Richard A. Herbert, M.D.; Decision and Order, 53942-53961 [2011-22093]
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Federal Register / Vol. 76, No. 168 / Tuesday, August 30, 2011 / Notices
DEPARTMENT OF JUSTICE
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Notice of Lodging of First Addendum
to Consent Decree Under the
Emergency Planning and Community
Right-To-Know Act, the Clean Water
Act, the Resource Conservation and
Recovery Act, the Federal Insecticide,
Fungicide, and Rodenticide Act, the
Comprehensive Environmental
Response, Compensation, and Liability
Act, the Safe Drinking Water Act, and
the Clean Air Act
Under 28 CFR 50.7, notice is hereby
given that on August 25, 2011, a
proposed First Addendum to Consent
Decree in United States, et, al. v.
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INVISTA, S.a r.l, Civil Action Number
1:2009-cv-00244, was lodged with the
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The Consent Decree in this matter was
entered on July 28, 2009. The Consent
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`
S.a r.l. (‘‘INVISTA’’) brought by the
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relating to the proposed Consent Decree.
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[FR Doc. 2011–22121 Filed 8–29–11; 8:45 am]
BILLING CODE 4410–15–P
DEPARTMENT OF JUSTICE
Drug Enforcement Administration
[Docket No. 09–33]
Richard A. Herbert, M.D.; Decision and
Order
On June 15, 2010, Administrative Law
Judge (ALJ) Mary Ellen Bittner issued
the attached recommended decision.
Thereafter, Respondent filed Exceptions
to the ALJ’s decision.
Having reviewed the entire record
including Respondent’s Exceptions, I
have decided to adopt the ALJ’s rulings,
findings of fact, conclusions of law, and
recommended Order except as expressly
set forth below.1
In his Exceptions, Respondent raises
several issues. First, Respondent argues
that he ‘‘was irreparably harmed’’
because he was forced to represent
himself ‘‘pro se’’ after the ALJ granted
his previous attorney’s motion to
1 Pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(2), the ALJ’s
recommended decision has been edited to eliminate
the names of various persons who were either
witnesses or were referred to in the proceeding. All
citations to the ALJ’s decision are to the slip
opinion attached to this Decision and Order.
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withdraw but did not grant his motion
for a continuance of the hearing to allow
him to obtain new counsel.2 Exc. at 6–
7. Respondent argues that his previous
attorney had requested that he ‘‘be given
leave of 21 days to obtain new counsel,’’
and that ‘‘[t]he ALJ mistakenly assumed
that the attorney and Respondent were
not asking for a delay of the hearing’’
and did not grant a continuance in her
October 13, 2009 order. Id. at 7.
Respondent further asserts that the ALJ
‘‘unfairly denied a continuance’’ and
that he ‘‘must be given a fair hearing
with representation for a proper
outcome in this matter.’’ Id. at 10.
The record establishes that on October
9, 2009, Respondent’s prior counsel
filed a motion for leave to withdraw; in
his motion, Respondent’s prior counsel
‘‘further requested that Respondent be
given leave of twenty-one (21) days to
secure new counsel.’’ ALJ Ex. 5. On
October 13, 2009, the ALJ granted the
motion to withdraw. Id. However, the
ALJ found ‘‘it unnecessary to provide
leave of twenty-one (21) days for
Respondent to secure new counsel
* * * as Respondent is free to retain
counsel at any time.’’ Id. The ALJ
further ordered that ‘‘the hearing in this
matter, scheduled to begin on November
3, 2009, shall proceed as scheduled.’’ Id.
A copy of this ruling was served on
Respondent by Federal Express. Id. In
addition, the following day, the ALJ’s
law clerk wrote Respondent noting that
it appeared that he was no longer
represented by counsel and calling his
attention to his ‘‘right to be represented
by an attorney’’; the letter also included
verbatim the language of 21 CFR
1316.50, which addresses a party’s right
to representation. ALJ Ex. 6. The letter
further advised Respondent that he
could contact the ALJ’s law clerk if he
had any questions. Id.
At the hearing, Respondent argued
that his prior counsel had sought a
continuance of twenty-one days. Tr. 11.
However, the ALJ noted that
Respondent’s prior attorney ‘‘did not
ask for a postponement of the hearing’’
and that he had simply requested that
Respondent ‘‘be given leave of 21 days
to secure new counsel.’’ Id. at 12–13.
Respondent replied that his prior
lawyer’s intent was ‘‘to get [him] time’’
because ‘‘we have blocked out four
days’’ for the hearing, and no ‘‘major
league attorney is going to have four
days [open] on his calendar,’’ having
been notified approximately three
weeks before the hearing date. Id. at 13.
The ALJ responded that she did not
2 Respondent does not, however, contend that the
ALJ erred in granting the motion to withdraw. See
Resp. Exc. at 6–10.
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know what Respondent’s prior lawyer
had ‘‘intended,’’ but only ‘‘what he
asked for.’’ Id. Respondent then stated
that he understood, and that ALJ ‘‘ha[d]
made [her] ruling.’’ Id. The ALJ then
proceeded to conduct the hearing.
I conclude that the ALJ did not abuse
her discretion in proceeding to conduct
the hearing. Whatever the intent of
Respondent’s counsel was in asking for
‘‘leave * * * to secure new counsel,’’
Respondent had at least three weeks
between his prior attorney’s moving to
withdraw and the commencement of the
hearing to find new counsel. While it
may be the case that most capable
attorneys would not have four days
clear on their calendar on three weeks’
notice, it is not as if Respondent had
secured new counsel who, because his
calendar was not clear, sought a
continuance, which was denied. Indeed,
it is notable that at the hearing,
Respondent made no claim that he had
actually contacted any attorney, let
alone that an attorney had declined to
represent him because the attorney had
a scheduling conflict. I therefore reject
Respondent’s exception and conclude
that he is not entitled to a new hearing.
Respondent takes further exception to
the ALJ’s conclusion that the OxyContin
prescriptions he issued to E.M. lacked
‘‘a legitimate medical purpose’’ and that
he ‘‘was at least reckless or negligent in
ignoring the warning signs of
diversion.’’ Exc. at 10–16. Respondent
raises a number of contentions regarding
the weight the ALJ gave to the testimony
of various witnesses and exhibits;
Respondent also notes that after the
Agency’s hearing, the Illinois
Department of Financial and
Professional Regulation (IDFPR) held a
hearing on the same allegations and
‘‘found that the State did not prove that
any diversion occurred.’’ Id. at 15.
Having reviewed each of these
contentions, I concluded that a
preponderance of the evidence supports
the ALJ’s conclusions that the
OxyContin prescriptions which
Respondent issued in the name of E.M.
were issued outside of the ‘‘usual course
of * * * professional practice’’ and
lacked ‘‘a legitimate medical purpose’’
and therefore violated the CSA. 21 CFR
1306.04(a). The evidence shows that
beginning in September 2003,
Respondent prescribed 60 tablets of
Oxycontin 80 mg. (BID, twice a day), to
E.M., who was then 93 years old, on a
monthly basis through May 2009, one
month before her death. RX 16. Yet on
various occasions throughout this
period, E.M. was an in-patient in either
a hospital or nursing home. See GX 42.
Moreover, E.M. was under hospice care
from June 9 through October 11, 2006;
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December 8, 2006 through June 1, 2007;
and from July 11, 2007 through the date
of her death.
According to the testimony of a
hospice nurse who treated E.M. for
between eight months to a year, under
the hospice agreement, E.M.’s family
was required to disclose whether any
other physicians were treating her. Tr.
35, 38. In addition, the testimony
established that the hospice was
required to know what medications
E.M. was taking. Id. at 35. As the
hospice nurse explained, a doctor
would need to communicate with
hospice what drugs he was prescribing
so that contraindicated drugs were not
prescribed by another doctor. Id. at 65.
Yet E.M.’s family, including her son
I.S., who was a long-standing friend of
Respondent and who also received the
same monthly prescriptions for 60
tablets of OxyContin 80 mg (see id. at
686) and filled his mother’s
prescriptions (id. at 690), did not
disclose to the hospice either that E.M.
was being treated by Respondent or that
she was taking OxyContin 80 mg. Id. at
66. According to the hospice nurse, the
only controlled substance she was
aware of being prescribed to E.M. was
Valium. Id. at 35. Moreover, on those
occasions when the hospice nurse
determined that E.M. needed some
medicine for her arm or knee pain, I.S.
told the hospice nurse that Tylenol
(acetaminophen, a non-controlled drug)
worked for his mother and that his
mother could not handle stronger
medicine. Id. at 65.
The Government also called as a
witness Dr. S.D., a specialist in internal
medicine who was E.M.’s primary care
physician for the last four years of her
life, including when she was in hospice.
Id. at 72, 76. According to Dr. S.D., E.M.
had lower back pain, shoulder and knee
pain, for which he prescribed Tylenol or
Darvocet. Id. at 89–90. However, she did
not require constant medication, and he
never prescribed OxyContin 80 mg,
which he considered to be ‘‘too strong
for her.’’ Id. at 91–92. While Dr. S.D.
once prescribed Vicodin to E.M. upon
her discharge from the hospital, GX 21,
at 31; he did not prescribe Vicodin to
her on a monthly basis. Tr. 143.
While Dr. S.D. talked with I.S.’s livein girlfriend regarding E.M.’s condition,
he further testified that he was never
told that Respondent was prescribing
OxyContin to her. Id. at 92, 95, 109,
141–42. Moreover, the hospice nurse
never told him that E.M. was seeing
another doctor and never listed
OxyContin as one of her medications.
Id. at 96, 102. Dr. S.D. further testified
that if E.M. had, in fact, been taking two
OxyContin 80 mg each day and had
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stopped (as when she was in the
hospital), she would have undergone
‘‘severe withdrawal,’’ including such
symptoms as abdominal pain, diarrhea,
and vomiting. Id. at 105–06. Dr. S.D.
also testified that when a patient is
hospitalized, a family member is not
allowed to give the patient medication.
Id. at 107. There was, however, no
evidence that E.M. underwent
withdrawal during any of the various
occasions when she was hospitalized.
Id. at 106, 143–44.
Dr. S.D. further testified that because
he was E.M.’s primary care physician,
Respondent had ‘‘the legal
responsibility to send [him] a consult
that [Respondent was] treating her for
pain and prescribing’’ OxyContin 80 mg
to her. Id. at 140. Dr. S.D. testified that
if doctors do not coordinate their
prescribing to a patient, the patient
could overdose. Id. at 144. Dr. S.D. then
testified that it is outside of the normal
course of medical practice for a
physician, who is aware that a patient
is being treated by another physician, to
prescribe drugs and fail to consult with
the other physician.3 Id.
As noted above, during the period in
which Respondent issued the
OxyContin prescriptions in E.M.’s
name, E.M. was admitted as an inpatient to a hospital on approximately
twenty occasions.4 See GX 42. Yet there
is no evidence that she ever underwent
withdrawal. Moreover, in the
voluminous medical records entered
into evidence, Respondent points to
only a single instance (involving a
January 18, 2006 emergency room visit
for a potential stroke (CVA)), in which
the medical records listed her
medications as including OxyContin.
GX 21, at 29. If E.M. was actually taking
the OxyContin, this begs the question of
why her family was so reluctant to
disclose this information (as well as
Respondent’s) name to the hospitals
where she was treated.
There is further evidence establishing
that Respondent’s prescriptions were
unlawful. The evidence shows that on
November 10, 2004, E.M. was
discharged from the hospital to the
3 Respondent acknowledged that he was aware
that E.M. was being treated by other doctors, and
the chart he maintained on her shows that he was
aware at various points that she was a patient in
a rehab facility and a nursing home. RX 16, at 5–
6. Yet he never notified either her physicians or
these facilities that he was prescribing OxyContin
to her. While Respondent maintained he did not
notify E.M.’s physicians and the facilities regarding
the OxyContin prescriptions because E.M’s family
did not want him to, Respondent offered no
credible explanation for why he continued to
prescribe to E.M. when he knew she was under the
care of other physicians.
4 She was also taken to the Emergency Room
approximately ten times.
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Heritage Village Nursing Home, and that
at 9:30 a.m., she was admitted to the
latter. GX 11, at 1; GX 25, at 3; GX 27A,
at 70. Yet Respondent noted in her chart
that on the same day, he performed a
physical exam at which he took her
blood pressure, palpated her deformities
and found that they were ‘‘not as
painful,’’ and found that her ‘‘hand grip
good,’’ RX 16, at 4; the same day, he also
issued her a prescription for sixty
OxyContin 80 mg. See GX 28, at 10.
Respondent did not, however, offer any
testimony explaining how he could
have performed a physical exam on
E.M. on this day.
Likewise, Respondent noted in E.M.’s
chart that on November 17, 2006, her
blood pressure was 138/94, she was
‘‘[d]oing surprisingly well today,’’ she
‘‘spoke my 1st name,’’ and was
‘‘oriented,’’ RX 16, at 5; he also issued
a prescription in her name for sixty
OxyContin 80 mg. See GX 14, at 5.
However, between October 12 and
December 8, 2006, E.M. was a patient in
the Manor Care Nursing Home. GX 21,
at 203; GX 27B, at 17, 956. Yet the
record (including Respondent’s
testimony) establishes that Respondent
did not travel to the facilities E.M. was
in. Tr. 547.
The ALJ found that there were
‘‘numerous inconsistencies between the
testimonies of [I.S.] and Respondent’’
and that this led her ‘‘to believe that
neither is a credible witness with regard
to [E.M.’s] medication and treatment.’’
ALJ at 54. The ALJ further noted the
extensive amount of time that E.M. was
in either a hospital or nursing home/
rehab facility (approximately 290 days
during the course of Respondent’s
prescribing to her) and found ‘‘it
difficult to believe that [E.M.’s] family
was able to administer [80 mgs of]
OxyContin twice a day for such an
expansive time without ever arousing
the suspicion of the facility staff.5’’ Id.
I agree and find Respondent’s and I.S.’s
testimony implausible. I also agree with
the ALJ’s conclusion that the record
5 Among the implausible testimony I.S. gave was
that he or a family member would take the
OxyContin to his mother when she was
institutionalized and give her the drug, which was
prescribed to be taken twice a day. Tr. 685. I.S. also
asserted that when he went to his mother’s various
institutions, and told them that he had
‘‘supplements [and] medications that I give my
mother at home, and I would like you to administer
them, * * * they said we won’t do that * * *
unless the doctor orders it. But if you want to come
in yourself, or have somebody come in and give it
to your mother, we haven’t got a problem with that,
and that’s what I did.’’ Id. at 692–93. However, I.S.
testified that he did not tell the facilities that he
would be administering OxyContin. Id. Indeed, it
seems strange that the facilities did not ask I.S.
what medications he intended to bring into the
facility, and as the ALJ found, this testimony is
patently disingenuous.
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supports the conclusion that the
OxyContin prescriptions Respondent
issued in the name of E.M. lacked a
legitimate medical purpose and were
issued outside of the usual course of
professional practice and thus violated
Federal law.6 21 CFR 1306.04(a).
Respondent further points to an
IDFPR Inspector’s Report of an
interview he conducted with E.M. and
her son on August 9, 2005. During this
interview, E.M. identified two green
tablets, which were reportedly
OxyContin, and stated that they ‘‘were
to combat pain.’’ RX 10. However,
earlier in the interview the Inspector
had asked E.M. if she had pain when
she initially went to see Respondent and
she answered ‘‘no.’’ Id. I.S. had objected
that ‘‘the question was unfair as he felt
she did not recall.’’ Id. Moreover,
Respondent had previously diagnosed
E.M. as having ‘‘senile dementia’’ nearly
two years earlier, RX 16, at 1; and Dr.
P. (Dr. S.D.’s partner) had diagnosed
E.M. as having Alzheimer’s disease and
dementia in June 2005, two months
prior to the interview. Thus, there is
ample reason to discount E.M.’s
statement regarding the use of the
OxyContin.
Respondent also argues that after the
instant hearing, the IDFPR held a
hearing on the ‘‘same underlying
allegations,’’ at which much of the same
evidence was presented; however, at the
state hearing, Respondent was also able
to procure the testimony of C.S. (I.S.’s
wife). Exceptions at 15. Respondent
argues that the State ALJ ‘‘found that the
6 Respondent argues that DEA Investigators
‘‘could have easily secured a blood test of [E.M.] to
discern whether she was receiving OxyContin,’’ and
that ‘‘[b]y the time Respondent realized the focus
of the investigation centered around this patient
and the severity of the charges against him, it was
too late because the patient had passed away.’’
Exceptions at 12. Respondent further argues that
‘‘even though OxyContin was listed as a home
medication and there was evidence that she was
taking the medicine s[u]rreptitiously, Dr. [S.D., her
primary care physician,] never ordered a blood test
for opioid levels.’’ Id. at 13. As for DEA’s obligation
to secure a blood test, this is beside the point.
Moreover, in his testimony, Respondent
acknowledged that ‘‘[i]n retrospect’’ he should have
done a blood test on E.M. to see if she was actually
taking the OxyContin. Tr. 835. However, he then
attempted to shift the blame to Dr. S.D., asking
‘‘[w]hat is [his] excuse?’’ Id.
Respondent ignores that he was one who
prescribed 60 tablets of OxyContin 80 mg to E.M.—
which is the second strongest formulation available
and which just happened to be the same
prescription that he was giving her son—each
month, and did this for a period of more than five
and a half years and did so even when he knew she
was being treated by other doctors. At a minimum,
this evidence establishes that Respondent acted
with deliberate ignorance as to the likelihood the
drugs were being diverted. See Jeri Hassman, M.D.,
75 FR 8194, 8228 (2010) (citing United States v.
Katz, 445 F.3d 1023, 1031 (8th Cir. 2006)).
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State did not prove that any diversion
occurred.’’ Id.
Respondent does not, however, argue
that C.S. was unavailable to testify in
the DEA proceeding and her testimony
does not constitute newly discovered
evidence. Cf. ICC v. Brotherhood of
Locomotive Engineers, 482 U.S. 270, 286
(1987). As for the state ALJ’s findings,
DEA was not a party to that proceeding.
Moreover, this Agency has long held
that it ‘‘maintains a separate oversight
responsibility [apart from that which
exists in a state board] with respect to
the handling of controlled substances
and has a statutory obligation to make
its independent determination as to
whether the granting of [a registration]
would be in the public interest.’’
Mortimer B. Levin, D.O., 55 FR 8209,
8210 (1990). Accordingly, even if
Respondent had submitted the state
ALJ’s decision, the state ALJ’s finding
would not be entitled to collateral
estoppel effect in this proceeding.7 Cf.
United States v. Mendoza, 464 U.S. 154
(1984). I therefore reject Respondent’s
exception that the evidence in the
record of this proceeding does not
demonstrate that he engaged in the
diversion of controlled substances and
agree with the ALJ’s conclusion that he
acted outside of the usual course of
professional practice and lacked a
legitimate medical purpose when he
issued OxyContin prescriptions in
E.M.’s name. 21 CFR 1306.04(a). See
also George Mathew, M.D., 75 FR 66138,
66146 (2010) (under Federal law, where
a physician issues a prescription in
violation of 21 CFR 1306.04(a), the drug
is deemed diverted).
Finally, Respondent argues that the
proven allegations do not support the
revocation of his registration. Resp. Exc.
at 16. Contrary to Respondent’s
understanding, DEA has held that proof
of a single act of diversion is sufficient
to support the revocation of a
registration and the denial of an
application. See Dewey C. MacKay, 75
FR 49956, 49977 (2010); Alan H.
Olefsky, 57 FR 928, 928–29 (1992)
(revoking registration based on
physician’s act of presenting two
fraudulent prescriptions to pharmacy
for filling). The ALJ’s finding that
Respondent issued prescriptions which
lacked a legitimate medical purpose is
sufficient by itself to support the
revocation of Respondent’s registration,
especially, where, as here, the ALJ
7 The Government also notes that in the IDFPR
proceeding, the State’s burden of proof was ‘‘clear
and convincing evidence,’’ but in this proceeding
the ‘‘preponderance of the evidence’’ standard
applies. Gov. Resp. to Resp. Motion for Rehearing
and Exceptions, at 13 (citing Tit. 68, Cp. VII,
Subchapter a, Admin. Rule, Part 1110.190).
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found that ‘‘Respondent has repeatedly
failed to accept responsibility for his
misconduct.’’ ALJ at 44. See also Jayam
Krishna-Iyer, 74 FR 459, 463 (2009)
(quoting Medicine Shoppe—
Jonesborough, 73 FR 364, 387 (2008)
(DEA ‘‘has repeatedly held that where a
registrant has committed acts
inconsistent with the public interest, the
registrant must accept responsibility for
[his] actions and demonstrate that [he]
will not engage in future
misconduct.’’)); see also Hoxie v. DEA,
419 F.3d 477, 483 (6th Cir. 2005)
(‘‘admitting fault’’ is ‘‘properly
consider[ed]’’ by DEA to be an
‘‘important factor[]’’ in the public
interest determination).8
Moreover, the ALJ found that
Respondent had committed additional
acts which support the revocation of his
registration, including that he materially
falsified his 2006 renewal application
when he failed to disclose the 1998
probation imposed on his state medical
license by the Illinois Department of
Professional Regulation. ALJ at 43. As
the ALJ found, this was a material
falsification because the underlying
conduct which gave rise to the State’s
order was Respondent’s prescribing of
Dilaudid, a schedule II controlled
substance, to four patients ‘‘under
questionable circumstances, i.e., for
pain related to old injuries or for pain
in which surgery may have provided
relief and that two (2) of the patients
may have sold some of the Dilaudid
back to Respondent.’’ GX 7. This
falsification was material because under
the public interest standard, DEA is
required to assess an applicant’s
experience in dispensing controlled
substances and his record of compliance
with state and federal laws related to
8 In concluding that Respondent has not accepted
responsibility for his misconduct, the ALJ noted
that ‘‘despite my previous rulings to the contrary,
Respondent continues to assert that most of the
evidence and testimony admitted in the instant
hearing is inadmissible and should not be
considered’’ and that he ‘‘continues to assert that he
was ‘not afforded a capable attorney’ although he
was at any time free to procure the assistance of
counsel [and] was notified of such.’’ ALJ at 44
(citing Resp. Closing Argument Br. at 10).
To make clear, that Respondent continues to
object to the admission of certain evidence and
argues that he was not afforded a capable attorney
is of no relevance in determining whether he
accepts responsibility for his misconduct. I thus
reject the ALJ’s reliance on Respondent’s legal
arguments as a basis for concluding that he does not
accept responsibility. However, the record contains
an ample evidentiary basis for concluding that
Respondent does not accept responsibility for most
of his misconduct, and his explanation of his
prescribing to E.M. is utterly implausible. Thus, I
conclude that Respondent has not rebutted the
Government’s prima facie case. See Hoxie, 419 F.3d
at 483 (upholding Agency’s reliance on registrant’s
lack of candor in determining whether registration
is consistent with the public interest).
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controlled substances. 21 U.S.C. 823(f)
(2) & (4). Accordingly, Respondent’s
failure to disclose the 1998 probation
was capable of influencing the Agency’s
decision as to whether to grant his
application and was a material
falsification.9 See The Lawsons, Inc., 72
FR 74334, 74338–39 (2007) (other
citations omitted). Under the CSA,
material falsification provides a separate
and independent ground for denying an
application. 21 U.S.C. 824(a)(1).
Substantial evidence also supports the
ALJ’s findings that Respondent
committed other acts of misconduct.
These included his: (1) Obtaining
Marinol, a schedule III controlled
substance, from a patient, who had been
dispensed the drug by another doctor, in
violation of 21 U.S.C. 844(a); and his (2)
failing to document his receipt of the
Marinol in violation of 21 U.S.C.
827(a)(3). ALJ at 48–49. In addition,
Respondent prescribed controlled
substances from a new location at which
he did not hold a registration and did
so even after he was told by DEA
personnel to stop doing so. ALJ at 30–
31, 52–53 (citing GXs 9, 33, and 34). As
the ALJ noted, ‘‘Respondent’s act of
continuing to handle controlled
substances after numerous warnings
shows a flagrant disregard for the
requirements of the law governing the
handling of controlled substances.’’ Id.
at 53.
Finally, based on a 2003 state
proceeding, the ALJ found that
Respondent failed to properly supervise
an unlicensed person who distributed
phentermine, a schedule IV controlled
substance, to patients of a weight loss
clinic where Respondent worked and
which was owned by the unlicensed
person who was a personal friend. ALJ
at 46. According to the record, this
occurred when Respondent left his
medical bag (which contained the
drugs) at the clinic and the clinic owner
distributed the phentermine to its
patients. Notably, five years earlier—as
part of the 1998 Consent Order, which
resolved the allegations pertaining to his
handling of Dilaudid—Respondent was
required to take a course in controlled
substance management. GX 7, at 3. Yet
9 In his Exceptions, Respondent also contends
that the Agency’s consideration of the 1998 Consent
Order violates his right to due process because due
process ‘‘requires protection from a never-ending
time limit for the DEA to bring an action.’’
Exceptions at 3. Respondent, however, makes only
a conclusory assertion of prejudice. Cf. United
States v. Brockman, 183 F.3d 891, 895 (8th Cir.
1999). He likewise ignores that in making the public
interest determination, Congress directed the
Agency to consider his experience in dispensing
controlled substances, an inquiry which necessarily
entails review of prior incidents of misconduct.
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Respondent then committed additional
violations of the CSA.
The numerous acts of misconduct
proved on this record, along with
Respondent’s unwillingness to accept
responsibility for much of it, and his
demonstrated inability to take heed of
the laws and regulations pertaining to
controlled substances even after being
required to undergo remedial
instruction, make clear that his
continued registration ‘‘would be
inconsistent with the public interest.’’
21 U.S.C. 823(f). I therefore reject
Respondent’s exception that the
evidence does not support the
revocation of his registration.
Accordingly, I will adopt the ALJ’s
recommendation that his registration be
revoked and that his applications to
renew and modify his registration be
denied.
Order
Pursuant to the authority vested in me
by 21 U.S.C. 823(f) & 824(a), as well as
28 CFR 0.100(b), I order that DEA
Certificate of Registration, BH8738063,
issued to Richard A. Herbert, M.D., be,
and it hereby is, revoked. I further order
that the applications of Richard A.
Herbert, M.D., to renew and modify his
registration be, and they hereby are,
denied. This order is effective
September 29, 2011.
Dated: August 12, 2011.
Michele M. Leonhart,
Administrator.
Bryan Bayly, Esq., for the Government.
Richard A. Herbert, M.D., Pro Se, for the
Respondent.
Opinion and Recommended Ruling,
Findings of Fact, Conclusions of Law
and Decision of the Administrative Law
Judge
Mary Ellen Bittner, Administrative
Law Judge. This proceeding is an
adjudication pursuant to the
Administrative Procedure Act, 5 U.S.C.
551 et seq., to determine whether the
Drug Enforcement Administration
(DEA) should revoke a physician’s
Certificate of Registration as a
practitioner and deny any pending
applications for renewal or modification
of that registration. Without this
registration the physician, Respondent
Richard A. Herbert, M.D., of Riverside,
Illinois, will be unable to lawfully
handle controlled substances in the
course of his practice.
On March 11, 2009, the Deputy
Assistant Administrator, Office of
Diversion Control, of the DEA issued an
Order to Show Cause to Respondent,
giving Respondent notice to show cause
why the DEA should not revoke his
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DEA Certificate of Registration pursuant
to 21 U.S.C. 824(a)(l) and (a)(4), and
deny any pending applications for
renewal or modification of such
registration pursuant to 21 U.S.C. 823(f),
on grounds that he materially falsified
an application for renewal of his
registration and that his continued
registration would be inconsistent with
the public interest as that term is used
in 21 U.S.C. 824(a)(4) and 823(f).
In substance, the Order to Show
Cause alleges that Respondent holds a
DEA Certificate of Registration that
expired on October 31, 2006, and for
which Respondent submitted a timely
renewal application on September 26,
2006; that on that renewal application,
Respondent was required to answer
whether a state medical board had taken
action against his state license; that on
February 26, 1998, the Illinois thenDepartment of Professional Regulation
had placed Respondent’s medical
license on probation for one year
because Respondent issued unlawful
prescriptions for Dilaudid, a brand
name product containing the Schedule
II narcotic controlled substance
hydromorphone hydrochloride; that
Respondent failed to disclose the 1998
probation on his September 2006
renewal application; that Respondent
obtained dronabinol, a Schedule III
hallucinogenic controlled substance,
from a patient who had acquired it
pursuant to a prescription from another
physician but had no record of such
receipt, and that on July 21, 2003,
Respondent dispensed that dronabinol
to another purported patient but had no
record of such dispensing; that on
August 15, 2003, the Illinois Department
of Financial and Professional Regulation
(IDFPR) placed Respondent’s medical
license on probation for three years
because Respondent failed to supervise
an unlicensed employee who illegally
handled phentermine, a Schedule IV
stimulant controlled substance; that
Respondent disclosed the 2003
probation on his September 2006
renewal application; that on July 5,
2005, the Illinois Department of
Professional Regulation served
Respondent with an administrative
subpoena seeking to obtain patient
records and that Respondent did not
fully comply with the subpoena in that
he redacted patient identification
information and all dates of treatment;
that on July 28, 2007, the administrative
subpoena was re-issued to Respondent;
and that from February 2006 through
August 2007, Respondent diverted
OxyContin, a brand name product
containing the Schedule II narcotic
controlled substance oxycodone, to a
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patient by giving the patient a
prescription that Respondent wrote in
the name of the patient’s mother.
Respondent, through counsel, timely
requested a hearing on the allegations in
the Order to Show Cause. On October 9,
2009, Respondent’s counsel requested
leave to withdraw as counsel because of
a conflict of representation; I granted
counsel’s request on October 13, 2009;
and sent a copy of the memorandum
granting that request to Respondent by
Federal Express that same day.
Following prehearing procedures, a
hearing was held in Chicago, Illinois,
from November 3 through November 6,
2009, with the Government represented
by counsel and Respondent appearing
pro se. Both parties called witnesses to
testify and introduced documentary
evidence. After the hearing, both parties
filed proposed findings of fact,
conclusions of law, and argument. All of
the evidence and posthearing
submissions have been considered, and
to the extent the parties’ proposed
findings of fact have been adopted, they
are substantively incorporated into
those set forth below.
Issue
Whether a preponderance of the
evidence establishes that, pursuant to 21
U.S.C. 824(a)(l) and (a)(4), Respondent’s
registration with the Drug Enforcement
Administration should be revoked and
any pending applications for renewal or
modification of that registration denied,
because Respondent made material
misstatements on an application for
registration and because his continued
registration would be inconsistent with
the public interest as that term is used
in 21 U.S.C. 823(f).
Findings of Fact
I. Background
Respondent is a physician licensed to
practice medicine and to handle
controlled substances in Illinois. He has
held a DEA registration since April 13,
2004, with a registered address at
Oakbrook Center Mall in Oak Brook,
Illinois. [GX 1]
II. The Illinois Department of Financial
and Professional Regulation
The Illinois Department of Financial
and Professional Regulation (IDFPR) is a
state agency that licenses physicians
and investigates complaints regarding
licensed physicians. Upon conclusion of
an investigation, the information is
forwarded to a medical coordinator,
who is a physician, for review. That
individual then determines whether to
recommend the case to the Medical
Disciplinary Board. [Tr. 151–152] D. M.,
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a medical investigator and controlled
substance inspector for the IDFPR,
testified that the IDFPR was previously
known as the Department of
Professional Regulation but was merged
with several stand-alone agencies to
eventually become the IDFPR. [Tr. 155]
III. The Evidence Pertaining to
Respondent
A. Respondent’s Illinois Department of
Professional Regulation 1998 Consent
Order
Investigator D.M. testified that he and
two representatives of the DEA were
involved in a 1994 investigation of
Respondent regarding the diversion of
Dilaudid. [Tr. 154, 733] On February 26,
1998, Respondent entered into a
Consent Order with the Illinois thenDepartment of Professional Regulation.
The Consent Order stated that
Respondent ‘‘may have prescribed
Dilaudid to four (4) patients under
questionable circumstances, i.e. for pain
related to old injuries or for pain in
which surgery may have provided relief
and that two (2) of the patients may
have sold some of the Dilaudid back to
Respondent.’’ 10 Respondent did not
admit or deny the allegations but, for
the purposes of the Consent Order only,
agreed not to contest the allegations.
Respondent testified in the instant
hearing that he does not agree that his
actions were unlawful and that his
position is that he acted lawfully.
[Tr.743, GX 2]
Under the terms of the Consent Order,
Respondent’s Illinois physician and
surgeon and controlled substances
licenses were both placed on probation
for one year with several conditions,
including completion of a course in
controlled substances management and
a requirement that Respondent make
and submit controlled substance logs to
the Department of Professional
Regulation for a period of time. [GX 7]
B. Respondent’s Illinois Department of
Financial and Professional Regulation
2003 Consent Order
Investigator D.M. testified that
another IDFPR investigation of
Respondent began in 1999 and
concerned the ‘‘aiding and abetting in
the unlicensed practice of medicine.’’ 11
According to Investigator D.M., an A.D.
had ‘‘dispensed’’ 12 to patients in
Chicago phentermine that Respondent
10 GX
7.
157.
12 Agent D.M. testified that his use of the term
‘‘dispense’’ referred to ‘‘providing the actual pills.’’
Tr. 159.
11 Tr.
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had ordered and received at his
Oakbrook office.
At the hearing in the instant case,
Respondent testified that he had a ‘‘deal
for pay’’ with his friend Mr. D., who
owned a weight loss clinic in Chicago.
Pursuant to this agreement, Respondent
used his DEA registration to purchase
phentermine at his registered Oakbrook
location and then took the phentermine
to Mr. D.’s clinic in a locked bag that
Respondent would sometimes leave at
the clinic; Respondent saw patients and
created records at the clinic and sold the
phentermine to Mr. D. who in turn sold
the phentermine to the patients at a
higher cost. Respondent testified that
one day he left his bag filled with his
stock of phentermine at the clinic
although he was not there, and when
patients came in Mr. D. provided them
with phentermine from the bag and
instructed them to come back in a few
days to see Respondent.13 Respondent
testified that once he was notified that
some of those patients were state
investigators, he immediately resigned
from the clinic and offered to cooperate.
Respondent testified that at a state
hearing regarding the matter, he
admitted that he had guilt because he
technically aided in Mr. D.’s ‘‘practice
of medicine by not securing my
controlled substances’’ 14 but that he
‘‘didn’t actually aid and abet.’’ 15 On
August 15, 2003, Respondent entered
into a Consent Order with the IDFPR
with regard to Mr. D.’s provision of
phentermine from the Chicago clinic.
The Consent Order stated that
Respondent failed to supervise an
unlicensed employee and Respondent
admitted that the allegations were true.
As a result of the Consent Order,
Respondent’s Illinois physician and
surgeon and controlled substances
licenses were placed on probation for a
period of three years with several
conditions, including completion of
continuing medical education in the
area of prescribing and dispensing
controlled substances and allowing the
IDFPR to inspect Respondent’s
controlled substance log book and
inventory record book upon request.
[GX 8]
C. Respondent’s Activity During the
2003–2006 Probation Period
The IDFPR filed a complaint against
Respondent on April 5, 2007, alleging
that he violated the terms of his
probation as set forth in the 2003
Consent Order by failing to make
available for inspection his controlled
13 Tr.
587.
589.
15 Tr. 589.
14 Tr.
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substance log and inventory records;
receiving dronabinol, a Schedule III
controlled substance, from a purported
patient and re-dispensing it to another
purported patient, and failing to keep
any records of the receipt and
dispensing of the dronabinol; providing
incomplete records in response to an
IDFPR subpoena issued by the IDFPR;
aiding and abetting the unlicensed
practice of medicine relating to a June
2005 incident; and issuing prescriptions
for OxyContin to patients without
examining them and failing to keep and
maintain records of those patients and
the controlled substances.
1. The IDFPR Inspection of
Respondent’s Controlled Substances Log
Investigator D.M. testified that in
April 2005 he interviewed Respondent
regarding his controlled substances logs
and that Respondent stated that he did
not have any logs for the years 2003,
2004, or 2005 because he had not
ordered any controlled substance
medications and therefore had no
occasion to dispense 16 them or
maintain a log of them. [Tr. 194]
Investigator D.M. further testified that
when he again met with Respondent in
May 2005, Respondent iterated that he
did not have a log because he had not
dispensed any controlled substances in
2003, 2004, or 2005. Investigator D.M.,
however, was aware from the transcript
of a Chicago Police Board hearing held
on August 10 and October 13, 2004, that
Respondent had testified in that
proceeding about dispensing dronabinol
to a patient on July 21, 2003; this
incident is further discussed below. [Tr.
165] Respondent testified in the instant
hearing that ‘‘my assumption when
D.M. was in there was that I knew that
I had not ordered anything for years,
and not recalling these three patients, I
simply filled out a handwritten log and
zero.’’ 17
Respondent further stated that at the
time he knew that he had not ordered
anything from drug wholesalers for
many years and therefore had not
dispensed anything, and that he did not
recall that he had made a controlled
substances log for 2003, which included
three entries and had been stored in his
sample cabinet; later that evening he
16 Investigator D.M. stated that in this instance,
‘‘dispensing’’ means providing or prescribing. Tr.
194. But see supra note 3. The Illinois Compiled
Statutes defines ‘‘dispense’’ as ‘‘the interpretation,
evaluation, and implementation of a prescription
drug order, including the preparation and delivery
of a drug or device to a patient or patient’s agent
in a suitable container appropriately labeled for
subsequent administration to or use by a patient in
accordance with applicable State and federal laws
and regulations.’’ 225 ILCS 85/3.
17 Tr. 622.
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53947
realized his error and notified his
attorney, who in turn notified
Investigator D.M. and produced the log
that included three entries for 2003. [Tr.
622, RX 2]
2. Respondent’s Dispensing of
Dronabinol
D.S. was a Chicago police officer who
tested positive for
tetrahydrocannabinol 18 (THC) after a
random drug test performed by the
Chicago Police Department on July 24,
2003. [Tr. 163] At Officer D.S.’s
subsequent police board hearing on
August 10, 2004, Respondent testified
that he treated Officer D.S. on July 21,
2003, at Respondent’s office and gave
him eight 10-milligram gelatin capsules
of Marinol 19 to control nausea and
vomiting; that he did not write a
prescription for Marinol for Officer D.S.
but gave him ‘‘samples’’ of the drug that
he had in his office; 20 [GX 5 at 98] that
it is his practice to ask patients to give
him their unused medications, so that
he can ‘‘recycle’’ them ‘‘as much as I
possibly can’’; 21 [GX 6 at 146] and that
when he receives medications from
patients, he puts the medication in a
bottle, labels it, and stores it, but does
not keep a record of which patient
provided the medication. [GX 6 at145]
In a continuation of the police board
hearing on October 13, 2004,
Respondent testified that the Marinol he
gave to Officer D.S. was not a
manufacturing sample but came from
another of Respondent’s patients,
although Respondent had no record of
who that patient was; [GX 6 at 144]
when asked at the police board hearing
which patient provided the Marinol,
Respondent replied that ‘‘[i]t could be
anyone of a number of patients’’; 22 and
that the Marinol ‘‘probably came from
either a leukemia or lymphoma
treatment patient * * * the other
possibility is this could have come from
an AIDS patient.’’ 23 In response to a
question regarding the frequency with
which he had prescribed or given
Marinol to patients, Respondent said: ‘‘I
have a number of patients that use
chemotherapeutic agents for lymphomas
and malignancies, leukemias. I also
have a large number of AIDS patients
18 THC
is a Schedule I controlled substance.
is a brand name product containing
dronabinol, a Schedule III controlled substance, the
active ingredient of which is a synthetic form of
tetrahydrocannabinol, which naturally occurs in the
Schedule I controlled substance marijuana.
20 See GX 5 at 98.
21 GX 6 at 146.
22 GX 6 at 144–145.
23 Id.
19 Marinol
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that I use Marinol for.’’ 24 Respondent
then testified, however, that he had
prescribed or given samples of Marinol
only a few times in the last several years
and that he had the Marinol in his office
because it might have come from a
patient who obtained it pursuant to a
prescription from another doctor.
In the instant hearing, the
Government entered into evidence
Respondent’s medical record for Officer
D.S., which indicates that Respondent
‘‘sampled’’ Marinol 10 mg to Officer
D.S. [GX 4] Respondent testified that he
both received and dispensed the
Marinol in a plastic pill case without a
label but that he recognized the pills as
Marinol and used a picture in the
Physician’s Desk Reference (PDR) to
verify what the pill was. Respondent
further testified that he remembered the
patient from whom he had received the
Marinol because he had never received
Marinol from a patient before. [Tr. 767]
Respondent entered into evidence an
affidavit dated May 2, 2008, and signed
by a J.W.; Respondent testified that Mr.
J.W. was a former patient of his who had
AIDS.25 Mr. J.W.’s affidavit states that
he was HIV positive; that Respondent
was one of several physicians who
treated him; and that he took Marinol to
stimulate his appetite but because he
did not like the way it made him feel
and he could not control its effects, he
stopped taking the Marinol and gave the
remaining pills to Respondent. The
affidavit does not identify Mr. J.W.’s
source for the Marinol but states that the
cost is high and that Mr. J.W. did not
want to dispose of the pills by flushing
them down the toilet or putting them in
the garbage. [RX 17]
Respondent testified that as of the
date of the hearing he understood that
he was not authorized to acquire
Marinol from a patient, although he had
not thought about it before, and that he
was not authorized to provide that
Marinol to Officer D.S.. Respondent
further testified that he did not tell
Officer D.S. that he had acquired the
Marinol from another patient rather
than as a manufacturing drug sample.
[Tr. 765] Respondent further testified
that he did not keep any record of
receipt of the Marinol because at the
time he thought that he was only
required to maintain records of drugs
that he purchased.
24 GX
6 at 146.
affidavit is signed by a J.W.; there is no
witness signature and the document is not
notarized.
25 The
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3. Respondent’s Response to the IDFPR
Subpoenas
Investigator D.M. testified that the
IDFPR Medical Disciplinary Board
issued to Respondent a Subpoena Duces
Tecum dated June 15, 2005, pursuant to
the Illinois Medical Practice Act of
1997. [GX 10] The subpoena
commanded Respondent to surrender
certain documents and records
concerning his treatment of ten
individuals, identified on the subpoena
by name and date of birth. The
documents were to be surrendered on or
before June 30, 2005, to one of two
identified individuals for inspection by
the medical disciplinary board.
Investigator D.M. prepared and
attached to the subpoena an affidavit
advising that, according to a profile
received from the Illinois Department of
Human Services, [GX 28] Respondent
issued multiple prescriptions of
OxyContin 80 mg to the ten individuals
whose records were requested, and that
some of those individuals also were
identified as having received Dilaudid
from Respondent in the 1994
investigation. The affidavit states that
Respondent issued the prescriptions in
question between January 1, 2004, and
April 2005, and, specifically, that
during this period Respondent issued
124 prescriptions for Schedule II
controlled substances, 123 of which
were for 60 dosage units each of
OxyContin 80 mg.
Investigator D.M. testified that in
response to the subpoena, Respondent’s
attorney provided records from which
the names of the individuals and the
dates of treatment were redacted. [GX 3]
Further, Investigator D.M. stated that the
documents provided indicated that one
patient had her records sent to a family
doctor who agreed to continue
OxyContin and that Respondent did not
have copies of those records, and that
after Respondent advised another
patient that the Medical Disciplinary
Board had asked to review the patient’s
records, the patient strongly objected to
such a review and took the records, and
Respondent did not have copies of
them. [Tr. 170]
Investigator D.M. further testified that
on June 20, 2007, the Medical
Disciplinary Board issued a second
subpoena to Respondent, again
requesting the medical records for the
ten previously identified individuals
and requiring that no information other
than the patient identity be removed.
[Tr. 171] Investigator D.M. testified that
he did not know whether Respondent
had provided that information, [Tr. 311]
but that he had seen documents in the
possession of an IDFPR attorney that
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appeared to include the dates of
treatment and other information that
had been previously redacted. [Tr. 175]
Respondent testified that he eventually
complied with the subpoena after the
remaining patients gave him permission
to provide copies of their records.26
4. Respondent’s Issuance of OxyContin
Prescriptions
Investigator D.M. testified that he met
with Respondent in June 2005 at
Respondent’s office and that during that
interview Respondent said that he
issued to chronic pain patients
prescriptions for 60 OxyContin 80 mg
and for Tylenol 3 or Tylenol 4,27 and
that he instructed the patients to take a
half tablet of OxyContin twice a day.
Respondent further said that he used to
prescribe Dilaudid 2 or 4 mg. [Tr. 198]
Investigator D.M. further testified that,
at that meeting, Respondent indicated
that a number of his patients were
employed at Balmoral horse racing track
and, when Investigator D.M. asked
Respondent whether any of the ten
patients listed on the subpoena
discussed above knew one another,
Respondent stated that two of the
patients, S.P. and C.G., worked at
Balmoral. Respondent did not, however,
mention the relationships among I.S.,
E.M., and C.G., all of whom were also
identified on the subpoena and who, as
discussed below, shared a household.
[Tr. 202] Respondent testified in the
instant hearing that he had a personal
relationship with Ms. E.M. and went to
high school with her son, Mr. I.S.; Ms.
C.G. was identified as Mr. I.S.’s
girlfriend. [Tr. 485]
Investigator D.M. testified that he and
Diversion Investigator C.R. of the DEA’s
Chicago office interviewed Mr. I.S. in
July 2005. Mr. I.S. told them that he was
on the board of directors for harness
racing at Balmoral Park; that
approximately sixty percent of the
employees there had drug abuse and/or
dependency problems; that he had
sustained some injuries from horse
racing accidents; that he had been
friends with Respondent for about 25 or
30 years; that Respondent issued him
OxyContin prescriptions either at
Respondent’s office or when they met
for lunch; and that Respondent also
26 As evidence of his compliance with the
subpoena, Respondent admitted into evidence
Respondent Ex. 1, which includes the first page of
multiple patient files that appear to have the
patients’ names and dates of birth and dates of
treatment redacted, although a name is handwritten
at the top of each page.
27 I take official notice from the 2007 edition of
the Physicians’ Desk Reference that Tylenol 3 and
Tylenol 4 are brand names for products containing
acetaminophen with codeine, a Schedule III
controlled substance.
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prescribed OxyContin for Mr. I.S.’s
girlfriend, C.G., and his mother, E.M.,
who both lived with him. [Tr. 212]
Investigator D.M. testified that at the
July 2005 interview, Mr. I.S. showed
him OxyContin vials for Ms. E.M., Ms.
C.G., and himself, all of which indicated
that they had contained 60 dosage units
of 80 mg strength and that Respondent
issued the prescriptions. The label had
been removed from Mr. I.S.’s vial; he
explained that it could be embarrassing
for anyone, particularly at the race track,
to know that he was taking OxyContin
inasmuch as he was promoting a
program to help people at the track who
might have addiction problems. Mr. I.S.
further told the investigators that he had
helped to create rules regarding drug
use in both humans and horses; and that
he did not think that he was abusing the
medication because he was able to
function and he did not have needle
marks, which he said would be a sign
of an addict. [Tr. 224]
Mr. I.S. testified in the instant
hearing, however, that he removed the
label from his OxyContin bottle so that
‘‘the kids wouldn’t know what was in
the bottles’’; 28 [Tr. 721] he received his
pain medication from Respondent,
whose office was one hour and 25
minutes away from Mr. I.S.’s residence,
[Tr. 722] and that ‘‘if I couldn’t get my
pain medication from [Respondent],
then I would get medication wherever I
could if I had to, but I don’t recall even
having to.’’ 29 Mr. I.S. then testified that
‘‘there was a time when [Respondent]
was having a problem with the DEA,
and I couldn’t get my medication, and
at that time when I was getting
medication whatever way I could, and
I went to another doctor once’’; 30 and
before Ms. E.M. began getting the
OxyContin prescriptions, he ‘‘would
take her to the doctors and I would take
her to a clinic’’ and ‘‘[y]ou only had to
look at my mother and write her
something right away, because she was
crippled.’’ 31
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D. E.M.
1. E.M.’s Medical Conditions
Investigator D.M. testified that he
interviewed Mr. I.S. again in August
2005 at Mr. I.S.’s home. Investigator
D.M. testified that Mr. I.S. advised him
that Ms. E.M. had recently suffered a
stroke and had been hospitalized at St.
Mary’s Hospital and treated by V.P.,
M.D.; [Tr. 226] that Respondent was Ms.
E.M.’s primary physician prior to her
admission to St. Mary’s Hospital and
28 Tr.
720
715.
30 Tr. 715.
31 Tr. 716.
29 Tr.
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that S.D., M.D., treated Ms. E.M. while
she was at a senior care center. [Tr. 312]
Mr. I.S. showed Investigator D.M.
prescriptions that Respondent had
issued to Ms. E.M. for various
medications, including Plavix, Micardis,
Prevacid, aspirin, Lipitor, nitroglycerin
patches, Remeron, Toprol, and
Vicodin 32 which Mr. I.S. typically filled
near his home at a pharmacy called
Doc’s Drugs. Mr. I.S. stated that after the
stroke Ms. E.M. had difficulty getting
around and was responding to stimuli
differently than before and was no
longer doing household chores.
Dr. S.D., an internal medicine
physician experienced in treating
geriatric patients and in the medical use
of controlled substances, testified that
Ms. E.M. suffered from medical
problems such as tachycardia (an
irregular heartbeat), lower back pain,
arthritis in multiple joints, and
dementia; [Tr. 79] he also noted that Ms.
E.M. had kyphoscoliosis, which he said
was not uncommon for a patient of Ms.
E.M.’s age, and often occurs after a
person develops osteoporosis; and that
she had been admitted to the hospital at
various times for such ailments as
urinary tract infection, pneumonia,
chest pain, and possible seizure
disorder. C.K., a licensed practical nurse
specializing in geriatrics and end-of-life
care and employed by Hospice of
Kankakee Valley (Kankakee Hospice),
testified that when Ms. E.M. was
admitted to Kankakee Hospice, she
suffered from ‘‘adult failure to
thrive,’’ 33 arthritis, a steel rod in her
right arm, a hump in her back, and some
dementia, as indicated by her difficulty
32 Lipitor is a brand name product containing
atorvastatin calcium, a non-controlled substance
and synthetic lipid-lowering agent. I take official
notice of the following information from the 2007
edition of the Physicians’ Desk Reference: Plavix is
a brand name product containing clopidogrel
bisulfate, a non-controlled substance and inhibitor
of platelet aggregation that helps protect against
future heart attack or stroke; Micardis is a brand
name product containing telmisartan, a noncontrolled substance that is a nonpeptide name
product containing lansoprazole, a non-controlled
substance, the active ingredient of which is a
compound that inhibits gastric acid secretion,
typically prescribed to treat and prevent stomach
and intestinal ulcers; nitroglycerin patches contain
an organic nitrate, a non-controlled substance, that
helps prevent chronic chest pain caused by heart
disease; Remeron is a brand name product
containing mirtazapine, a non-controlled substance
and tetracyclic antidepressant used primarily in the
treatment of depression; Toprol is a brand name
product containing metoprolol succinate, a
noncontrolled substance that is indicated for the
treatment of hypertension; and Vicodin is a brand
name drug containing hydrocodone bitartrate, a
Schedule III controlled substance, and
acetaminophen, and is indicated for the relief of
moderate to moderately severe pain.
33 Tr. 34.
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53949
remembering people, including her son
whom she confused with her husband.
Respondent testified that Ms. E.M.
suffered from vascular dementia, known
as Binswanger’s disease, which he
characterized as a small vessel disease
of the white matter; and benign myalgic
encephalomyelitis, which causes
fatigue, bowel disorders, and cognitive
deficits. Respondent testified that
because of the dysfunction of the white
matter in the brain, Ms. E.M. found it
difficult to walk and perform
organizational tasks. [Tr. 480] Mr. I.S.
testified that Ms. E.M.’s problems of loss
of memory and failure to recognize her
family were caused by and occurred
only when Ms. E.M. was taking certain
medication. [Tr. 725]
Respondent testified that he treated
Ms. E.M. ‘‘in concert with the whole
patient’’; 34 that diabetes affects every
organ in the body and causes kidney
failure, high blood pressure, coronary
disease, peripheral artery disease, and
cerebral vascular disease; [Tr. 472] and
that Ms. E.M. suffered a series of
transient ischemic attacks (TIAs), a
closing of a small blood vessel in the
brain, around 2004, and had elevated
blood sugar levels. Respondent testified
that all of these factors taken together
led him to ‘‘try everything that I could
to reverse the arterial sclerosis in the
carotid arteries.’’ 35
Respondent testified that he
prescribed to Ms. E.M. a combination of
high-dosage drugs, including Actos 36
and Metformin,37 to shut down her
body’s glucose production and to resensitize the peripheral resistance to
insulin, Lipitor to reverse the arterial
sclerotic changes in the neck, and
Lycinapro, Morvasc, and Zetia [Tr. 477]
with Metformin to open up her arteries,
all of which was part of an antiinflammatory treatment to stop the
progression of her carotid artery disease.
[Tr. 600] Dr. S.D., however, testified that
if Ms. E.M. had the blood sugar and
glycosulated hemoglobin levels
Respondent described, it would not
have been necessary to medicate her for
diabetes, and that the proper treatment
would have been to try to control the
condition with diet. Dr. S.D. testified
that he has never prescribed Actos or
Metformin for ‘‘off-label’’ use; and that
in his opinion, Actos and Metformin
34 Tr.
472.
486.
36 See RX 22. Actos is a brand name product
containing pioglitazone hydrochloride, a noncontrolled substance, and is an oral antidiabetic
agent that acts primarily by decreasing insulin
resistance. [GX 40]
37 I take official notice that Metformin is a noncontrolled substance.
35 Tr.
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have no use other than to treat diabetes.
[Tr. 133]
Investigator R. testified that she
visited the Kankakee Hospice central
office on April 30, 2009, [Tr. 354] where
she spoke to Executive Director D.L.,
Patient Care Coordinator P.L., C.K., and
C.D., another nurse who treated Ms.
E.M. Investigator R. testified that none
of the people she interviewed had any
knowledge of Ms. E.M. ever having
diabetes [Tr. 355] and there was no
record of Ms. E.M. receiving medication
such as Actos and Metformin. [Tr. 356]
Investigator R. also obtained from Doc’s
Drugs pharmacist E.U. a prescription
profile listing all the prescriptions
issued to Ms. E.M. and filled at that
pharmacy from January 1, 2006, through
August 29, 2008, [Tr. 347] that indicates
that Respondent wrote prescriptions for
Ms. E.M. for Actos, Metformin, Lipitor,
Plavix, and Zetia.38 Dr. S.D. testified
that a home health nurse caring for Ms.
E.M. once asked him about giving Ms.
E.M. Coumadin and Plavix, both blood
thinners, but he advised that Ms. E.M.
should not take either drug because she
had suffered multiple falls and those
medications increased the danger of
bleeding in the brain.
Dr. S.D. testified that he told the nurse
that Ms. E.M. should just continue
taking aspirin. [Tr. 87]
2. E.M.’s Treating Physicians
Respondent testified that he began
treating Ms. E.M. around 2003, when
she was approximately 92 years old, and
that he had ‘‘a lot invested in E.M.,’’ 39
with whom he had had a personal
relationship since he attended high
school with Mr. I.S. [Tr. 485] Mr. I.S.
testified that the hospice to which Ms.
E.M. was admitted only allowed
patients to use the hospice doctors; that
hospice personnel told him that the
only doctor Ms. E.M. could have was Dr.
S.D.,40 [Tr. 661] and that he nonetheless
admitted his mother to hospice care
because he needed someone to care for
her and he could not afford financially
to provide that care himself. Mr. I.S.
further testified that Dr. S.D. was
‘‘strictly a hospice doctor that she saw
whenever she was admitted to the
hospital, and he helped her get into
hospice’’; that Respondent was Ms.
E.M.’s primary doctor, [Tr. 677] and that
if another physician prescribed
something for Ms. E.M., Mr. I.S. would
38 Zetia is a brand name product containing
ezetimibe, a non-controlled substance that inhibits
the intestinal absorption of cholesterol. [RX 36]
39 Tr. 487.
40 In his brief, Respondent asserts that the hospice
requirement was to use a doctor located in
Kankakee. See Respondent’s Closing Argument
Brief at 11.
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discuss the issue with Respondent and
follow his advice as to what medication
Ms. E.M. should be prescribed. [Tr. 730]
Mr. I.S. testified that he would have Ms.
C.G. ‘‘ask Dr. S.D. to write it, and most
of the time he would.’’ 41 Mr. I.S. also
testified that he took Ms. E.M. to see
G.M., M.D., or T.M., M.D.42 ‘‘on an
emergency basis, and because we didn’t
want to see Dr. S.D.’’; 43 and if Ms. E.M.
was sick, which, according to Mr. I.S.,
occurred ‘‘maybe once or twice in her
life,’’ 44 he took her to see Dr. M. Mr. I.S.
initially testified that he believed Dr. M.
was aware that Respondent was treating
Ms. E.M., [Tr. 698] but later said that he
did not think that either Dr. T.M. or Dr.
G.M. knew that Respondent was treating
Ms. E.M. [Tr. 699]
Dr. S.D. testified that he, along with
Dr. V.P., B.D., M.D., and M.S., M.D., all
treated Ms. E.M. for approximately four
years prior to her death in 2009. Dr. S.D.
further testified that Ms. E.M. was
admitted to St. Mary’s Hospital in
Kankakee, Illinois, several times and
also was a patient at Manor Care
Nursing Home in Kankakee and at times
had hospice care and home health care;
that he was listed as Ms. E.M.’s primary
care physician at each of those
institutions; and that he does not know
Respondent and was never informed
that Respondent was treating Ms. E.M.
[Tr. 98] Dr. S.D. further testified that Ms.
E.M. was under hospice care for the last
two-and-a-half to three years of her life,
during which time he was her primary
care physician; that although he only
saw Ms. E.M. a few times in his office
and in the hospital, he gave telephone
orders and communicated with the
hospice nurse regarding Ms. E.M.’s
condition; he had no reason to believe
that Ms. E.M. was seen by any other
doctor or was taking medications not
included on the medication list that he
approved; [Tr. 102] and that any other
physician who was treating Ms. E.M.
should have informed him that he or
she was prescribing OxyContin to her.
[Tr. 140] Dr. S.D. testified that it is out
of the range of normal practice for a
physician to prescribe medications to a
patient without consulting with other
treating physicians of which he is
aware. [Tr. 144]
Ms. E.M. was first admitted to
Kankakee Hospice, which provides care
in the patient’s home, on June 9, 2006.45
Ms. C.K. testified that she cared for Ms.
41 Tr.
673.
and T.M. are physicians who practice
together and appear to have each treated Ms. M.
The testimony is not always clear as to which Dr.
M. the witnesses are referencing.
43 Tr. 698.
44 Tr. 698.
45 See GX 17.
42 G.M.
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E.M. in her home in late 2007 and early
2008, seeing her twice per week for
approximately one hour per visit. [Tr.
30] At each visit Ms. C.K. performed a
physical assessment of Ms. E.M. (taking
her blood pressure, heart and
respiration rate; listening for lung
sounds, bowel sounds; assessing her
skin, cognition, etc.). [Tr. 32] Ms. C.K.
testified that every visit from and
telephone call or other conversation
with Kankakee Hospice personnel was
recorded and that the hospice also kept
hospital records, laboratory test results,
and records received from the doctor.
Ms. C.K. further testified that
Kankakee Hospice needs to know of
every physician ‘‘who is on board to
treat the patient’’; 46 that there is a
primary physician and usually a
secondary physician; and that Kankakee
Hospice prefers to have its personnel
accompany the patient to doctor
appointments. Ms. C.K. testified that
while she cared for Ms. E.M., none of
her family members ever mentioned that
Respondent was treating her, but the
family did mention that Ms. E.M. saw
Dr. S.D. and Dr. M. Ms. C.K. also was
not aware of any physicians making
home visits to Ms. E.M., although that
information should have been disclosed
to Kankakee Hospice.
3. Ms. E.M.’s Prescriptions and
Treatment
Respondent testified that when he
began treating Ms. E.M. in 2003, she was
taking multiple pain medications, such
as Tylenol No. 4, Lorcet,47 and Vicodin;
that she sometimes took as many as 10
or 12 pills per day; and that he changed
her regimen to a more potent and
controlled dosage on a regular schedule.
[Tr. 498] Respondent testified that Ms.
E.M. suffered from low back pain; that
treatment with medication on an asneeded basis was not sufficient to
relieve her pain; and that the
appropriate treatment was to increase
the amount of opioid medication until
either the pain went away or the side
effects became too drastic to continue.
[Tr. 514] According to Respondent,
instead of tapering a patient off a drug
while he still has symptoms, a doctor
should increase the level of the drug in
order to extinguish the symptoms;
tolerance with regard to symptoms
requires an increased dosage that
relieves the pain, which is different
from increasing dosage to extinguish
pain. [Tr. 517] Respondent testified that
all patients develop dependence, which
46 Tr.
35.
take official notice that Lorcet is a brand name
product containing hydrocodone bitartrate and
acetaminophen.
47 I
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means that if the medicine is abruptly
withdrawn, the patients will become
antsy, shaky, and complain of
nervousness, and that although some
anti-anxiety agents or antihistamines
may be used to treat the withdrawal
symptoms, the best option is to
withdraw the medication slowly over a
period of time. Respondent testified that
addiction ‘‘is the unworkable lifestyle
that is created by a person that escalates
the intake of narcotics and opioids,’’ 48
and is always exhibited by anti-social
behavior.
Dr. S.D. testified that he never
prescribed OxyContin to Ms. E.M.
because he was afraid that she could not
handle a strong pain medication, but
that he prescribed Aricept for dementia,
Toprol XL and Micardis for cardiac
issues, [Tr. 83] and Tylenol, and that he
maybe prescribed Darvocet, and
occasionally Vicodin for pain.49 Dr. S.D.
testified that Ms. E.M.’s pain, although
chronic, was not so severe that she
needed constant pain medication. [Tr.
89]
Mr. I.S. testified that OxyContin
seemed to work better than the other
medications Ms. E.M. had tried, and
that before she started taking
OxyContin, Ms. E.M. sometimes took as
many as four or five pills per day’’ 50 of
Vicodin, Lorcet, or ‘‘whatever I had.’’ 51
Mr. I.S. testified that Respondent started
prescribing OxyContin 80 mg to Ms.
E.M. in 2003, and that Mr. I.S. was not
surprised by the high dosage because he
‘‘didn’t know much about it.’’ 52 Mr. I.S.
further testified that Respondent never
changed the strength or quantity of
OxyContin he prescribed to Ms. E.M.
[Tr. 708]
Mr. I.S. testified that he initially filled
Ms. E.M.’s OxyContin prescriptions
with the brand name drug but because
it was very expensive, he then tried the
generic form. According to Mr. I.S.,
however, Ms. E.M. insisted that she
wanted the brand name product’’ 53 and
48 Tr.
519.
take official notice of the following
information from the 2007 edition of the
Physicians’ Desk Reference: Aricept is a brand
name product containing donepezil hydrochloride,
a non-controlled substance, indicated for the
treatment of mild to moderate dementia; Tylenol is
a brand name over-the-counter medication
containing acetaminophen and is indicated for the
temporary relief of minor aches and pains;
propoxyphene and acetaminophen and is used to
relieve mild to moderate pain.
50 Mr. I.S. later testified that Ms. E.M.s took ‘‘[a]t
least three pills a day,’’ in the range of three to
seven pills, ‘‘whatever it took to kill her pain, that
is as many pills as I gave her for the day.’’ Tr. 717.
51 Tr. 669.
52 Tr. 668.
53 Investigator D.M. testified that in the August
2005 interview, Mr. I.S. had stated that he filled his
mother’s prescriptions with generic drugs because
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the pharmacist had told him that the
‘‘deliver[y] mechanism of oxycodone
was that it delivers all at once, and that
the OxyContin was more of a time
release thing over 12 hours.’’ 54 Mr. I.S.
further testified that because the generic
drug was not a time release product and
Ms. E.M. insisted that she wanted ‘‘the
other one,’’ 55 [Tr. 695] he thereafter
filled the prescriptions with OxyContin.
[Tr. 672]
Investigator R., however, testified that
she spoke with Mr. E., the pharmacist
from Doc’s Drugs, who informed her
that if a patient presents a prescription
written for a brand name drug and
requests a generic, or the prescription
allows a generic to be substituted for the
brand name product, then the
pharmacist must provide the patient
with a generic medication that has the
same properties as the brand name drug,
including any time release effect; and
that oxycodone 80 mg is not available as
an immediate release tablet because it
could be fatal. [Tr. 840] The
Government offered into evidence
copies of prescriptions Respondent
issued to Ms. E.M. that investigators
obtained from Doc’s Drugs; [Tr. 340; Tr.
412; Tr. 231] each prescription was
written for OxyContin with substitution
permitted. Respondent testified that
breaking an OxyContin tablet in half
only somewhat obviates the time release
effect and that the active ingredient may
release more quickly. [Tr. 797]
According to a Physician’s Desk
Reference excerpt for OxyContin that
the Government offered into evidence,
‘‘OxyContin tablets are to be swallowed
whole and are not to be broken, chewed,
or crushed. Taking Broken, Chewed, or
Crushed OxyContin tablets leads to
rapid release and absorption of a
potentially fatal dose of oxycodone.’’ 56
Investigator D.M. testified that there is
a large price differential between the
brand drug and the generic, and that the
OxyContin brand can sell on the street
for approximately one dollar per
milligram. [Tr. 297] Investigator R.
testified that Mr. E. told her that Mr. I.S.
always picked up Ms. E.M.’s
prescriptions and that although
insurance covered the prescriptions, Mr.
I.S. paid the co-pay, which was
sometimes as much as $400 for the
brand name drug, in cash. Mr. E. further
told Investigator R. that it was unusual
for a customer to request a brand name
with such a high co-pay when a generic
his mother had suffered a stroke and would not
recognize the difference between generic and brand
name drugs. Tr. 244.
54 Tr. 671.
55 Tr. 671.
56 GX 40 at 17.
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53951
alternative was available; [Tr. 414] and
that the time release generic of
OxyContin had been available at
relevant times except for a period of
approximately six months around 2007.
[Tr. 840] Mr. I.S. testified that he
submitted the insurance claims for the
OxyContin prescriptions to Ms. E.M.’s
insurance carrier and that he paid
Respondent in cash for his services to
Ms. E.M. [Tr. 695]
4. Administering OxyContin to E.M.
On January 18, 2006, Ms. E.M. was
admitted to St. Mary’s Hospital; at that
time, a home medication list indicated
that she received OxyContin 80 mg
every 12 hours. [GX 21 at 9] Respondent
testified that he arranged to have a
family member see that OxyContin was
included on Ms. E.M.’s home
medication list because he ‘‘wanted
somebody to figure out that she was on
pain medication.’’ 57 Dr. S.D. testified
that he ordered that the OxyContin not
be continued and that he was not aware
of OxyContin ever again being listed on
Ms. E.M.’s medication lists, [Tr. 90] but
that if Ms. E.M. had been on OxyContin
and it was stopped, she would suffer
from withdrawal symptoms such as
abdominal pain, diarrhea, and vomiting.
[Tr. 106]
Dr. S.D. also testified that Ms. E.M.
did not receive OxyContin while in the
hospital because family members are
not permitted to give medication to
patients, that patients receive only those
medications prescribed by the attending
physician, and that he was Ms. E.M.’s
attending physician and did not
prescribe OxyContin to her. [Tr. 107]
Dr. S.D. testified that he never spoke
with Mr. I.S. but would call his home
and leave messages regarding Ms. E.M.’s
condition. Dr. S.D. testified that Mr. I.S.
did not return calls, but that he did
speak with Mr. I.S.’s girlfriend. [Tr. 109]
Mr. I.S. testified that although Dr. S.D.
issued prescriptions to Ms. E.M. for
Vicodin, he did not fill those
prescriptions because his mother was
already taking OxyContin.
Investigator R. testified that on
October 23, 2006, she met with
Kankakee Hospice’s executive director,
D.L., who told her that the Hospice’s
policy requires that the nurses be
informed of all of a patient’s
medications and treating physicians.
Investigator R. further testified that at
that meeting she also spoke with other
Hospice personnel who told her that
OxyContin did not appear on Ms. E.M.’s
medication list and her Kankakee
Hospice records did not mention that
she was in pain or that Respondent
57 Tr.
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treated her. [Tr. 352] Ms. C.K. testified
that Ms. E.M. complained of pain in her
knees and arm and sometimes had
difficulty standing and some stiffness,
but that Mr. I.S. or Ms. C.G. gave her
Tylenol to alleviate the pain and that
Mr. I.S. said that the Tylenol worked
and he did not want his mother to have
anything else. Ms. C.K. testified that it
seemed unusual for the caregivers to
insist that only they would administer
certain medications. [Tr. 40, Tr. 45] Ms.
C.K. further testified that as far as she
knew, the only controlled substance that
Ms. E.M. took was Valium 58 for
seizures; and that Ms. E.M.’s family
never mentioned that she was taking
OxyContin. Ms. C.K. testified that she
was not aware of any controlled
substances that were prescribed to Ms.
E.M. on a chronic or recurring basis;
that she never saw any medications
prescribed by Respondent or any
OxyContin vials or pills at Ms. E.M.’s
home; and that the only medication that
the hospice team attempted to count
was Valium, which they had difficulty
accessing from Ms. E.M.’s family. [Tr.
35; Tr. 42] Mr. I.S. testified that he did
not want to tell the Kankakee Hospice
personnel about his mother having
OxyContin because Kankakee Hospice
had told him that it must have control
over any controlled substances Ms. E.M.
took and thus hospice personnel must
have access to those drugs, but that he
did not want to leave the OxyContin ‘‘in
a cabinet for some punk or something
that may be coming in my house after
school to take or whatever.’’ 59 Mr. I.S.
also testified that Ms. E.M. did not want
anyone to know that she was on pain
medication because ‘‘she was very oldfashioned, and * * * she just didn’t
think it was anybody else’s business.’’ 60
Investigator R. testified that on
October 23, 2008, she interviewed Ms.
D., who had treated Ms. E.M. in her
home in 2006–2007. Ms. D. told
Investigator R. that Ms. E.M.
complained of mild arthritic pain; that
Ms. D. asked Mr. I.S. whether they
should look into getting something
stronger to alleviate the pain; and that
Mr. I.S. said that he had previously
given Ms. E.M. one-half tablet of
Vicodin, but that that medicine was too
strong for her and she should continue
to take Aleve.61 [Tr. 448]
Mr. I.S. testified that Kankakee
Hospice only allowed patients to use the
hospice ‘‘system for drugs,’’ 62 and
therefore either he or someone in his
family gave Ms. E.M. OxyContin while
she was admitted to Kankakee Hospice
and when she was in St. Mary’s
Hospital, at Manor Care Nursing Home,
at Heritage Village Nursing Home, and
at St. James Hospital. [Tr. 680] Mr. I.S.
testified that Ms. E.M. received one
OxyContin pill in the morning and one
at night but for the two weeks before his
mother died he gave her only the
nighttime dose because he worried that
she may have been too weak to receive
more; [Tr. 682] OxyContin was the only
prescription medication that the family
gave to Ms. E.M.; 63 and to his
knowledge, the hospital never gave Ms.
E.M. any pain medication, not even
Aleve, and that he did not know why
she should need Aleve.64 [Tr. 668]
Respondent’s patient chart for Ms.
E.M. includes treatment notes for at
least one day each month beginning
September 15, 2003, and ending on the
date of her death, June 13, 2009, [RX 16]
but indicates that Ms. E.M. ‘‘missed
appointments’’ with Respondent on
both February 28 and March 28, 2006.65
Respondent explained that ‘‘at this
point in time when I write missed
appointment, that will mean that I did
not give her a prescription for pain
medication.’’ 66 Respondent later
testified that ‘‘I may have issued it at
their home at a later appointment, at a
later point in time, but I don’t think I
issued it.’’ 67 The Government offered
into evidence [GX 14] photocopies of
prescriptions Respondent issued to Ms.
E.M. for 80 mg OxyContin and dated
February 28 and March 28, 2006.
Respondent’s patient chart for Ms. E.M.
indicates, and Respondent testified, that
he saw her on October 20 and November
17, 2006, but records from St. Mary’s
Hospital in evidence as a Government
exhibit show that Ms. E.M. was
admitted to that hospital on October 7,
2006, that she was discharged on
October 12, 2006, [GX 21 at 203] and
immediately admitted into Manor Care
Nursing Home, where she remained
until December 8, 2006. [GX 21 at 203,
GX 27B at 956, GX 43 at 108]
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62 Tr.
58 I
take official notice of information in the 2007
edition of the Physicians’ Desk Reference that
Valium is a brand name product containing
diazepam, a Schedule IV controlled substance.
59 Tr. 697.
60 Tr. 680.
61 I take official notice from the 2007 edition of
the Physicians’ Desk Reference that Aleve is a brand
name product containing naproxen sodium, a noncontrolled substance.
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661.
see Section D.1. supra: Respondent
prescribed Ms. E.M.’s Actos, Metformin, Lipitor,
Plavix, and Zetia, all of which appeared on Ms.
E.M.’s prescription profile from Doc’s Drugs but not
always on her home medication lists. GX 27.
64 Ms. E.M. did receive pain medication such as
Aleve and Tylenol.
65 RX 16 at 5.
66 Tr. 787.
67 Tr. 787.
63 But
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Respondent testified that he
completed the continuing medical
education course required under his
2003 Consent Order and that during that
course he learned that it is unlawful
‘‘for a pharmacist to refill a blank and
give two dispenses on the same single
blank’’ 68 for a Schedule II controlled
substance. Respondent further testified
that he believes that a physician can
authorize another prescription without
seeing the patient and that it is ‘‘even
legal under the information that I go by
that you can even predate a controlled
substance prescription’’; 69 [Tr. 739] but
that he has never predated prescriptions
and has never written refills although he
has written new prescriptions without
seeing the patient. Respondent testified
that he also learned that a physician
should ensure that patients to whom he
prescribes a controlled substance do not
obtain controlled substances from
another source and that such patients
should be tested to verify that they are
actually taking that medication. [Tr.
740] Respondent had earlier testified
that if the Government suspected
diversion of OxyContin with regard to
E.M. then either the Government or Dr.
S.D. should have tested her for it. [Tr.
577]
Mr. I.S. testified that he discussed
with Respondent the concern that Ms.
E.M. receive ‘‘her proper pain
medicine’’ 70 when she was in a nursing
home or hospital. [Tr. 674] Mr. I.S.
further testified that Dr. S.D. prescribed
Vicodin for Ms. E.M. but that she never
asked for it because she did not need it;
and that when Ms. E.M. was in the
nursing home or hospital he hired his
girlfriend’s daughter to visit her twice a
day and to give her medication and food
and to sit with her. [Tr. 675] Respondent
testified that he had instructed ‘‘him’’ 71
to be aware of other depressants,
sleeping pills, narcotics, and opioids
given Ms. E.M. so as to avoid an
overdose. [Tr. 656] Mr. I.S. testified that
in the three or four weeks before his
mother died, he met with the St. Mary’s
Hospital administrator and asked that
no new medications be given to Ms.
E.M. without his knowledge. Mr. I.S.
further testified that prior to that time,
the hospital had no directions not to
give pain medication to Ms. E.M. and
that he reviewed her medication charts
every day to make sure that she did not
receive pain medication. [Tr. 711] Mr.
I.S. testified that he never saw any pain
medication listed in Ms. E.M.’s hospital
68 Tr.
738.
739.
70 Tr. 674.
71 Presumably he is referring to Mr. I.S. See Tr.
656.
69 Tr.
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charts, not even over-the-counter
medications. [Tr. 714]
Mr. I.S. later testified that in the thirty
days before Ms. E.M. died, he reviewed
the charts as many times as he went to
the hospital and that he ‘‘left orders
with them to not introduce any new
medications to my mother. * * *’’ 72
Mr. I.S. then testified that he always
gave directions to the hospital to not
give Ms. E.M. any new medications, and
that he had previously told the DEA that
both he and Ms. E.M. were receiving
OxyContin. Mr. I.S. testified that he
knew that DEA personnel could go to
the hospital to see whether Ms. E.M.
received any other pain medication, so
he made sure that she did not get any.
[Tr. 719] Mr. I.S. also testified that if an
emergency arose when Ms. E.M. was in
a hospital or nursing home, such as if
she were to fall, then the hospital or
nursing home would call him and he
would issue instructions not to give her
any pain medication. [Tr. 728]
Respondent testified that at times,
depending on the conditions, he would
omit or reduce the amount of OxyContin
he prescribed to Ms. E.M. or change the
dosing schedule based on her clinical
situation, and that if she was suffering
certain symptoms, such as from a stroke,
he would have ‘‘them’’ 73 withhold the
pain medication for up to 24 hours. Mr.
I.S. testified that he did not recall
whether Respondent ever asked him to
delay the dosage or to hold back Ms.
E.M.’s pain medication when she was
hospitalized.
E. Respondent’s 2006 DEA Renewal
Application and Registered Location
On September 25, 2006, Respondent
submitted to the DEA an application to
renew his registration. [Tr. 318; GX 31]
Respondent’s registered location on that
renewal application was listed as 120
Oakbrook Center Mall, Oakbrook,
Illinois.74 In response to question
number three of the application, ‘‘Has
the applicant ever had a state
professional license or controlled
substance registration revoked,
suspended, denied, restricted, or placed
on probation, or is any such action
pending?’’, Respondent provided an
affirmative answer. In his explanation
for that answer, submitted with the
application, Respondent identified and
explained the 2003 IDFPR Consent
Order but did not refer to the 1998
Consent Order. [GX 31] Respondent
testified that his omission of the 1998
order was inadvertent and that he had
72 Tr.
712.
656. Presumably Respondent was referring
to Ms. E.M.’s family.
74 GX 31.
73 Tr.
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included the 1998 incident on previous
renewal applications. [Tr. 618, GX 18]
Investigator R. testified that on March
13, 2009, she and another diversion
investigator served upon Respondent
the DEA Order to Show Cause that gave
rise to this proceeding. [Tr. 323]
Investigator R. testified that she served
the Order to Show Cause at
Respondent’s residence in Riverside,
Illinois, because the investigators had
not succeeded in serving it at his
registered location, and that when the
investigators went to Respondent’s
residence and ‘‘before we had the
opportunity to identify ourselves,
[Respondent] slammed the door in our
face when I said, ‘Dr. Herbert, I have
something for you,’ and he said that ‘I
am not Dr. Herbert. I am R.S.’ ’’ 75
Investigator R. further testified that a
few minutes later Respondent
telephoned her, indicating that he was
returning one of her earlier calls.
Investigator R. testified that during
that telephone conversation she
arranged to serve the Order to Show
Cause through Respondent’s attorney
the next day; that Respondent informed
her that he had moved his registered
location to 2910 South Harlem Avenue,
Riverside, Illinois; [Tr. 324] that she
then advised Respondent that in order
to modify his registered location he
needed to submit a modification request
along with a copy of his Illinois
controlled substance license showing
the new location; and that she provided
him a fax number to use to send the
documents. Investigator R. further
advised Respondent that he needed to
wait until his modification was
approved before he could handle
controlled substances at the new
location. [Tr. 327]
Investigator R. testified that prior to
March 13, 2009, the DEA had not
received any notification from
Respondent or anyone else that he had
moved his medical practice from his
DEA registered location in Oakbrook to
Riverside; [Tr. 326] that she had
previously made several failed attempts
to contact Respondent at his registered
address (she went to 120 Oakbrook
Center and knocked on Suite 711;
telephoned Respondent’s office and left
messages requesting a call back; and
identified herself in those messages and
indicated that she needed to deliver
something); but that she had never been
able to locate Respondent at his
registered location except when she
arranged to do so by appointment. [Tr.
325] Investigator R. testified that on
March 26, 2009, the leasing office at the
Oakbrook Center Mall informed her that
75 Tr.
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53953
as of July 31, 2008, the locks had been
changed on Respondent’s Oakbrook
office because he had abandoned the
location. [Tr. 324]
Respondent testified that in July 2008
he moved his office to 2910 Harlem
Avenue; [Tr. 577] that the DEA would
not send him any address modification
forms; that he could not access the
forms on-line; and that he called the
DEA office in Chicago multiple times
and left messages in an attempt to get a
change of address form.
Investigator R. testified that
Respondent’s attorney filed with the
DEA a request dated April 7, 2009, to
modify Respondent’s registered
location. [RX 15] That same day,
counsel for the Government sent a letter
to Respondent indicating that since he
had already moved his office, he was
not authorized to handle controlled
substances at the new location until the
DEA approved the modification of his
address. [GX 9] Investigator R. testified
that she served that letter in person to
Respondent’s attorney and left for
Respondent a telephone message
summarizing the contents of the letter.
[Tr. 331] On June 8, 2009, counsel for
the Government sent another letter to
Respondent’s attorney indicating that
the registered location modification
request had not yet been approved and
that, until it was approved, any
controlled substance prescriptions
issued by Respondent would be
unlawful. [GX 33] Investigator R.
testified that the letter was personally
delivered to Respondent and was faxed
to Respondent’s attorney. [Tr. 333]
Investigator R. further testified that
she obtained from the Illinois
Department of Human Services
Prescription Monitoring Program, to
which Illinois pharmacies are required
to report information pertaining to
controlled substance prescriptions, a
prescription profile identifying
controlled substance prescriptions that
Respondent issued from June through
August 2009. [GX 34] During that
period, according to the prescription
profile, Respondent issued 29 controlled
substance prescriptions to 13 different
people: 60 dosage units of OxyContin 80
mg to each of seven different people,
one of whom also received 30 diazepam
10 mg; 40 oxycodone 5 mg and 30
Adderal 30 mg to one person; 90
hydrocodone 7.5 mg to one person; 10
hydrocodone 5 mg to one person; 30
phentermine 37.5 mg (via two separate
prescriptions written on the same day)
to one person; and 14 phentermine 37.5
mg to one person. [GX 34]
Respondent testified that Investigator
R. had told him on March 13, 2009, that
he could not handle controlled
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subscriptions but he ‘‘didn’t take it all
that seriously with the word handling,
because I had not ordered any
prescriptions, and I had no samples’’ 76
but he did not ask her what she meant
by ‘‘handling.’’ Respondent further
testified that he did not see anything
about prescribing until he saw the
letters from Government counsel, and
that his attorney reviewed the letters
and told him that it appeared that the
DEA did ‘‘have the power to withhold
the registration’’ 77 but he nonetheless
continued to issue original controlled
substances prescriptions until October
2009, ‘‘when the gravity of what was
going on here became absolutely
clear.’’ 78 [Tr. 778]
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The Parties’ Contentions
I. The Government
The Government contends, in
substance, that the Deputy
Administrator should revoke
Respondent’s DEA registration and that
any pending applications for renewal or
modification of that registration should
be denied, ‘‘because Respondent made
material misstatements on an
application for registration and because
his continued registration would be
inconsistent with the public interest as
that term is used in 21 U.S.C. 823(f).’’ 79
The Government contends that
Respondent has had controlled
substances violations dating back to
1994 and resulting in consent orders
with the Illinois Medical Board in 1998
and 2003. The 1998 consent order
involved the unlawful prescribing of
Dilaudid and required Respondent to
complete a course pertaining to the
handling of controlled substances. The
Government contends that this course
had little effect on Respondent’s
prescribing, that he continues to violate
applicable law, and that he is evading
the allegations rather than responding to
them candidly.
The Government next asserts that
Respondent unlawfully received
dronabinol from a patient’s prescription,
failed to properly record that receipt,
and maintained a misleading and
inaccurate record of his subsequent
dispensing of the dronabinol. Further,
the Government argues that
Respondent’s 2003 Consent Order with
the IDFPR arose because the unlawful
dispensing was inevitable based on the
arrangement between Respondent and
the clinic owner and Respondent’s
conduct therefore enabled and abetted
76 Tr.
779.
777.
78 Tr. 778.
79 Government’s Proposed Findings of Fact,
Conclusions of Law and Argument at 3.
77 Tr.
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the clinic owner. As with the 1998
Consent Order, Respondent was again
required to complete a course on proper
prescribing and dispensing of controlled
substances but, according to the
Government, Respondent ignored this
education and continued to collect
violations.
The Government goes on to contend
that Respondent violated state law when
he failed to disclose records demanded
in an IDFPR subpoena. The Government
argues that the Illinois Medical Practice
Act provides the IDFPR with the
authority to serve an administrative
subpoena duces tecum pursuant to a
Medical Board investigation and that
the Health Insurance Portability and
Accountability Act (HIPAA) provides an
exception for the disclosure of
information that is requested by an
order of an administrative tribunal.
The Government further asserts that
Respondent’s omission of his 1998
Consent Order from his DEA controlled
substances registration renewal
application was a material omission
because it involved the diversion of a
Schedule II controlled substance and
because Respondent was conversant
with the facts of the Consent Order at
the immediate hearing.
The Government argues that
Respondent participated in a scheme
that involved the diversion of
OxyContin. It argues that there is a lack
of medical history to justify issuing
prescriptions for 80 mg OxyContin to
Ms. E.M. and that Respondent’s
attempts to provide justification for
prescribing to her are essentially post
hoc rationalizations. Additionally, the
Government contends, it is unlikely that
someone from Ms. E.M.’s family was
able to secretly administer OxyContin
twice per day during the approximately
290 days that she was in a hospital or
in-patient nursing home. According to
the Government, Respondent’s
arguments are further diminished by not
only the conflicts in testimony between
Respondent and Mr. I.S. but also
between the testimony and institutional
records, as well as Respondent’s
questionable patient chart for Ms. E.M.,
which includes dates of Respondent’s
purported treatment of her when she
was confined to a hospital or nursing
home. The Government contends that if
Ms. E.M. had received the OxyContin
that Respondent prescribed, she would
likely suffer withdrawal symptoms
when institutionalized, but there is no
such record. Also, the Government
contends, Respondent’s and Mr. I.S.’s
claims regarding the time release
properties of generic oxycodone are not
credible because they were refuted by
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both the Physician’s Desk Reference and
a pharmacist.
The Government also argues that
Respondent prescribed other drugs, in
addition to OxyContin, in Ms. E.M.’s
name but that these drugs were never
administered to her and were likely
diverted. The Government points out
that, although Respondent claims that
he prescribed Actos and Metformin to
Ms. E.M. to treat diabetes, her other
treating physicians and hospital records
indicate that she did not have diabetes
and Mr. I.S.’s testimony is again in
conflict with Respondent’s because he
testified that the only prescription drug
he or his family administered to Ms.
E.M. was OxyContin. The Government
further contends that Plavix was also
diverted, relying again on the
conflicting testimony of Respondent and
Mr. I.S. and on the evidence that for
some time both Dr. S.D. and Respondent
prescribed Plavix but, although Dr. S.D.
discontinued it because of injury risks,
Respondent continued to prescribe it;
and Respondent’s patient chart for Ms.
E.M. provided no information regarding
such prescriptions.
Finally, the Government asserts that
Respondent unlawfully prescribed
controlled substances from an
unregistered location because
Respondent failed to timely request a
modification of his registered address
and continued to issue controlled
substances prescriptions at his new
location even after receiving numerous
warnings against such action.
II. Respondent
Respondent contends that the
omission of his 1998 state probation
from his renewal application was not a
material falsification because the
omission was inadvertent. Respondent
asserts that inasmuch as he accepted the
1998 state probation related to
phentermine dispensing, the DEA
should not ‘‘seek additional
retribution’’ 80 for the incident.
Respondent argues his disclosure of the
1998 probation on previous DEA
applications, the DEA and state
investigators’ awareness of both the
1998 and 2003 disclosures, and the
previous disclosures’ existence
‘‘permanently on the D.E.A.
computerized files,’’ ‘‘clearly [indicate]
no subterfuge motive.’’ 81
Respondent argues that in mid-August
2003, because of his 2003 state
probation, he ‘‘purposely discontinued
all ordering of medications from
wholesale suppliers for the purpose of
80 Respondent’s
81 Respondent’s
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dispensing medications;’’ 82 that, in the
spring of 2005, when Investigator D.M.
asked to inspect Respondent’s
controlled substance logs, Respondent
did not recall any ordering or
dispensing of controlled substances in
2003 and created a handwritten log
indicating such; that later that same day,
he found a controlled substance log
from the first seven months of 2003 that
showed three instances in which he had
dispensed a controlled substance; and
that Respondent’s attorney contacted
Investigator D.M. to notify him of that
log and that Investigator D.M. was given
a copy.
Respondent further contends that his
dispensing of dronabinol did not violate
21 U.S.C. 844(a) because he was ‘‘acting
in the course of his professional
practice.’’ 83 Respondent argues that he
had a patient who obtained dronabinol
via a prescription issued by another
physician; that the patient ‘‘lawfully
transferred the medication to me * * *
to be used for the benefit of another
patient * * *;’’ and that he dispensed
the dronabinol to another patient and
recorded that action in the patient’s
chart and in his 2003 controlled
substance log. Respondent argues that
his actions fall under the exception in
§ 844(a) permitting a physician to
possess or obtain a controlled substance
when ‘‘acting in the course of his
professional practice’’ 84 and that there
is no prohibition against obtaining
medication from a patient to use for
another patient.
Respondent then asserts that this
entire proceeding was initiated against
him as a form of revenge by the City of
Chicago because Respondent testified
on behalf of Officer D.S. at the Chicago
Police Board hearing. Respondent
asserts that his right to due process has
been violated because Illinois and the
DEA have violated the Illinois Medical
Practice Act and because he was not
represented by counsel at the instant
hearing. Respondent argues that any
evidence that was not ‘‘generated by
[Investigator] R. alone or directly
subpoenaed by D.E.A. has no place in
evidence at this hearing.’’ 85
Respondent contends that the DEA
has failed to meet its burden of proof of
showing that he failed to comply with
the IDFPR administrative subpoenas
issued in 2005 and 2007; Respondent
asserts that he provided the requested
records but redacted all identifying
information as required by 225 ILCS 60/
22(A)(38). Respondent argues that
82 Respondent’s
Closing Argument Brief at 4.
Closing Argument Brief at 5.
84 Respondent’s Closing Argument Brief at 5.
85 Respondent’s Closing Argument Brief at 9.
because the statute provides that ‘‘all
information indicating the identity of
the patient shall be removed and
deleted’’ and that because records of
prescriptions he issued and to which
Illinois and the DEA have access
include patient names and the date the
prescriptions were issued, he was
required to redact the names and
treatment dates in order to allow Illinois
to ‘‘review the records without tying a
specific chart to a patient.’’ 86
Respondent further argues that he
complied with the subpoena prior to
March 2009 because his attorney
supplied codes revealing the names and
Respondent obtained permission from
his patients to provide the relevant
medical charts. Respondent contends
that the allegation that he failed to
comply with the subpoenas is another
example of revenge-seeking by Chicago
because of Respondent’s testimony in
the Police Board hearing; that the DEA
and Illinois are ‘‘doing the bidding of
the City of Chicago;’’ 87 that the records
that were the subject of the subpoenas
should not have been available to the
DEA because 225 ILCS 36 bars the DEA
from having or using information
compiled by Illinois; that Respondent
was not represented by counsel at the
instant hearing; and that Respondent
relied on the advice of his previous
counsel with regard to the redacted
information provided in response to the
subpoenas.
Respondent asserts that there is no
evidence of diversion with regard to his
prescribing OxyContin to Ms. E.M.; that
he treated her for more than five and a
half years prior to her death; that Ms.
E.M. suffered from multiple medical
problems (including severe
kyphoscoliosis, cerebral vascular
disease, Binswanger’s Disease, and
diabetes); that Ms. E.M. and seven other
patients required the prescriptions he
issued them for OxyContin 80 mg
because that strength was not a high
dose for them because of the form of
chronic pain from which they suffered;
and that he properly treated Ms. E.M.
for diabetes and inflammatory vascular
disease by prescribing Actos and
Metformin. Respondent also asserts that
Actos and Metformin are not controlled
substances and are therefore outside the
DEA’s jurisdiction.
Respondent argues that it is not
plausible that the OxyContin he
prescribed to Ms. E.M. was diverted
because: Respondent and his patients
were aware of the DEA investigation
and the patients produced their current
medications when interviewed; the DEA
83 Respondent’s
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87 Respondent’s
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and Dr. S.D. failed to perform opioid
level tests on Ms. E.M., even though
they were free to do so and she showed
signs of clinical opioid usage and rarely
complained of pain despite the presence
of ‘‘multiple and obvious pain
sources;’’ 88 if Respondent performed an
opioid test on Ms. E.M. it would not
disprove diversion; Mr. I.S. never filled
the prescriptions that Drs. S.D. and V.P.
issued to Ms. E.M. for Vicodin; and
Respondent had previously prescribed
OxyContin 80 mg to Ms. C.G. and, after
Respondent stopped treating her, a Dr.
M. continued the same prescriptions.
Respondent further claims that the
failure of the DEA, Dr. S.D., Dr. V.P.,
and Dr. M.89 to test Ms. E.M. for opioids
and thereby exonerate Respondent,
cannot be used against him because, if
they had suspicions of diversion, they
should have ‘‘[acted] to clear up this
charge.’’ 90 Respondent contends that
Investigator R. conducted her
investigation with ‘‘obvious
prejudice’’ 91 to cast Respondent in an
unfavorable light. Respondent asserts
that Drs. S.D., P., and M. were aware
that Ms. E.M. had pain because they
prescribed pain medicines such as
Vicodin and morphine; that Ms. E.M.’s
not taking the pain medication should
have alerted these doctors that her
family was medicating her; that Ms.
E.M.’s family asked Respondent not to
communicate with her other doctors
and he complied to avoid discharge as
her physician; and that Respondent
‘‘placed OxyContin on the record.’’ 92
Respondent contends that the DEA
acted ‘‘capriciously and in bad faith’’ 93
by invalidating his DEA registration
when he moved his office from his
registered location and by refusing to
reinstate his license pending the instant
proceedings. Respondent argues that he
was not permitted access to forms or
other communication methods on the
DEA Web site and that none of his calls
to Investigator R. and the DEA’s Chicago
office were returned; that the DEA
refused to transfer Respondent’s
registration to his new office after ‘‘the
D.E.A. finally figured out I moved’’; 94
that Respondent sent a letter to the DEA
advising it of his move in lieu of the
forms he ‘‘was not allowed to fill
88 Respondent’s
Closing Argument Brief at 14.
he refers to a ‘‘Dr. M.’’ in his brief,
I presume that Respondent actually intended to
refer to either Dr. G.M. or Dr. T.M. because there
was no evidence presented that Ms. E.M. was ever
treated by a Dr. M.
90 Respondent’s Closing Argument Brief at 15.
91 Respondent’s Closing Argument Brief at 15.
92 Respondent’s Closing Argument Brief at 17.
93 Respondent’s Closing Argument Brief at 17.
94 Respondent’s Closing Argument Brief at 17.
89 Although
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out’’; 95 that Respondent ‘‘essentially
stopped practicing medicine’’ 96 after he
received a second letter from
Government counsel; and that the DEA
allowed his registration to remain active
on its website even though it had the
power to ‘‘shut off [his] registration by
pulling it from the active list on their
pharmacy access Web site,’’ 97 thereby
creating ‘‘an incident and another
charge against me’’ 98 that occurred for
no reason other than harassment.
Respondent further claims that the cases
counsel for the Government cited in his
letter to Respondent regarding his
change of address are not applicable in
this situation because those cases
involved ‘‘two meth suppliers to
convenience stores, a pharmacy, and a
doctor whose state license had already
been revoked’’ 99 and Respondent,100 as
a ‘‘practicing MD with no criminal
complaint’’ 101 does not fit into any of
those categories. Respondent further
argues that the DEA had the power to
deactivate his controlled substance
license on the DEA Web site, thereby
‘‘shutting down [his] ability to issue any
controlled substances’’ 102 and that
because the DEA’s failure to do so was
more harassment which was ‘‘clearly
unethical if not illegal,’’ 103 Respondent
should not be held responsible.
Discussion and Conclusions
I. The Applicable Statutory and
Regulatory Provisions
The Controlled Substances Act
provides that any person who dispenses
(including prescribing) a controlled
substance must obtain a registration
issued by the DEA in accordance with
applicable rules and regulations.104 ‘‘A
separate registration shall be required at
each principal place of business or
professional practice where the
applicant * * * dispenses controlled
substances.’’ 105 DEA regulations
provide that any registrant may apply to
modify his registration to change his
address but such modification shall be
handled in the same manner as an
application for registration.’’ 106
It is unlawful for any person to
possess a controlled substance unless
that substance was obtained pursuant to
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95 Respondent’s
Closing Argument Brief at 17.
96 Respondent’s Closing Argument Brief at 17.
97 Respondent’s Closing Argument Brief at 17.
98 Respondent’s Closing Argument Brief at 18.
99 Respondent’s Closing Argument Brief at 18.
100 Respondent’s Closing Argument Brief at 18.
101 Respondent’s Closing Argument Brief at 18.
102 Respondent’s Closing Argument Brief at 18.
103 Respondent’s Closing Argument Brief at 18.
104 21 U.S.C. 822(a)(2).
105 21 U.S.C. 822(e).
106 21 CFR 1301.51.
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a valid prescription from a practitioner
acting in the course of his professional
practice.107 A registered individual
practitioner is required to maintain
records of controlled substances in
Schedules II through V that are
dispensed and received, including the
number of dosage units, the date of
receipt or disposal, and the name,
address, and registration number of the
distributor.108
A. Revocation of DEA Registrations
The Controlled Substances Act, at 21
U.S.C. 824(a), provides, insofar as
pertinent to this proceeding, that the
Deputy Administrator may revoke a
registration if she finds that the
registrant has materially falsified an
application for registration or renewal of
registration 109 and/or if she finds that
the continued registration would be
inconsistent with the public interest as
that term is used in 21 U.S.C. 823(f).110
B. The Public Interest Standard
Pursuant to 21 U.S.C. 823(f), the
Deputy Administrator may deny an
application for a DEA Certificate of
Registration if she determines that such
registration would be inconsistent with
the public interest. In determining the
public interest, the Deputy
Administrator is required to consider
the following factors:
(1) The recommendation of the
appropriate state licensing board or
professional disciplinary authority.
(2) The applicant’s experience in
dispensing, or conducting research with
respect to controlled substances.
(3) The applicant’s conviction record
under Federal or State laws relating to
the manufacture, distribution, or
dispensing of controlled substances.
(4) Compliance with applicable State,
Federal, or local laws relating to
controlled substances.
(5) Such other conduct which may
threaten the public health and safety.
As a threshold matter, it should be
noted that the factors specified in
section 823(f) are to be considered in the
disjunctive: The Deputy Administrator
may properly rely on any one or a
combination of those factors, and give
each factor the weight she deems
appropriate, in determining whether a
registration should be revoked or an
application for registration denied.111
107 21
U.S.C. 844(a).
CFR 1304.03(b), 1304.22(a)(2)(ix),
1304.21(a), 1304.22(c), and 1304.22(a)(2)(iv).
109 21 U.S.C. 824(a)(1).
110 21 U.S.C. 824(a)(4).
111 See Henry J. Schwarz, Jr. M.D., 54 FR 16,422
(DEA 1989).
108 21
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II. The Factors To Be Considered
A. Renewal of Respondent’s DEA
Registration
1. Material Falsification of a Renewal
Application
Respondent materially falsified his
2006 renewal application for a DEA
registration when he failed to disclose
any information regarding his 1998 state
probation, even though he did disclose
his 2003 state probation. I find
unpersuasive Respondent’s argument
that the omission is irrelevant due to the
DEA’s awareness of and Respondent’s
previous disclosure of the 1998
probation: The DEA has repeatedly held
that ‘‘ ‘[t]he provision of truthful
information on applications is
absolutely essential to effectuating [the]
statutory purpose’ of determining
whether the granting of an application
is consistent with the public
interest.’’ 112 A false statement is
material if it ‘‘has a natural tendency to
influence, or was capable of influencing,
the decision of the decisionmaking body
to which it was addressed.’’ 113 While
the evidence must be ‘‘clear,
unequivocal, and convincing,’’ the
‘‘ultimate finding of materiality turns on
an interpretation of the substantive
law.’’ 114 The Deputy Administrator has
also previously held that ‘‘[t]he
explanation given by an applicant who
has affirmatively answered a liability
question is * * * material because the
public interest inquiry under section
303(f) requires, inter alia, that the
Agency examine ‘[t]he applicant’s
experience in dispensing * * *
controlled substances,’ and its
[c]ompliance with applicable State,
Federal, or local laws relating to
controlled substances.’ ’’ 115
Although Respondent claims that his
omission of the 1998 probation from his
registration renewal application was
inadvertent, that is irrelevant because
the Government only needs to show that
the applicant ‘‘knew or should have
known that the response given to the
liability question was false,’’ not that the
material falsification was intentional.116
It is apparent that Respondent was
aware of his 1998 probation because he
112 The Lawsons, 72 FR at 74338 (quoting Peter
H. Ahles, 71 FR 50097, 50098 (2006)). See also
Hoxie v. DEA, 419 F.3d 477, 483 (6th Cir. 2005)
(‘‘Candor * * * is considered by the DEA to be an
important factor when assessing whether a * * *
registration is consistent with the public interest.’’).
113 Kungys v. United States, 485 U.S. 759, 770
(1988) (int. quotation and other citations omitted).
114 Id. at 772 (int. quotation and other citations
omitted).
115 The Lawsons, 72 FR at 74338 (citing 21 U.S.C.
823(f)).
116 The Lawsons, 72 FR at 74339; Samuel Arnold,
63 FR 8687 at 8688 (1998).
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admittedly disclosed it on previous DEA
registration applications and because he
entered into a consent order with the
IDFPR and purportedly completed the
required conditions. Respondent
therefore knew or should have known
that his response to the liability
question was false.
Respondent’s omitted 1998 probation
was related to Respondent’s handling of
Dilaudid, which is directly related to
the second and fourth factors listed in
21 U.S.C. 823(f). Regardless of whether
DEA and Illinois had prior knowledge of
that probation, the omission of an
offense related to the handling of a
schedule II controlled substance would
certainly have a natural tendency to
influence the decision of whether to
grant Respondent’s application when
considering the applicant’s experience
in handling controlled substances and
compliance with applicable State,
Federal, and local laws relating to
controlled substances. I thus conclude
that Respondent’s failure to disclose the
1998 state probation was a material
misrepresentation because it ‘‘ha[d] a
natural tendency to influence the * * *
decision’’ of the DEA as to whether to
grant his application for a new
registration. Under DEA precedent, a
material falsification ‘‘provides an
independent and adequate ground for
denying’’ Respondent’s application.117
2. Candor and Admission of Fault
The DEA properly considers the
candor of the physician and his
forthrightness in assisting in the
investigation and admitting fault
important factors in determining
whether the physician’s registration
should be revoked.118 I find that
Respondent has repeatedly failed to
accept responsibility for his
misconduct. This failure is evidenced
by Respondent’s consistent denial of
any wrongdoing: Respondent asserts
that his actions leading to his 1998 state
probations were lawful even after he
agreed to enter into a consent order with
the IDFPR; with regard to his 2003 state
probation, Respondent asserts (1) that
his only blame was in leaving his bag,
without a secure lock, at the clinic when
he was not present and that he clearly
‘‘could not prevent the owner’s actions
once I left medicine (Phentermine) in
my locked bag’’ and (2) that the DEA
should not ‘‘seek additional retribution’’
with regard to the incident because he
accepted the state probation;
Respondent repeatedly claims that the
117 The Lawsons, 72 FR at 74338; Cf Bobby Watts,
58 FR 46997 (1993).
118 Hoxie v. DEA, 419 F.3d 477, 483 (6th Cir.
2005).
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immediate hearing is the result of a
‘‘vendetta’’ against him instigated by the
City of Chicago; despite my previous
rulings to the contrary, Respondent
continues to assert that most of the
evidence and testimony admitted in the
instant hearing is inadmissible and
should not be considered; and
Respondent continues to assert that he
was ‘‘not afforded a capable
attorney’’ 119 although he was at any
time free to procure the assistance of
counsel, was notified of such, and he
did not request a postponement of the
instant hearing prior to its
commencement in order to do so.110
B. The Public Interest Standard
As noted above, Respondent
submitted a request to modify his
registration, which is still pending.
Pursuant to 21 CFR 1301.51, a request
for a modification shall be handled in
the same manner as an application for
registration. Pursuant to 21 U.S.C.
823(f), the Deputy Administrator may
deny an application for a DEA
Certificate of Registration if she
determines that such registration would
be inconsistent with the public interest,
consistent with the five factors
described above.
In light of the circumstances of this
case, I will consider Respondent’s
compliance with applicable law and
experience in handling controlled
substances together below.
1. The Recommendation of the
Appropriate State Licensing Board
It is undisputed that Respondent is
currently licensed as a physician and to
handle controlled substances in Illinois.
Inasmuch as Respondent is currently
authorized to handle controlled
substances in Illinois, I find that this
factor weighs in favor of a finding that
Respondent’s registration would not be
inconsistent with the public interest.
However, I note that state licensure is a
necessary but not sufficient condition
for DEA registration, and I therefore find
that this factor is not dispositive.
2. Respondent’s Experience in Handling
Controlled Substances and Compliance
With Applicable State, Federal, or Local
Laws Relating to Controlled Substances
I conclude that Respondent’s
experience in handling controlled
substances and Respondent’s
compliance with applicable State,
Federal, or local laws relating to
controlled substances weighs in favor of
a finding that his registration would not
be consistent with the public interest.
119 Respondent’s
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53957
(a) Respondent’s Prior State Disciplinary
Actions
In the previously discussed 1998
Consent Order, the then IDPR alleged
that Respondent ‘‘may have prescribed
Dilaudid to four (4) patients under
questionable circumstances’’; 120
Respondent did not admit or deny the
allegations but did agree not to contest
them. As a condition of his probation,
Respondent was required to complete a
remedial education course in controlled
substance management. In his Closing
Argument Brief, Respondent asserts that
there was never any finding that the
probation came about as a result of
unlawful prescribing of Dilaudid, and in
the instant hearing Respondent testified
that his actions related to the incident
were lawful.
In the 2003 Consent Order the IDFPR
alleged, and Respondent admitted, that
he failed to supervise an unlicensed
employee. In the instant hearing and in
his Closing Argument Brief, however,
Respondent asserts that he was the
employee and that he was unable to
prevent the clinic owner from removing
the phentermine from Respondent’s
locked bag, but that he accepted the
probation because he should not have
left the bag at the clinic when he was
not there. As a condition of his
probation, Respondent was required to
complete ten hours of continuing
education in the area of prescribing and
dispensing controlled substances. I find
that Respondent’s conduct leading to
the 2003 Consent Order and his
apparent lack of understanding of
proper methods, even after completing
several hours of controlled substance
handling education, weigh in favor of a
finding that his continued registration
would be inconsistent with the public
interest.
(b) Respondent’s Receipt and
Dispensing of Marinol
I find no merit to Respondent’s
assertions that he lawfully received
Marinol from a patient and also lawfully
provided it to another patient. Pursuant
to 21 U.S.C. 844(a), ‘‘[i]t shall be
unlawful for any person knowingly or
intentionally to possess a controlled
substance unless such substance was
obtained directly, or pursuant to a valid
prescription or order, from a
practitioner, while acting in the course
of his professional practice * * *’’
except as otherwise authorized by the
Controlled Substances Act.
Respondent’s interpretation of 21
U.S.C. 844(a) is mistaken; Respondent
apparently believes that, because he is
120 GX
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a practitioner who was purportedly
acting in the course of his professional
practice at the time he received the
Marinol, this section permitted him to
receive the Marinol from a patient.
Respondent, however, fails to recognize
that 21 U.S.C. 844(a) requires that the
controlled substance be obtained
directly or pursuant to a prescription
from a practitioner, not provided to a
practitioner acting in the course of his
professional practice. Respondent has
made no assertion and provided no
evidence that Mr. J.W., from whom
Respondent admittedly obtained the
Marinol, was a practitioner 121 acting in
the course of his professional practice or
that Mr. J.W. possessed the proper DEA
registration to dispense or distribute
controlled substances, as required by 21
U.S.C. 822(a)(1) and 21 CFR
1307.11(a)(1),122 when he provided
Respondent with the Marinol. Pursuant
to 21 CFR 1307.12, however, a person in
lawful possession of a controlled
substance may, without a registration to
do so, distribute such substance to the
person from whom it was obtained or to
the manufacturer of the substance.
Respondent, however, testified at a
police board hearing that the Marinol
likely came from the prescription of
another doctor, not Respondent. Mr.
J.W., therefore, did not obtain the
Marinol directly from or pursuant to a
prescription from Respondent and there
is no evidence indicating that Mr. J.W.
possessed a DEA registration to
distribute or dispense controlled
substances so Respondent was
subsequently not authorized to receive
the Marinol from Mr. J.W. under 21 CFR
1307.12.
Respondent apparently recognizes, as
indicated in his Closing Argument Brief,
that he is required to record the receipt
and subsequent dispensing of controlled
substances. Pursuant to 21 CFR
1304.03(b), 1304.22(a)(2)(ix), 1304.21(a),
1304.22(c), and 1304.22(a)(2)(iv), a
registered individual practitioner is
required to maintain records of
controlled substances in Schedules II–V
121 ‘‘Practitioner’’ is defined in 21 U.S.C. 802(21)
as: ‘‘a physician, dentist, veterinarian, scientific
investigator, pharmacy, hospital, or other person
licensed, registered, or otherwise permitted, by the
United States or the jurisdiction in which he
practices or does research, to distribute, dispense,
conduct research with respect to, administer, or use
in teaching or chemical analysis, a controlled
substance in the course of professional practice or
research.’’
122 21 CFR 1307.11(a)(1) generally provides that a
practitioner who is registered to dispense a
controlled substance may distribute a quantity of
such substance to another practitioner for the
purpose of general dispensing to patients provided
that both the distributing and the receiving
practitioners record the distribution in accordance
with 21 CFR 1304.22(c).
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that are dispensed and received,
including the number of dosage units,
the date of receipt or disposal, and the
name, address, and registration number
of the distributor. In his brief,
Respondent asserts that he has a ‘‘ ‘non
monetary’ receipt supplied by Mr.
J.W.’’ 123 The only document admitted
into evidence that relates to the receipt
of the Marinol, however, is an
affidavit 124 with a signature reading
‘‘J.W.’’ and dated May 2, 2008, nearly
five years after Respondent purportedly
received and subsequently dispensed
the Marinol. Not only is the general
authenticity of that document suspect,
but it also can not reasonably be viewed
as a proper record of receipt,
particularly considering that it was
prepared nearly five years after the
event and that Respondent previously
claimed to have no recollection of the
details of obtaining the Marinol.
Respondent also entered into evidence a
controlled substances log dated January
2003 through August 14, 2004,
indicating that on July 21, Respondent
dispensed 8 Marinol 10mg to Officer
D.S., which, despite the questionable
circumstances under which it was
presented to the IDFPR investigator,
may arguably be considered a record of
dispensing.
Accordingly, I find that Respondent’s
receipt of the Marinol was unlawful
under 21 U.S.C. 844(a) and 21 CFR
1304.03(b), 1304.21(a), 1304.22(c),
1304.22(a)(iv), 1304.22(a)(2)(ix),
1307.11, and 1307.12 because
Respondent did not receive the Marinol
directly from or pursuant to a
prescription or order from a practitioner
acting in the course of his professional
practice or from a person who was in
lawful possession of and originally
obtained the Marinol from Respondent,
or as otherwise authorized by the
Controlled Substances Act, and because
the receipt of the Marinol was not
properly recorded. Additionally, as the
Government points out, Respondent
testified in the instant hearing that he
has also in the past provided to patients
Tylenol III and Tylenol IV that he had
obtained from other patients to whom it
had been prescribed by other
physicians. I find that Respondent’s
unlawful receipt of a Schedule III
controlled substance and failure to
properly record such receipt weigh in
favor of a finding that Respondent’s
continued registration would be
inconsistent with the public interest.
123 Respondent’s
Closing Argument Brief at 5.
the document is signed, it is neither
witnessed nor notarized, and when the document
was admitted, no witness was presented to verify
the document’s authenticity.
124 Although
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(c) IDFPR Administrative Subpoenas
I find that the Government has not
provided sufficient evidence to indicate
that Respondent violated state law when
he failed to comply with a subpoena
duces tecum issued by the IDFPR
requesting copies of patient records.
The Government correctly asserts that
the IDFPR has the authority to
‘‘subpoena the medical and hospital
records of individual patients of’’ 125
licensed physicians. Respondent,
however, is essentially correct in his
assertion that all information provided
pursuant to such a subpoena and which
indicates the identity of the patient,
shall be removed and deleted prior to
submission to the disciplinary board or
department. Respondent further
correctly asserts that the term ‘‘all
information indicating the identity of
the patient’’ includes patient names and
dates of treatment because the IDFPR
and the DEA have the ability to match
that information with prescription
records. Respondent also testified at the
instant hearing that disclosure of the
requested information, without first
obtaining patient permission, would
violate the federal Health Insurance
Portability and Accountability Act
(HIPAA).
Although neither party has submitted
any relevant case law on the topic, the
Illinois Supreme Court has provided
some guidance regarding the disclosure
of confidential patient information
pursuant to an administrative subpoena.
In People v. Manos, the court held that
the Illinois legislature did not expressly
provide for the investigatory power
provided to the IDFPR to override the
physician-patient privilege as codified
in 735 ILCS 5/8–802. The IDFPR,
therefore, cannot require a physician
under an administrative investigation to
produce confidential patient medical
records unless one of the statutory
exceptions set forth in 735 ILCS 5/8–802
applies.126 Additionally, the court
adopted a finding that the mere deletion
of patient names and identifying
information does not remove the records
from protection under the physicianpatient privilege when the department
that issued the subpoena knows the
names of the patients whose records
were sought, those patients are not
parties to the investigatory proceedings,
and matching the records to the names
would not be difficult even if the names
and other identifying information were
redacted.127 I note that at the time that
125 225
ILCS 60/38.
v. Manos, 202 Ill. 2d 563 (2002).
127 People v. Manos, 202 Ill. 2d 563 (2002) (citing
Parkson v. Central DuPage Hospital, 105 Ill. App.
3d 850 (1982)).
126 People
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the IDFPR issued the subpoenas to
Respondent on June 15, 2005, and June
20, 2007, no applicable exception
applied under 735 ILCS 5/8–802.128 An
exception for subpoenas issued
pursuant to the Medical Practice Act is
now included in 735 ILCS 5/8–802,129
however, that exception did not become
effective until August 27, 2007 and is
therefore not applicable.
I agree with the Government’s
assertion that Respondent’s argument
that compliance with the subpoenas
would violate HIPAA is baseless
because the subpoena was issued as an
order of an administrative tribunal.130
Nonetheless, I further find that because
of the Illinois Supreme Court decision
in Manos, it does not matter whether the
disclosure would violate HIP AA
because it was not disclosable under the
physician-patient privilege law in effect
in Illinois at the time of the issuance of
the subpoena.131 Accordingly, I find
that the Government has not met its
128 The exceptions in effect during the applicable
period are as follows: ‘‘* * * (1) in trials for
homicide when the disclosure relates directly to the
fact or immediate circumstances of the homicide,
(2) in actions, civil or criminal, against the
healthcare practitioner for malpractice * * *, (3)
with the expressed consent of the patient * * *, (4)
in all actions brought by the patient, his or her
personal representative, a beneficiary under a
policy of insurance, or the executor or administrator
of his or her estate wherein the patient’s physical
or mental condition is an issue * * *, (4.1) in all
actions brought against the patient, his or her
personal representative, a beneficiary under a
policy of insurance, or the executor or administrator
of his or her estate wherein the patient’s physical
or mental condition is an issue, (5) upon an issue
as to the validity of a document as a will of the
patient, (6) in any criminal action where the charge
is either first degree murder by abortion, attempted
abortion or abortion, (7) in actions, civil or criminal,
arising from the filing of a report in compliance
with the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act
[325 ILCS 5/1 et seq.], (8) to any department,
agency, institution or facility which has custody of
the patient pursuant to State statute or any court
order of commitment, (9) in prosecutions where
written results of blood alcohol tests are admissible
pursuant to Section 11–501.4 of the Illinois Vehicle
Code [625 ILCS 5111–501.4], (10) in prosecutions
where written results of blood alcohol tests are
admissible under Section 5–lla of the Boat
Registration and Safety Act [625 ILCS 45/5–11a], or
(11) in criminal actions arising from the filing of a
report of suspected terrorist offense in compliance
with Section 29D–10(p)(7) of the Criminal Code of
1961 [720 ILCS 5/29D-l0].
129 ‘‘No physician or surgeon shall be permitted
to disclose any information he or she may have
acquired in attending any patient in a professional
character, necessary to enable him or her
professionally to serve the patient, except only
* * * (12) upon the issuance of a subpoena
pursuant to Section 38 of the Medical Practice Act
of 1987 [225 ILCS 60/38]. * * *’’ 735 ILCS 5/8–802.
130 See 45 CFR 164.512(e)(1), (2), and (3).
131 I also find no merit to Respondent’s argument
that he relied on the advice of counsel when he
provided the redacted patient files to the IDFPR.
Respondent has cited no relevant law to indicate
that reliance on counsel would relieve him of
responsibility for failing to comply with a
subpoena.
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burden of proof that Respondent
violated state law in failing to comply
with a subpoena duces tecum issued by
an administrative tribunal.
I note that I have already found no
merit to Respondent’s argument that the
patient files and the testimony of
Investigator D.M. in the immediate
hearing are inadmissible in this
proceeding and should not be available
to the DEA.132 Because Respondent is
likely to present this argument again,
however, I will add that, in addition to
the reasons previously stated in my
Memorandum to Parties and Rulings,
dated February 12, 2010 and
Memorandum to Parties and Ruling,
dated April 9, 2010, the section of this
opinion regarding the IDFPR subpoena
duces tecum cannot provide the basis
for an argument that the relevant patient
files are inadmissible because
Respondent obtained permission to
provide the files, thereby waiving the
physician-patient privilege.
(d) Prescribing From an Unregistered
Location
I find that Respondent violated
federal law by prescribing controlled
substances from his new location
without a valid registration. As
provided in 21 U.S.C. 822(e), ‘‘[a]
separate registration shall be required at
each principal place of business or
professional practice where the
applicant * * * dispenses controlled
substances.’’ Additionally, pursuant to
21 CFR 1301.51, any registrant may
apply to modify his registration to
change his address but such
modification shall be handled in the
same manner as an application for
registration. Unlike a renewal
application, which, when timely filed,
remains in effect past the registration
expiration date while the DEA makes a
final determination on the
application,133 a request for a
modification is treated as a new
application; a registrant, therefore, is not
authorized to dispense or prescribe
controlled substances at his new
location pending approval of a
modification request to change a DEA
registered address.134
132 See Memorandum to Parties and Rulings,
dated February 12, 2010 and Memorandum to
Parties and Ruling, dated April 9, 2010.
(Respondent relied on 225 ILCS 60/22(A)(5) and 60/
23(B) to exclude the testimony of IDFPR
Investigator D.M. and to exclude all evidence
relating to Respondent’s dispensing of Marinol to
D.S. I denied Respondent’s request and found that
Section 60/23(B)’s constraint on the Medical
Disciplinary Board’s ability to further disclose
reported information is limited to the
confidentiality of medical reports and committee
reports as otherwise protected by law.)
133 See 5 U.S.C. 558(c).
134 See John J. Fotinopoulos, 72 FR 24602 (2007).
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The record demonstrates that even
though Respondent moved from his
registered address to a new location in
July 2008, he failed to notify the DEA of
this change until at least April 7,
2009,135 after a DEA diversion
investigator was unable to locate
Respondent at his registered address
and eventually located him at his
residence. Additionally, Respondent
admittedly continued to handle
controlled substances not only while
that modification was pending but after
the DEA had notified him in writing at
least two times, and Respondent’s own
attorney confirmed at least once, that he
was not permitted to do so.
Respondent’s argument that the DEA
actively prevented him from submitting
a request for modification of his
registered location is unconvincing,
particularly considering that
Respondent failed to provide any
evidence indicating he ever attempted
to submit the request.136
Respondent’s act of continuing to
handle controlled substances after
numerous warnings shows a flagrant
disregard for the requirements of the
law governing the handling of
controlled substances. Additionally,
Respondent not only refuses to accept
any blame whatsoever for failing to
properly notify the DEA of his change
of address but also claims that the DEA
is responsible for him continuing to
issue prescriptions for controlled
substances and for pharmacies
continuing to fill those prescriptions. I
therefore find that Respondent’s failure
to comply with federal law regarding
modification of his controlled
substances registration and his
additional refusal to accept
responsibility for his actions strongly
support a finding that Respondent’s
continued registration would be
inconsistent with the public interest.
(e) Diversion of OxyContin
I find that the Government has met its
burden in establishing diversion by a
preponderance of the evidence and the
Government has also shown that even if
Respondent was unaware of the
diversion, Respondent was involved in
a scheme that created the opportunity
for diversion of a Schedule II controlled
substance.
135 RX
15.
136 Respondent
submitted several documents with
his brief, marked as ‘‘Brief Exhibits.’’ I have not
considered these documents in reaching my
findings and conclusions, however, because they
were not offered or admitted into evidence. See 21
CFR 1316.57. Respondent also makes several
references to testimony that was offered in related
state proceedings; that information also will not be
considered here for the same reason.
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The DEA has held that a finding that
a practitioner is reckless or negligent in
ignoring the warning signs that a patient
is either personally abusing controlled
substances or diverting them to others is
an indication that the practitioner’s
registration would be inconsistent with
the public interest; misconduct that is
‘‘unintentional, innocent or devoid of
improper motivation * * * creates the
opportunity for diversion and could
justify revocation or denial.’’ 137
The evidence in this case clearly
demonstrates that Respondent
knowingly and willingly participated in
a scheme to deceive other healthcare
providers with regard to Ms. E.M.’s use
of a Schedule II controlled substance
and was at the very least reckless or
negligent in ignoring the possibility of
diversion and thereby created the
opportunity for diversion of OxyContin.
The record establishes that Respondent
willingly agreed to continue to treat and
to prescribe controlled substances to
Ms. E.M. and to refrain from revealing
his involvement to anyone other than
Ms. E.M.’s family, even while Ms. E.M.
was institutionalized and while she was
being treated by other physicians. The
numerous inconsistencies between the
testimonies of Mr. I.S. and Respondent
lead me to believe that neither is a
credible witness with regard to Ms.
E.M.’s medication and treatment and
raises the questions of whether
Respondent actually even treated Ms.
E.M. and whether she received
OxyContin.
The evidence shows that each month
for several years, Respondent provided
prescriptions for 60 OxyContin 80 mg
tablets to three members of the same
household, including Ms. E.M., who
was over 90 years old and purportedly
frail. As the Government points out, Ms.
E.M. was confined to a hospital or
nursing home for a total of
approximately 290 days during that
period.
I first find it difficult to believe that
Ms. E.M.’s family was able to administer
OxyContin twice a day for such an
expansive time without ever arousing
the suspicion of the facility staff. I also
find it difficult to believe that for each
of those approximately 290 days,
although Ms. E.M. was purportedly
receiving a total of 160 mg of OxyContin
per day, two doses of 80 mg each,138 Ms.
E.M.’s family was able to prevent the
possibility of an overdose simply by
reviewing her daily charts (with the
137 See
Paul J. Caragine, Jr., 63 FR 51592 (DEA
1998).
138 According to the Physician’s Desk Reference,
80 mg is the second-highest dosage of OxyContin
available in a single pill.
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exception of the last three or so weeks
of Ms. E.M.’s life when Mr. I.S. claims
that he prohibited the facility from
providing any type of pain medication
to her).
Respondent ignored the warning signs
of diversion by assisting in the family’s
scheme to conceal Ms. E.M.’s
OxyContin prescriptions and by failing
to test Ms. E.M.’s opioid levels to ensure
that she actually received the drug. I
find that Respondent was at least
reckless or negligent in ignoring the
warning signs of diversion with regard
to the OxyContin he prescribed to Ms.
E.M. and his conduct, intentional or not,
thereby created the opportunity for
diversion.
I find that Respondent did not issue
OxyContin prescriptions for a legitimate
medical purpose while acting in the
scope of his professional practice. While
I agree with Respondent that the DEA’s
governing regulations do not require
him to perform a physical examination
of a patient before providing each
prescription, 21 CFR 1306.04(a),
requires that controlled substance
prescriptions be issued for a legitimate
medical purpose by a practitioner acting
in the scope of his professional practice.
The evidence also does not support a
finding that Respondent issued
OxyContin prescriptions to Ms. E.M.
pursuant to 21 CFR 1306.12(b)(1),
1306.05, or 1306.04(a). What constitutes
bona fide ‘‘medical practice’’ by a
physician dispensing narcotic drugs
must be determined upon consideration
of the evidence and attending
circumstances.139 The Supreme Court of
the United States clarified this issue in
Gonzales v. Oregon: 140
Under DEA regulations, a prescription for
a controlled substance is not ‘‘effective’’
unless it is ‘‘issued for a legitimate medical
purpose by an individual practitioner acting
in the usual course of his professional
practice.’’ 21 CFR 1306.04(a). This regulation
further provides that ‘‘an order purporting to
be a prescription issued not in the usual
course of professional treatment * * * is not
a prescription within the meaning and intent
of [21 U.S.C. 829] and * * * the person
issuing it, shall be subject to the penalties
provided for violations of the provisions of
law related to controlled substances.’’ Id. As
the Supreme Court explained, ‘‘the
prescription requirement * * * ensures
patients use controlled substances under the
supervision of a doctor so as to prevent
addiction and recreational abuse. As a
corollary, [it] also bars doctors from peddling
to patients who crave the drugs for those
prohibited uses.’’ (Emphasis added).
Contrary to Respondent’s assertions,
the evidence does not support a finding
139 Moore
v. U.S., 128 F.2d 887 (1942).
S.Ct. 904, 925 (2006) (citing Moore, 423
U.S. 122, 135 (1975)).
140 126
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that Respondent regularly saw Ms. E.M.
as a patient; she therefore did not use
controlled substances under his
supervision. Mr. I.S.’s testimony
combined with the discrepancies
between Respondent’s own records for
Ms. E.M. and the admission and
treatment dates for Ms. E.M. from
hospice and treating hospitals indicate
that it is unlikely that Respondent saw
Ms. E.M. as a patient as frequently as he
claims. Respondent even admitted that
he relied on reports from Ms. E.M.’s
family to determine the course of her
treatment. Additionally, Respondent
knowingly participated in a scheme to
conceal Ms. E.M.’s alleged use of
OxyContin from her treating physicians
and other caregivers. Such actions
certainly do not ‘‘ensure patients use
controlled substances under the
supervision of a doctor,’’ as explained
by the Supreme Court. Because Ms. E.M.
was not using OxyContin under the
supervision of Respondent and
Respondent’s actions contributed to the
prevention of her other physicians to
supervise her use, Respondent did not
issue OxyContin prescriptions to Ms.
E.M. for a legitimate medical purpose
while acting in the scope of his
professional practice. I therefore find
that the prescriptions that Respondent
issued to E.M. for OxyContin were not
issued for a legitimate medical purpose.
Accordingly, I find that Respondent
was at least reckless or negligent in
ignoring the warning signs of diversion
and issued prescriptions for other than
a legitimate medical purpose and that
this conduct weighs in favor of a finding
that Respondent’s registration would
not be consistent with the public
interest.
3. Respondent’s Conviction Record
There is no evidence that Respondent
has ever been convicted under any
federal or state laws relating to the
manufacture, distribution, or dispensing
of controlled substances. I therefore find
that this factor, although not dispositive,
weighs against a finding that his
continued registration would be
inconsistent with the public interest.
4. Other Conduct
In light of my findings discussed
above, I find it unnecessary to
determine whether Respondent’s
prescribing of various noncontrolled
substances to Ms. E.M. should weigh in
favor of a finding that his continued
registration would be inconsistent with
the public interest.
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I conclude that Respondent’s
registration with the DEA would be
inconsistent with the public interest.
Dated: August 16, 2011.
Joseph T. Rannazzisi,
Deputy Assistant Administrator, Office of
Diversion Control, Drug Enforcement
Administration.
Recommended Decision
[FR Doc. 2011–22088 Filed 8–29–11; 8:45 am]
Conclusion
I recommend that Respondent’s
controlled substances registration be
revoked and his application for renewal
and modification of his DEA registration
be denied.
BILLING CODE 4410–09–P
DEPARTMENT OF JUSTICE
Drug Enforcement Administration
Dated: June 15, 2010.
Mary Ellen Bittner,
Administrative Law Judge.
Manufacturer of Controlled
Substances; Notice of Registration
[FR Doc. 2011–22093 Filed 8–29–11; 8:45 am]
By Notice dated April 15, 2011, and
published in the Federal Register on
April 27, 2011, 76 FR 23627, Cedarburg
Pharmaceuticals, Inc., 870 Badger
Circle, Grafton, Wisconsin 53024, made
application by letter to the Drug
Enforcement Administration (DEA) to
be registered as a bulk manufacturer of
4–Anilino-N-phenethyl-4–Piperidine
(8333), a basic class of controlled
substance listed in schedule II.
The company plans to use this
controlled substance in the
manufacturer of another controlled
substance.
No comments or objections have been
received. DEA has considered the
factors in 21 U.S.C. 823(a), and
determined that the registration of
Cedarburg Pharmaceuticals, Inc., to
manufacture the listed basic class of
controlled substance is consistent with
the public interest at this time. DEA has
investigated Cedarburg Pharmaceuticals,
Inc., to ensure that the company’s
registration is consistent with the public
interest. The investigation has included
inspection and testing of the company’s
physical security systems, verification
of the company’s compliance with state
and local laws, and a review of the
company’s background and history.
Therefore, pursuant to 21 U.S.C. 823(a),
and in accordance with 21 CFR 1301.33,
the above named company is granted
registration as a bulk manufacturer of
the basic class of controlled substance
listed.
BILLING CODE 4410–09–P
DEPARTMENT OF JUSTICE
Drug Enforcement Administration
mstockstill on DSK4VPTVN1PROD with NOTICES
Importer of Controlled Substances;
Notice of Registration
By Notice dated June 7, 2011, and
published in the Federal Register on
June 16, 2011, 76 FR 35241, Wildlife
Laboratories, 1401 Duff Drive, Suite 400,
Fort Collins, Colorado 80524, made
application by renewal to the Drug
Enforcement Administration (DEA) to
be registered as an importer of
Etorphine Hydrochloride (9059), a basic
class of controlled substance listed in
schedule II.
The company plans to import the
listed controlled substance for sale to its
customers.
No comments or objections have been
received. DEA has considered the
factors in 21 U.S.C. 823(a) and 952(a)
and determined that the registration of
Wildlife Laboratories to import the basic
class of controlled substance is
consistent with the public interest and
with United States obligations under
international treaties, conventions, or
protocols in effect on May 1, 1971. DEA
has investigated Wildlife Laboratories to
ensure that the company’s registration is
consistent with the public interest. The
investigation has included inspection
and testing of the company’s physical
security systems, verification of the
company’s compliance with State and
local laws, and a review of the
company’s background and history.
Therefore, pursuant to 21 U.S.C. 952(a)
and 958(a), and in accordance with 21
CFR 1301.34, the above named company
is granted registration as an importer of
the basic class of controlled substance
listed.
VerDate Mar<15>2010
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Dated: August 16, 2011.
Joseph T. Rannazzisi,
Deputy Assistant Administrator, Office of
Diversion Control, Drug Enforcement
Administration.
[FR Doc. 2011–22089 Filed 8–29–11; 8:45 am]
BILLING CODE 4410–09–P
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53961
DEPARTMENT OF JUSTICE
Drug Enforcement Administration
Harold Edward Smith, M.D.;
Revocation Of Registration
On April 17, 2009, the Deputy
Assistant Administrator, Office of
Diversion Control, Drug Enforcement
Administration, issued an Order to
Show Cause to Harold Edward Smith,
M.D. (Respondent), of Mt. Dora, Florida.
The Show Cause Order proposed the
revocation of Respondent’s DEA
Certificate of Registration, BS4681979,
and the denial of any pending
applications to renew or modify the
registration, on the grounds that
Respondent had materially falsified
various applications for his DEA
registration and had committed acts
which render his registration
inconsistent with the public interest.
Show Cause Order at 1 (citing 21 U.S.C.
824(a)(1) & (4)).
The Show Cause Order alleged that
Respondent has ‘‘a documented
substance abuse history dating back as
far as 1982,’’ when he ‘‘entered
treatment for alcohol and controlled
substance abuse.’’ Id. The Order alleged
that on April 3, 1985, Respondent
entered into a consent order with the
Georgia Board of Medical Examiners
(Georgia Board) based on his ‘‘chemical
dependency,’’ which placed him on
probation for four years and imposed
various conditions including that he
‘‘abstain from the consumption of
alcohol or controlled substances,’’
undergo random drug testing, and
‘‘relinquish’’ his controlled substance
privileges. Id. The Order then alleged
that in June 1990, Respondent tested
positive for cocaine and that on October
10, 1990, he ‘‘entered into an Interim
Consent Order’’ with the Georgia Board
under which his medical license was
suspended and he was ordered (1) Not
to practice medicine, (2) not to use his
DEA registration, and (3) ‘‘to participate
in a program for impaired physicians.’’
Id. at 2.
Next, the Show Cause Order alleged
that during 1999 and 2000, Respondent
issued prescriptions for hydrocodone to
J.R.S. and L.L.S., and had failed to
maintain the ‘‘records of any
examinations, diagnoses, treatment[s] or
* * * drugs prescribed to these
individuals as required by Section
458.331(1)(q) of the Florida statutes.’’ Id.
The Order further alleged that based on
this conduct, Respondent ‘‘entered into
a Consent Agreement with the’’ Florida
Board of Medicine, which required him
to pay a fine of $5,000, desist ‘‘from
prescribing to family members’’ and to
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[Federal Register Volume 76, Number 168 (Tuesday, August 30, 2011)]
[Notices]
[Pages 53942-53961]
From the Federal Register Online via the Government Printing Office [www.gpo.gov]
[FR Doc No: 2011-22093]
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DEPARTMENT OF JUSTICE
Drug Enforcement Administration
[Docket No. 09-33]
Richard A. Herbert, M.D.; Decision and Order
On June 15, 2010, Administrative Law Judge (ALJ) Mary Ellen Bittner
issued the attached recommended decision. Thereafter, Respondent filed
Exceptions to the ALJ's decision.
Having reviewed the entire record including Respondent's
Exceptions, I have decided to adopt the ALJ's rulings, findings of
fact, conclusions of law, and recommended Order except as expressly set
forth below.\1\
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
\1\ Pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(2), the ALJ's recommended
decision has been edited to eliminate the names of various persons
who were either witnesses or were referred to in the proceeding. All
citations to the ALJ's decision are to the slip opinion attached to
this Decision and Order.
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
In his Exceptions, Respondent raises several issues. First,
Respondent argues that he ``was irreparably harmed'' because he was
forced to represent himself ``pro se'' after the ALJ granted his
previous attorney's motion to withdraw but did not grant his motion for
a continuance of the hearing to allow him to obtain new counsel.\2\
Exc. at 6-7. Respondent argues that his previous attorney had requested
that he ``be given leave of 21 days to obtain new counsel,'' and that
``[t]he ALJ mistakenly assumed that the attorney and Respondent were
not asking for a delay of the hearing'' and did not grant a continuance
in her October 13, 2009 order. Id. at 7. Respondent further asserts
that the ALJ ``unfairly denied a continuance'' and that he ``must be
given a fair hearing with representation for a proper outcome in this
matter.'' Id. at 10.
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
\2\ Respondent does not, however, contend that the ALJ erred in
granting the motion to withdraw. See Resp. Exc. at 6-10.
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
The record establishes that on October 9, 2009, Respondent's prior
counsel filed a motion for leave to withdraw; in his motion,
Respondent's prior counsel ``further requested that Respondent be given
leave of twenty-one (21) days to secure new counsel.'' ALJ Ex. 5. On
October 13, 2009, the ALJ granted the motion to withdraw. Id. However,
the ALJ found ``it unnecessary to provide leave of twenty-one (21) days
for Respondent to secure new counsel * * * as Respondent is free to
retain counsel at any time.'' Id. The ALJ further ordered that ``the
hearing in this matter, scheduled to begin on November 3, 2009, shall
proceed as scheduled.'' Id. A copy of this ruling was served on
Respondent by Federal Express. Id. In addition, the following day, the
ALJ's law clerk wrote Respondent noting that it appeared that he was no
longer represented by counsel and calling his attention to his ``right
to be represented by an attorney''; the letter also included verbatim
the language of 21 CFR 1316.50, which addresses a party's right to
representation. ALJ Ex. 6. The letter further advised Respondent that
he could contact the ALJ's law clerk if he had any questions. Id.
At the hearing, Respondent argued that his prior counsel had sought
a continuance of twenty-one days. Tr. 11. However, the ALJ noted that
Respondent's prior attorney ``did not ask for a postponement of the
hearing'' and that he had simply requested that Respondent ``be given
leave of 21 days to secure new counsel.'' Id. at 12-13. Respondent
replied that his prior lawyer's intent was ``to get [him] time''
because ``we have blocked out four days'' for the hearing, and no
``major league attorney is going to have four days [open] on his
calendar,'' having been notified approximately three weeks before the
hearing date. Id. at 13. The ALJ responded that she did not
[[Page 53943]]
know what Respondent's prior lawyer had ``intended,'' but only ``what
he asked for.'' Id. Respondent then stated that he understood, and that
ALJ ``ha[d] made [her] ruling.'' Id. The ALJ then proceeded to conduct
the hearing.
I conclude that the ALJ did not abuse her discretion in proceeding
to conduct the hearing. Whatever the intent of Respondent's counsel was
in asking for ``leave * * * to secure new counsel,'' Respondent had at
least three weeks between his prior attorney's moving to withdraw and
the commencement of the hearing to find new counsel. While it may be
the case that most capable attorneys would not have four days clear on
their calendar on three weeks' notice, it is not as if Respondent had
secured new counsel who, because his calendar was not clear, sought a
continuance, which was denied. Indeed, it is notable that at the
hearing, Respondent made no claim that he had actually contacted any
attorney, let alone that an attorney had declined to represent him
because the attorney had a scheduling conflict. I therefore reject
Respondent's exception and conclude that he is not entitled to a new
hearing.
Respondent takes further exception to the ALJ's conclusion that the
OxyContin prescriptions he issued to E.M. lacked ``a legitimate medical
purpose'' and that he ``was at least reckless or negligent in ignoring
the warning signs of diversion.'' Exc. at 10-16. Respondent raises a
number of contentions regarding the weight the ALJ gave to the
testimony of various witnesses and exhibits; Respondent also notes that
after the Agency's hearing, the Illinois Department of Financial and
Professional Regulation (IDFPR) held a hearing on the same allegations
and ``found that the State did not prove that any diversion occurred.''
Id. at 15.
Having reviewed each of these contentions, I concluded that a
preponderance of the evidence supports the ALJ's conclusions that the
OxyContin prescriptions which Respondent issued in the name of E.M.
were issued outside of the ``usual course of * * * professional
practice'' and lacked ``a legitimate medical purpose'' and therefore
violated the CSA. 21 CFR 1306.04(a). The evidence shows that beginning
in September 2003, Respondent prescribed 60 tablets of Oxycontin 80 mg.
(BID, twice a day), to E.M., who was then 93 years old, on a monthly
basis through May 2009, one month before her death. RX 16. Yet on
various occasions throughout this period, E.M. was an in-patient in
either a hospital or nursing home. See GX 42. Moreover, E.M. was under
hospice care from June 9 through October 11, 2006; December 8, 2006
through June 1, 2007; and from July 11, 2007 through the date of her
death.
According to the testimony of a hospice nurse who treated E.M. for
between eight months to a year, under the hospice agreement, E.M.'s
family was required to disclose whether any other physicians were
treating her. Tr. 35, 38. In addition, the testimony established that
the hospice was required to know what medications E.M. was taking. Id.
at 35. As the hospice nurse explained, a doctor would need to
communicate with hospice what drugs he was prescribing so that
contraindicated drugs were not prescribed by another doctor. Id. at 65.
Yet E.M.'s family, including her son I.S., who was a long-standing
friend of Respondent and who also received the same monthly
prescriptions for 60 tablets of OxyContin 80 mg (see id. at 686) and
filled his mother's prescriptions (id. at 690), did not disclose to the
hospice either that E.M. was being treated by Respondent or that she
was taking OxyContin 80 mg. Id. at 66. According to the hospice nurse,
the only controlled substance she was aware of being prescribed to E.M.
was Valium. Id. at 35. Moreover, on those occasions when the hospice
nurse determined that E.M. needed some medicine for her arm or knee
pain, I.S. told the hospice nurse that Tylenol (acetaminophen, a non-
controlled drug) worked for his mother and that his mother could not
handle stronger medicine. Id. at 65.
The Government also called as a witness Dr. S.D., a specialist in
internal medicine who was E.M.'s primary care physician for the last
four years of her life, including when she was in hospice. Id. at 72,
76. According to Dr. S.D., E.M. had lower back pain, shoulder and knee
pain, for which he prescribed Tylenol or Darvocet. Id. at 89-90.
However, she did not require constant medication, and he never
prescribed OxyContin 80 mg, which he considered to be ``too strong for
her.'' Id. at 91-92. While Dr. S.D. once prescribed Vicodin to E.M.
upon her discharge from the hospital, GX 21, at 31; he did not
prescribe Vicodin to her on a monthly basis. Tr. 143.
While Dr. S.D. talked with I.S.'s live-in girlfriend regarding
E.M.'s condition, he further testified that he was never told that
Respondent was prescribing OxyContin to her. Id. at 92, 95, 109, 141-
42. Moreover, the hospice nurse never told him that E.M. was seeing
another doctor and never listed OxyContin as one of her medications.
Id. at 96, 102. Dr. S.D. further testified that if E.M. had, in fact,
been taking two OxyContin 80 mg each day and had stopped (as when she
was in the hospital), she would have undergone ``severe withdrawal,''
including such symptoms as abdominal pain, diarrhea, and vomiting. Id.
at 105-06. Dr. S.D. also testified that when a patient is hospitalized,
a family member is not allowed to give the patient medication. Id. at
107. There was, however, no evidence that E.M. underwent withdrawal
during any of the various occasions when she was hospitalized. Id. at
106, 143-44.
Dr. S.D. further testified that because he was E.M.'s primary care
physician, Respondent had ``the legal responsibility to send [him] a
consult that [Respondent was] treating her for pain and prescribing''
OxyContin 80 mg to her. Id. at 140. Dr. S.D. testified that if doctors
do not coordinate their prescribing to a patient, the patient could
overdose. Id. at 144. Dr. S.D. then testified that it is outside of the
normal course of medical practice for a physician, who is aware that a
patient is being treated by another physician, to prescribe drugs and
fail to consult with the other physician.\3\ Id.
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
\3\ Respondent acknowledged that he was aware that E.M. was
being treated by other doctors, and the chart he maintained on her
shows that he was aware at various points that she was a patient in
a rehab facility and a nursing home. RX 16, at 5-6. Yet he never
notified either her physicians or these facilities that he was
prescribing OxyContin to her. While Respondent maintained he did not
notify E.M.'s physicians and the facilities regarding the OxyContin
prescriptions because E.M's family did not want him to, Respondent
offered no credible explanation for why he continued to prescribe to
E.M. when he knew she was under the care of other physicians.
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
As noted above, during the period in which Respondent issued the
OxyContin prescriptions in E.M.'s name, E.M. was admitted as an in-
patient to a hospital on approximately twenty occasions.\4\ See GX 42.
Yet there is no evidence that she ever underwent withdrawal. Moreover,
in the voluminous medical records entered into evidence, Respondent
points to only a single instance (involving a January 18, 2006
emergency room visit for a potential stroke (CVA)), in which the
medical records listed her medications as including OxyContin. GX 21,
at 29. If E.M. was actually taking the OxyContin, this begs the
question of why her family was so reluctant to disclose this
information (as well as Respondent's) name to the hospitals where she
was treated.
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
\4\ She was also taken to the Emergency Room approximately ten
times.
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
There is further evidence establishing that Respondent's
prescriptions were unlawful. The evidence shows that on November 10,
2004, E.M. was discharged from the hospital to the
[[Page 53944]]
Heritage Village Nursing Home, and that at 9:30 a.m., she was admitted
to the latter. GX 11, at 1; GX 25, at 3; GX 27A, at 70. Yet Respondent
noted in her chart that on the same day, he performed a physical exam
at which he took her blood pressure, palpated her deformities and found
that they were ``not as painful,'' and found that her ``hand grip
good,'' RX 16, at 4; the same day, he also issued her a prescription
for sixty OxyContin 80 mg. See GX 28, at 10. Respondent did not,
however, offer any testimony explaining how he could have performed a
physical exam on E.M. on this day.
Likewise, Respondent noted in E.M.'s chart that on November 17,
2006, her blood pressure was 138/94, she was ``[d]oing surprisingly
well today,'' she ``spoke my 1st name,'' and was ``oriented,'' RX 16,
at 5; he also issued a prescription in her name for sixty OxyContin 80
mg. See GX 14, at 5. However, between October 12 and December 8, 2006,
E.M. was a patient in the Manor Care Nursing Home. GX 21, at 203; GX
27B, at 17, 956. Yet the record (including Respondent's testimony)
establishes that Respondent did not travel to the facilities E.M. was
in. Tr. 547.
The ALJ found that there were ``numerous inconsistencies between
the testimonies of [I.S.] and Respondent'' and that this led her ``to
believe that neither is a credible witness with regard to [E.M.'s]
medication and treatment.'' ALJ at 54. The ALJ further noted the
extensive amount of time that E.M. was in either a hospital or nursing
home/rehab facility (approximately 290 days during the course of
Respondent's prescribing to her) and found ``it difficult to believe
that [E.M.'s] family was able to administer [80 mgs of] OxyContin twice
a day for such an expansive time without ever arousing the suspicion of
the facility staff.\5\'' Id. I agree and find Respondent's and I.S.'s
testimony implausible. I also agree with the ALJ's conclusion that the
record supports the conclusion that the OxyContin prescriptions
Respondent issued in the name of E.M. lacked a legitimate medical
purpose and were issued outside of the usual course of professional
practice and thus violated Federal law.\6\ 21 CFR 1306.04(a).
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
\5\ Among the implausible testimony I.S. gave was that he or a
family member would take the OxyContin to his mother when she was
institutionalized and give her the drug, which was prescribed to be
taken twice a day. Tr. 685. I.S. also asserted that when he went to
his mother's various institutions, and told them that he had
``supplements [and] medications that I give my mother at home, and I
would like you to administer them, * * * they said we won't do that
* * * unless the doctor orders it. But if you want to come in
yourself, or have somebody come in and give it to your mother, we
haven't got a problem with that, and that's what I did.'' Id. at
692-93. However, I.S. testified that he did not tell the facilities
that he would be administering OxyContin. Id. Indeed, it seems
strange that the facilities did not ask I.S. what medications he
intended to bring into the facility, and as the ALJ found, this
testimony is patently disingenuous.
\6\ Respondent argues that DEA Investigators ``could have easily
secured a blood test of [E.M.] to discern whether she was receiving
OxyContin,'' and that ``[b]y the time Respondent realized the focus
of the investigation centered around this patient and the severity
of the charges against him, it was too late because the patient had
passed away.'' Exceptions at 12. Respondent further argues that
``even though OxyContin was listed as a home medication and there
was evidence that she was taking the medicine s[u]rreptitiously, Dr.
[S.D., her primary care physician,] never ordered a blood test for
opioid levels.'' Id. at 13. As for DEA's obligation to secure a
blood test, this is beside the point. Moreover, in his testimony,
Respondent acknowledged that ``[i]n retrospect'' he should have done
a blood test on E.M. to see if she was actually taking the
OxyContin. Tr. 835. However, he then attempted to shift the blame to
Dr. S.D., asking ``[w]hat is [his] excuse?'' Id.
Respondent ignores that he was one who prescribed 60 tablets of
OxyContin 80 mg to E.M.--which is the second strongest formulation
available and which just happened to be the same prescription that
he was giving her son--each month, and did this for a period of more
than five and a half years and did so even when he knew she was
being treated by other doctors. At a minimum, this evidence
establishes that Respondent acted with deliberate ignorance as to
the likelihood the drugs were being diverted. See Jeri Hassman,
M.D., 75 FR 8194, 8228 (2010) (citing United States v. Katz, 445
F.3d 1023, 1031 (8th Cir. 2006)).
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
Respondent further points to an IDFPR Inspector's Report of an
interview he conducted with E.M. and her son on August 9, 2005. During
this interview, E.M. identified two green tablets, which were
reportedly OxyContin, and stated that they ``were to combat pain.'' RX
10. However, earlier in the interview the Inspector had asked E.M. if
she had pain when she initially went to see Respondent and she answered
``no.'' Id. I.S. had objected that ``the question was unfair as he felt
she did not recall.'' Id. Moreover, Respondent had previously diagnosed
E.M. as having ``senile dementia'' nearly two years earlier, RX 16, at
1; and Dr. P. (Dr. S.D.'s partner) had diagnosed E.M. as having
Alzheimer's disease and dementia in June 2005, two months prior to the
interview. Thus, there is ample reason to discount E.M.'s statement
regarding the use of the OxyContin.
Respondent also argues that after the instant hearing, the IDFPR
held a hearing on the ``same underlying allegations,'' at which much of
the same evidence was presented; however, at the state hearing,
Respondent was also able to procure the testimony of C.S. (I.S.'s
wife). Exceptions at 15. Respondent argues that the State ALJ ``found
that the State did not prove that any diversion occurred.'' Id.
Respondent does not, however, argue that C.S. was unavailable to
testify in the DEA proceeding and her testimony does not constitute
newly discovered evidence. Cf. ICC v. Brotherhood of Locomotive
Engineers, 482 U.S. 270, 286 (1987). As for the state ALJ's findings,
DEA was not a party to that proceeding. Moreover, this Agency has long
held that it ``maintains a separate oversight responsibility [apart
from that which exists in a state board] with respect to the handling
of controlled substances and has a statutory obligation to make its
independent determination as to whether the granting of [a
registration] would be in the public interest.'' Mortimer B. Levin,
D.O., 55 FR 8209, 8210 (1990). Accordingly, even if Respondent had
submitted the state ALJ's decision, the state ALJ's finding would not
be entitled to collateral estoppel effect in this proceeding.\7\ Cf.
United States v. Mendoza, 464 U.S. 154 (1984). I therefore reject
Respondent's exception that the evidence in the record of this
proceeding does not demonstrate that he engaged in the diversion of
controlled substances and agree with the ALJ's conclusion that he acted
outside of the usual course of professional practice and lacked a
legitimate medical purpose when he issued OxyContin prescriptions in
E.M.'s name. 21 CFR 1306.04(a). See also George Mathew, M.D., 75 FR
66138, 66146 (2010) (under Federal law, where a physician issues a
prescription in violation of 21 CFR 1306.04(a), the drug is deemed
diverted).
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\7\ The Government also notes that in the IDFPR proceeding, the
State's burden of proof was ``clear and convincing evidence,'' but
in this proceeding the ``preponderance of the evidence'' standard
applies. Gov. Resp. to Resp. Motion for Rehearing and Exceptions, at
13 (citing Tit. 68, Cp. VII, Subchapter a, Admin. Rule, Part
1110.190).
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Finally, Respondent argues that the proven allegations do not
support the revocation of his registration. Resp. Exc. at 16. Contrary
to Respondent's understanding, DEA has held that proof of a single act
of diversion is sufficient to support the revocation of a registration
and the denial of an application. See Dewey C. MacKay, 75 FR 49956,
49977 (2010); Alan H. Olefsky, 57 FR 928, 928-29 (1992) (revoking
registration based on physician's act of presenting two fraudulent
prescriptions to pharmacy for filling). The ALJ's finding that
Respondent issued prescriptions which lacked a legitimate medical
purpose is sufficient by itself to support the revocation of
Respondent's registration, especially, where, as here, the ALJ
[[Page 53945]]
found that ``Respondent has repeatedly failed to accept responsibility
for his misconduct.'' ALJ at 44. See also Jayam Krishna-Iyer, 74 FR
459, 463 (2009) (quoting Medicine Shoppe--Jonesborough, 73 FR 364, 387
(2008) (DEA ``has repeatedly held that where a registrant has committed
acts inconsistent with the public interest, the registrant must accept
responsibility for [his] actions and demonstrate that [he] will not
engage in future misconduct.'')); see also Hoxie v. DEA, 419 F.3d 477,
483 (6th Cir. 2005) (``admitting fault'' is ``properly consider[ed]''
by DEA to be an ``important factor[]'' in the public interest
determination).\8\
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\8\ In concluding that Respondent has not accepted
responsibility for his misconduct, the ALJ noted that ``despite my
previous rulings to the contrary, Respondent continues to assert
that most of the evidence and testimony admitted in the instant
hearing is inadmissible and should not be considered'' and that he
``continues to assert that he was `not afforded a capable attorney'
although he was at any time free to procure the assistance of
counsel [and] was notified of such.'' ALJ at 44 (citing Resp.
Closing Argument Br. at 10).
To make clear, that Respondent continues to object to the
admission of certain evidence and argues that he was not afforded a
capable attorney is of no relevance in determining whether he
accepts responsibility for his misconduct. I thus reject the ALJ's
reliance on Respondent's legal arguments as a basis for concluding
that he does not accept responsibility. However, the record contains
an ample evidentiary basis for concluding that Respondent does not
accept responsibility for most of his misconduct, and his
explanation of his prescribing to E.M. is utterly implausible. Thus,
I conclude that Respondent has not rebutted the Government's prima
facie case. See Hoxie, 419 F.3d at 483 (upholding Agency's reliance
on registrant's lack of candor in determining whether registration
is consistent with the public interest).
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
Moreover, the ALJ found that Respondent had committed additional
acts which support the revocation of his registration, including that
he materially falsified his 2006 renewal application when he failed to
disclose the 1998 probation imposed on his state medical license by the
Illinois Department of Professional Regulation. ALJ at 43. As the ALJ
found, this was a material falsification because the underlying conduct
which gave rise to the State's order was Respondent's prescribing of
Dilaudid, a schedule II controlled substance, to four patients ``under
questionable circumstances, i.e., for pain related to old injuries or
for pain in which surgery may have provided relief and that two (2) of
the patients may have sold some of the Dilaudid back to Respondent.''
GX 7. This falsification was material because under the public interest
standard, DEA is required to assess an applicant's experience in
dispensing controlled substances and his record of compliance with
state and federal laws related to controlled substances. 21 U.S.C.
823(f) (2) & (4). Accordingly, Respondent's failure to disclose the
1998 probation was capable of influencing the Agency's decision as to
whether to grant his application and was a material falsification.\9\
See The Lawsons, Inc., 72 FR 74334, 74338-39 (2007) (other citations
omitted). Under the CSA, material falsification provides a separate and
independent ground for denying an application. 21 U.S.C. 824(a)(1).
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
\9\ In his Exceptions, Respondent also contends that the
Agency's consideration of the 1998 Consent Order violates his right
to due process because due process ``requires protection from a
never-ending time limit for the DEA to bring an action.'' Exceptions
at 3. Respondent, however, makes only a conclusory assertion of
prejudice. Cf. United States v. Brockman, 183 F.3d 891, 895 (8th
Cir. 1999). He likewise ignores that in making the public interest
determination, Congress directed the Agency to consider his
experience in dispensing controlled substances, an inquiry which
necessarily entails review of prior incidents of misconduct.
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
Substantial evidence also supports the ALJ's findings that
Respondent committed other acts of misconduct. These included his: (1)
Obtaining Marinol, a schedule III controlled substance, from a patient,
who had been dispensed the drug by another doctor, in violation of 21
U.S.C. 844(a); and his (2) failing to document his receipt of the
Marinol in violation of 21 U.S.C. 827(a)(3). ALJ at 48-49. In addition,
Respondent prescribed controlled substances from a new location at
which he did not hold a registration and did so even after he was told
by DEA personnel to stop doing so. ALJ at 30-31, 52-53 (citing GXs 9,
33, and 34). As the ALJ noted, ``Respondent's act of continuing to
handle controlled substances after numerous warnings shows a flagrant
disregard for the requirements of the law governing the handling of
controlled substances.'' Id. at 53.
Finally, based on a 2003 state proceeding, the ALJ found that
Respondent failed to properly supervise an unlicensed person who
distributed phentermine, a schedule IV controlled substance, to
patients of a weight loss clinic where Respondent worked and which was
owned by the unlicensed person who was a personal friend. ALJ at 46.
According to the record, this occurred when Respondent left his medical
bag (which contained the drugs) at the clinic and the clinic owner
distributed the phentermine to its patients. Notably, five years
earlier--as part of the 1998 Consent Order, which resolved the
allegations pertaining to his handling of Dilaudid--Respondent was
required to take a course in controlled substance management. GX 7, at
3. Yet Respondent then committed additional violations of the CSA.
The numerous acts of misconduct proved on this record, along with
Respondent's unwillingness to accept responsibility for much of it, and
his demonstrated inability to take heed of the laws and regulations
pertaining to controlled substances even after being required to
undergo remedial instruction, make clear that his continued
registration ``would be inconsistent with the public interest.'' 21
U.S.C. 823(f). I therefore reject Respondent's exception that the
evidence does not support the revocation of his registration.
Accordingly, I will adopt the ALJ's recommendation that his
registration be revoked and that his applications to renew and modify
his registration be denied.
Order
Pursuant to the authority vested in me by 21 U.S.C. 823(f) &
824(a), as well as 28 CFR 0.100(b), I order that DEA Certificate of
Registration, BH8738063, issued to Richard A. Herbert, M.D., be, and it
hereby is, revoked. I further order that the applications of Richard A.
Herbert, M.D., to renew and modify his registration be, and they hereby
are, denied. This order is effective September 29, 2011.
Dated: August 12, 2011.
Michele M. Leonhart,
Administrator.
Bryan Bayly, Esq., for the Government.
Richard A. Herbert, M.D., Pro Se, for the Respondent.
Opinion and Recommended Ruling, Findings of Fact, Conclusions of Law
and Decision of the Administrative Law Judge
Mary Ellen Bittner, Administrative Law Judge. This proceeding is an
adjudication pursuant to the Administrative Procedure Act, 5 U.S.C. 551
et seq., to determine whether the Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA)
should revoke a physician's Certificate of Registration as a
practitioner and deny any pending applications for renewal or
modification of that registration. Without this registration the
physician, Respondent Richard A. Herbert, M.D., of Riverside, Illinois,
will be unable to lawfully handle controlled substances in the course
of his practice.
On March 11, 2009, the Deputy Assistant Administrator, Office of
Diversion Control, of the DEA issued an Order to Show Cause to
Respondent, giving Respondent notice to show cause why the DEA should
not revoke his
[[Page 53946]]
DEA Certificate of Registration pursuant to 21 U.S.C. 824(a)(l) and
(a)(4), and deny any pending applications for renewal or modification
of such registration pursuant to 21 U.S.C. 823(f), on grounds that he
materially falsified an application for renewal of his registration and
that his continued registration would be inconsistent with the public
interest as that term is used in 21 U.S.C. 824(a)(4) and 823(f).
In substance, the Order to Show Cause alleges that Respondent holds
a DEA Certificate of Registration that expired on October 31, 2006, and
for which Respondent submitted a timely renewal application on
September 26, 2006; that on that renewal application, Respondent was
required to answer whether a state medical board had taken action
against his state license; that on February 26, 1998, the Illinois
then-Department of Professional Regulation had placed Respondent's
medical license on probation for one year because Respondent issued
unlawful prescriptions for Dilaudid, a brand name product containing
the Schedule II narcotic controlled substance hydromorphone
hydrochloride; that Respondent failed to disclose the 1998 probation on
his September 2006 renewal application; that Respondent obtained
dronabinol, a Schedule III hallucinogenic controlled substance, from a
patient who had acquired it pursuant to a prescription from another
physician but had no record of such receipt, and that on July 21, 2003,
Respondent dispensed that dronabinol to another purported patient but
had no record of such dispensing; that on August 15, 2003, the Illinois
Department of Financial and Professional Regulation (IDFPR) placed
Respondent's medical license on probation for three years because
Respondent failed to supervise an unlicensed employee who illegally
handled phentermine, a Schedule IV stimulant controlled substance; that
Respondent disclosed the 2003 probation on his September 2006 renewal
application; that on July 5, 2005, the Illinois Department of
Professional Regulation served Respondent with an administrative
subpoena seeking to obtain patient records and that Respondent did not
fully comply with the subpoena in that he redacted patient
identification information and all dates of treatment; that on July 28,
2007, the administrative subpoena was re-issued to Respondent; and that
from February 2006 through August 2007, Respondent diverted OxyContin,
a brand name product containing the Schedule II narcotic controlled
substance oxycodone, to a patient by giving the patient a prescription
that Respondent wrote in the name of the patient's mother.
Respondent, through counsel, timely requested a hearing on the
allegations in the Order to Show Cause. On October 9, 2009,
Respondent's counsel requested leave to withdraw as counsel because of
a conflict of representation; I granted counsel's request on October
13, 2009; and sent a copy of the memorandum granting that request to
Respondent by Federal Express that same day. Following prehearing
procedures, a hearing was held in Chicago, Illinois, from November 3
through November 6, 2009, with the Government represented by counsel
and Respondent appearing pro se. Both parties called witnesses to
testify and introduced documentary evidence. After the hearing, both
parties filed proposed findings of fact, conclusions of law, and
argument. All of the evidence and posthearing submissions have been
considered, and to the extent the parties' proposed findings of fact
have been adopted, they are substantively incorporated into those set
forth below.
Issue
Whether a preponderance of the evidence establishes that, pursuant
to 21 U.S.C. 824(a)(l) and (a)(4), Respondent's registration with the
Drug Enforcement Administration should be revoked and any pending
applications for renewal or modification of that registration denied,
because Respondent made material misstatements on an application for
registration and because his continued registration would be
inconsistent with the public interest as that term is used in 21 U.S.C.
823(f).
Findings of Fact
I. Background
Respondent is a physician licensed to practice medicine and to
handle controlled substances in Illinois. He has held a DEA
registration since April 13, 2004, with a registered address at
Oakbrook Center Mall in Oak Brook, Illinois. [GX 1]
II. The Illinois Department of Financial and Professional Regulation
The Illinois Department of Financial and Professional Regulation
(IDFPR) is a state agency that licenses physicians and investigates
complaints regarding licensed physicians. Upon conclusion of an
investigation, the information is forwarded to a medical coordinator,
who is a physician, for review. That individual then determines whether
to recommend the case to the Medical Disciplinary Board. [Tr. 151-152]
D. M., a medical investigator and controlled substance inspector for
the IDFPR, testified that the IDFPR was previously known as the
Department of Professional Regulation but was merged with several
stand-alone agencies to eventually become the IDFPR. [Tr. 155]
III. The Evidence Pertaining to Respondent
A. Respondent's Illinois Department of Professional Regulation 1998
Consent Order
Investigator D.M. testified that he and two representatives of the
DEA were involved in a 1994 investigation of Respondent regarding the
diversion of Dilaudid. [Tr. 154, 733] On February 26, 1998, Respondent
entered into a Consent Order with the Illinois then-Department of
Professional Regulation. The Consent Order stated that Respondent ``may
have prescribed Dilaudid to four (4) patients under questionable
circumstances, i.e. for pain related to old injuries or for pain in
which surgery may have provided relief and that two (2) of the patients
may have sold some of the Dilaudid back to Respondent.'' \10\
Respondent did not admit or deny the allegations but, for the purposes
of the Consent Order only, agreed not to contest the allegations.
Respondent testified in the instant hearing that he does not agree that
his actions were unlawful and that his position is that he acted
lawfully. [Tr.743, GX 2]
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\10\ GX 7.
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
Under the terms of the Consent Order, Respondent's Illinois
physician and surgeon and controlled substances licenses were both
placed on probation for one year with several conditions, including
completion of a course in controlled substances management and a
requirement that Respondent make and submit controlled substance logs
to the Department of Professional Regulation for a period of time. [GX
7]
B. Respondent's Illinois Department of Financial and Professional
Regulation 2003 Consent Order
Investigator D.M. testified that another IDFPR investigation of
Respondent began in 1999 and concerned the ``aiding and abetting in the
unlicensed practice of medicine.'' \11\ According to Investigator D.M.,
an A.D. had ``dispensed'' \12\ to patients in Chicago phentermine that
Respondent
[[Page 53947]]
had ordered and received at his Oakbrook office.
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
\11\ Tr. 157.
\12\ Agent D.M. testified that his use of the term ``dispense''
referred to ``providing the actual pills.'' Tr. 159.
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
At the hearing in the instant case, Respondent testified that he
had a ``deal for pay'' with his friend Mr. D., who owned a weight loss
clinic in Chicago. Pursuant to this agreement, Respondent used his DEA
registration to purchase phentermine at his registered Oakbrook
location and then took the phentermine to Mr. D.'s clinic in a locked
bag that Respondent would sometimes leave at the clinic; Respondent saw
patients and created records at the clinic and sold the phentermine to
Mr. D. who in turn sold the phentermine to the patients at a higher
cost. Respondent testified that one day he left his bag filled with his
stock of phentermine at the clinic although he was not there, and when
patients came in Mr. D. provided them with phentermine from the bag and
instructed them to come back in a few days to see Respondent.\13\
Respondent testified that once he was notified that some of those
patients were state investigators, he immediately resigned from the
clinic and offered to cooperate.
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\13\ Tr. 587.
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
Respondent testified that at a state hearing regarding the matter,
he admitted that he had guilt because he technically aided in Mr. D.'s
``practice of medicine by not securing my controlled substances'' \14\
but that he ``didn't actually aid and abet.'' \15\ On August 15, 2003,
Respondent entered into a Consent Order with the IDFPR with regard to
Mr. D.'s provision of phentermine from the Chicago clinic. The Consent
Order stated that Respondent failed to supervise an unlicensed employee
and Respondent admitted that the allegations were true. As a result of
the Consent Order, Respondent's Illinois physician and surgeon and
controlled substances licenses were placed on probation for a period of
three years with several conditions, including completion of continuing
medical education in the area of prescribing and dispensing controlled
substances and allowing the IDFPR to inspect Respondent's controlled
substance log book and inventory record book upon request. [GX 8]
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
\14\ Tr. 589.
\15\ Tr. 589.
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
C. Respondent's Activity During the 2003-2006 Probation Period
The IDFPR filed a complaint against Respondent on April 5, 2007,
alleging that he violated the terms of his probation as set forth in
the 2003 Consent Order by failing to make available for inspection his
controlled substance log and inventory records; receiving dronabinol, a
Schedule III controlled substance, from a purported patient and re-
dispensing it to another purported patient, and failing to keep any
records of the receipt and dispensing of the dronabinol; providing
incomplete records in response to an IDFPR subpoena issued by the
IDFPR; aiding and abetting the unlicensed practice of medicine relating
to a June 2005 incident; and issuing prescriptions for OxyContin to
patients without examining them and failing to keep and maintain
records of those patients and the controlled substances.
1. The IDFPR Inspection of Respondent's Controlled Substances Log
Investigator D.M. testified that in April 2005 he interviewed
Respondent regarding his controlled substances logs and that Respondent
stated that he did not have any logs for the years 2003, 2004, or 2005
because he had not ordered any controlled substance medications and
therefore had no occasion to dispense \16\ them or maintain a log of
them. [Tr. 194] Investigator D.M. further testified that when he again
met with Respondent in May 2005, Respondent iterated that he did not
have a log because he had not dispensed any controlled substances in
2003, 2004, or 2005. Investigator D.M., however, was aware from the
transcript of a Chicago Police Board hearing held on August 10 and
October 13, 2004, that Respondent had testified in that proceeding
about dispensing dronabinol to a patient on July 21, 2003; this
incident is further discussed below. [Tr. 165] Respondent testified in
the instant hearing that ``my assumption when D.M. was in there was
that I knew that I had not ordered anything for years, and not
recalling these three patients, I simply filled out a handwritten log
and zero.'' \17\
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\16\ Investigator D.M. stated that in this instance,
``dispensing'' means providing or prescribing. Tr. 194. But see
supra note 3. The Illinois Compiled Statutes defines ``dispense'' as
``the interpretation, evaluation, and implementation of a
prescription drug order, including the preparation and delivery of a
drug or device to a patient or patient's agent in a suitable
container appropriately labeled for subsequent administration to or
use by a patient in accordance with applicable State and federal
laws and regulations.'' 225 ILCS 85/3.
\17\ Tr. 622.
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Respondent further stated that at the time he knew that he had not
ordered anything from drug wholesalers for many years and therefore had
not dispensed anything, and that he did not recall that he had made a
controlled substances log for 2003, which included three entries and
had been stored in his sample cabinet; later that evening he realized
his error and notified his attorney, who in turn notified Investigator
D.M. and produced the log that included three entries for 2003. [Tr.
622, RX 2]
2. Respondent's Dispensing of Dronabinol
D.S. was a Chicago police officer who tested positive for
tetrahydrocannabinol \18\ (THC) after a random drug test performed by
the Chicago Police Department on July 24, 2003. [Tr. 163] At Officer
D.S.'s subsequent police board hearing on August 10, 2004, Respondent
testified that he treated Officer D.S. on July 21, 2003, at
Respondent's office and gave him eight 10-milligram gelatin capsules of
Marinol \19\ to control nausea and vomiting; that he did not write a
prescription for Marinol for Officer D.S. but gave him ``samples'' of
the drug that he had in his office; \20\ [GX 5 at 98] that it is his
practice to ask patients to give him their unused medications, so that
he can ``recycle'' them ``as much as I possibly can''; \21\ [GX 6 at
146] and that when he receives medications from patients, he puts the
medication in a bottle, labels it, and stores it, but does not keep a
record of which patient provided the medication. [GX 6 at145]
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
\18\ THC is a Schedule I controlled substance.
\19\ Marinol is a brand name product containing dronabinol, a
Schedule III controlled substance, the active ingredient of which is
a synthetic form of tetrahydrocannabinol, which naturally occurs in
the Schedule I controlled substance marijuana.
\20\ See GX 5 at 98.
\21\ GX 6 at 146.
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In a continuation of the police board hearing on October 13, 2004,
Respondent testified that the Marinol he gave to Officer D.S. was not a
manufacturing sample but came from another of Respondent's patients,
although Respondent had no record of who that patient was; [GX 6 at
144] when asked at the police board hearing which patient provided the
Marinol, Respondent replied that ``[i]t could be anyone of a number of
patients''; \22\ and that the Marinol ``probably came from either a
leukemia or lymphoma treatment patient * * * the other possibility is
this could have come from an AIDS patient.'' \23\ In response to a
question regarding the frequency with which he had prescribed or given
Marinol to patients, Respondent said: ``I have a number of patients
that use chemotherapeutic agents for lymphomas and malignancies,
leukemias. I also have a large number of AIDS patients
[[Page 53948]]
that I use Marinol for.'' \24\ Respondent then testified, however, that
he had prescribed or given samples of Marinol only a few times in the
last several years and that he had the Marinol in his office because it
might have come from a patient who obtained it pursuant to a
prescription from another doctor.
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
\22\ GX 6 at 144-145.
\23\ Id.
\24\ GX 6 at 146.
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
In the instant hearing, the Government entered into evidence
Respondent's medical record for Officer D.S., which indicates that
Respondent ``sampled'' Marinol 10 mg to Officer D.S. [GX 4] Respondent
testified that he both received and dispensed the Marinol in a plastic
pill case without a label but that he recognized the pills as Marinol
and used a picture in the Physician's Desk Reference (PDR) to verify
what the pill was. Respondent further testified that he remembered the
patient from whom he had received the Marinol because he had never
received Marinol from a patient before. [Tr. 767] Respondent entered
into evidence an affidavit dated May 2, 2008, and signed by a J.W.;
Respondent testified that Mr. J.W. was a former patient of his who had
AIDS.\25\ Mr. J.W.'s affidavit states that he was HIV positive; that
Respondent was one of several physicians who treated him; and that he
took Marinol to stimulate his appetite but because he did not like the
way it made him feel and he could not control its effects, he stopped
taking the Marinol and gave the remaining pills to Respondent. The
affidavit does not identify Mr. J.W.'s source for the Marinol but
states that the cost is high and that Mr. J.W. did not want to dispose
of the pills by flushing them down the toilet or putting them in the
garbage. [RX 17]
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
\25\ The affidavit is signed by a J.W.; there is no witness
signature and the document is not notarized.
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
Respondent testified that as of the date of the hearing he
understood that he was not authorized to acquire Marinol from a
patient, although he had not thought about it before, and that he was
not authorized to provide that Marinol to Officer D.S.. Respondent
further testified that he did not tell Officer D.S. that he had
acquired the Marinol from another patient rather than as a
manufacturing drug sample. [Tr. 765] Respondent further testified that
he did not keep any record of receipt of the Marinol because at the
time he thought that he was only required to maintain records of drugs
that he purchased.
3. Respondent's Response to the IDFPR Subpoenas
Investigator D.M. testified that the IDFPR Medical Disciplinary
Board issued to Respondent a Subpoena Duces Tecum dated June 15, 2005,
pursuant to the Illinois Medical Practice Act of 1997. [GX 10] The
subpoena commanded Respondent to surrender certain documents and
records concerning his treatment of ten individuals, identified on the
subpoena by name and date of birth. The documents were to be
surrendered on or before June 30, 2005, to one of two identified
individuals for inspection by the medical disciplinary board.
Investigator D.M. prepared and attached to the subpoena an
affidavit advising that, according to a profile received from the
Illinois Department of Human Services, [GX 28] Respondent issued
multiple prescriptions of OxyContin 80 mg to the ten individuals whose
records were requested, and that some of those individuals also were
identified as having received Dilaudid from Respondent in the 1994
investigation. The affidavit states that Respondent issued the
prescriptions in question between January 1, 2004, and April 2005, and,
specifically, that during this period Respondent issued 124
prescriptions for Schedule II controlled substances, 123 of which were
for 60 dosage units each of OxyContin 80 mg.
Investigator D.M. testified that in response to the subpoena,
Respondent's attorney provided records from which the names of the
individuals and the dates of treatment were redacted. [GX 3] Further,
Investigator D.M. stated that the documents provided indicated that one
patient had her records sent to a family doctor who agreed to continue
OxyContin and that Respondent did not have copies of those records, and
that after Respondent advised another patient that the Medical
Disciplinary Board had asked to review the patient's records, the
patient strongly objected to such a review and took the records, and
Respondent did not have copies of them. [Tr. 170]
Investigator D.M. further testified that on June 20, 2007, the
Medical Disciplinary Board issued a second subpoena to Respondent,
again requesting the medical records for the ten previously identified
individuals and requiring that no information other than the patient
identity be removed. [Tr. 171] Investigator D.M. testified that he did
not know whether Respondent had provided that information, [Tr. 311]
but that he had seen documents in the possession of an IDFPR attorney
that appeared to include the dates of treatment and other information
that had been previously redacted. [Tr. 175] Respondent testified that
he eventually complied with the subpoena after the remaining patients
gave him permission to provide copies of their records.\26\
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\26\ As evidence of his compliance with the subpoena, Respondent
admitted into evidence Respondent Ex. 1, which includes the first
page of multiple patient files that appear to have the patients'
names and dates of birth and dates of treatment redacted, although a
name is handwritten at the top of each page.
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4. Respondent's Issuance of OxyContin Prescriptions
Investigator D.M. testified that he met with Respondent in June
2005 at Respondent's office and that during that interview Respondent
said that he issued to chronic pain patients prescriptions for 60
OxyContin 80 mg and for Tylenol 3 or Tylenol 4,\27\ and that he
instructed the patients to take a half tablet of OxyContin twice a day.
Respondent further said that he used to prescribe Dilaudid 2 or 4 mg.
[Tr. 198] Investigator D.M. further testified that, at that meeting,
Respondent indicated that a number of his patients were employed at
Balmoral horse racing track and, when Investigator D.M. asked
Respondent whether any of the ten patients listed on the subpoena
discussed above knew one another, Respondent stated that two of the
patients, S.P. and C.G., worked at Balmoral. Respondent did not,
however, mention the relationships among I.S., E.M., and C.G., all of
whom were also identified on the subpoena and who, as discussed below,
shared a household. [Tr. 202] Respondent testified in the instant
hearing that he had a personal relationship with Ms. E.M. and went to
high school with her son, Mr. I.S.; Ms. C.G. was identified as Mr.
I.S.'s girlfriend. [Tr. 485]
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\27\ I take official notice from the 2007 edition of the
Physicians' Desk Reference that Tylenol 3 and Tylenol 4 are brand
names for products containing acetaminophen with codeine, a Schedule
III controlled substance.
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Investigator D.M. testified that he and Diversion Investigator C.R.
of the DEA's Chicago office interviewed Mr. I.S. in July 2005. Mr. I.S.
told them that he was on the board of directors for harness racing at
Balmoral Park; that approximately sixty percent of the employees there
had drug abuse and/or dependency problems; that he had sustained some
injuries from horse racing accidents; that he had been friends with
Respondent for about 25 or 30 years; that Respondent issued him
OxyContin prescriptions either at Respondent's office or when they met
for lunch; and that Respondent also
[[Page 53949]]
prescribed OxyContin for Mr. I.S.'s girlfriend, C.G., and his mother,
E.M., who both lived with him. [Tr. 212]
Investigator D.M. testified that at the July 2005 interview, Mr.
I.S. showed him OxyContin vials for Ms. E.M., Ms. C.G., and himself,
all of which indicated that they had contained 60 dosage units of 80 mg
strength and that Respondent issued the prescriptions. The label had
been removed from Mr. I.S.'s vial; he explained that it could be
embarrassing for anyone, particularly at the race track, to know that
he was taking OxyContin inasmuch as he was promoting a program to help
people at the track who might have addiction problems. Mr. I.S. further
told the investigators that he had helped to create rules regarding
drug use in both humans and horses; and that he did not think that he
was abusing the medication because he was able to function and he did
not have needle marks, which he said would be a sign of an addict. [Tr.
224]
Mr. I.S. testified in the instant hearing, however, that he removed
the label from his OxyContin bottle so that ``the kids wouldn't know
what was in the bottles''; \28\ [Tr. 721] he received his pain
medication from Respondent, whose office was one hour and 25 minutes
away from Mr. I.S.'s residence, [Tr. 722] and that ``if I couldn't get
my pain medication from [Respondent], then I would get medication
wherever I could if I had to, but I don't recall even having to.'' \29\
Mr. I.S. then testified that ``there was a time when [Respondent] was
having a problem with the DEA, and I couldn't get my medication, and at
that time when I was getting medication whatever way I could, and I
went to another doctor once''; \30\ and before Ms. E.M. began getting
the OxyContin prescriptions, he ``would take her to the doctors and I
would take her to a clinic'' and ``[y]ou only had to look at my mother
and write her something right away, because she was crippled.'' \31\
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\28\ Tr. 720
\29\ Tr. 715.
\30\ Tr. 715.
\31\ Tr. 716.
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D. E.M.
1. E.M.'s Medical Conditions
Investigator D.M. testified that he interviewed Mr. I.S. again in
August 2005 at Mr. I.S.'s home. Investigator D.M. testified that Mr.
I.S. advised him that Ms. E.M. had recently suffered a stroke and had
been hospitalized at St. Mary's Hospital and treated by V.P., M.D.;
[Tr. 226] that Respondent was Ms. E.M.'s primary physician prior to her
admission to St. Mary's Hospital and that S.D., M.D., treated Ms. E.M.
while she was at a senior care center. [Tr. 312] Mr. I.S. showed
Investigator D.M. prescriptions that Respondent had issued to Ms. E.M.
for various medications, including Plavix, Micardis, Prevacid, aspirin,
Lipitor, nitroglycerin patches, Remeron, Toprol, and Vicodin \32\ which
Mr. I.S. typically filled near his home at a pharmacy called Doc's
Drugs. Mr. I.S. stated that after the stroke Ms. E.M. had difficulty
getting around and was responding to stimuli differently than before
and was no longer doing household chores.
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\32\ Lipitor is a brand name product containing atorvastatin
calcium, a non-controlled substance and synthetic lipid-lowering
agent. I take official notice of the following information from the
2007 edition of the Physicians' Desk Reference: Plavix is a brand
name product containing clopidogrel bisulfate, a non-controlled
substance and inhibitor of platelet aggregation that helps protect
against future heart attack or stroke; Micardis is a brand name
product containing telmisartan, a non-controlled substance that is a
nonpeptide name product containing lansoprazole, a non-controlled
substance, the active ingredient of which is a compound that
inhibits gastric acid secretion, typically prescribed to treat and
prevent stomach and intestinal ulcers; nitroglycerin patches contain
an organic nitrate, a non-controlled substance, that helps prevent
chronic chest pain caused by heart disease; Remeron is a brand name
product containing mirtazapine, a non-controlled substance and
tetracyclic antidepressant used primarily in the treatment of
depression; Toprol is a brand name product containing metoprolol
succinate, a noncontrolled substance that is indicated for the
treatment of hypertension; and Vicodin is a brand name drug
containing hydrocodone bitartrate, a Schedule III controlled
substance, and acetaminophen, and is indicated for the relief of
moderate to moderately severe pain.
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Dr. S.D., an internal medicine physician experienced in treating
geriatric patients and in the medical use of controlled substances,
testified that Ms. E.M. suffered from medical problems such as
tachycardia (an irregular heartbeat), lower back pain, arthritis in
multiple joints, and dementia; [Tr. 79] he also noted that Ms. E.M. had
kyphoscoliosis, which he said was not uncommon for a patient of Ms.
E.M.'s age, and often occurs after a person develops osteoporosis; and
that she had been admitted to the hospital at various times for such
ailments as urinary tract infection, pneumonia, chest pain, and
possible seizure disorder. C.K., a licensed practical nurse
specializing in geriatrics and end-of-life care and employed by Hospice
of Kankakee Valley (Kankakee Hospice), testified that when Ms. E.M. was
admitted to Kankakee Hospice, she suffered from ``adult failure to
thrive,'' \33\ arthritis, a steel rod in her right arm, a hump in her
back, and some dementia, as indicated by her difficulty remembering
people, including her son whom she confused with her husband.
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\33\ Tr. 34.
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Respondent testified that Ms. E.M. suffered from vascular dementia,
known as Binswanger's disease, which he characterized as a small vessel
disease of the white matter; and benign myalgic encephalomyelitis,
which causes fatigue, bowel disorders, and cognitive deficits.
Respondent testified that because of the dysfunction of the white
matter in the brain, Ms. E.M. found it difficult to walk and perform
organizational tasks. [Tr. 480] Mr. I.S. testified that Ms. E.M.'s
problems of loss of memory and failure to recognize her family were
caused by and occurred only when Ms. E.M. was taking certain
medication. [Tr. 725]
Respondent testified that he treated Ms. E.M. ``in concert with the
whole patient''; \34\ that diabetes affects every organ in the body and
causes kidney failure, high blood pressure, coronary disease,
peripheral artery disease, and cerebral vascular disease; [Tr. 472] and
that Ms. E.M. suffered a series of transient ischemic attacks (TIAs), a
closing of a small blood vessel in the brain, around 2004, and had
elevated blood sugar levels. Respondent testified that all of these
factors taken together led him to ``try everything that I could to
reverse the arterial sclerosis in the carotid arteries.'' \35\
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\34\ Tr. 472.
\35\ Tr. 486.
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Respondent testified that he prescribed to Ms. E.M. a combination
of high-dosage drugs, including Actos \36\ and Metformin,\37\ to shut
down her body's glucose production and to re-sensitize the peripheral
resistance to insulin, Lipitor to reverse the arterial sclerotic
changes in the neck, and Lycinapro, Morvasc, and Zetia [Tr. 477] with
Metformin to open up her arteries, all of which was part of an anti-
inflammatory treatment to stop the progression of her carotid artery
disease. [Tr. 600] Dr. S.D., however, testified that if Ms. E.M. had
the blood sugar and glycosulated hemoglobin levels Respondent
described, it would not have been necessary to medicate her for
diabetes, and that the proper treatment would have been to try to
control the condition with diet. Dr. S.D. testified that he has never
prescribed Actos or Metformin for ``off-label'' use; and that in his
opinion, Actos and Metformin
[[Page 53950]]
have no use other than to treat diabetes. [Tr. 133]
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\36\ See RX 22. Actos is a brand name product containing
pioglitazone hydrochloride, a non-controlled substance, and is an
oral antidiabetic agent that acts primarily by decreasing insulin
resistance. [GX 40]
\37\ I take official notice that Metformin is a non-controlled
substance.
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Investigator R. testified that she visited the Kankakee Hospice
central office on April 30, 2009, [Tr. 354] where she spoke to
Executive Director D.L., Patient Care Coordinator P.L., C.K., and C.D.,
another nurse who treated Ms. E.M. Investigator R. testified that none
of the people she interviewed had any knowledge of Ms. E.M. ever having
diabetes [Tr. 355] and there was no record of Ms. E.M. receiving
medication such as Actos and Metformin. [Tr. 356] Investigator R. also
obtained from Doc's Drugs pharmacist E.U. a prescription profile
listing all the prescriptions issued to Ms. E.M. and filled at that
pharmacy from January 1, 2006, through August 29, 2008, [Tr. 347] that
indicates that Respondent wrote prescriptions for Ms. E.M. for Actos,
Metformin, Lipitor, Plavix, and Zetia.\38\ Dr. S.D. testified that a
home health nurse caring for Ms. E.M. once asked him about giving Ms.
E.M. Coumadin and Plavix, both blood thinners, but he advised that Ms.
E.M. should not take either drug because she had suffered multiple
falls and those medications increased the danger of bleeding in the
brain.
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\38\ Zetia is a brand name product containing ezetimibe, a non-
controlled substance that inhibits the intestinal absorption of
cholesterol. [RX 36]
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Dr. S.D. testified that he told the nurse that Ms. E.M. should just
continue taking aspirin. [Tr. 87]
2. E.M.'s Treating Physicians
Respondent testified that he began treating Ms. E.M. around 2003,
when she was approximately 92 years old, and that he had ``a lot
invested in E.M.,'' \39\ with whom he had had a personal relationship
since he attended high school with Mr. I.S. [Tr. 485] Mr. I.S.
testified that the hospice to which Ms. E.M. was admitted only allowed
patients to use the hospice doctors; that hospice personnel told him
that the only doctor Ms. E.M. could have was Dr. S.D.,\40\ [Tr. 661]
and that he nonetheless admitted his mother to hospice care because he
needed someone to care for her and he could not afford financially to
provide that care himself. Mr. I.S. further testified that Dr. S.D. was
``strictly a hospice doctor that she saw whenever she was admitted to
the hospital, and he helped her get into hospice''; that Respondent was
Ms. E.M.'s primary doctor, [Tr. 677] and that if another physician
prescribed something for Ms. E.M., Mr. I.S. would discuss the issue
with Respondent and follow his advice as to