Branch Agencies when rendering any final national
security eligibility determination.
(b) National security eligibility determinations take into
account a person's stability, trustworthiness, reliability,
discretion, character, honesty, and judgment. Individuals must be
unquestionably loyal to the United States. No amount of oversight or
security procedures can replace the self-discipline and integrity of
an individual entrusted to protect the nation's secrets or occupying
a sensitive position. When a person's life history shows evidence of
unreliability or untrustworthiness, questions arise as to whether
the individual can be relied upon and trusted to exercise the
responsibility necessary for working in an environment where
protecting the national security is paramount.
(c) The U.S. Government does not discriminate on the basis of
race, color, religion, sex, national origin, disability, or sexual
orientation in making a national security eligibility determination.
No negative inference concerning eligibility under these guidelines
may be raised solely on the basis of mental health counseling. No
adverse action concerning these guidelines may be taken solely on
the basis of polygraph examination technical calls in the absence of
adjudicatively significant information.
(d) In accordance with E.O. 12968, as amended, eligibility for
covered individuals shall be granted only when facts and
circumstances indicate that eligibility is clearly consistent with
the national security interests of the United States, and any doubt
shall be resolved in favor of national security.
2. The Adjudicative Process
(a) The adjudicative process is an examination of a sufficient
period and a careful weighing of a number of variables of an
individual's life to make an affirmative determination that the
individual is an acceptable security risk. This is known as the
whole-person concept. All available, reliable information about the
person, past and present, favorable and unfavorable, should be
considered in reaching a national security eligibility
determination.
(b) Each case must be judged on its own merits, and the final
determination remains the responsibility of the authorized
adjudicative agency. Any doubt concerning personnel being considered
for national security eligibility will be resolved in favor of the
national security.
(c) The ultimate determination of whether the granting or
continuing of national security eligibility is clearly consistent
with the interests of national security must be an overall common
sense judgment based upon careful consideration of the following
guidelines, each of which is to be evaluated in the context of the
whole person.
(1) GUIDELINE A: Allegiance to the United States
(2) GUIDELINE B: Foreign Influence
(3) GUIDELINE C: Foreign Preference
(4) GUIDELINE D: Sexual Behavior
(5) GUIDELINE E: Personal Conduct
(6) GUIDELINE F: Financial Considerations
(7) GUIDELINE G: Alcohol Consumption
(8) GUIDELINE H: Drug Involvement and Substance Misuse
(9) GUIDELINE I: Psychological Conditions
(10) GUIDELINE J: Criminal Conduct
(11) GUIDELINE K: Handling Protected Information
(12) GUIDELINE L: Outside Activities
(13) GUIDELINE M: Use of Information Technology
(d) In evaluating the relevance of an individual's conduct, the
adjudicator should consider the following factors:
(1) The nature, extent, and seriousness of the conduct;
(2) The circumstances surrounding the conduct, to include
knowledgeable participation;
(3) The frequency and recency of the conduct;
(4) The individual's age and maturity at the time of the
conduct;
(5) The extent to which participation is voluntary;
(6) The presence or absence of rehabilitation and other
permanent behavioral changes;
(7) The motivation for the conduct;
(8) The potential for pressure, coercion, exploitation, or
duress; and
(9) The likelihood of continuation or recurrence.
(e) Although adverse information concerning a single criterion
may not be sufficient for an unfavorable eligibility determination,
the individual may be found ineligible if available information
reflects a recent or recurring pattern of questionable judgment,
irresponsibility, or unstable behavior. However, a single criterion
may be sufficient to make an unfavorable eligibility determination
even in the absence of a recent occurrence or a recurring pattern.
Notwithstanding the whole-person concept, pursuit of further
investigation may be terminated by an appropriate adjudicative
agency in the face of reliable, significant, disqualifying, adverse
information.
(f) When information of security concern becomes known about an
individual who is currently eligible for access to classified
information or eligible to hold a sensitive position, the
adjudicator should consider whether the individual:
(1) Voluntarily reported the information;
(2) Was truthful and complete in responding to questions;
(3) Sought assistance and followed professional guidance, where
appropriate;
(4) Resolved or appears likely to favorably resolve the security
concern;
(5) Has demonstrated positive changes in behavior; and
(6) Should have his or her national security eligibility
suspended pending final adjudication of the information.
(g) If after evaluating information of security concern, the
adjudicator decides the information is serious enough to warrant a
recommendation of denial or revocation of the national security
eligibility, but the specific risk to national security can be
managed with appropriate mitigation measures, an adjudicator may
recommend approval to grant initial or continued eligibility for
access to classified information or to hold a sensitive position
with an exception as defined in Appendix C of this document.
(h) If after evaluating information of security concern, the
adjudicator decides that the information is not serious enough to
warrant a recommendation of denial or revocation of the national
security eligibility, an adjudicator may recommend approval with a
warning that future incidents of a similar nature or other incidents
of adjudicative concern may result in revocation of national
security eligibility.
(i) It must be noted that the adjudicative process is predicated
upon individuals providing relevant information pertaining to their
background and character for use in investigating and adjudicating
their national security eligibility. Any incident of intentional
material falsification or
[[Page 57110]]
purposeful non-cooperation with security processing is of
significant concern. Such conduct raises questions about an
individual's judgment, reliability, and trustworthiness and may be
predictive of their willingness or ability to protect the national
security.
Guidelines
Guideline A: Allegiance to the United States
3. The Concern. The willingness to safeguard classified or
sensitive information is in doubt if there is any reason to suspect
an individual's allegiance to the United States. There is no
positive test for allegiance, but there are negative indicators.
These include participation in or support for acts against the
United States or placing the welfare or interests of another country
above those of the United States. Finally, the failure to adhere to
the laws of the United States may be relevant if the violation of
law is harmful to stated U.S. interests. An individual who engages
in acts against the United States or provides support or
encouragement to those who do has already demonstrated willingness
to compromise national security.
4. Conditions that could raise a security concern and may be
disqualifying include:
(a) Involvement in, support of, training to commit, or advocacy
of any act of sabotage, espionage, treason, terrorism, or sedition
against the United States;
(b) Association or sympathy with persons who are attempting to
commit, or who are committing, any of the above acts; and
(c) Association or sympathy with persons or organizations that
advocate, threaten, or use force or violence, or use any other
illegal or unconstitutional means, in an effort to:
(1) Overthrow or influence the U.S. Government or any state or
local government;
(2) Prevent Federal, state, or local government personnel from
performing their official duties;
(3) Gain retribution for perceived wrongs caused by the Federal,
state, or local government; and
(4) Prevent others from exercising their rights under the
Constitution or laws of the United States or of any state.
5. Conditions that could mitigate security concerns include:
(a) The individual was unaware of the unlawful aims of the
individual or organization and severed ties upon learning of these;
(b) The individual's involvement was humanitarian and permitted
under U.S. law;
(c) Involvement in the above activities occurred for only a
short period of time and was attributable to curiosity or academic
interest; and
(d) The involvement or association with such activities occurred
under such unusual circumstances, or so much time has elapsed, that
it is unlikely to recur and does not cast doubt on the individual's
current reliability, trustworthiness, or allegiance.
Guideline B: Foreign Influence
6. The Concern. Foreign contacts and interests, including, but
not limited to, business, financial, and property interests, are a
national security concern if they result in divided allegiance. They
may also be a national security concern if they create circumstances
in which the individual may be manipulated or induced to help a
foreign person, group, organization, or government in a way
inconsistent with U.S. interests or otherwise made vulnerable to
pressure or coercion by any foreign interest. Assessment of foreign
contacts and interests should consider the country in which the
foreign contact or interest is located, including, but not limited
to, considerations such as whether it is known to target U.S.
citizens to obtain classified or sensitive information or is
associated with a risk of terrorism.
7. Conditions that could raise a security concern and may be
disqualifying include:
(a) Contact, regardless of method, with a foreign family member,
business or professional associate, friend, or other person who is a
citizen of or resident in a foreign country if that contact creates
a heightened risk of foreign exploitation, inducement, manipulation,
pressure, or coercion;
(b) Connections to a foreign person, group, government, or
country that create a potential conflict of interest between the
individual's obligation to protect classified or sensitive
information or technology and the individual's desire to help a
foreign person, group, or country by providing that information or
technology;
(c) Failure to report or fully disclose, when required,
association with a foreign person, group, government, or country;
(d) Counterintelligence information, whether classified or
unclassified, that indicates the individual's access to classified
information or eligibility for a sensitive position may involve
unacceptable risk to national security;
(e) Shared living quarters with a person or persons, regardless
of citizenship status, if that relationship creates a heightened
risk of foreign inducement, manipulation, pressure, or coercion;
(f) Substantial business, financial, or property interests in a
foreign country, or in any foreignowned or foreign-operated business
that could subject the individual to a heightened risk of foreign
influence or exploitation or personal conflict of interest;
(g) Unauthorized association with a suspected or known agent,
associate, or employee of a foreign intelligence entity;
(h) Indications that representatives or nationals from a foreign
country are acting to increase the vulnerability of the individual
to possible future exploitation, inducement, manipulation, pressure,
or coercion; and
(i) Conduct, especially while traveling or residing outside the
U.S., that may make the individual vulnerable to exploitation,
pressure, or coercion by a foreign person, group, government, or
country.
8. Conditions that could mitigate security concerns include:
(a) The nature of the relationships with foreign persons, the
country in which these persons are located, or the positions or
activities of those persons in that country are such that it is
unlikely the individual will be placed in a position of having to
choose between the interests of a foreign individual, group,
organization, or government and the interests of the United States;
(b) There is no conflict of interest, either because the
individual's sense of loyalty or obligation to the foreign person,
or allegiance to the group, government, or country is so minimal, or
the individual has such deep and longstanding relationships and
loyalties in the United States, that the individual can be expected
to resolve any conflict of interest in favor of the U.S. interest;
(c) Contact or communication with foreign citizens is so casual
and infrequent that there is little likelihood that it could create
a risk for foreign influence or exploitation;
(d) The foreign contacts and activities are on U.S. Government
business or are approved by the agency head or designee;
(e) The individual has promptly complied with existing agency
requirements regarding the reporting of contacts, requests, or
threats from persons, groups, or organizations from a foreign
country; and
(f) The value or routine nature of the foreign business,
financial, or property interests is such that they are unlikely to
result in a conflict and could not be used effectively to influence,
manipulate, or pressure the individual.
Guideline C: Foreign Preference
9. The Concern. When an individual acts in such a way as to
indicate a preference for a foreign country over the United States,
then he or she may provide information or make decisions that are
harmful to the interests of the United States. Foreign involvement
raises concerns about an individual's judgment, reliability, and
trustworthiness when it is in conflict with U.S. national interests
or when the individual acts to conceal it. By itself, the fact that
a U.S. citizen is also a citizen of another country is not
disqualifying without an objective showing of such conflict or
attempt at concealment. The same is true for a U.S. citizen's
exercise of any right or privilege of foreign citizenship and any
action to acquire or obtain recognition of a foreign citizenship.
10. Conditions that could raise a security concern and may be
disqualifying include:
(a) Applying for and/or acquiring citizenship in any other
country;
(b) Failure to report, or fully disclose when required, to an
appropriate security official, the possession of a passport or
identity card issued by any country other than the United States;
(c) Failure to use a U.S. passport when entering or exiting the
U.S.;
(d) Participation in foreign activities, including but not
limited to:
(1) Assuming or attempting to assume any type of employment,
position, or political office in a foreign government or military
organization; and
(2) Otherwise acting to serve the interests of a foreign person,
group, organization, or government in any way that conflicts with
U.S. national security interests;
(e) Using foreign citizenship to protect financial or business
interests in another country in violation of U.S. law; and
(f) An act of expatriation from the United States such as
declaration of intent to renounce U.S. citizenship, whether through
words or actions.
11. Conditions that could mitigate security concerns include:
[[Page 57111]]
(a) The foreign citizenship is not in conflict with U.S.
national security interests;
(b) Dual citizenship is based solely on parental citizenship or
birth in a foreign country, and there is no evidence of foreign
preference;
(c) The individual has expressed a willingness to renounce the
foreign citizenship that is in conflict with U.S. national security
interests;
(d) The exercise of the rights, privileges, or obligations of
foreign citizenship occurred before the individual became a U.S.
citizen;
(e) The exercise of the entitlements or benefits of foreign
citizenship do not present a national security concern;
(f) The foreign preference, if detected, involves a foreign
country, entity, or association that poses a low national security
risk;
(g) Civil employment or military service was authorized under
U.S. law, or the employment or service was otherwise consented to as
required by U.S. law; and
(h) Any potentially disqualifying activity took place after
receiving the approval by the agency head or designee.
Guideline D: Sexual Behavior
12. The Concern. Sexual behavior that involves a criminal
offense; reflects a lack of judgment or discretion; or may subject
the individual to undue influence of coercion, exploitation, or
duress. These issues, together or individually, may raise questions
about an individual's judgment, reliability, trustworthiness, and
ability to protect classified or sensitive information. Sexual
behavior includes conduct occurring in person or via audio, visual,
electronic, or written transmission. No adverse inference concerning
the standards in this Guideline may be raised solely on the basis of
the sexual orientation of the individual.
13. Conditions that could raise a security concern and may be
disqualifying include:
(a) Sexual behavior of a criminal nature, whether or not the
individual has been prosecuted;
(b) A pattern of compulsive, self-destructive, or high-risk
sexual behavior that the individual is unable to stop;
(c) Sexual behavior that causes an individual to be vulnerable
to coercion, exploitation, or duress; and
(d) Sexual behavior of a public nature or that reflects lack of
discretion or judgment.
14. Conditions that could mitigate security concerns include:
(a) The behavior occurred prior to or during adolescence and
there is no evidence of subsequent conduct of a similar nature;
(b) The sexual behavior happened so long ago, so infrequently,
or under such unusual circumstances, that it is unlikely to recur
and does not cast doubt on the individual's current reliability,
trustworthiness, or judgment;
(c) The behavior no longer serves as a basis for coercion,
exploitation, or duress;
(d) The sexual behavior is strictly private, consensual, and
discreet; and
(e) The individual has successfully completed an appropriate
program of treatment, or is currently enrolled in one, has
demonstrated ongoing and consistent compliance with the treatment
plan, and/or has received a favorable prognosis from a qualified
mental health professional indicating the behavior is readily
controllable with treatment.
Guideline E: Personal Conduct
15. The Concern. Conduct involving questionable judgment, lack
of candor, dishonesty, or unwillingness to comply with rules and
regulations can raise questions about an individual's reliability,
trustworthiness, and ability to protect classified or sensitive
information. Of special interest is any failure to cooperate or
provide truthful and candid answers during national security
investigative or adjudicative processes. The following will normally
result in an unfavorable national security eligibility
determination, security clearance action, or cancellation of further
processing for national security eligibility:
(a) Refusal, or failure without reasonable cause, to undergo or
cooperate with security processing, including but not limited to
meeting with a security investigator for subject interview,
completing security forms or releases, cooperation with medical or
psychological evaluation, or polygraph examination, if authorized
and required; and
(b) Refusal to provide full, frank, and truthful answers to
lawful questions of investigators, security officials, or other
official representatives in connection with a personnel security or
trustworthiness determination.
16. Conditions that could raise a security concern and may be
disqualifying include:
(a) Deliberate omission, concealment, or falsification of
relevant facts from any personnel security questionnaire, personal
history statement, or similar form used to conduct investigations,
determine employment qualifications, award benefits or status,
determine national security eligibility or trustworthiness, or award
fiduciary responsibilities;
(b) Deliberately providing false or misleading information; or
concealing or omitting information, concerning relevant facts to an
employer, investigator, security official, competent medical or
mental health professional involved in making a recommendation
relevant to a national security eligibility determination, or other
official government representative;
(c) Credible adverse information in several adjudicative issue
areas that is not sufficient for an adverse determination under any
other single guideline, but which, when considered as a whole,
supports a whole-person assessment of questionable judgment,
untrustworthiness, unreliability, lack of candor, unwillingness to
comply with rules and regulations, or other characteristics
indicating that the individual may not properly safeguard classified
or sensitive information;
(d) Credible adverse information that is not explicitly covered
under any other guideline and may not be sufficient by itself for an
adverse determination, but which, when combined with all available
information, supports a whole-person assessment of questionable
judgment, untrustworthiness, unreliability, lack of candor,
unwillingness to comply with rules and regulations, or other
characteristics indicating that the individual may not properly
safeguard classified or sensitive information. This includes, but is
not limited to, consideration of:
(1) Untrustworthy or unreliable behavior to include breach of
client confidentiality, release of proprietary information,
unauthorized release of sensitive corporate or government protected
information;
(2) Any disruptive, violent, or other inappropriate behavior;
(3) A pattern of dishonesty or rule violations; and
(4) Evidence of significant misuse of Government or other
employer's time or resources;
(e) Personal conduct, or concealment of information about one's
conduct, that creates a vulnerability to exploitation, manipulation,
or duress by a foreign intelligence entity or other individual or
group. Such conduct includes:
(1) Engaging in activities which, if known, could affect the
person's personal, professional, or community standing;
(2) While in another country, engaging in any activity that is
illegal in that country;
(3) While in another country, engaging in any activity that,
while legal there, is illegal in the United States;
(f) Violation of a written or recorded commitment made by the
individual to the employer as a condition of employment; and
(g) Association with persons involved in criminal activity.
17. Conditions that could mitigate security concerns include:
(a) The individual made prompt, good-faith efforts to correct
the omission, concealment, or falsification before being confronted
with the facts;
(b) The refusal or failure to cooperate, omission, or
concealment was caused or significantly contributed to by advice of
legal counsel or of a person with professional responsibilities for
advising or instructing the individual specifically concerning
security processes. Upon being made aware of the requirement to
cooperate or provide the information, the individual cooperated
fully and truthfully;
(c) The offense is so minor, or so much time has passed, or the
behavior is so infrequent, or it happened under such unique
circumstances that it is unlikely to recur and does not cast doubt
on the individual's reliability, trustworthiness, or good judgment;
(d) The individual has acknowledged the behavior and obtained
counseling to change the behavior or taken other positive steps to
alleviate the stressors, circumstances, or factors that contributed
to untrustworthy, unreliable, or other inappropriate behavior, and
such behavior is unlikely to recur;
(e) The individual has taken positive steps to reduce or
eliminate vulnerability to exploitation, manipulation, or duress;
(f) The information was unsubstantiated or from a source of
questionable reliability; and
(g) Association with persons involved in criminal activities was
unwitting, has ceased, or occurs under circumstances that do not
cast doubt upon the individual's reliability, trustworthiness,
judgment, or willingness to comply with rules and regulations.
[[Page 57112]]
Guideline F: Financial Considerations
18. The Concern. Failure to live within one's means, satisfy
debts, and meet financial obligations may indicate poor self-
control, lack of judgment, or unwillingness to abide by rules and
regulations, all of which can raise questions about an individual's
reliability, trustworthiness, and ability to protect classified or
sensitive information. Financial distress can also be caused or
exacerbated by, and thus can be a possible indicator of, other
issues of personnel security concern such as excessive gambling,
mental health conditions, substance misuse, or alcohol abuse or
dependence. An individual who is financially overextended is at
greater risk of having to engage in illegal or otherwise
questionable acts to generate funds. Affluence that cannot be
explained by known sources of income is also a security concern
insofar as it may result from criminal activity, including
espionage.
19. Conditions that could raise a security concern and may be
disqualifying include:
(a) Inability to satisfy debts;
(b) Unwillingness to satisfy debts regardless of the ability to
do so;
(c) A history of not meeting financial obligations;
(d) Deceptive or illegal financial practices such as
embezzlement, employee theft, check fraud, expense account fraud,
mortgage fraud, filing deceptive loan statements and other
intentional financial breaches of trust;
(e) Consistent spending beyond one's means or frivolous or
irresponsible spending, which may be indicated by excessive
indebtedness, significant negative cash flow, a history of late
payments or of non-payment, or other negative financial indicators;
(f) Failure to file or fraudulently filing annual Federal,
state, or local income tax returns or failure to pay annual Federal,
state, or local income tax as required;
(g) Unexplained affluence, as shown by a lifestyle or standard
of living, increase in net worth, or money transfers that are
inconsistent with known legal sources of income;
(h) Borrowing money or engaging in significant financial
transactions to fund gambling or pay gambling debts; and
(i) Concealing gambling losses, family conflict, or other
problems caused by gambling.
20. Conditions that could mitigate security concerns include:
(a) The behavior happened so long ago, was so infrequent, or
occurred under such circumstances that it is unlikely to recur and
does not cast doubt on the individual's current reliability,
trustworthiness, or good judgment;
(b) The conditions that resulted in the financial problem were
largely beyond the person's control (e.g., loss of employment, a
business downturn, unexpected medical emergency, a death, divorce or
separation, clear victimization by predatory lending practices, or
identity theft), and the individual acted responsibly under the
circumstances;
(c) The individual has received or is receiving financial
counseling for the problem from a legitimate and credible source,
such as a non-profit credit counseling service, and there are clear
indications that the problem is being resolved or is under control;
(d) The individual initiated and is adhering to a good-faith
effort to repay overdue creditors or otherwise resolve debts;
(e) The individual has a reasonable basis to dispute the
legitimacy of the past-due debt which is the cause of the problem
and provides documented proof to substantiate the basis of the
dispute or provides evidence of actions to resolve the issue;
(f) The affluence resulted from a legal source of income; and
(g) The individual has made arrangements with the appropriate
tax authority to file or pay the amount owed and is in compliance
with those arrangements.
Guideline G: Alcohol Consumption
21. The Concern. Excessive alcohol consumption often leads to
the exercise of questionable judgment or the failure to control
impulses, and can raise questions about an individual's reliability
and trustworthiness.
22. Conditions that could raise a security concern and may be
disqualifying include:
(a) Alcohol-related incidents away from work, such as driving
while under the influence, fighting, child or spouse abuse,
disturbing the peace, or other incidents of concern, regardless of
the frequency of the individual's alcohol use or whether the
individual has been diagnosed with alcohol use disorder;
(b) Alcohol-related incidents at work, such as reporting for
work or duty in an intoxicated or impaired condition, drinking on
the job, or jeopardizing the welfare and safety of others,
regardless of whether the individual is diagnosed with alcohol use
disorder;
(c) Habitual or binge consumption of alcohol to the point of
impaired judgment, regardless of whether the individual is diagnosed
with alcohol use disorder;
(d) Diagnosis by a duly qualified medical or mental health
professional (e.g., physician, clinical psychologist, psychiatrist,
or licensed clinical social worker) of alcohol use disorder;
(e) The failure to follow treatment advice once diagnosed;
(f) Alcohol consumption, which is not in accordance with
treatment recommendations, after a diagnosis of alcohol use
disorder; and
(g) Failure to follow any court order regarding alcohol
education, evaluation, treatment, or abstinence.
23. Conditions that could mitigate security concerns include:
(a) So much time has passed, or the behavior was so infrequent,
or it happened under such unusual circumstances that it is unlikely
to recur or does not cast doubt on the individual's current
reliability, trustworthiness, or judgment;
(b) The individual acknowledges his or her pattern of
maladaptive alcohol use, provides evidence of actions taken to
overcome this problem, and has demonstrated a clear and established
pattern of modified consumption or abstinence in accordance with
treatment recommendations;
(c) The individual is participating in counseling or a treatment
program, has no previous history of treatment and relapse, and is
making satisfactory progress in a treatment program; and
(d) The individual has successfully completed a treatment
program along with any required aftercare, and has demonstrated a
clear and established pattern of modified consumption or abstinence
in accordance with treatment recommendations.
Guideline H: Drug Involvement \1\ and Substance Misuse
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
\1\ Reference annex B to this appendix regarding statutory
requirements contained in Public Law 110-118 (Bond Amendment)
applicable to this guideline.
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
24. The Concern. The illegal use of controlled substances, to
include the misuse of prescription and non-prescription drugs, and
the use of other substances that cause physical or mental impairment
or are used in a manner inconsistent with their intended purpose can
raise questions about an individual's reliability and
trustworthiness, both because such behavior may lead to physical or
psychological impairment and because it raises questions about a
person's ability or willingness to comply with laws, rules, and
regulations. Controlled substance means any ``controlled substance''
as defined in 21 U.S.C. 802. Substance misuse is the generic term
adopted in this guideline to describe any of the behaviors listed in
this paragraph.
25. Conditions that could raise a security concern and may be
disqualifying include:
(a) Any substance misuse (see definition listed in paragraph
24);
(b) Testing positive for an illegal drug;
(c) Illegal possession of a controlled substance, including
cultivation, processing, manufacture, purchase, sale, or
distribution; or possession of drug paraphernalia;
(d) Diagnosis by a duly qualified medical or mental health
professional (e.g., physician, clinical psychologist, psychiatrist,
or licensed clinical social worker) of substance use disorder;
(e) Failure to successfully complete a drug treatment program
prescribed by a duly qualified medical or mental health
professional;
(f) Any illegal drug use while granted access to classified
information or holding a sensitive position; and
(g) Expressed intent to continue drug involvement and substance
misuse, or failure to clearly and convincingly commit to discontinue
such misuse.
26. Conditions that could mitigate security concerns include:
(a) The behavior happened so long ago, was so infrequent, or
happened under such circumstances that it is unlikely to recur or
does not cast doubt on the individual's current reliability,
trustworthiness, or good judgment;
(b) The individual acknowledges his or her drug involvement and
substance misuse, provides evidence of actions taken to overcome
this problem, and has established a pattern of abstinence,
including, but not limited to:
(1) Disassociation from drug-using associates and contacts;
[[Page 57113]]
(2) Changing or avoiding the environment where drugs were used;
and
(3) Providing a signed statement of intent to abstain from all
drug involvement and substance misuse, acknowledging that any future
involvement or misuse is grounds for revocation of national security
eligibility;
(c) Abuse of prescription drugs was after a severe or prolonged
illness during which these drugs were prescribed, and abuse has
since ended; and
(d) Satisfactory completion of a prescribed drug treatment
program, including, but not limited to, rehabilitation and aftercare
requirements, without recurrence of abuse, and a favorable prognosis
by a duly qualified medical professional.
Guideline I: Psychological Conditions \2\
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
\2\ Reference annex B to this appendix regarding statutory
requirements contained in Public Law 110-118 (Bond Amendment)
applicable to this guideline.
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
27. The Concern. Certain emotional, mental, and personality
conditions can impair judgment, reliability, or trustworthiness. A
formal diagnosis of a disorder is not required for there to be a
concern under this guideline. A duly qualified mental health
professional (e.g., clinical psychologist or psychiatrist) employed
by, or acceptable to and approved by the U.S. Government, should be
consulted when evaluating potentially disqualifying and mitigating
information under this guideline and an opinion, including
prognosis, should be sought. No negative inference concerning the
standards in this guideline may be raised solely on the basis of
mental health counseling.
28. Conditions that could raise a security concern and may be
disqualifying include:
(a) Behavior that casts doubt on an individual's judgment,
stability, reliability, or trustworthiness, not covered under any
other guideline and that may indicate an emotional, mental, or
personality condition, including, but not limited to, irresponsible,
violent, self-harm, suicidal, paranoid, manipulative, impulsive,
chronic lying, deceitful, exploitative, or bizarre behaviors;
(b) An opinion by a duly qualified mental health professional
that the individual has a condition that may impair judgment,
stability, reliability, or trustworthiness;
(c) Voluntary or involuntary inpatient hospitalization;
(d) Failure to follow a prescribed treatment plan related to a
diagnosed psychological/psychiatric condition that may impair
judgment, stability, reliability, or trustworthiness, including, but
not limited to, failure to take prescribed medication or failure to
attend required counseling sessions; and
(e) Pathological gambling, the associated behaviors of which may
include unsuccessful attempts to stop gambling; gambling for
increasingly higher stakes, usually in an attempt to cover losses;
concealing gambling losses; borrowing or stealing money to fund
gambling or pay gambling debts; and family conflict resulting from
gambling.
29. Conditions that could mitigate security concerns include:
(a) The identified condition is readily controllable with
treatment, and the individual has demonstrated ongoing and
consistent compliance with the treatment plan;
(b) The individual has voluntarily entered a counseling or
treatment program for a condition that is amenable to treatment, and
the individual is currently receiving counseling or treatment with a
favorable prognosis by a duly qualified mental health professional;
(c) Recent opinion by a duly qualified mental health
professional employed by, or acceptable to and approved by, the U.S.
Government that an individual's previous condition is under control
or in remission, and has a low probability of recurrence or
exacerbation;
(d) The past psychological/psychiatric condition was temporary,
the situation has been resolved, and the individual no longer shows
indications of emotional instability;
(e) There is no indication of a current problem.
Guideline J: Criminal Conduct \3\
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
\3\ Reference annex B to this appendix regarding statutory
requirements contained in Public Law 110-118 (Bond Amendment)
applicable to this guideline.
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
30. The Concern. Criminal activity creates doubt about a
person's judgment, reliability, and trustworthiness. By its very
nature, it calls into question a person's ability or willingness to
comply with laws, rules, and regulations.
31. Conditions that could raise a security concern and may be
disqualifying include:
(a) A pattern of minor offenses, any one of which on its own
would be unlikely to affect a national security eligibility
decision, but which in combination cast doubt on the individual's
judgment, reliability, or trustworthiness;
(b) Evidence (including, but not limited to, a credible
allegation, an admission, and matters of official record) of
criminal conduct, regardless of whether the individual was formally
charged, prosecuted, or convicted;
(c) Individual is currently on parole or probation;
(d) Violation or revocation of parole or probation, or failure
to complete a court-mandated rehabilitation program; and
(e) Discharge or dismissal from the Armed Forces for reasons
less than ``Honorable.''
32. Conditions that could mitigate security concerns include:
(a) So much time has elapsed since the criminal behavior
happened, or it happened under such unusual circumstances, that it
is unlikely to recur and does not cast doubt on the individual's
reliability, trustworthiness, or good judgment;
(b) The individual was pressured or coerced into committing the
act and those pressures are no longer present in the person's life;
(c) No reliable evidence to support that the individual
committed the offense; and
(d) There is evidence of successful rehabilitation; including,
but not limited to, the passage of time without recurrence of
criminal activity, restitution, compliance with the terms of parole
or probation, job training or higher education, good employment
record, or constructive community involvement.
Guideline K: Handling Protected Information
33. The Concern. Deliberate or negligent failure to comply with
rules and regulations for handling protected information--which
includes classified and other sensitive government information, and
proprietary information--raises doubt about an individual's
trustworthiness, judgment, reliability, or willingness and ability
to safeguard such information, and is a serious security concern.
34. Conditions that could raise a security concern and may be
disqualifying include:
(a) Deliberate or negligent disclosure of protected information
to unauthorized persons, including, but not limited to, personal or
business contacts, the media, or persons present at seminars,
meetings, or conferences;
(b) Collecting or storing protected information in any
unauthorized location;
(c) Loading, drafting, editing, modifying, storing,
transmitting, or otherwise handling protected information, including
images, on any unauthorized equipment or medium;
(d) Inappropriate efforts to obtain or view protected
information outside one's need to know;
(e) Copying or modifying protected information in an
unauthorized manner designed to conceal or remove classification or
other document control markings;
(f) Viewing or downloading information from a secure system when
the information is beyond the individual's need-to-know;
(g) Any failure to comply with rules for the protection of
classified or sensitive information;
(h) Negligence or lax security practices that persist despite
counseling by management; and
(i) Failure to comply with rules or regulations that results in
damage to the national security, regardless of whether it was
deliberate or negligent.
35. Conditions that could mitigate security concerns include:
(a) So much time has elapsed since the behavior, or it has
happened so infrequently or under such unusual circumstances, that
it is unlikely to recur and does not cast doubt on the individual's
current reliability, trustworthiness, or good judgment;
(b) The individual responded favorably to counseling or remedial
security training and now demonstrates a positive attitude toward
the discharge of security responsibilities;
(c) The security violations were due to improper or inadequate
training or unclear instructions; and
(d) The violation was inadvertent, it was promptly reported,
there is no evidence of compromise, and it does not suggest a
pattern.
Guideline L: Outside Activities
36. The Concern. Involvement in certain types of outside
employment or activities is of security concern if it poses a
conflict of interest with an individual's security
[[Page 57114]]
responsibilities and could create an increased risk of unauthorized
disclosure of classified or sensitive information.
37. Conditions that could raise a security concern and may be
disqualifying include:
(a) Any employment or service, whether compensated or volunteer,
with:
(1) The government of a foreign country;
(2) Any foreign national, organization, or other entity;
(3) A representative of any foreign interest; and
(4) Any foreign, domestic, or international organization or
person engaged in analysis, discussion, or publication of material
on intelligence, defense, foreign affairs, or protected technology;
and
(b) Failure to report or fully disclose an outside activity when
this is required.
38. Conditions that could mitigate security concerns include:
(a) Evaluation of the outside employment or activity by the
appropriate security or counterintelligence office indicates that it
does not pose a conflict with an individual's security
responsibilities or with the national security interests of the
United States; and
(b) The individual terminated the employment or discontinued the
activity upon being notified that it was in conflict with his or her
security responsibilities.
Guideline M: Use of Information Technology
39. The Concern. Failure to comply with rules, procedures,
guidelines, or regulations pertaining to information technology
systems may raise security concerns about an individual's
reliability and trustworthiness, calling into question the
willingness or ability to properly protect sensitive systems,
networks, and information. Information Technology includes any
computer-based, mobile, or wireless device used to create, store,
access, process, manipulate, protect, or move information. This
includes any component, whether integrated into a larger system or
not, such as hardware, software, or firmware, used to enable or
facilitate these operations.
40. Conditions that could raise a security concern and may be
disqualifying include:
(a) Unauthorized entry into any information technology system;
(b) Unauthorized modification, destruction, or manipulation of,
or denial of access to, an information technology system or any data
in such a system;
(c) Use of any information technology system to gain
unauthorized access to another system or to a compartmented area
within the same system;
(d) Downloading, storing, or transmitting classified, sensitive,
proprietary, or other protected information on or to any
unauthorized information technology system;
(e) Unauthorized use of any information technology system;
(f) Introduction, removal, or duplication of hardware, firmware,
software, or media to or from any information technology system when
prohibited by rules, procedures, guidelines, or regulations or when
otherwise not authorized;
(g) Negligence or lax security practices in handling information
technology that persists despite counseling by management; and
(h) Any misuse of information technology, whether deliberate or
negligent, that results in damage to the national security.
41. Conditions that could mitigate security concerns include:
(a) So much time has elapsed since the behavior happened, or it
happened under such unusual circumstances, that it is unlikely to
recur and does not cast doubt on the individual's reliability,
trustworthiness, or good judgment;
(b) The misuse was minor and done solely in the interest of
organizational efficiency and effectiveness;
(c) The conduct was unintentional or inadvertent and was
followed by a prompt, good-faith effort to correct the situation and
by notification to appropriate personnel; and
(d) The misuse was due to improper or inadequate training or
unclear instructions.
Annex B to Appendix A to Part 710--Bond Amendment Guidance
On January 28, 2008, Congress amended the IRTPA of 2004, adding
statutory restrictions on certain eligibility determinations and
establishing waiver and congressional reporting requirements. These
modifications are collectively referred to as the ``Bond
Amendments'' and were made effective on January 1, 2008.\4\ For the
reasons identified in paragraph E.2 of this appendix, application of
the Bond Amendment's statutory restrictions will be applied to all
adjudications covered under this Directive.
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
\4\ IRTPA of 2004 section 3002, 50 U.S.C. 3343.
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1. Prohibition: Heads of agencies are prohibited from granting
or renewing national security eligibility for any covered individual
who is an unlawful user of a controlled substance or is an addict as
defined. If an authorized adjudicative agency has a case pending
review that involves an unlawful user of a controlled substance or
an addict, the statutory prohibition must be applied and the
individual will receive the agency's established administrative
review procedures. A meritorious waiver may not be authorized with
reference to this prohibition. For purposes of this prohibition:
(a) An ``addict'' is any individual who habitually uses any
narcotic drug so as to endanger the public morals, health, safety,
or welfare; or is so far addicted to the use of narcotic drugs as to
have lost the power of self-control with reference to his addiction.
(b) A ``controlled substance'' means any ``controlled
substance'' as defined in 21 U.S.C. 802.
2. Disqualification: The Bond Amendment also contains
disqualification provisions which apply only to those covered
individuals seeking access to Sensitive Compartmented Information
(SCI), Special Access Programs (SAP), or Restricted Data (RD). Heads
of agencies may not grant or renew access to SCI, SAP, or RD to a
covered individual who:
(a) Has been convicted in any court of the U.S. of a crime, was
sentenced to imprisonment for a term exceeding one year, and was
incarcerated as a result of that sentence for not less than one
year;
(b) Has been discharged or dismissed from the Armed Forces under
dishonorable conditions; or
(c) Is determined to be mentally incompetent; an individual is
``mentally incompetent'' when he or she has been declared mentally
incompetent as determined by competency proceedings conducted in a
court or administrative agency with proper jurisdiction.
3. Waiver Standard and Procedures: When a disqualifier reflected
in paragraphs 2(a) through (c) of this annex B exists, the
adjudicator will proceed with the adjudication using the appropriate
mitigation conditions found in these adjudicative guidelines. If the
adjudicator would have arrived at a favorable decision but for the
Bond Amendment disqualification, a meritorious waiver may be
appropriate.
(a) Meritorious waivers will be considered an ``Exception'' to
the adjudicative guidelines and will be annotated as a ``Waiver'' in
the adjudicative decision recorded in the appropriate databases
listed in paragraph E.5 of this appendix. Adjudicators will provide
a detailed justification for the meritorious waiver in the final
adjudicative report.
(b) If, after applying the appropriate mitigating factors listed
in these adjudicative guidelines, a meritorious waiver is not
appropriate, the SCI, SAP, or RD access will be denied or revoked
with a written explanation that cites the adjudicative guidelines
applied and the Bond Amendment disqualifier. The authorized
adjudicative agency's established administrative review procedures
shall be followed in all such cases.
(c) Each authorized adjudicative agency shall maintain a record
of the number and type of meritorious waivers granted, to include
the rationale for each waiver, and shall report this data annually
to the SecEA in advance of the annual report to Congress. Authorized
adjudicative agencies will also maintain a record of all
disqualifications, broken down by type, due to Bond Amendment
requirements.
4. Authorized adjudicative agencies often have no ability to
predict whether the covered individual for whom national security
eligibility determinations are being made will also require access
to SCI, SAP, or RD. Accordingly, the guidance in paragraphs 4(a) and
(b) applies to all national security adjudicative determinations:
(a) All adjudicators will determine whether any of the Bond
Amendment disqualifiers in paragraphs 2(a) through (c) of this annex
B apply to the case being adjudicated.
(b) If a disqualifier exists, adjudicators shall annotate that
fact in one of the databases identified in paragraph E.5 of this
annex B to ensure that any subsequent requests for access to SCI,
SAP, or RD for the individual will undergo appropriate re-
adjudication and waiver procedures in meritorious cases.
Annex C to Appendix A to Part 710--Exceptions
Exceptions are an adjudicative decision to grant initial or
continued eligibility for access to classified information or to
hold a sensitive position despite failure to meet the
[[Page 57115]]
full adjudicative or investigative standards. The authorized
exceptions are defined below and supersede the definitions in Office
of Management and Budget memorandum, Reciprocal Recognition of
Existing Personnel Security Clearances, 14 November 2007.
Waiver (W): Eligibility granted or continued despite the
presence of substantial issue information that would normally
preclude eligibility. Approval authorities may approve a waiver only
when the benefit of initial or continued eligibility clearly
outweighs any security concerns. A waiver may also require
conditions for eligibility as described below.
Condition (C): Eligibility granted or continued, despite the
presence of issue information that can be partially but not
completely mitigated, with the provision that additional security
measures shall be required to mitigate the issue(s). Such measures
include, but are not limited to, additional security monitoring,
access restrictions, submission of periodic financial statements, or
attendance at counseling sessions.
Deviation (D): Eligibility granted or continued despite either a
significant gap in coverage or scope of the investigation.
``Significant gap'' for this purpose means either complete lack of
coverage for a period of six months or longer within the most recent
five years investigated or the lack of one or more relevant
investigative scope components (e.g., employment checks, financial
review, or a subject interview) in its entirety.
Out of Scope (O): Reinvestigation is overdue.
[FR Doc. 2017-25257 Filed 12-1-17; 8:45 am]
BILLING CODE 6450-01-P