Robert L. Dougherty, M.D.; Denial of Application, 16823-16835 [2011-7014]
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Federal Register / Vol. 76, No. 58 / Friday, March 25, 2011 / Notices
A. Bergman, M.D., 70 FR 33,193 (DEA
2005) (denying respondent’s request for
temporary suspension and granting
motion for summary disposition where
respondent lacked state authority); see
also Roy Chi Lung, 74 FR 20,346, 20,346
(DEA 2009) (‘‘Respondent * * * lack[s]
authority to handle controlled
substances in California * * *
Respondent is therefore not entitled to
maintain his DEA registration.’’)
(emphasis supplied); Sheran Arden
Yeates, M.D., 71 FR 39,130, 39,131 (DEA
2006) (‘‘DEA does not have statutory
authority under the Controlled
Substances Act to maintain a
registration if the registrant is without
state authority to handle controlled
substances in the state in which he
practices.’’). See generally 21 CFR
1301.01(17) (2010) (defining ‘‘individual
practitioner’’ as a person, other than a
pharmacist, pharmacy or institutional
practitioner, possessing state authority
to dispense a controlled substance in
the course of a professional practice).
Under the circumstances discussed
above, I conclude that further delay in
ruling on the Government’s Motion for
Summary Disposition is not warranted.
Recommended Decision
I grant the Government’s motion for
summary disposition and recommend
that Respondent’s DEA COR BS5109889
be revoked and any pending
applications denied.
Dated: November 2, 2010
Timothy D. Wing,
Administrative Law Judge.
[FR Doc. 2011–7016 Filed 3–24–11; 8:45 am]
BILLING CODE 4410–09–P
DEPARTMENT OF JUSTICE
Drug Enforcement Administration
[Docket No. 09–35]
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Robert L. Dougherty, M.D.; Denial of
Application
On March 16, 2009, the Deputy
Assistant Administrator, Office of
Diversion Control, Drug Enforcement
Administration, issued an Order to
Show Cause to Robert L. Dougherty,
M.D. (Respondent), of Poway,
California. ALJ Ex. 1. The Show Cause
Order proposed the denial of
Respondent’s pending application for a
DEA Certificate of Registration as a
practitioner, on the ground that his
‘‘registration would be inconsistent with
the public interest, as that term is used
in 21 U.S.C. 823(f).’’ Id. at 1.
The Show Cause Order alleged that on
October 27, 1995, the DEA Deputy
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Administrator (DA) issued a Final Order
revoking Respondent’s registration
based on his prescribing of controlled
substances to three patients. Id. (citing
60 FR 55047). More specifically, the
Show Cause Order alleged that the DA
had ‘‘found that [Respondent’s]
prescribing of controlled substances to
Patient #1 ‘on demand,’ ‘virtually upon
request,’ with ‘virtually no scrutiny’ and
with ‘virtually no records or monitoring’
demonstrated a gross lack of judgment
and showed that some of the
prescriptions issued were outside the
course of professional practice.’’ Id.
With regard to Patient #2, the Show
Cause Order alleged that the DA ‘‘found
that * * * Respondent’s prescribing of
controlled substances to an admitted
drug abuser showed a disregard of the
requirements for detailed attention to
individual patient behavior necessary
for the dispensing of controlled
substances.’’ Id. With regard to Patient
#3, the Show Cause Order alleged that
the DA found that Respondent’s
‘‘prescribing of an excessive number of
refills of controlled substances over a
six month period, without requiring a
clinical examination or visit,
demonstrated a reckless disregard for
medical standards in dispensing
controlled substances and violations of
Federal regulations and state law[,]’’ and
that he ‘‘had violated Federal and state
record-keeping requirements for
controlled substances.’’ Id.
Finally, the Show Cause Order alleged
that on June 25, 1997, the Medical
Board of California (MBC) issued a
decision which ‘‘severely criticized
[Respondent’s] treatment of [P]atient
#1.’’ Id. The Order alleged that the MBC
had found that Respondent ‘‘had
engaged in repeated negligent acts and
had demonstrated incompetence in [his]
treatment of the patient[,]’’ and that
‘‘[t]his misconduct included prescribing
controlled substances to an obvious
drug addict.’’ Id. at 1–2.
Respondent requested a hearing on
the allegations, and the matter was
placed on the docket of the Agency’s
Administrative Law Judges (ALJ).
Following pre-hearing procedures, on
March 10, 2010, an ALJ conducted a
hearing on the matter in San Diego,
California, at which both parties called
witnesses to testify and the Government
introduced documentary evidence.
Thereafter, both parties filed briefs
containing their proposed findings of
fact, conclusions of law, and argument.
On June 9, 2010, the ALJ issued her
recommended decision (also ALJ).
Therein, the ALJ found that the
Government had ‘‘met its prima facie
burden.’’ ALJ at 22. However, the ALJ
reasoned that all of the facts and
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circumstances should be considered
including that Respondent’s ‘‘mistakes’’
involved only ‘‘a very small portion of
his patients,’’ that one of the patients
was a relative who has since died and
that this ‘‘decreases the likelihood that
similar circumstances would reoccur,’’
and that Respondent’s ‘‘mis-judgments
were well intentioned.’’ Id. at 22–24.
Next, the ALJ reasoned that ‘‘there was
controversy in the medical community
with regards to his prescribing practices,
and that his methods have since been
adopted by the FDA, though not
necessarily DEA,’’ and that his
prescribing methods, while ‘‘found to be
objectionable over ten years ago * * *
may, according to the record, arguably
not be objectionable now.’’ Id. at 24. The
ALJ thus concluded that ‘‘the
circumstances surrounding his
prescribing practices have changed.’’ Id.
Finally, the ALJ noted that in the 1995
Final Order, the Agency had made four
summarized findings.1 Id. at 25. While
the ALJ noted that Respondent did not
‘‘completely acknowledge his past
problems with refill practices with
regards to Patient #2,’’ she found it
relevant that the ALJ who conducted the
earlier hearing had ‘‘recognized
discrepancies in the Government’s
evidence relating to how many refills
were actually authorized.’’ Id. With
respect to the Agency’s finding that
Respondent failed ‘‘to act in a timely
manner upon, and to take responsibility
for, receipt of information given to him
or to his staff concerning the forged
prescriptions of Patient #3,’’ the ALJ
reasoned that ‘‘the record demonstrates
that [he] received information about
possibly forged prescriptions, made
inquiries, questioned the patient, was
deceived, and ultimately stopped
prescribing to the patient.’’ Id. at 26.
Finally, with respect to Patient #1, the
ALJ characterized the Agency’s finding
as that he had maintained an
‘‘inadequate treatment record.’’ Id. at 26.
Reasoning that ‘‘[t]here is no question
that the Respondent demonstrated
remorse with regards to his recordkeeping,’’ and that the ‘‘DA’s
summarized findings focused on recordkeeping,’’ the ALJ concluded that
1 As the basis for rejecting the ALJ’s
recommended sanction of a one-year suspension
and revoking Respondent’s registration, the DA
cited four findings: (1) Respondent’s ‘‘failure to
acknowledge the need for adequate recordkeeping
to insure [sic] that controlled substances are not
diverted’’; (2) his ‘‘lack of remorse concerning his
* * * unlawful recordkeeping and refill practices’’;
(3) his ‘‘failure to act in a timely manner upon, and
to take responsibility for, receipt of information
given him or to his staff concerning the forged
prescriptions of Patient #3’’; and (4) his ‘‘lack of
acknowledgement that the inadequate treatment
record of Patient #1 could have ultimately
jeopardized that patient’s welfare.’’ 60 FR at 55051.
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Respondent had generally accepted
responsibility.2 Id.
The ALJ thus concluded that while
she did not ‘‘condone or minimize the
seriousness of * * * Respondent’s prior
misconduct[,] * * * the circumstances,
which existed at the time of the prior
proceeding, have changed sufficiently to
support a conclusion that Respondent’s
registration would be in the public
interest.’’ Id. at 28. While acknowledging
that ‘‘Respondent failed to express
remorse for the entirety of his
prescribing practices,’’ she
recommended that I grant him a
restricted registration. Id.
Thereafter, the Government filed
Exceptions to the ALJ’s recommended
decisions. The record was then
forwarded to me for Final Agency
Action.
Having considered the record as a
whole (including the ALJ’s
recommended decision), I agree with
the ALJ’s finding that the Government
established a prima facie case to deny
Respondent’s application. However, I
reject the ALJ’s finding that Respondent
has successfully rebutted the
Government’s prima facie case and will
deny his application. As ultimate fact
finder, I make the following findings of
fact.
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Findings
Respondent is a physician licensed by
the Medical Board of California, GX 1,
at 2. Respondent, who has been licensed
since 1957, is board certified in Family
Practice. Tr. 89. Respondent has taught
pain management to Army hospital
corpsmen as well as to U.S. Park
Rangers, and served at two MASH
hospitals in Korea. Id. at 90–91, 97.
The First DEA Proceeding
Respondent previously held a DEA
Certificate of Registration as a
practitioner. Robert L. Dougherty, Jr.,
M.D., 60 FR 55047 (1995) (GX 7).
However, on July 29, 1993, the Deputy
Assistant Administrator, Office of
Diversion Control, issued an Order to
Show Cause which proposed the
revocation of the registration he then
held based on five separate allegations.
Id. Respondent requested a hearing, and
in July 1994, an Agency ALJ conducted
a four-day hearing at which Respondent
was represented by counsel and at
which he testified and introduced
documentary evidence. Id. Following
the hearing, Respondent (and the
Government) submitted briefs
containing proposed findings of fact,
conclusions of law, and argument. Id.
Thereafter, the ALJ issued his decision,
which found most of the allegations
proved and recommended that
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Respondent’s registration be suspended
for a period of one year. Id. The
Government filed Exceptions and
Respondent filed a Response to the
Government’s Exceptions. Id. The
record was then forwarded to the DA,
who, on October 27, 1995, issued the
Agency’s Decision and Final Order
which contained extensive factual
findings. Id.
With respect to Patient #1, the DA
credited the testimony of an expert in
pain management who concluded that
while Respondent’s initial treatment of
the patient was medically appropriate,
‘‘after Patient #1 moved into the
Respondent’s home in early 1990, the
notations in his chart became sporadic,
ending on December 3, 1991.’’ 60 FR at
55048. Based on the Expert’s testimony,
the DA further found that ‘‘Respondent’s
standard of care as to Patient #1, to
include a lack of a medical record
showing [his] treatment, and the
excessive amounts of prescribed
medication between January 1990 and
February 1992, ‘fell below community
standards for the average physician.’ ’’
Id. However, the DA also found ‘‘that the
evidence ‘does not support that the
doctor was prescribing for an
illegitimate purpose,’ or that ‘he was
doing something dishonest,’ but rather
that such prescribing was not
‘appropriate treatment’ in this case.’’ Id.
With respect to Patient #1, the DA
further noted Respondent’s testimony
that ‘‘he altered his patient record
practices in the case of Patient #1 after
he moved into his home because he now
saw him regularly and was able to
closely observe him on a daily basis.’’ Id.
Respondent also conceded that he had
provided samples of Xanax to Patient
#1, but did not record doing so in his
chart. Id. Respondent further admitted
that he had prescribed schedule II drugs
between April 1991 and March 1992,
but generally did not record this in his
chart. Id.
Finally, the DA found ‘‘that from midDecember 1991 to April 1992, Patient
#1’’ would visit Respondent’s office ‘‘to
pick up prescriptions’’ but ‘‘‘rarely ever’
went into an examination room,’’ and
that ‘‘he would often call the
Respondent’s office and leave a message
telling the Respondent what controlled
substances to bring home.’’ Id. The DA
again credited the Expert’s testimony
that ‘‘such patient and physician
behavior concerned him, because the
patient’s demands seemed to replace the
physician’s judgment.’’ Id.
Concluding that Respondent
dispensed to Patient #1 ‘‘on demand,
virtually upon request, with virtually no
security, and with virtually no records
or monitoring in the early 1990s,’’ as
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well as that it was his ‘‘practice of giving
Patient #1 Xanax samples without
documenting’’ this in his chart, the DA
adopted the ALJ’s conclusion that
‘‘Respondent’s prescribing and
dispensing to Patient #1 was ‘outside
the context of the Respondent’s usual
professional practice.’ ’’ Id. at 55049.
With respect to Patient #2, the DA
found that ‘‘[o]n October 24, 1990, the
Respondent issued [her] an original
prescription for 30 dosage units of
Vicodin, [that] he saw this patient again
on November 14, 1990, and although
[he] did not see this patient again until
May 1, 1991, he authorized more than
twenty refills from the October 24, 1990,
prescription for Vicodin,’’ the latter
being a schedule III controlled
substance. Id. at 55048. The DA also
found that on October 24, 1990,
Respondent ‘‘issued Patient #2 an
original prescription for Darvocet-N 100
* * * and between that date and May
1, 1991, he authorized more than twenty
refills of Darvocet, a medication
containing propoxyphene napsylate, a
Schedule IV controlled substance.’’ Id.
The DA thus concluded that ‘‘the
excessive number of refills [Respondent]
provided Patient #2 over a six-month
period of time without requiring a
clinical examination or visit,
demonstrates a reckless disregard for
medical standards in dispensing
controlled substances.’’ Id. at 55049.
Based on his finding that between
October 24, 1990 and May 1, 1991,
Respondent had authorized original
prescriptions for both Vicodin and
Darvocet-N, as well as more than twenty
refills for each drug, the DA also
concluded that Respondent had violated
21 CFR 1306.22(a), which prohibited
(then as now) both the filling or refilling
of a prescription for a schedule III or IV
controlled substance ‘‘more than six
months after the date on which such
prescription was issued,’’ as well as the
refilling of a prescription ‘‘more than
five times’’ during this period, after
which a new prescription must be
issued. Id. at 55050. The DA also
concluded that Respondent violated Cal.
Health and Safety Code § 11200, which
provided that ‘‘[n]o person shall
dispense or refill a controlled substance
prescription more than six months after
the date thereof or cause a prescription
for a Schedule III or IV substance to be
refilled in an amount in excess of a 120
day supply, unless renewed by the
prescriber.’’ Id.
As for Patient #3, the DA found that
Respondent and the Government had
stipulated that Patient #3 had forged
prescriptions under Respondent’s name
on seven different dates between
February 3 and April 21, 1992, resulting
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in ‘‘a total of 396 dosage units of Lortab,’’
a schedule III controlled substance,
being dispensed to Patient #3. Id. at
55049. The DA also found that
Respondent was notified that Patient #3
was forging prescriptions on at least
three occasions between January 1990
and April 1992. Id. These included: (1)
A January 1990 incident in which ‘‘a
pharmacist contacted the Respondent’s
office about a forged prescription from
Patient #3,’’ (2) a February 6, 1992 letter
‘‘written to * * * Respondent informing
him of a suspicious prescription written
to Patient #3 despite Respondent’s
office’s verification of the prescriptions
which the pharmacist had filled,’’ and
(3) another pharmacist notifying
Respondent in April 1992 ‘‘about forged
prescriptions for a controlled substance
for Patient #3.’’ Id. The DA found that
notwithstanding that Respondent had
received this information, he
‘‘authorized the refills and continued to
prescribe Lortab for Patient #3.’’ Id.
The DA also found that Patient #3 had
stated during an interview that ‘‘he had
been a patient of the Respondent’s from
July 1990 to about June 1992, that he
had told the Respondent of his past drug
addiction problems, but that the
Respondent continued to prescribe
Lortab’’ to him. Id. Patient #3 ‘‘also
stated that the Respondent talked to him
about forged prescriptions, that he had
denied forging the prescriptions, but
that the Respondent had told him that
he did not believe his denial. However,
the Respondent continued prescribing
Lortab even after this conversation.’’ Id.
Patient #3 further ‘‘stated that in June
1992 he stopped receiving treatment
from the Respondent and that he went
into a rehabilitation treatment center for
90 days to overcome his addiction to
Lortab.’’ Id.
The DA noted Respondent’s
testimony that ‘‘he believed Patient #3
had valid complaints of pain stemming
from a history of back pain, that he
never received a copy of a forged
prescription regarding Patient #3, [and]
that he did not see such a copy until
June 1992, when he then realized
Patient #3 had been deceiving him.’’ Id.
The DA also noted the Expert’s opinion
that ‘‘Respondent’s prescribing practices
were excessive with poor
documentation of the need for those
narcotics, [and] demonstrate[d] a lack of
usual care and precaution in dealing
with these kinds of prescriptions.’’ Id.
The DA concluded that ‘‘the
dispensing of a controlled substance in
the quantities prescribed to Patient #3,
a patient known to the Respondent as an
admitted drug abuser, even after
receiving warnings of forged
prescriptions, demonstrates at least a
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lack of precaution, and more probably a
disregard of the requirements for
detailed attention to individual patient
behavior necessary for the dispensing of
controlled substances.’’ Id. The DA
further observed that this ‘‘create[d]
grave doubt as to * * * Respondent’s
prescription practices to known drug
abusers,’’ and that while Respondent
had been warned about Patient #3’s
conduct, there was no evidence that he
had ‘‘ceased prescribing controlled
substances to this patient until he
obtained and documented accurate
information about the amounts of such
substances actually received by Patient
#3 through the use of these forged
prescriptions.’’ Id. at 55051.
In addition, the DA found that
Respondent had violated various
recordkeeping requirements of both
Federal and State law. Id. at 55050.
These included 21 U.S.C. 827(a)(3),
which requires that ‘‘every registrant
* * * dispensing a controlled substance
or substances shall maintain, on a
current basis, a complete and accurate
record of each substance * * *
received, sold, delivered, or otherwise
disposed of by him’’; and subsection
827(b), which requires that records
‘‘contain such relevant information as
may be required by, regulations of the
Attorney General,’’ that the records for
narcotics ‘‘be maintained separately
from all other records of the registrant’’
and those for non-narcotic controlled
substances ‘‘be in such form that
information required by the Attorney
General is readily retrievable from the
ordinary business records of the
registrant’’; and that records ‘‘be
available for at least two years, for
inspection and copying by officers or
employees of the United States
authorized by the Attorney General.’’ 21
U.S.C. 827(b) (quoted at 60 FR 55050)
(also citing 21 CFR 1304.04(a) and
1304.24; Cal. Health and Safety Code
§§ 11190–92).3 In addition, the DA
found that between April 16 and July
23, 1990, Respondent had ordered
Demerol and morphine on ten
occasions, which are schedule II
controlled substances, from a local
pharmacy, but on April 24, 1992, he
‘‘was unable or unwilling to produce’’
the DEA Order Forms, even though
under Federal regulations he was
2 The ALJ also observed that the MBC’s decision,
which found that Respondent’s prescribing to
Patient #1 showed ‘‘a ‘pattern of excess’ resulting in
‘irrational polypharmacy,’ * * * also states [that]:
‘[t]he most powerful tool in reducing polypharmacy
is an accurate medical record. It is thus easy to see
why the out of control polypharmacy [] existed.’ ’’
ALJ at 26 (citation omitted). The ALJ thus reasoned
that these statements ‘‘reflect primarily on the
Respondent’s past-poor record-keeping[,]’’ for which
he had demonstrated remorse. Id.
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required to maintain these forms
‘‘separately from all other records’’ and
to keep them ‘‘available for inspection
for a period of 2 years.’’ 60 FR at 55050.
Summarizing his findings, the DA
concluded that Respondent had shown
‘‘a blatant disregard for statutory
provisions’’ which exist ‘‘to prevent the
diversion of controlled substances to
unauthorized individuals.’’ Id.
Finally, the DA found (again based on
the Expert’s testimony) that Respondent
had failed ‘‘to maintain accurate,
current, and complete patient treatment
records’’ for all three patients. Id. This
was deemed actionable as ‘‘such other
conduct which may threaten the public
health or safety’’ (factor five), because if
‘‘Respondent suddenly fell ill, [the]
treatment [of his patients by another
physician] could be seriously impaired
by * * * Respondent’s shoddy
documentation.’’ Id. at 55050–51
(citation omitted).
The Medical Board Proceeding
On dates not established in the
record, the MBC filed an Accusation, as
well two Supplemental Accusations
against Respondent. GX 8, at 3. The
Accusation charged, inter alia, that he
had violated California law by engaging
in ‘‘repeated acts of clearly excessive
prescribing,’’ as well as that he had
‘‘dispen[sed] or furnish[ed] * * *
dangerous drugs without a good-faith
prior examination and medical
indication therefor.’’ Id. at 3 (citing Cal.
Bus. & Prof. Code §§ 725, 4211). The
Accusation also charged Respondent
with violating state record-keeping
requirements for schedule II controlled
substances, id. (citing Cal. Health &
Safety Code § 11190), as well having
violated ‘‘various sections of Federal
law, contained in the Code of Federal
Regulations (CFR) relating to dispensing
controlled substances.’’ Id. All of the
charges involved Respondent’s
‘‘administration of certain drugs’’ to
Patient #1. Id. at 4.
In May 1997, a State ALJ conducted
a hearing, which lasted seven days. Id.
at 2. In his Decision, the State ALJ made
extensive findings regarding
Respondent’s prescribing practices
between November 1991 and September
1995, which he characterized as ‘‘a
graphic illustration of a practice without
a plan’’ and as ‘‘a pattern of excess.’’ Id.
at 14–15. For example, the State ALJ
found that ‘‘[d]uring January 1992,
[R]espondent prescribed 360 Demerol
100 mg tablets, 200 Valium 10 mg
tablets, 500 Percocet tablets, and 220
Xanax 2 mg tablets’’ to Patient #1. Id. at
15.
As other examples, the State ALJ
found that between January and March
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1994, Respondent prescribed to Patient
#1: 672 Lorcet 10/650, 240 diazepam 10
mg, 56 Xanax 2 mg, 360 amitriptyline 50
mg, and 56 alprazolam 2 mg; and that
between January and March 1995, he
prescribed to Patient #1: 672 Lorcet 10/
650, 240 diazepam 10 mg, 720
amitriptyline 50 mg, 240 alprazolam 2
mg, and 90 Prelu-2 105 mg
(phendimetrazine). Id. The ALJ further
found that between July and September
1995, Respondent prescribed to Patient
#1: 784 Lorcet 10/650, 360 diazepam 10
mg, 720 amitriptyline 50 mg, 120
alprazolam 2 mg, and 90 Prelu-2 105
mg. Id. The ALJ also found that
Respondent maintained no medical
records on Patient #1 during 1993, and
that he had a total of ten chart notes on
him for the years 1994 through
1996.4 Id.
The State ALJ characterized
Respondent’s prescribing practices ‘‘as
irrational pharmacy,’’ further explaining
that ‘‘[p]olypharmacy is the prescription,
administration or use of more
medications than are clinically
indicated.’’ Id. at 16. While
acknowledging that Respondent
‘‘prescribed pain pills and the patient
had pain,’’ as well as that ‘‘the patient
was anxious and received anxiolytics,’’
the State ALJ observed that Patient #1
‘‘really ceased being treated in a fully
engaged professional manner long ago’’
as Respondent had ‘‘prescribed a
mixture of narcotic, anti-depressant,
anti-anxiety and anti-inflammatory
medications without any serious
attempt to discern efficacy, side effects
or synergy.’’ Id. at 15–16.
Noting that ‘‘[t]he most powerful tool
in reducing polypharmacy is an
accurate medical record,’’ the State ALJ
reasoned that it was ‘‘easy to see why
the out of control polypharmacy of the
1990’s existed.’’ Id. at 16. The ALJ
further found that ‘‘[t]otally absent from
[Respondent’s] care and treatment of
[Patient #1] was control, monitoring and
periodic assessment,’’ and that ‘‘[f]rom
1990 to 1996, almost all of [his]
prescribing to [Patient #1] took place in
the absence of a legitimate physical
examination.’’ Id.
The State ALJ made additional
findings based on the expert testimony
of a practitioner in pain management as
to the standard of care in treating a
chronic pain patient. Id. at 20–21. While
the State’s Expert testified ‘‘that it is not
necessarily a breach of the standard of
care to prescribe potent narcotic
analgesics to an addict,’’ he further
4 The State ALJ also made findings regarding
Respondent’s prescriptions to Patient #1 during the
months of November and December 1991, as well
as January through March 1993. See GX 8, at 14–
15.
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explained that ‘‘[h]ow a physician goes
about this and how such a plan is
monitored is the key to whether the
patient is engaged in improper drug
seeking behavior or properly receiving
medications for a medical condition.’’
Id. at 21.
The State’s Expert testified and the
ALJ found that ‘‘if a patient with serious
and legitimate back pain admits to
addiction to opioids,’’ the ‘‘treating
physician should always have a
psychiatrist or psychologist working
with him for adjunctive evaluation and
necessary treatment.’’ Id. at 21.
Moreover, ‘‘[t]he patient should be
required to sign a narcotic contract that
specifically spells out the terms and
conditions under which the physician
agrees to provide pain medication to the
patient and what is expected from the
patient in return.’’ Id. The ALJ further
found that ‘‘[t]he physician should
explore other [treatment] modalities
besides narcotics’’ to see if they will
‘‘lessen the need for narcotics.’’ Id. While
acknowledging that narcotics may still
be necessary after trying other treatment
modalities, the Expert testified that ‘‘the
prescribing must be monitored
extremely closely [and] [t]here must be
very strict limitations placed on the
patient to discourage drug seeking
behavior.’’ Id.
The State ALJ found that the Expert
‘‘established that [R]espondent was
guilty of excessive prescribing to
[P]atient [#1] based on the extremely
large quantity of drugs prescribed, the
toxicity of the medications and the
absence of good faith examinations.’’ 5
Id. The State ALJ further found that
while Patient #1 ‘‘lived in pain,’’ ‘‘[t]he
evidence is overwhelming that [Patient
#1] abused prescription medication over
an extended period of time, that his
abuse was manifest and apparent to
those around him and that [R]espondent
could not have been ignorant of this.’’
Id. at 24. The State ALJ then noted that
while ‘‘[i]t appears that [R]espondent
was motivated by a desire to alleviate
[Patient #1’s] suffering,’’ Respondent
‘‘fail[ed] to acknowledge any errors.’’ Id.;
see also id. at 33 (Respondent ‘‘fails to
acknowledge any responsibility for any
5 The State’s Expert also identified five ‘‘examples
of gross negligence by [R]espondent’’ in his
prescribing to Patient #1.’’ Id. at 20–21. These
included that ‘‘the dose of [D]emerol * * * was
dangerous and potentially toxic,’’ ‘‘the dose of
acetaminophen,’’ which is contained in Lorcet, ‘‘was
very excessive and toxic to the patient’s liver,’’ ‘‘the
lack of record-keeping is virtually unheard of in
terms of this degree of prescribing,’’ ‘‘the lack of
monitoring given the patient’s condition and
history of substance abuse,’’ and ‘‘the lack of use of
other modalities besides narcotics to treat the
patient’s pain.’’ Id.
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of his actions. He blames others or
completely excuses his actions.’’).
The State ALJ thus found that
Respondent had violated numerous
provisions of both state and Federal law
including, inter alia, that ‘‘[h]e
prescribed medication without a good
faith examination and medical
indication,’’ that ‘‘he excessively
prescribed controlled substances,’’ and
that he had violated 21 CFR 1306.04(a),
which requires that ‘‘a prescription for a
controlled substance ‘must be [issued]
for a legitimate medical purpose by an
individual practitioner acting in the
usual course of his professional
practice.’ ’’ 6 Id. at 27–28 (citing Cal. Bus.
& Prof. Code § 2242, Cal. Health & Safety
Code § 11153, and 21 CFR 1306.04(a)).
The State ALJ further found that
Respondent had violated DEA
regulations requiring that he maintain a
biennial inventory of controlled
substances, that ‘‘he failed to maintain
all required DEA 222 order forms’’ for
schedule II controlled substances, and
that ‘‘he failed to maintain all required
controlled substances records.’’ Id.
(citing 21 CFR 1304.11–1304.13;
1305.03; 1305.13; 1304.21; 1304.24).
Thereafter, the MBC adopted the
ALJ’s decision. Id. at 1. Respondent’s
license was revoked, but the revocation
was stayed and he was placed on
probation for ten years. Id. at 35. In
addition, Respondent’s license was
suspended ‘‘for 180 days’’ and he was
ordered to take a course in prescribing
practices; he was also ordered to take an
additional Continuing Medical
Education course for each year of his
probation. Id.
Respondent testified that he
completed the probationary period
imposed by the MBC and did not have
any violations. Tr. 117–18. He further
maintained that he had ‘‘substantially’’
improved his charting practices. Id. at
118.
The Current Proceeding
At the hearing in this matter,
Respondent testified as both a witness
for the Government and himself. The
Government asked him a series of
questions regarding the findings of both
the 1995 DEA Final Order and the MBC.
With respect to Patient #1, the
Government asked Respondent whether
he agreed with the DA’s finding that his
dispensing of controlled substances
‘‘between January 1990 and February
1992, was highly irregular in the
medical profession and was excessive?’’
6 The State ALJ also found that Respondent had
committed unprofessional conduct under several
provisions of California law. GX 8, at 26–27.
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Tr. 15. Respondent answered: ‘‘No, I do
not.’’ Id.
Next, the Government asked
Respondent whether he agreed with the
DA’s finding that his management of
Patient #1 ‘‘demonstrated behavior such
that the patient’s demands seemed to
replace your judgment.’’ Tr. 15.
Respondent answered: ‘‘No, I do not.’’
The Government then asked
Respondent whether he agreed with the
DA’s finding that he ‘‘dispensed
controlled substances to Patient Number
1 basically on demand?’’ Tr. 16.
Respondent again answered: ‘‘No, I do
not.’’ Id. at 16.
Next, the Government asked
Respondent whether he agreed with the
DA’s finding that, during ‘‘the early
1990’s,’’ he had ‘‘dispensed controlled
substances to Patient Number 1 * * *
with virtually no records or
monitoring?’’ Id. at 17. Respondent
answered: ‘‘My records were far less
thorough than they should have been. I
know that now and in the future will be
much more cautious.’’ Id.
With respect to Patient #3, the
Government asked Respondent whether
he agreed with the DA’s finding that his
‘‘conduct in continuing to prescribe to
[him], despite his use of forged
prescriptions, showed a carelessness
inappropriate for continued
registration?’’ Id. at 17. Respondent
answered:
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In the first place, this was not what I would
call a forgery although it was close. What
happened was the patient got a reasonable
prescription from me, ran it through a copy
machine, took both prescriptions to
pharmacies so that both prescriptions looked
extremely genuine, and yet I know I’d only
written one. I don’t know if that is legally a
forgery or not, but it’s very similar to that.
* * * I did not think that it was a forgery.
Forgeries are usually very obvious to
pharmacists who are familiar with my
prescriptions and signature. So I was
blindsided on that. And I did subsequently
dismiss that patient from my practice when
there were increasing questions about what
was going on.
Id. at 17–18.
The Government then asked
Respondent if he agreed with the DA’s
‘‘finding that [he was] careless in
continuing to prescribe to * * * Patient
Number 3?’’ Id. at 18. Respondent
answered: ‘‘No, I do not, but I had not
seen the prescription that is now being
called a forgery until much later.’’ Id.
As a follow-up, the Government asked
Respondent if he agreed with the
finding that his ‘‘continued prescribing
to this patient showed more probably a
disregard of the requirements for
detailed attention to individual patient
behavior necessary for the dispensing of
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controlled substances?’’ Id. at 19.
Respondent answered:
I find that rather strange. I don’t know
what behavior is being referred to or conduct
at that point. Quite simply, the patient came
to me complaining of severe headaches,
appeared to be having severe headaches, and
was prescribed, but there became increasing
questions about some things that were going
on. And finally, I just terminated his
treatment.
Id.
With respect to Patient #2, the
Government noted the DA’s finding that
‘‘over a six-month period of time,
[Respondent’s] prescribed [an] excessive
number of refills [and] showed a
reckless disregard for medical standards
in dispensing controlled substances.’’ Id.
The Government then asked Respondent
whether he agreed that he ‘‘showed a
reckless disregard for medical standards
in dispensing controlled substances
with regard to Patient Number 2?’’ Id. at
19–20. Respondent answered: ‘‘No, I do
not.’’ Id. at 20.
Testifying on his own behalf
regarding Patient #2, Respondent stated
that he understood that he could not
‘‘legally write on the prescription itself
more than five refills.’’ Id. at 121. He
then testified: ‘‘I don’t think I ever did
write more than five [refills] on Ms. [J.]’’
Id.
The Government then objected that
Respondent’s counsel was trying to relitigate the findings as to Patient #2. Id.
Respondent’s counsel acknowledged
that this was ‘‘true,’’ stating that ‘‘I am
pointing out the discrepancy in the
ALJ’s findings versus the final
revocation order,’’ and that ‘‘[t]here are
discrepancies that I think that need to
be illuminated.’’ Id. at 121–22.
While the ALJ initially expressed the
opinion that Respondent was ‘‘trying to
revisit these facts which are facts that
have already been adjudicated,’’ id. at
122, Respondent’s counsel replied that
‘‘the conclusions [of the 1995 Order]
aren’t support by the facts, and the facts
are in the record,’’ and that his line of
questioning was only being done to
show that when Respondent answered
the Government’s questions by stating
‘‘that he disagreed with the conclusion,’’
this was ‘‘in fact, supported by the
record.’’ Id. The ALJ then agreed to
allow Respondent’s counsel to ask him
questions to clarify ‘‘why he disagree[d]
with the final order.’’ Id. at 123.
Next, Respondent’s counsel read a
portion of the prior DEA ALJ’s
recommended decision which noted
that there was ‘‘arguably * * *
conflicting evidence’’ as to whether
Respondent had issued more than five
refills to Patient #2 between November
14, 1990 and May 1, 1991. Id. at 125.
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Respondent’s counsel then asked
Respondent whether he ‘‘agree[d] that
the evidence that was presented and, in
fact, the footnote here that the judge
found conflicted with the conclusion
that you had violated the prescription
refill limits?’’ Id. at 126. After the
Government again objected that
Respondent’s counsel was trying to relitigate the findings of the earlier
proceeding, and before the ALJ ruled on
the objection, Respondent’s counsel
rephrased his question ‘‘as simply
asking is that the reason for your
disagreement with [the Government
counsel’s] question earlier?’’ Id.
Respondent answered:
The word ‘refill’ is perhaps ambiguous.
When I write a prescription for a patient with
an ongoing problem, * * * I would write in
the number of refills, if any, and that’s a
refill. On the other hand, if the patient calls
me back a month later and says I need this
medicine again, and I’m confident the patient
still has that symptom, that problem, I call
the pharmacy and say give Ms. Doe another
30 tablets or whatever. Legally, I think it’s a
new prescription. Some people would call it
a refill, but I don’t think that the refill thing
was intended to necessarily refer to
situations in which a doctor phones in what
the pharmacy considers a new prescription at
that point[.] * * * [W]hether I use the word
refill or say give the patient another 30
tablets, basically, it means I’ve considered
what to do, have hopefully a reason to do it,
and go on from there. And it’s technically, I
believe a new prescription. * * * Basically,
* * * I did not believe I was violating any
refill laws on this.
Id. at 127.
Next, Respondent’s counsel asked
him if he ‘‘remember[ed] what the * * *
main issue [was that] the Government
* * * had with Patient Number 3?’’ Id.
at 127–28. Respondent answered: ‘‘[t]he
problem with Patient Number 3 was that
there was a great deal of confusion from
a lot of parties. It was * * * not until
much later that I realized the problem.’’
Id. at 128. Following the Government’s
objection (again, on the ground that
Respondent was trying to re-litigate the
findings of the first proceeding), which
was overruled by the ALJ, Respondent
testified that:
There was a question about a pharmacy
that called me and said, ‘We’ve got a
prescription here, we think something is
wrong with it.’ And I of course, they knew
my signature and my handwriting, and I said,
‘Well, you know, I did give the patient a
prescription for this, I guess you might as
well fill it.’ What actually happened and
what * * * no one notices was that the
patient had taken my prescriptions, run it
through a copying machine, then used
scissors and cut it to size, * * * took it to
pharmacies, and each of them had what
looked like a genuine prescription. And
eventually, I got copies of both and sure
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enough, it was a photocopy so that I think
I was acting in innocence, and the
pharmacist was right when he thought
something was wrong with it, but it was not
a prescription that the patient forged. He
simply illegally copied a prescription.
Id. at 128–29.
Respondent was then asked whether
at some point, he had ceased his
relationship with Patient Number 3. Id.
at 129–30. Respondent answered:
Yes. There were too many suspicious
things. I can’t remember the details, but not
uncommonly a patient will say something
like ‘my dog ate my pills’ or whatever, rather
phony-sounding reason for wanting an [sic]
new prescription. And believe me, if
somebody drops a bottle in the bathroom, the
pills always fall in the toilet. I mean it’s just,
as a doctor, I’ve heard all these reasons, and
I am extremely suspicious, especially now. I
often, in fact, have the patient come into the
office so I can eyeball the squirming when I
start asking the embarrassing questions, so
that when these things started happening
with Mr. [F.], I finally said enough is enough,
no more, no more medical care.
Id. at 130.
Respondent’s counsel then asked him
‘‘[h]ow much time passed between
* * * this issue with regard to the
forgery and your ceasing the
relationship?’’ Id. Respondent answered
that he could not ‘‘remember the exact
dates’’ and that he had ‘‘no memory of
* * * what that time was.’’ Id. at 130–
31.
Respondent was then asked if ‘‘in any
way, shape, or form do you take
responsibility for * * * Patient Number
3 regarding the forged prescriptions?’’
Id. at 131. Respondent answered:
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I wrote a prescription, patient apparently
went to two pharmacies, and one of them
* * * they was [sic] alert enough to notice
that a ballpoint pen hadn’t indented it or
anything and simply called and said, ‘‘I think
I have a forged prescription.’’ And I simply
said * * * yes * * * ‘‘That’s what I wrote,
the quantity.’’ ‘‘You know my signature.’’
‘‘You might as well fill it, cause I did write
that prescription for the patient.’’ I didn’t
realize the patient had photocopied it and
* * * had taken it, presumably, [to] two
different places.
Id. at 132. Respondent then
maintained that if he had known the
prescription had been forged, he ‘‘would
not have done that,’’ but did not specify
what ‘‘that’’ was. Id.
Respondent further conceded that he
did not have the required bi-annual
inventory on hand because when he
first started practicing in 1959, he had
to take an inventory every year and mail
it in, but that after ‘‘the doctors of the
country were notified that they no
longer needed to mail the DEA an
inventory every two years, * * * we
mistakenly believed that we didn’t need
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to do the inventory either, because no
one would ever see it except ourselves
or an investigator. So I stopped making
an inventory. It was, I think, good faith.’’
Id. at 134–35. Respondent, however,
acknowledged that he had to keep an
inventory, receipts for any controlled
substances he obtained from drug
company representatives, and
dispensing records. Id. at 135–37.
The Government also asked
Respondent a series of questions
regarding the MBC’s Order. First, it
asked Respondent whether he agreed
with the Board’s finding that he was
‘‘guilty of unprofessional conduct in
[his] care and treatment of [Patient #1]
both in terms of [his] prescribing
practice and in terms of [his]
recordkeeping?’’ Tr. 21. Respondent
answered that he ‘‘agree[d] with the part
on recordkeeping,’’ but that ‘‘[o]n the
other things, I do not agree.’’ Id.
Respondent then explained that ‘‘[t]his
patient received textbook treatment in
accordance with standards of the
American Medical Association, and
shortly after, the FDA adopted policies
which indicated that [it] agreed with the
AMA.’’ Id. at 21–22.
The Government then asked
Respondent whether he agreed with the
Board’s finding that Patient #1 ‘‘was
making the only therapeutic decision
and that the patient was determining his
need for drugs?’’ Id. at 22. Respondent
answered: ‘‘No.’’ Id. Next, the
Government asked Respondent whether
he agreed with the Board’s finding that
‘‘serious monitoring [of Patient #1] was
non-existent?’’ Id. at 22–23. Respondent
answered: ‘‘I was obviously in a position
to observe him, that he was showing no
evidence of drug overdose or problems.
He was monitored but my
recordkeeping was inadequate, to say
the least.’’ Id. at 23.
Next, the Government asked
Respondent whether he agreed with the
Board’s finding that his prescribing
practices with respect Patient #1 ‘‘could
be characterized as irrational
polypharmacy?’’ Id. at 23. Respondent
answered: ‘‘No, I do not, and the reason
is that polypharmacy is, by definition,
irrational.’’ Id. Continuing, Respondent
explained ‘‘[t]o give more than one drug
to a patient when there is a reasonably
good reason for doing that is not
considered polypharmacy in the
medical profession, but it must be
rational and there must be a good reason
for using more than one drug in a class.’’
Id. at 24.
The Government then asked
Respondent whether he agreed with the
Board’s finding that his ‘‘prescribing
practices to [Patient #1] * * * made
little sense?’’ Id. Respondent answered:
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‘‘Again, this patient needed more than
one specific drug in his treatment
depending on whether the problem was
being awake and alert and reasonably
pain free during the daytime and also
something additional at night so that he
could sleep as well. I do not consider
that irrational or unreasonable.’’ Id. at
24–25.
Next, the Government asked whether
Respondent agreed with the Board’s
finding that ‘‘even though the drugs
were given for conditions that [Patient
#1] had, their manner of dispensing was
totally irrational?’’ Id. at 25. Respondent
answered: ‘‘No, I do not.’’ Id.
The Government then asked whether
he agreed with the Board’s finding that
he ‘‘committed acts of clearly excessive
prescribing or administering of drugs to’’
Patient #1? Id. at 26–27. Respondent
answered: ‘‘No.’’ Id. at 27; see also id. at
50.
The Government also asked
Respondent whether he agreed with the
Board’s finding that he ‘‘had violated
federal statutes and regulations
regulating dangerous drugs or controlled
substances?’’ Id. Respondent answered:
‘‘In terms of recordkeeping, there’s some
truth in it. In terms of following
accepted guidelines, including those of
the American Medical Association, and
they’re still the guidelines of the Food
and Drug Administration, although they
were adopted after that, indicate that the
treatment I gave was within national
standards.’’ Id.
Respondent further challenged the
State Expert’s finding that the doses of
Demerol he prescribed to Patient #1
were potentially toxic, contending that
there was uncertainty in medical texts
as to whether metabolites of the drug
accumulate and whether ‘‘they cause
any significant harm.’’ Id. at 36. He
testified that even today, there is still
controversy over the appropriate dosing
of Demerol, although not ‘‘as much
* * * as there used to be’’ because most
doctors are using oxycodone or
morphine to treat patients with severe
pain. Id. at 38.
Respondent also maintained that
Patient #1 had been ‘‘treated with all
sorts of things other than controlled
substances early in his course,’’ and that
‘‘the more potent medications and
narcotics were used only when the other
modalities failed.’’ Id. at 32. Respondent
asserted that he had tried antiinflammatories such as Aleve and
Naproxen with Patient #1 to no avail,
and that he had referred him to ‘‘a socalled pain clinic * * * at which they
tried everything,’’ including ‘‘extensive
physical therapy’’ but this ‘‘did not give
him any relief.’’ Id. at 52. While
Respondent admitted that he did not
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obtain any of the charts that the pain
clinic maintained on Patient #1, he
maintained that he was aware of what
modalities the clinic had tried because
‘‘they’re pretty much standard.’’ Id. at 53.
Respondent further testified that he
‘‘frequently’’ would not document the
use of non-prescription medicines
‘‘because it’s over-the-counter,’’ and thus
a physician reviewing his charts ‘‘could
not have seen necessarily everything
else that was tried.’’ Id. at 32. While
Respondent agreed that he needed to
closely monitor a patient, he admitted
that he did not write down every time
he saw Patient #1. Id. at 40. Respondent
testified that Patient #1 had lived with
him for a two-year period and that he
had observed him on a daily basis. Id.
at 42.
Respondent’s counsel also asked him
whether ‘‘a reasonable doctor looking at
[Patient #1’s] history wouldn’t have
enough information to * * * form a
strong opinion except to the extent that
the lack of information indicates that
perhaps he wasn’t treated correct[ly],
right?’’ Id. at 40. Respondent answered
that he did not ‘‘agree quite with that
because a person reviewing it with
inadequate records would not know
* * * [and] probably would not even
[be able] to formulate a guess unless
there was other evidence pointing in
one particular direction.’’ Id.
Respondent then testified that the
Board’s decision used ‘‘strong language,’’
and that in his ‘‘opinion, there were not
multiple violations or even violations of
[the] standard of care, although there
were in recordkeeping.’’ Id. at 40–41.
Next, Respondent asserted that it was
not true—as found by the State ALJ—
that he had ceased treating Patient #1
‘‘in a fully engaged professional manner
long ago’’ and noted that he had refused
to provide him with medication that he
‘‘did not consider indicated.’’ Id. at 43.
He then testified that the situation with
Patient #1 was not likely to happen
again because Patient #1 ‘‘was [a]
slightly distant cousin,’’ whose family
was close to his father’s relatives. Id.
Respondent testified that while he
agreed with the State ALJ statements
that he ‘‘had a desire to alleviate [Patient
#1’s] suffering,’’ he did not think that he
had ‘‘lost sight * * * of [his] duty as a
physician.’’ Id. at 47. He then testified
that he did not think that the
prescriptions ‘‘were in error,’’ and ‘‘other
physicians also agreed that [Patient #1]
needed relatively heavy medication.’’ Id.
Respondent then stated that in his
‘‘opinion, [Patient #1] was never an
addict, and I certainly never gave him
medications along those lines.’’ Id. at 48.
Respondent then maintained that at
some point ‘‘in the 1990’s, * * * the
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AMA recommended major changes in
dosage as did the FDA * * *. [B]ut the
FDA regulations were postponed at the
request of the DEA, which felt that they
were too high.’’ Id. at 51. Continuing,
Respondent claimed that ‘‘[a]fter a year
of discussion, the FDA decided that
their proposal was correct, that the[y]
* * * did not agree with the DEA, did
agree with the American Medical
Association and adopted those things, I
would guess [in the] early 1990’s.’’ Id.
Subsequently, Respondent testified
that ‘‘[s]hortly after [his] Medical Board
case,’’ the FDA changed its position and
‘‘approved the higher dosage.’’ Id. at 55.
Clarifying his testimony, Respondent
stated that prior to the FDA action, ‘‘the
highest number of milligrams in a tablet
of oxycodone was 5 milligrams,’’ and
that ‘‘after my Medical Board hearing,
the FDA approved a * * * 20 milligram
and 40 milligram tablet, [and] about a
year and a half later, an 80 milligram
tablet.’’ Id. at 55–56. In Respondent’s
view, the FDA was ‘‘simply saying many
patients need [a] higher dosage than
doctors have necessarily been using and
that * * * rather than have a patient
take 4 or 8 tablets at a time or even
eventually 16, a larger size tablet is
relevant.’’ Id. at 56. Respondent then
maintained that these ‘‘changes’’ were
‘‘[e]xactly in line with the American
Medical Association.’’ Id.
Respondent then testified that as early
1958, the AMA had published
guidelines which ‘‘made it clear that
much larger doses of oxycodone were
relevant,’’ that the ‘‘milligram dosage
and timing [of oxycodone] should be
identical with [that of] morphine,’’ and
that ‘‘morphine should be given, based
on body weight, on the order of 15
milligrams every 4 to 6 hours, which
would be a whole lot of oxycodone
tablets in a day.’’ Id. at 57. He then
maintained that ‘‘[t]he FDA and DEA are
taking opposite positions on oxycodone
dosage * * * and the AMA is on the
same side as the FDA.’’ Id.
Later, Respondent’s counsel asked
him if he was ‘‘remorseful at all for any
of the problems that occurred?’’ Id. at
138. Respondent answered:
Remorseful, no, because in terms of the
treatment I actually gave, I believed it was
good treatment. And I can’t think of any
patient who was damaged by my treatment.
At the same time, of course, I certainly am
sorry that this relative died while under the
care of another physician. Basically, who was
giving him narcotics and many other things.
So remorse, no, but obviously, I regret many
things that happened.
Id. at 139–40. Respondent then
explained that what he regretted was
that he had ‘‘been unable to prescribe
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16829
medications for people in severe pain.’’
Id. at 140.
Respondent was then asked whether
he felt that ‘‘a distinction [should] be
drawn in [his] case’’ between his
contention he had ‘‘performed and
issued prescriptions that were medically
necessary and the Government’s
contention that [he] didn’t * * *
properly keep track of [them] and follow
the correct procedures in doing it?’’ Id.
at 139. Respondent testified:
I think it’s a major distinction. I prescribed
in good faith what I thought the patient
needed and was appropriate. And partly from
my ignorance and partly from maybe being
very busy, I did not keep the detailed records
I now know I should have taken. The other
thing is that there were so many
consultations on [Patient #1] especially, nine
consultations saying yes * * * your
treatment is correct * * * the patient is
getting good care. In the practice of medicine,
there are enough uncertainties so that if a
large group of physicians are almost
unanimous in a patient’s need for a particular
treatment, going back later and saying, well,
maybe they were all or nearly all wrong is
not very productive. In other words, there are
enough uncertainties that going back [in]
hindsight is 100 percent, but at the time,
things look * * * like the right thing to do.
Id. at 140. Respondent then claimed that
‘‘two consultants testified for the
Medical Board, but neither one of them,
identified any problems in my care or
with his medications. And they simply
said, oh, if [Respondent] had only told
me this or that, I would have decided
differently.’’ Id.
Discussion
Section 303(f) of the Controlled
Substances Act (CSA) provides that the
Attorney General ‘‘may deny an
application for [a practitioner’s]
registration if he determines that the
issuance of such a registration is
inconsistent with the public interest.’’
21 U.S.C. 823(f). In making the public
interest determination, the CSA directs
that the following factors be considered:
(1) The recommendation of the appropriate
State licensing board or professional
disciplinary authority.
(2) The applicant’s experience in
dispensing * * * controlled substances.
(3) The applicant’s conviction record under
Federal or State laws relating to the
manufacture, distribution, or dispensing of
controlled substances.
(4) Compliance with applicable State,
Federal, or local laws relating to controlled
substances.
(5) Such other conduct which may threaten
the public health and safety.
Id.
‘‘[T]hese factors are * * * considered
in the disjunctive.’’ Robert A. Leslie, 68
FR 15227, 15230 (2003). I may rely on
any one or a combination of factors and
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may give each factor the weight I deem
appropriate in determining whether to
revoke an existing registration or to
deny an application for a registration.
Id. Moreover, I am ‘‘not required to make
findings as to all of the factors.’’ Hoxie
v. DEA, 419 F.3d 477, 482 (6th Cir.
2005); see also Morall v. DEA, 412 F.3d
165, 173–74 (DC Cir. 2005).
Where the Government has met its
prima facie burden of showing that
issuing a new registration to the
applicant would be inconsistent with
the public interest, the burden then
shifts to the applicant to ‘‘present
sufficient mitigating evidence’’ to show
why he can be entrusted with a new
registration. Medicine ShoppeJonesborough, 73 FR 364, 387 (2008)
(quoting Samuel S. Jackson, 72 FR
23848, 23853 (2007) (quoting Leo R.
Miller, 53 FR 21931, 21932 (1988))).
‘‘Moreover, because ‘past performance is
the best predictor of future
performance,’ ALRA Labs, Inc. v. DEA,
54 F.3d 450, 452 (7th Cir.1995), [DEA]
has repeatedly held that where a
registrant has committed acts
inconsistent with the public interest, the
registrant must accept responsibility for
[his] actions and demonstrate that [he]
will not engage in future misconduct.’’
Medicine Shoppe, 73 FR at 387; see also
Jackson, 72 FR at 23853; John H.
Kennedy, 71 FR 35705, 35709 (2006);
Cuong Tron Tran, 63 FR 64280, 64283
(1998); Prince George Daniels, 60 FR
62884, 62887 (1995); Hoxie v. DEA, 419
F.3d at 483 (‘‘admitting fault’’ is
‘‘properly consider[ed]’’ by DEA to be an
‘‘important factor[]’’ in the public
interest determination).
Where, as here, DEA has previously
issued a Final Order which revoked an
applicant’s former registration, ‘‘the
critical issue in th[e] proceeding is
whether the circumstances, which
existed at the time of the prior
proceeding, have changed sufficiently to
support [the] conclusion that’’ granting
the application would be consistent
with the public interest. Ellis Turk,
M.D., 62 FR 19603, 19604 (1997);
Stanley Alan Azen, M.D., 61 FR 57893,
57893–94 (1996). Contrary to the ALJ’s
apparent understanding, this is not an
invitation to relitigate the findings of the
prior proceeding. Rather, where, as here,
an applicant has previously been the
subject of an Agency Final Order, the
doctrine of res judicata bars the
relitigation of the factual findings and
conclusions of law of the prior
proceeding absent the applicant’s
establishing that he falls within one of
the doctrine’s recognized exceptions.
See City Drug Co., 69 FR 1304, 1306
(2004); Turk, 62 FR at 19604; Azen, 61
FR at 57894; see also Restatement
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(Second) of Judgments § 28 (2010). So
too, the doctrine of res judicata bars the
relitigation of the findings of the MBC’s
final order. See Christopher Henry
Lister, P.A., 75 FR 28068, 28069 (2010)
(citing University of Tenn. v. Elliot, 478
U.S. 788, 798–99 (1986)); Marie Y. v.
General Star Indem. Co., 2 Cal. Rptr.3d
135, 155 (Cal. Ct. App. 2003) (‘‘When an
administrative agency acts in a judicial
capacity to resolve disputed issues of
fact properly before it which the parties
have had an adequate opportunity to
litigate, its decision will collaterally
estop a party to the proceeding from
relitigating those issues.’’); see also
Misischia v. Pirie, 60 F.3d 626, 629–30
(9th Cir. 1995); Restatement (Second) of
Judgments, § 29.
Accordingly, upon the Government’s
establishing that the Agency has
previously issued a Final Order
revoking an applicant’s registration and
absent the applicant’s establishing that
he falls within a recognized exception to
the application of res judicata,7 the
Government has satisfied its prima facie
burden of showing that granting the
application would be inconsistent with
the public interest. Moreover, the scope
of the issues to be litigated is limited. As
in any other proceeding, ‘‘an applicant
must accept responsibility for [his]
actions and demonstrate that [he] will
not engage in future misconduct.’’
Medicine Shoppe, 73 FR at 387 (int.
quotations and citations omitted).
For example, in Robert A. Leslie,
M.D., DEA denied the application of a
practitioner whose registration had been
previously revoked following his state
court convictions for unlawfully
prescribing or furnishing controlled
substances. 60 FR 14004, 14005 (1995).
While the practitioner attempted to
relitigate his convictions, the thenDeputy Administrator, agreeing with the
ALJ, held that ‘‘the conviction is res
judicata, and that [r]espondent should
not be allowed to relitigate the matter.’’
Id. Continuing, the Deputy
Administrator noted that ‘‘although
[r]espondent was free to offer new
evidence that he would never again
engage in the type of conduct that
resulted in his conviction, he failed to
do so. * * * [W]hile [r]espondent
offered evidence and expended time
arguing the invalidity of his criminal
convictions, he offered no evidence of
remorse for his prior conduct, that he
has taken rehabilitative steps, or that he
recognizes the severity of his actions.’’
Id. The Deputy Administrator thus
denied the practitioner’s application.
7 There is no dispute that neither the 1995 DEA
Order, nor the 1997 MBC Order, was vacated by a
court.
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Likewise, when, several years later,
Dr. Leslie re-applied for a registration,
the Deputy Administrator held that the
1995 Agency Order was res judicata; the
Order specifically noted that the
‘‘[r]espondent continued to blame others
for his criminal convictions,’’
contending that his name had been
forged on various prescriptions; that his
criminal convictions had been affirmed
because his counsel was ineffective; and
that a Government witness in the earlier
DEA proceeding had committed perjury.
Robert A. Leslie, M.D., 64 FR 25908,
25908–09 (1999). After again observing
that both Dr. Leslie’s criminal
convictions and the 1995 Agency Order
were res judicata, the Deputy
Administrator denied his application,
stating that ‘‘[r]espondent continues to
fail to acknowledge wrongdoing or
accept responsibility for his actions.
Therefore, the Deputy Administrator is
not convinced that [r]espondent has
been rehabilitated and would properly
handle controlled substances in the
future, even on a restricted basis.’’ Id. at
25910; see also Robert A. Leslie, M.D.,
68 FR 15227, 15231 (2003) (revoking
registration obtained through
administrative error, noting that ‘‘[i]n
the face of DEA’s repeated concerns
regarding his lack of contrition, the
[r]espondent remains steadfast in his
insistence upon denying any previous
wrongdoing. Despite previous findings
that his criminal convictions were res
judicata, the [r]espondent in his support
of his most recent application * * *
attempted yet again to re-litigate his
criminal convictions’’).8
At the instant hearing, the
Government objected to various
questions asked of Respondent by his
counsel on the ground that Respondent
was attempting to relitigate the findings
of the 1995 Agency Order. Tr. 121–22.
Respondent’s counsel admitted that this
was ‘‘true,’’ id., but justified doing so to
show purported discrepancies between
the record (and the ALJ’s decision) in
the prior proceeding and the Agency’s
Final Order. Id. at 122. The ALJ
overruled the Government’s objection
8 See also City Drug, 69 FR at 1307 (denying
application; noting that applicant had not
‘‘present[ed] any persuasive evidence of meaningful
procedural changes * * * that would ensure that it
will not again fail to account for controlled
substances or dispense [them] without
authorization,’’ as well as its ‘‘lack of
acknowledgement or explanation for previous
shortages of large quantities of controlled
substances’’); Turk, 62 FR at 19606 (denying
application, noting that ‘‘while [r]espondent has
stated that he has changed his inventory practices,
there is more than sufficient evidence in the record
to indicate that [r]espondent has not accepted
responsibility for his prior actions as a DEA
registrant, [and] has not significantly changed his
inventory practices’’).
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and allowed Respondent to pursue this
line of inquiry, id. at 123, 128; she also
allowed Respondent to testify
extensively as to why he disagreed with
the MBC’s findings. Moreover, in her
decision, the ALJ ignored many of the
findings of the 1995 Agency Order
regarding Respondent’s prescribing
practices, and generally found proved
only the various recordkeeping
violations to which Respondent
admitted. See generally ALJ. The ALJ
also entirely ignored the MBC’s findings
that Respondent violated California law
by ‘‘prescrib[ing] medication without a
good faith examination and medical
indication,’’ that ‘‘he excessively
prescribed controlled substances,’’ and
that he violated Federal law because he
issued prescriptions which lacked ‘‘a
legitimate medical purpose’’ and which
were issued outside of the usual course
of professional practice. Compare ALJ at
7–12, 19–27, with GX 8, at 27–28.
Indeed, in her decision, the ALJ did not
even acknowledge that DEA has long
applied the doctrine of res judicata, let
alone explain why the doctrine should
not apply here.
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Factors Two and Four—The Applicant’s
Experience in Dispensing Controlled
Substances and Record of Compliance
With Applicable Controlled Substance
Laws
In her discussion of these two factors,
the ALJ found only that ‘‘[t]he
Government has proven and the
Respondent has admitted to various
record-keeping violations.’’ ALJ at 19.
Specifically, the ALJ found that
Respondent did not keep receipts for the
controlled substances he obtained, did
not maintain the required biennial
inventories, and that his records were
not readily retrievable. Id. Noting that
Respondent had ‘‘shown remorse for’’
these violations, the ALJ concluded
‘‘that this factor falls in favor of granting
Respondent’s application.’’ Id.
It doesn’t. As noted above, the ALJ
ignored many of the most significant
findings of both the 1995 Agency Order
and the 1997 MBC Decision, which are
relevant under these factors. With
respect to Patient #1, the ALJ ignored
the DA’s findings that Respondent
dispensed controlled substances to him
‘‘on demand [and] virtually upon
request,’’ with ‘‘virtually no records or
monitoring,’’ and that the prescribing
occurred ‘‘outside the context of the
Respondent’s usual professional
practice.’’ 60 FR at 55049 (emphasis
added). These findings are res judicata
and establish that Respondent violated
the CSA in prescribing to Patient #1. See
21 CFR 1306.04(a).
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Likewise, the MBC’s Decision and
Order found that Respondent had
committed numerous violations of
California law. In addition to his failure
to keep required records, the MBC
found that Respondent had prescribed
controlled substances to Patient #1
‘‘without a good faith examination and
medical indication,’’ in violation of Cal.
Bus. & Prof. Code § 2242, and that ‘‘he
excessively prescribed controlled
substances,’’ in violation of Cal. Health
& Safety Code § 11153. The MBC also
found that Respondent violated 21 CFR
1306.04 in that he issued prescriptions
to Patient #1 outside of the usual course
of professional practice and which
lacked a legitimate medical purpose.
While the MBC found that Patient #1
‘‘lived in pain,’’ it nonetheless
concluded that ‘‘the evidence [wa]s
overwhelming that [Patient #1] abused
prescription medication over an
extended period of time, that his abuse
was manifest and apparent to those
around him and that [R]espondent
could not have been ignorant of this.’’
GX 8, at 24. Of further significance, the
MBC considered Respondent’s
dispensing practices in periods beyond
those at issue in the first DEA
proceeding including his practices
during the periods following both the
issuance of the Show Cause Order and
the ALJ’s recommended decision.
With respect to Patient #1,
Respondent testified that in his
‘‘opinion, there were not multiple
violations or even violations of [the]
standard of care, although there were in
recordkeeping.’’ Tr. 40–41. He further
suggested that the MBC’s findings were
flawed ‘‘because a person reviewing [his
treatment of Patient #1] with inadequate
records would not know’’ whether he
was being treated appropriately, and
‘‘probably would not even [be able] to
formulate a guess unless there was other
evidence pointing in one particular
direction.’’ Id. at 40. Respondent also
disagreed with the MBC’s findings that
he had ceased treating Patient #1 ‘‘in a
fully engaged professional manner long
ago;’’ he asserted that Patient #1 ‘‘was
never an addict,’’ that the prescriptions
were not ‘‘in error,’’ and that ‘‘other
physicians also agreed that [Patient #1]
needed relatively heavy medication.’’ Id.
at 43–48. He further claimed that ‘‘two
consultants testified for the Medical
Board, but neither one of them
identified any problems in my care or
with [Patient #1’s] medications,’’ and
that these physicians said that if
Respondent ‘‘had only told me this or
that, I would have decided differently.’’
Id. at 140.
All of Respondent’s testimony could
have been, and should have been
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Sfmt 4703
16831
presented in the MBC proceeding. Here
again, it is clear that Respondent is
simply trying to relitigate the findings of
the MBC proceeding. Having failed to
establish that the MBC proceeding did
not provide him with a full and fair
opportunity to litigate these issues, the
doctrine of res judicata precludes
Respondent from relitigating them in
this proceeding. GX 8, at 26.
In her decision, the ALJ opined that
‘‘the record * * * contains evidence of
changes in acceptable prescribing
practices that make for changed
circumstances.’’ ALJ at 21. She noted
that ‘‘at the previous [Agency] hearing,
an expert witness testified to the
controversy in the medical community
at that time over prescribing practices
for chronic pain.’’ Id. The ALJ then
explained that Respondent ‘‘credibly
testified that the AMA standards he
applied in the past have now been
adopted by the FDA, though arguably,
the DEA disagrees.’’ Id. at 22.
Several pages later, the ALJ repeated
this observation, noting that Respondent
in this proceeding and a government
witness in the first proceeding ‘‘stated
that there was a controversy in the
medical community with regards to his
prescribing practices, and that his
methods have since been adopted by the
FDA, though not necessarily the DEA.’’
Id. at 24. Observing that ‘‘[t]he
Government did not rebut this
testimony in any way,’’ the ALJ
suggested that ‘‘his standard of care,
though not accepted universally then or
even now, has yet become more
established,’’ and that his ‘‘methods of
prescribing * * * may, according to the
record, arguably not be objectionable
now.’’ Id. The ALJ thus opined that ‘‘the
circumstances surrounding his
prescribing practices have changed.’’ Id.
Contrary to the ALJ’s view,
Respondent’s evidence is manifestly
insufficient to support a finding of
changed circumstances regarding the
legitimacy of his prescribing practices.
Indeed, the ALJ’s finding is quite
strange given that for much of
Respondent’s testimony on this issue,
he maintained that his prescribing
practices with respect to Patient #1 were
consistent with then-accepted medical
practices.
For example, Respondent claimed
that Patient #1 ‘‘received textbook
treatment in accordance with standards
of the AMA.’’ Tr. 21–22. He maintained
‘‘that the treatment I gave was within
national standards.’’ Id. at 27.
Respondent further testified that as
‘‘early as 1958,’’ the AMA had published
guidelines which ‘‘made it clear that
much larger doses of oxycodone were
relevant,’’ that the ‘‘milligram dosage [of
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oxycodone] should be identical with
morphine,’’ and that ‘‘morphine should
be given * * * on the order of 15
milligrams every 4 to 6 hours, which
would be a whole lot of oxycodone
tablets in a day.’’ Id. at 57.
Notably, Respondent did not enter
into evidence the AMA guidelines he
referred to. Nor did he introduce the
guidelines of any other body of medical
professionals with expertise in treating
chronic pain, nor excerpts from any
recognized medical treatise. Indeed,
given that Respondent maintained that
as early as 1958—more than thirty years
before the events at issue in the first
Agency and MBC proceeding—the AMA
had issued guidelines on oxycodone
dosage which were consistent with his
prescribing practices; this evidence also
could have been, and should have been,
presented in the prior proceedings.9
Indeed, it seems most unlikely that the
MBC would have found that
Respondent violated both State and
Federal law if, as he contends, his
prescribing practices with respect to
Patient #1 had been consistent with the
thirty-year old guidelines of one of, if
not the largest, organization of
physicians in the country, or if his
dispensing practices constituted
‘‘textbook treatment,’’ or treatment
‘‘within national standards.’’
Respondent further asserted that
while at the time of the MBC
proceedings, five milligram tablets were
the strongest oxycodone available,
thereafter, the FDA had ‘‘adopted’’ the
AMA guidelines because it approved
twenty, forty and then eighty milligram
strength tablets for marketing.
Respondent did not, however, produce
any guidelines or regulation which the
FDA has purportedly adopted.
Indeed, it appears that Respondent
(and given her findings, the ALJ)
fundamentally misunderstand the
FDA’s role. The FDA’s approval of
larger-strength tablets of oxycodone for
marketing under the Food, Drug and
9 Indeed, it appears that Respondent presented
such evidence in the MBC proceeding as the State
ALJ’s decision noted that he argued that ‘‘unless
dosages exceed the range recommended by the
American Medical Association, Drug Evaluations
(6th Edition), no evidence should be admitted about
drug dosages.’’ GX 8, at 26. The State ALJ rejected
this argument, explaining that:
[t]he text relied on by respondent is one small
source of the standard of care for prescribing
practices. * * * It provides information. The fact
that respondent relied on [the AMA guidelines] to
determine safe dosage does not establish
compliance with the standard of care. Respondent
fails to understand that his patient was not some
representative abstraction. His patient was [L.S.]
who presented over time with his own unique
medical history. How respondent responded to the
medical needs of this particular patient is what is
relevant.
GX 8, at 26.
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Cosmetic Act does not mean that it is
medically appropriate to prescribe those
drugs to a particular patient. Rather, the
daily dose of a controlled substance to
be prescribed to any patient is a matter
of a physician’s clinical judgment based
on his use of accepted medical practices
(such as performing a good faith
medical examination as California law
explicitly requires, see Cal. Bus. & Prof.
Code § 2242) to diagnose his patient and
determine that the patient has a medical
indication warranting the prescription,
followed by proper monitoring and
periodic assessment of the patient to
determine both whether the treatment is
effective (or causing harmful side
effects) and to prevent drug abuse and
diversion. See GX 8, at 8 (noting the
MBC’s ‘‘acknowledg[ment] that
predetermined numerical limits on
dosages or length of drug therapy cannot
alone justify a claim of unprofessional
conduct. Rather, the validity of a
physician’s prescribing is to be judged
on the basis of the diagnosis and
treatment of the patient and whether the
drugs prescribed are appropriate for the
condition. There is a requirement that
good faith prescribing requires a good
faith history, physical examinations and
documentation.’’).
In short, the FDA does not regulate
the practice of medicine; rather, it
evaluates drugs to determine whether
they are safe and effective for the
treatment of particular medical
conditions and illnesses. See BristolMyers Squib Co., v. Shalala, 91 F.3d
1493, 1496 (DC Cir. 1996); Weaver v.
Reagen, 886 F.2d 194,198 (8th Cir.
1989); 21 U.S.C. 396. The regulation of
the practice of medicine is primarily a
function performed by state medical
boards such as the MBC.10
10 I reject the ALJ’s finding that ‘‘Respondent
credibly testified that the AMA standards he
applied in the past have now been adopted by the
FDA.’’ ALJ at 22. As noted above, Respondent did
not submit a copy of the purported guidelines or
regulation, and other than his testimony, which
appears to equate the FDA’s approval for marketing
of greater strength tablets with that of a clinical
guideline, there is no evidence that any such
guidelines or regulation exist. Accordingly, the
Government was not obligated to rebut this
testimony.
Beyond this, the ALJ should have some
understanding of the FDA’s functions and should
have carefully considered the inherent plausibility
(or lack thereof) of an assertion regarding the scope
of the FDA’s activities. I further note that whether
FDA has adopted such guidelines or a regulation is
an issue of legislative (and not historic) fact. See II
Richard J. Pierce, Administrative Law Treatise
§ 10.5, at 732 (4th ed. 2002). As such, I decline to
defer to the ALJ’s credibility finding. See id.
(quoting Concerned Citizens of So. Ohio, Inc., v.
Pine Creek Conservancy Dist., 429 U.S. 651, 657
(1977) (‘‘As Mr. Justice Holmes recognized, the
determination of legislative facts does not
necessarily implicate the same considerations as
does the determination of adjudicative facts.’’)).
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In sum, the ALJ’s reasoning that ‘‘his
[Respondent’s] standard of care 11 may
have become more universally accepted,
and * * * his methods of prescribing
may, according to the record, arguably
not be objectionable now,’’ ALJ at 24,
has no credible support in the record.
Indeed, it is flatly inconsistent with
Respondent’s testimony that he
provided Patient #1 with treatment that
was—even at the time—consistent with
accepted standards of medical practice.
However, the MBC found otherwise,
and I conclude that evidence does not
support a finding of changed
circumstances.
As for Patient #2, the ALJ found it
‘‘relevant that the prior ALJ recognized
discrepancies in the Government’s
evidence relating to how many refills
were actually authorized (i.e., six or
twenty).’’ ALJ at 25. The ALJ’s view
reflects a fundamental
misunderstanding of the relationship
between the ALJ and the Agency.
Contrary to her understanding, the prior
ALJ’s findings are no longer relevant
because the Agency—and not the ALJ—
is the ultimate factfinder. Morall v. DEA,
412 F.3d at 177; 5 U.S.C. 557(b). While
the prior ALJ’s recommended decision
was part of the record in that
proceeding, and the Agency was
required to consider it in making its
findings in that proceeding, Morall, 412
F.3d at 177, the appropriate forum to
challenge whether the Agency’s 1995
finding was supported by substantial
evidence was by filing a Petition for
Review in a United States Court of
Appeals within the time allowed for
doing so. Because Respondent did not
seek judicial review of the Agency’s
1995 Order, the findings of fact and
conclusions of law made therein are
entitled to res judicata effect.
As for Patient #3, the ALJ likewise
made no findings under factors two and
four. Instead, she noted (under factor
five) only that Respondent ‘‘received
information about possibly forged
prescriptions, made inquiries,
questioned the patient, was deceived,
and ultimately stopped prescribing.’’
ALJ at 25–26.
The findings of the 1995 Agency
Order regarding Patient #3 were,
however, considerably more extensive
than, and materially different from,
11 The ALJ’s use of the phrase ‘‘his standard of
care’’ suggests a degree of confusion on her part as
to what a standard of care is. The concept of the
standard of care refers to a standard of medical
practice which is generally recognized and accepted
by the medical community. See Brown v. Colm, 11
Cal.3d 639, 642–43 (1974) (‘‘It is settled that a
doctor is required to apply that degree of skill,
knowledge and care ordinarily exercised by other
members of his profession under similar
circumstances.’’). It is not personal to a physician.
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what the ALJ related. More specifically,
the Order found that Respondent was
notified that Patient #3 was forging
prescriptions on three separate
occasions, including one that occurred
more than two years before the Patient
forged seven additional prescriptions.
The 1995 Order also found that Patient
#3 had told Respondent of his past
addiction problems, that Respondent
had talked to Patient #3 about the
latter’s forging of prescriptions, that
Patient #3 had denied doing so but that
Respondent did not believe his denial,
and that Respondent nonetheless
continued to prescribe narcotics to him.
See 60 FR at 55049. Moreover, the DA
found it concerning that Respondent
continued to prescribe controlled
substances to a known drug abuser and
that he did so even though he knew of
Patient #3’s criminal behavior.
Once again, Respondent attempted to
relitigate the findings of the 1995
proceeding, Tr. 128–32, essentially
contending that there was confusion,
that the prescription was not forged but
rather had actually been photocopied,
and that he told the pharmacy to fill it
because he had in fact issued Patient #3
such a prescription.12 Here again,
Respondent could have, and should
have, presented this evidence in the first
proceeding. I therefore conclude that the
1995 Order’s findings and conclusions
of law with respect to Patient #3 are res
judicata.
I further reject the ALJ’s
characterization of Patient #3’s
prescriptions as ‘‘possibly forged’’ and
her assertion that Respondent
‘‘questioned the Patient [and] was
deceived.’’ ALJ at 25–26. The findings of
the 1995 Agency Order make clear that
Respondent knew that Patient #3 had
forged prescriptions and was abusing
drugs, and yet Respondent continued to
prescribe controlled substances to him.
Here again, the ALJ erred in failing to
give res judicata effect to the findings of
the 1995 Order.
I therefore hold that the findings of
the 1995 Agency Order, as well as the
findings of the 1997 MBC Order,
establish not only that Respondent
committed numerous recordkeeping
violations, but also that he violated both
California law and the CSA by
prescribing controlled substances
without performing a good faith medical
examination and without medical
indication. See Cal.Bus.& Prof.Code
§ 2242; see also 21 CFR 1306.04(a) (‘‘A
prescription for a controlled substance
to be effective must be issued for a
legitimate medical purpose by an
12 In fact, the 1995 Order makes clear that Patient
#3 forged multiple prescriptions.
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individual practitioner acting in the
usual course of his professional
practice.’’). I also find that Respondent
violated California law by prescribing
excessive quantities of controlled
substances, Cal. Health & Safety Code
§ 11153; that he violated 21 CFR
1306.22(a) by prescribing excessive
refills of both Vicodin and Darvocet-N;
and that he prescribed Lortab to a
known drug abuser and prescription
forgerer. I thus conclude that
Respondent’s experience in dispensing
controlled substances and record of
compliance with Federal and State laws
related to the dispensing of controlled
substances establishes a prima facie
showing that Respondent’s registration
would be ‘‘inconsistent with the public
interest.’’ 13 21 U.S.C. 823(f).
Sanction
As explained above, Agency
precedent establishes that ‘‘the critical
issue in this proceeding is whether the
circumstances, which existed at the
time of the prior proceeding, have
changed sufficiently to support [the]
conclusion that’’ granting the
application would be consistent with
the public interest. See Azen, 61 FR at
57893–94. While the ALJ initially
acknowledged this precedent, see ALJ at
17, 19–20, she then cited to a different
line of cases, explaining that ‘‘[w]hen
assessing the appropriate remedy in a
particular case, the DA should consider
all facts and circumstances at hand.’’ Id.
at 20 (citing Martha Hernandez, M.D.,
62 FR 61145, 61147 (1997)). The ALJ
did not recognize the tension between
these two precedents and proceeded to
evaluate ‘‘the totality of the
circumstances’’ rather than apply the
13 I have also considered the other factors. With
respect to factor one—the recommendation of the
state medical board—while the MBC suspended his
license for only six months and Respondent now
holds a California medical license, the MBC has
made no recommendation in this matter. Thus,
while Respondent now meets a threshold
requirement for obtaining a DEA registration, see 21
U.S.C. 823(f), DEA has long held that a
practitioner’s possession of state authority to handle
controlled substances is not dispositive of the
public interest inquiry. See Patrick Stodola, 74 FR
20727, 20730 (2009); Leslie, 68 FR at 15230.
As for factor three, ‘‘while a history of criminal
convictions for offenses involving the distribution
or dispensing of controlled substances is a highly
relevant consideration, there are any number of
reasons why a registrant may not have been
convicted of such an offense, and thus, the absence
of such a conviction is of considerably less
consequence in the public interest inquiry.’’ Dewey
C. Mackay, M.D., 75 FR 49956, 49973 (2010) (citing
Jayam Krishna-Iyer, 74 FR 459, 461 (2009), and
Edmund Chein, 72 FR 6580, 6593 n.22 (2007)).
Accordingly, that Respondent has not been
convicted of an offense within the purview of factor
three ‘‘is not dispositive of whether * * * his
registration [would be] consistent with the public
interest.’’ Id.
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16833
Azen rule. She thus considered various
circumstances which are no different
today than they were at the time of the
original proceeding such as his ‘‘overall
track record’’ and the degree of
Respondent’s culpability.14 Id. at 22–24.
Hernandez did not, however, involve
a matter in which the Agency had
previously issued a final order of
revocation to an applicant; indeed, the
decision did not even acknowledge the
then-recent decisions in Azen and Turk.
Moreover, subsequent to the issuance of
the decision in Hernandez, this Agency
continued to apply the Azen rule. See
Robert Golden, 65 FR at 5663, 5664
(2000); Leslie, 64 FR at 25908. Thus, it
is clear that the Hernandez decision did
not overrule Azen. Moreover,
Respondent had a meaningful
opportunity to litigate such issues as the
degree of his culpability and his ‘‘overall
track record’’ in prescribing controlled
substances in the first proceeding. Due
Process does not require that he be
given a second bite of the apple as to
these issues. Rather, as explained above,
to rebut the Government’s prima facie
case and demonstrate that his
registration would be consistent with
the public interest, Respondent must
establish that he accepts responsibility
for the full range of his misconduct and
demonstrate that he will not engage in
similar misconduct in the future.
Medicine Shoppe, 73 FR at 387; Leslie,
60 FR at 14005.
The ALJ acknowledged that
‘‘Respondent failed to express remorse
for the entirety of his prescribing
practices.’’ ALJ at 28. Indeed, what is
clear is that Respondent does not
acknowledge wrongdoing for anything
other than his inadequate recordkeeping
as he continues to dispute both the
findings of this Agency and the MBC
with respect to Patient #1, maintaining
that this patient was not an addict
(notwithstanding the MBC’s finding that
he was), that he provided this patient
with ‘‘textbook treatment’’ and treatment
in accordance with nationally accepted
standards (again, notwithstanding the
MBC’s findings that Respondent’s
dispensings to him violated numerous
provisions of State and Federal law),
and that he properly monitored this
patient (notwithstanding the MBC’s
finding that there was ‘‘overwhelming’’
evidence that the patient was abusing
prescription medication, that ‘‘his abuse
was manifest,’’ and that ‘‘Respondent
could not have been ignorant of this.’’).
14 Having explained above that the evidence does
not support a finding of changed circumstances
with respect to Respondent’s prescribing practices
so as to deny the application of res judicata to the
findings of the earlier proceedings, I conclude that
it is unnecessary to repeat that discussion here.
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Nor, given the latter finding, am I
persuaded that Respondent’s violations
with respect to Patient #1 are solely
attributable to his inadequate
recordkeeping.
Moreover, as the MBC found,
Respondent ‘‘fails to acknowledge any
responsibility for any of his actions. He
blames others or completely excuses his
actions.’’ While Respondent now
acknowledges that he failed to maintain
proper records, it is disturbing that he
continues to deny any wrongdoing with
respect to his dispensing of controlled
substances not only to Patient #1, but
also to Patients #2 and 3.
While the ALJ acknowledged that
‘‘Respondent must demonstrate remorse
to the full extent of his documented
misconduct,’’ ALJ at 24 (citing Prince
George Daniels, 60 FR 62884, 62887
(1995)), and that Respondent had ‘‘failed
to express remorse for the entirety of his
prescribing practices,’’ id. at 28, she
nonetheless recommended that
Respondent be granted a restricted
registration to ‘‘afford[ him] an
opportunity to demonstrate that he can
responsibly handle controlled
substances.’’ Id. Noting that fifteen years
had passed since the first Agency
decision, the ALJ rejected the
Government’s contention that ‘‘the
passage of time is not dispositive,
especially when coupled with a
respondent’s refusal to accept
responsibility for [his] misconduct.’’ ALJ
at 20 (citing Gov. Br. 6). She further
maintained that one of the cases cited in
the Government’s Brief, John Porter
Richards, D.O., 61 FR 13878 (1996),
actually supported granting
Respondent’s application, stating that in
that case, the ‘‘applicant ‘continued to
maintain that he had not committed the
crimes for which he had been
convicted.’’’ ALJ at 21 (quoting 61 FR at
13879); see also ALJ at 27. The ALJ then
asserted that in Richards, ‘‘the DA
approved the applicant’s application
without restrictions despite the fact that,
at the hearing, the applicant accepted
his conviction but did not completely
admit to the crimes for which he was
convicted.’’ Id. at 21 (quoting 61 FR at
13879–80) (emphasis in ALJ’s decision).
It is clear, however, that the ALJ took
the quoted language out of context,
ignoring that the language was merely a
paraphrase of a question asked of the
applicant by the Government’s counsel.
See 61 FR at 13879 (‘‘When asked on
cross-examination whether, consistent
with his not guilty plea, he continued to
maintain that he had not committed the
crimes for which he had been convicted,
the Respondent testified, ‘I accept my
conviction,’ and when asked to what
extent he did so, he replied, ‘In its
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completeness.’ ’’). Notably, the Agency
did not find in Richards that the
respondent ‘‘continued to maintain that
he had not committed the crimes’’ of
which he had been convicted. While in
Richards, the applicant’s answer to the
Government’s question may not have
been entirely responsive, there is no
indication in the decision that the
Government followed up by asking him
whether he denied having committed
the crimes and the findings of the
decision do not establish what
testimony the applicant offered on his
direct examination. Beyond this, most
reasonable fact finders would, in the
absence of testimony denying that one
had committed the crime (thus
demonstrating that one was talking out
of both sides of his mouth), find that the
statements referred to above established
acceptance of responsibility.
By contrast, Respondent has
continued to deny wrongdoing with
respect to his dispensing practices.
While it has been fifteen years since the
first Agency order (which also found
that he lacked remorse for both his
unlawful recordkeeping and refill
practices), and thirteen years since the
MBC Order (which also found that he
did not accept responsibility),
Respondent continues to deny
wrongdoing with respect to a significant
portion of the misconduct which was
found proved in the respective
proceedings.15
The ALJ also cited Paul J. Caragine,
M.D., 63 FR 51592, 51601 (1998), noting
that the Agency had granted the
respondent in that case a restricted
registration, notwithstanding that he
‘‘had not adequately demonstrated
remorse for his mis-prescribing * * * to
allow [him] to demonstrate that he can
responsibly handle controlled
substances in his medical practice.’’ ALJ
at 27. However, more than a year before
the hearing in this case, I made clear
that:
[w]hile some isolated decisions of this
Agency may suggest that a practitioner who
[has] committed only a few acts of diversion
15 Speculating as to ‘‘why it is hard for the
Respondent to ‘admit errors in judgment,’ ’’ the ALJ
observed that the MBC had ‘‘noted that the
Respondent was vilified in the media by Agent
Babcock of the California Bureau of Narcotic
Enforcement, [and] that her statements hurt her
credibility.’’ ALJ at 27. The ALJ then noted that
‘‘[d]espite this poor treatment on the part of Agent
Babcock, the Respondent has taken full
responsibility for his record-keeping violations.’’ Id.
The ALJ did not explain why Respondent’s
having been vilified by Agent Babcock would
prevent him from taking responsibility for his
prescribing violations but not his recordkeeping
ones. In any event, it strains credulity to suggest
that fifteen years later, Respondent’s inability to
accept responsibility for the full scope of his
misconduct is because he was vilified in the media.
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Fmt 4703
Sfmt 4703
was entitled to regain his registration even
without having to accept responsibility for
his misconduct, * * * the great weight of the
Agency’s decisions are to the contrary. In any
event, the increase in the abuse of
prescription controlled substances calls for a
clarification of this Agency’s policy. Because
of the grave and increasing harm to public
health and safety caused by the diversion of
prescription controlled substances, even
where the Agency’s proof establishes that a
practitioner has committed only a few acts of
diversion, this Agency will not grant or
continue the practitioner’s registration unless
he accepts responsibility for his misconduct.
Jayam Krishna-Iyer, M.D., 74 FR 459,
464 (2009) (citation omitted). I further
explained that to the extent any
‘‘decision of this Agency suggests
otherwise, it is overruled.’’ 16 Id. at n.9.
It is perplexing that the ALJ did not
even acknowledge the holding of
Krishna-Iyer. However, it is the law of
this Agency. Moreover, the requirement
that a practitioner accept responsibility
for his misconduct applies regardless of
whether the acts of diversion were done
intentionally, recklessly or negligently.
See Dewey C. Mackay, 75 FR at 49978
n.39 (noting disagreement with
Caragine). This is so because the harm
to the public is not dependent on the
practitioner’s mental state in
committing the act of diversion, and
recognizing one’s misconduct is the first
and an essential step in demonstrating
that it will not happen again.17 To make
16 In Krishna-Iyer, I noted that a study of the
National Center on Addiction and Substances
Abuse (CASA) had found that ‘‘[t]he number of
people who admit abusing controlled prescription
drugs increased from 7.8 million in 1992 to 15.1
million in 2003.’’ National Center on Addiction and
Substance Abuse, Under the Counter: The Diversion
and Abuse of Controlled Prescription Drugs in the
U.S. 3 (2005) (quoted at 74 FR at 463). Moreover,
‘‘[a]pproximately six percent of the U.S. population
(15.1 million people) admitted abusing controlled
prescription drugs in 2003, 23 percent more than
the combined number abusing cocaine (5.9 million),
hallucinogens (4.0 million), inhalants (2.1 million)
and heroin (328,000).’’ Id. The study further found
that ‘‘[b]etween 1992 and 2003, there has been a
* * * 140.5 percent increase in the self-reported
abuse of prescription opioids,’’ and in the same
period, the ‘‘abuse of controlled prescription drugs
has been growing at a rate twice that of marijuana
abuse, five times greater than cocaine abuse and 60
times greater than heroin abuse.’’ Id. at 4.
17 The ALJ further reasoned that ‘‘the majority of
[Respondent’s] issues emanated from his treatment
of Patient #1 and only when Patient #1 was living
in Respondent’s home.’’ ALJ at 23. She then asserted
that ‘‘this Agency has considered the effect a
relative’s medical issues can have on a practitioner
and recognized that when those stresses are taken
out of the picture, it is less likely that the
circumstances would ever be repeated.’’ Id. (citing
Cecil M. Oakes, M.D., 63 FR 11907 (1998)).
While it is true that the Agency’s factual findings
in Oakes noted that the respondent had testified
that at the time he altered his DEA registration, he
was dealing ‘‘with the financial and emotional
burdens that accompanied his son’s having been
diagnosed as having Attention Deficit Disorder,’’ 63
FR at 11908, he further testified that he was ‘‘in no
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clear, Respondent is not entitled to ‘‘an
opportunity to demonstrate that he can
responsibly handle controlled
substances’’ through the issuance of
even a restricted registration unless and
until he accepts responsibility for his
misconduct.18
It is acknowledged that fifteen years
have passed since the first Agency
Order. See ALJ at 20–21, 28. However,
way * * * using (his son’s problems) as an excuse
for bad behavior or to try to rationalize it away
* * * as being justified.’’ Id. Moreover, in
discussing the public interest factors and whether
the respondent had rebutted the Government’s
prima facie case, the decision made no reference to
the medical issues of his son. See 63 FR at 11909–
10. It is thus inaccurate to say that the Agency
‘‘considered the effect a relative’s medical issues
can have on a practitioner and recognized that
when those stresses are taken out of the picture, it
is less likely that the circumstances will ever be
repeated.’’ ALJ at 23.
Most significantly, the Agency’s decision in
Oakes noted in at least three different places that
the respondent had expressed remorse and accepted
responsibility for his misconduct. See 63 FR at
11909 (noting that ‘‘the evidence in favor of denial
of Respondent’s application is overcome by * * *
his expressions of remorse and acceptance of
responsibility for his actions’’); id. at 11910 (noting
that while the respondent’s misrepresentation on a
state application ‘‘is troublesome, it does not
warrant the denial of Respondent’s application in
light of his expressions of remorse and acceptance
of responsibility for his actions’’).
Thus, contrary to the ALJ’s reasoning, Oakes
provides no comfort to Respondent. Moreover, even
giving weight to Respondent’s testimony that he is
not likely to again invite a patient to live with him,
his testimony does not address his misconduct with
respect to Patients #2 and 3.
18 The ALJ also noted that since the revocation of
his registration, ‘‘Respondent has had no further
problems related to his practice of medicine.’’ ALJ
at 20. Given that DEA does not regulate the practice
of medicine, it is an open question whether such
evidence is even relevant in assessing whether an
applicant’s registration would be consistent with
the public interest. See Edmund Chein, 72 FR 6580,
6590 (2007) (declining to decide ‘‘whether a
registrant’s unwillingness to comply with State
rules that are unrelated to controlled substances can
be considered [in a revocation proceeding] when
the registrant maintains a valid State license’’).
What is noteworthy, however, are the State ALJ’s
extensive findings regarding Respondent’s
dispensing of controlled substances to Patient #1,
not only during the period following the issuance
of the first Order to Show Cause on July 29, 1993,
but also after the DEA ALJ’s issuance of his
recommended decision on January 12, 1995. While
the DEA ALJ’s decision was not a final decision of
the Agency, it found that Respondent dispensed
controlled substances to Patient #1 ‘‘on demand,’’
‘‘virtually upon request,’’ with ‘‘virtually no
scrutiny,’’ that his ‘‘prescribing and dispensing to
[Patient #1] was outside of the context of the
Respondent’s usual professional practice’’ and thus
violated 21 CFR 1306.04(a), and that the
Government had ‘‘established a prima facie case
under factor (2).’’ GX 6, at 20. Yet thereafter,
Respondent continued to engage in what the State
ALJ ‘‘characterized as irrational polypharmacy’’; the
State ALJ further noted that ‘‘[t]otally absent from
his care and treatment of [Patient #1] was control,
monitoring and periodic assessment’’ and that
‘‘[f]rom 1990 to 1996, almost all of respondent’s
prescribing to [Patient #1] took place in the absence
of a legitimate physical examination.’’ GX 8, at 15–
16.
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DEA has long held that ‘‘[t]he paramount
issue is not how much time has elapsed
since [his] unlawful conduct, but rather,
whether during that time. * * *
Respondent has learned from past
mistakes and has demonstrated that he
would handle controlled substances
properly if entrusted with a new
registration. Leonardo v. Lopez, 54 FR
36915 (1989); see also Leslie, 68 FR at
15227 (revoking registration issued
through administrative error on ground
that practitioner still refused to
acknowledge misconduct which he
committed seventeen years earlier
notwithstanding that there was no
evidence that he had mishandled
controlled substances under the
erroneously issued registration).
Moreover, it should be noted that
neither the 1995 Order, nor any Agency
rule, barred Respondent from reapplying at an earlier date. What does
bar his obtaining of a new registration
is his failure to fully acknowledge his
misconduct. Absent Respondent’s
acknowledgment of the full scope of his
misconduct, I am compelled to
conclude that issuing him a new
registration would be ‘‘inconsistent with
the public interest.’’ 21 U.S.C. 823(f).
Accordingly, I reject the ALJ’s
recommended ruling and will deny
Respondent’s application.
Order
Pursuant to the authority vested in me
by 21 U.S.C. 823(f), as well as 28 CFR
0.100(b) and 0.104, I order that the
pending application of Robert L.
Dougherty, M.D., for a DEA Certificate
of Registration as a practitioner, be, and
it hereby is, denied. This Order is
effective immediately.
Dated: March 11, 2011.
Michele M. Leonhart,
Administrator.
[FR Doc. 2011–7014 Filed 3–24–11; 8:45 am]
BILLING CODE 4410–09–P
DEPARTMENT OF JUSTICE
Drug Enforcement Administration
Erwin E. Feldman, D.O.; Revocation of
Registration
On May 29, 2009, the Deputy
Assistant Administrator, Office of
Diversion Control, Drug Enforcement
Administration, issued an Order to
Show Cause to Erwin E. Feldman, D.O.
(Respondent), of Madison Heights,
Michigan. The Show Cause Order
proposed the revocation of
Respondent’s DEA Certificate of
Registration, AF9086415, which
authorizes him to dispense controlled
PO 00000
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16835
substances as a practitioner, and the
denial of any pending applications to
renew his registration, on the ground
that his ‘‘continued registration is
inconsistent with the public interest.’’
Show Cause Order at 1 (citing 21 U.S.C.
823(f) and 824(a)).
More specifically, the Show Cause
Order alleged that on January 18, 2005,
DEA issued an Order to Show Cause to
Respondent, which alleged, inter alia,
that between December 2001 and July
2004, he had prescribed controlled
substances on ten occasions to
undercover agents without performing a
medical examination, and that he had
issued prescriptions for Suboxone ‘‘to
treat opiate addiction without having
obtained’’ certification from the
Michigan Center for Substance Abuse
Treatment and a separate DEA
registration to prescribe controlled
substances for ‘‘maintenance and
detoxification treatment of opiate
addiction as required by 21 U.S.C.
823(g).’’ Id. at 1–2.
Next, the Show Cause Order alleged
that on April 4, 2007, Respondent
entered into a Memorandum of
Agreement (MOA) with the Agency to
resolve the allegations of the 2005 Show
Cause Order, which was to remain in
force through May 2010. Id. at 2. The
Show Cause Order then alleged that
under the MOA, Respondent agreed that
he would prescribe controlled
substances for only a thirty-day supply
with one refill; that he would not
prescribe controlled substances to
persons who were not residents of the
State of Michigan; that he would not
prescribe controlled substances to
family members; that he would
maintain a log of all controlled
substance prescriptions he issued; that
he would maintain in patient charts,
reports from the Michigan Automated
Prescriptions System (MAPS) for all
patients who received controlled
substances from him for ‘‘in excess of six
months’’; and that he would notify DEA
‘‘in writing, within twenty days of the
initiation of any proceedings which
impacted [his] ability to handle
controlled substances, including the
initiation of any action by a state entity
to restrict, deny, rescind, suspend,
revoke or otherwise limit [his] authority
to handle controlled substances.’’ Id.
Finally, the Show Cause Order alleged
that Respondent had violated the MOA.
Id. The Order specifically alleged that
‘‘on several occasions,’’ Respondent had
issued controlled substance
prescriptions ‘‘with as many as seven
refills’’; that he had prescribed
controlled substances to residents of
Florida and Colorado; that he had
prescribed Phenobarbital, a schedule IV
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[Federal Register Volume 76, Number 58 (Friday, March 25, 2011)]
[Notices]
[Pages 16823-16835]
From the Federal Register Online via the Government Printing Office [www.gpo.gov]
[FR Doc No: 2011-7014]
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DEPARTMENT OF JUSTICE
Drug Enforcement Administration
[Docket No. 09-35]
Robert L. Dougherty, M.D.; Denial of Application
On March 16, 2009, the Deputy Assistant Administrator, Office of
Diversion Control, Drug Enforcement Administration, issued an Order to
Show Cause to Robert L. Dougherty, M.D. (Respondent), of Poway,
California. ALJ Ex. 1. The Show Cause Order proposed the denial of
Respondent's pending application for a DEA Certificate of Registration
as a practitioner, on the ground that his ``registration would be
inconsistent with the public interest, as that term is used in 21
U.S.C. 823(f).'' Id. at 1.
The Show Cause Order alleged that on October 27, 1995, the DEA
Deputy Administrator (DA) issued a Final Order revoking Respondent's
registration based on his prescribing of controlled substances to three
patients. Id. (citing 60 FR 55047). More specifically, the Show Cause
Order alleged that the DA had ``found that [Respondent's] prescribing
of controlled substances to Patient 1 `on demand,' `virtually
upon request,' with `virtually no scrutiny' and with `virtually no
records or monitoring' demonstrated a gross lack of judgment and showed
that some of the prescriptions issued were outside the course of
professional practice.'' Id.
With regard to Patient 2, the Show Cause Order alleged
that the DA ``found that * * * Respondent's prescribing of controlled
substances to an admitted drug abuser showed a disregard of the
requirements for detailed attention to individual patient behavior
necessary for the dispensing of controlled substances.'' Id. With
regard to Patient 3, the Show Cause Order alleged that the DA
found that Respondent's ``prescribing of an excessive number of refills
of controlled substances over a six month period, without requiring a
clinical examination or visit, demonstrated a reckless disregard for
medical standards in dispensing controlled substances and violations of
Federal regulations and state law[,]'' and that he ``had violated
Federal and state record-keeping requirements for controlled
substances.'' Id.
Finally, the Show Cause Order alleged that on June 25, 1997, the
Medical Board of California (MBC) issued a decision which ``severely
criticized [Respondent's] treatment of [P]atient 1.'' Id. The
Order alleged that the MBC had found that Respondent ``had engaged in
repeated negligent acts and had demonstrated incompetence in [his]
treatment of the patient[,]'' and that ``[t]his misconduct included
prescribing controlled substances to an obvious drug addict.'' Id. at
1-2.
Respondent requested a hearing on the allegations, and the matter
was placed on the docket of the Agency's Administrative Law Judges
(ALJ). Following pre-hearing procedures, on March 10, 2010, an ALJ
conducted a hearing on the matter in San Diego, California, at which
both parties called witnesses to testify and the Government introduced
documentary evidence. Thereafter, both parties filed briefs containing
their proposed findings of fact, conclusions of law, and argument.
On June 9, 2010, the ALJ issued her recommended decision (also
ALJ). Therein, the ALJ found that the Government had ``met its prima
facie burden.'' ALJ at 22. However, the ALJ reasoned that all of the
facts and circumstances should be considered including that
Respondent's ``mistakes'' involved only ``a very small portion of his
patients,'' that one of the patients was a relative who has since died
and that this ``decreases the likelihood that similar circumstances
would reoccur,'' and that Respondent's ``mis-judgments were well
intentioned.'' Id. at 22-24. Next, the ALJ reasoned that ``there was
controversy in the medical community with regards to his prescribing
practices, and that his methods have since been adopted by the FDA,
though not necessarily DEA,'' and that his prescribing methods, while
``found to be objectionable over ten years ago * * * may, according to
the record, arguably not be objectionable now.'' Id. at 24. The ALJ
thus concluded that ``the circumstances surrounding his prescribing
practices have changed.'' Id.
Finally, the ALJ noted that in the 1995 Final Order, the Agency had
made four summarized findings.\1\ Id. at 25. While the ALJ noted that
Respondent did not ``completely acknowledge his past problems with
refill practices with regards to Patient 2,'' she found it
relevant that the ALJ who conducted the earlier hearing had
``recognized discrepancies in the Government's evidence relating to how
many refills were actually authorized.'' Id. With respect to the
Agency's finding that Respondent failed ``to act in a timely manner
upon, and to take responsibility for, receipt of information given to
him or to his staff concerning the forged prescriptions of Patient
3,'' the ALJ reasoned that ``the record demonstrates that [he]
received information about possibly forged prescriptions, made
inquiries, questioned the patient, was deceived, and ultimately stopped
prescribing to the patient.'' Id. at 26. Finally, with respect to
Patient 1, the ALJ characterized the Agency's finding as that
he had maintained an ``inadequate treatment record.'' Id. at 26.
Reasoning that ``[t]here is no question that the Respondent
demonstrated remorse with regards to his record-keeping,'' and that the
``DA's summarized findings focused on record-keeping,'' the ALJ
concluded that
[[Page 16824]]
Respondent had generally accepted responsibility.\2\ Id.
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
\1\ As the basis for rejecting the ALJ's recommended sanction of
a one-year suspension and revoking Respondent's registration, the DA
cited four findings: (1) Respondent's ``failure to acknowledge the
need for adequate recordkeeping to insure [sic] that controlled
substances are not diverted''; (2) his ``lack of remorse concerning
his * * * unlawful recordkeeping and refill practices''; (3) his
``failure to act in a timely manner upon, and to take responsibility
for, receipt of information given him or to his staff concerning the
forged prescriptions of Patient 3''; and (4) his ``lack of
acknowledgement that the inadequate treatment record of Patient
1 could have ultimately jeopardized that patient's
welfare.'' 60 FR at 55051.
\2\ The ALJ also observed that the MBC's decision, which found
that Respondent's prescribing to Patient 1 showed ``a
`pattern of excess' resulting in `irrational polypharmacy,' * * *
also states [that]: `[t]he most powerful tool in reducing
polypharmacy is an accurate medical record. It is thus easy to see
why the out of control polypharmacy [] existed.' '' ALJ at 26
(citation omitted). The ALJ thus reasoned that these statements
``reflect primarily on the Respondent's past-poor record-
keeping[,]'' for which he had demonstrated remorse. Id.
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
The ALJ thus concluded that while she did not ``condone or minimize
the seriousness of * * * Respondent's prior misconduct[,] * * * the
circumstances, which existed at the time of the prior proceeding, have
changed sufficiently to support a conclusion that Respondent's
registration would be in the public interest.'' Id. at 28. While
acknowledging that ``Respondent failed to express remorse for the
entirety of his prescribing practices,'' she recommended that I grant
him a restricted registration. Id.
Thereafter, the Government filed Exceptions to the ALJ's
recommended decisions. The record was then forwarded to me for Final
Agency Action.
Having considered the record as a whole (including the ALJ's
recommended decision), I agree with the ALJ's finding that the
Government established a prima facie case to deny Respondent's
application. However, I reject the ALJ's finding that Respondent has
successfully rebutted the Government's prima facie case and will deny
his application. As ultimate fact finder, I make the following findings
of fact.
Findings
Respondent is a physician licensed by the Medical Board of
California, GX 1, at 2. Respondent, who has been licensed since 1957,
is board certified in Family Practice. Tr. 89. Respondent has taught
pain management to Army hospital corpsmen as well as to U.S. Park
Rangers, and served at two MASH hospitals in Korea. Id. at 90-91, 97.
The First DEA Proceeding
Respondent previously held a DEA Certificate of Registration as a
practitioner. Robert L. Dougherty, Jr., M.D., 60 FR 55047 (1995) (GX
7). However, on July 29, 1993, the Deputy Assistant Administrator,
Office of Diversion Control, issued an Order to Show Cause which
proposed the revocation of the registration he then held based on five
separate allegations. Id. Respondent requested a hearing, and in July
1994, an Agency ALJ conducted a four-day hearing at which Respondent
was represented by counsel and at which he testified and introduced
documentary evidence. Id. Following the hearing, Respondent (and the
Government) submitted briefs containing proposed findings of fact,
conclusions of law, and argument. Id. Thereafter, the ALJ issued his
decision, which found most of the allegations proved and recommended
that Respondent's registration be suspended for a period of one year.
Id. The Government filed Exceptions and Respondent filed a Response to
the Government's Exceptions. Id. The record was then forwarded to the
DA, who, on October 27, 1995, issued the Agency's Decision and Final
Order which contained extensive factual findings. Id.
With respect to Patient 1, the DA credited the testimony
of an expert in pain management who concluded that while Respondent's
initial treatment of the patient was medically appropriate, ``after
Patient 1 moved into the Respondent's home in early 1990, the
notations in his chart became sporadic, ending on December 3, 1991.''
60 FR at 55048. Based on the Expert's testimony, the DA further found
that ``Respondent's standard of care as to Patient 1, to
include a lack of a medical record showing [his] treatment, and the
excessive amounts of prescribed medication between January 1990 and
February 1992, `fell below community standards for the average
physician.' '' Id. However, the DA also found ``that the evidence `does
not support that the doctor was prescribing for an illegitimate
purpose,' or that `he was doing something dishonest,' but rather that
such prescribing was not `appropriate treatment' in this case.'' Id.
With respect to Patient 1, the DA further noted
Respondent's testimony that ``he altered his patient record practices
in the case of Patient 1 after he moved into his home because
he now saw him regularly and was able to closely observe him on a daily
basis.'' Id. Respondent also conceded that he had provided samples of
Xanax to Patient 1, but did not record doing so in his chart.
Id. Respondent further admitted that he had prescribed schedule II
drugs between April 1991 and March 1992, but generally did not record
this in his chart. Id.
Finally, the DA found ``that from mid-December 1991 to April 1992,
Patient 1'' would visit Respondent's office ``to pick up
prescriptions'' but ```rarely ever' went into an examination room,''
and that ``he would often call the Respondent's office and leave a
message telling the Respondent what controlled substances to bring
home.'' Id. The DA again credited the Expert's testimony that ``such
patient and physician behavior concerned him, because the patient's
demands seemed to replace the physician's judgment.'' Id.
Concluding that Respondent dispensed to Patient 1 ``on
demand, virtually upon request, with virtually no security, and with
virtually no records or monitoring in the early 1990s,'' as well as
that it was his ``practice of giving Patient 1 Xanax samples
without documenting'' this in his chart, the DA adopted the ALJ's
conclusion that ``Respondent's prescribing and dispensing to Patient
1 was `outside the context of the Respondent's usual
professional practice.' '' Id. at 55049.
With respect to Patient 2, the DA found that ``[o]n
October 24, 1990, the Respondent issued [her] an original prescription
for 30 dosage units of Vicodin, [that] he saw this patient again on
November 14, 1990, and although [he] did not see this patient again
until May 1, 1991, he authorized more than twenty refills from the
October 24, 1990, prescription for Vicodin,'' the latter being a
schedule III controlled substance. Id. at 55048. The DA also found that
on October 24, 1990, Respondent ``issued Patient 2 an original
prescription for Darvocet-N 100 * * * and between that date and May 1,
1991, he authorized more than twenty refills of Darvocet, a medication
containing propoxyphene napsylate, a Schedule IV controlled
substance.'' Id.
The DA thus concluded that ``the excessive number of refills
[Respondent] provided Patient 2 over a six-month period of
time without requiring a clinical examination or visit, demonstrates a
reckless disregard for medical standards in dispensing controlled
substances.'' Id. at 55049. Based on his finding that between October
24, 1990 and May 1, 1991, Respondent had authorized original
prescriptions for both Vicodin and Darvocet-N, as well as more than
twenty refills for each drug, the DA also concluded that Respondent had
violated 21 CFR 1306.22(a), which prohibited (then as now) both the
filling or refilling of a prescription for a schedule III or IV
controlled substance ``more than six months after the date on which
such prescription was issued,'' as well as the refilling of a
prescription ``more than five times'' during this period, after which a
new prescription must be issued. Id. at 55050. The DA also concluded
that Respondent violated Cal. Health and Safety Code Sec. 11200, which
provided that ``[n]o person shall dispense or refill a controlled
substance prescription more than six months after the date thereof or
cause a prescription for a Schedule III or IV substance to be refilled
in an amount in excess of a 120 day supply, unless renewed by the
prescriber.'' Id.
As for Patient 3, the DA found that Respondent and the
Government had stipulated that Patient 3 had forged
prescriptions under Respondent's name on seven different dates between
February 3 and April 21, 1992, resulting
[[Page 16825]]
in ``a total of 396 dosage units of Lortab,'' a schedule III controlled
substance, being dispensed to Patient 3. Id. at 55049. The DA
also found that Respondent was notified that Patient 3 was
forging prescriptions on at least three occasions between January 1990
and April 1992. Id. These included: (1) A January 1990 incident in
which ``a pharmacist contacted the Respondent's office about a forged
prescription from Patient 3,'' (2) a February 6, 1992 letter
``written to * * * Respondent informing him of a suspicious
prescription written to Patient 3 despite Respondent's
office's verification of the prescriptions which the pharmacist had
filled,'' and (3) another pharmacist notifying Respondent in April 1992
``about forged prescriptions for a controlled substance for Patient
3.'' Id. The DA found that notwithstanding that Respondent had
received this information, he ``authorized the refills and continued to
prescribe Lortab for Patient 3.'' Id.
The DA also found that Patient 3 had stated during an
interview that ``he had been a patient of the Respondent's from July
1990 to about June 1992, that he had told the Respondent of his past
drug addiction problems, but that the Respondent continued to prescribe
Lortab'' to him. Id. Patient 3 ``also stated that the
Respondent talked to him about forged prescriptions, that he had denied
forging the prescriptions, but that the Respondent had told him that he
did not believe his denial. However, the Respondent continued
prescribing Lortab even after this conversation.'' Id. Patient
3 further ``stated that in June 1992 he stopped receiving
treatment from the Respondent and that he went into a rehabilitation
treatment center for 90 days to overcome his addiction to Lortab.'' Id.
The DA noted Respondent's testimony that ``he believed Patient
3 had valid complaints of pain stemming from a history of back
pain, that he never received a copy of a forged prescription regarding
Patient 3, [and] that he did not see such a copy until June
1992, when he then realized Patient 3 had been deceiving
him.'' Id. The DA also noted the Expert's opinion that ``Respondent's
prescribing practices were excessive with poor documentation of the
need for those narcotics, [and] demonstrate[d] a lack of usual care and
precaution in dealing with these kinds of prescriptions.'' Id.
The DA concluded that ``the dispensing of a controlled substance in
the quantities prescribed to Patient 3, a patient known to the
Respondent as an admitted drug abuser, even after receiving warnings of
forged prescriptions, demonstrates at least a lack of precaution, and
more probably a disregard of the requirements for detailed attention to
individual patient behavior necessary for the dispensing of controlled
substances.'' Id. The DA further observed that this ``create[d] grave
doubt as to * * * Respondent's prescription practices to known drug
abusers,'' and that while Respondent had been warned about Patient
3's conduct, there was no evidence that he had ``ceased
prescribing controlled substances to this patient until he obtained and
documented accurate information about the amounts of such substances
actually received by Patient 3 through the use of these forged
prescriptions.'' Id. at 55051.
In addition, the DA found that Respondent had violated various
recordkeeping requirements of both Federal and State law. Id. at 55050.
These included 21 U.S.C. 827(a)(3), which requires that ``every
registrant * * * dispensing a controlled substance or substances shall
maintain, on a current basis, a complete and accurate record of each
substance * * * received, sold, delivered, or otherwise disposed of by
him''; and subsection 827(b), which requires that records ``contain
such relevant information as may be required by, regulations of the
Attorney General,'' that the records for narcotics ``be maintained
separately from all other records of the registrant'' and those for
non-narcotic controlled substances ``be in such form that information
required by the Attorney General is readily retrievable from the
ordinary business records of the registrant''; and that records ``be
available for at least two years, for inspection and copying by
officers or employees of the United States authorized by the Attorney
General.'' 21 U.S.C. 827(b) (quoted at 60 FR 55050) (also citing 21 CFR
1304.04(a) and 1304.24; Cal. Health and Safety Code Sec. Sec. 11190-
92).\3\ In addition, the DA found that between April 16 and July 23,
1990, Respondent had ordered Demerol and morphine on ten occasions,
which are schedule II controlled substances, from a local pharmacy, but
on April 24, 1992, he ``was unable or unwilling to produce'' the DEA
Order Forms, even though under Federal regulations he was required to
maintain these forms ``separately from all other records'' and to keep
them ``available for inspection for a period of 2 years.'' 60 FR at
55050. Summarizing his findings, the DA concluded that Respondent had
shown ``a blatant disregard for statutory provisions'' which exist ``to
prevent the diversion of controlled substances to unauthorized
individuals.'' Id.
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
\3\ The DA found that during the execution of a search warrant,
various controlled substances were found in both Respondent's office
and home and that he did not have required inventories, receipts,
and dispensing records. 60 FR at 55050. Moreover, Respondent
conceded that he did not keep receipts for controlled-substance
samples including those of Xanax, Valium and Halcion, which he had
received gratis from sales representatives. Id.
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
Finally, the DA found (again based on the Expert's testimony) that
Respondent had failed ``to maintain accurate, current, and complete
patient treatment records'' for all three patients. Id. This was deemed
actionable as ``such other conduct which may threaten the public health
or safety'' (factor five), because if ``Respondent suddenly fell ill,
[the] treatment [of his patients by another physician] could be
seriously impaired by * * * Respondent's shoddy documentation.'' Id. at
55050-51 (citation omitted).
The Medical Board Proceeding
On dates not established in the record, the MBC filed an
Accusation, as well two Supplemental Accusations against Respondent. GX
8, at 3. The Accusation charged, inter alia, that he had violated
California law by engaging in ``repeated acts of clearly excessive
prescribing,'' as well as that he had ``dispen[sed] or furnish[ed] * *
* dangerous drugs without a good-faith prior examination and medical
indication therefor.'' Id. at 3 (citing Cal. Bus. & Prof. Code
Sec. Sec. 725, 4211). The Accusation also charged Respondent with
violating state record-keeping requirements for schedule II controlled
substances, id. (citing Cal. Health & Safety Code Sec. 11190), as well
having violated ``various sections of Federal law, contained in the
Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) relating to dispensing controlled
substances.'' Id. All of the charges involved Respondent's
``administration of certain drugs'' to Patient 1. Id. at 4.
In May 1997, a State ALJ conducted a hearing, which lasted seven
days. Id. at 2. In his Decision, the State ALJ made extensive findings
regarding Respondent's prescribing practices between November 1991 and
September 1995, which he characterized as ``a graphic illustration of a
practice without a plan'' and as ``a pattern of excess.'' Id. at 14-15.
For example, the State ALJ found that ``[d]uring January 1992,
[R]espondent prescribed 360 Demerol 100 mg tablets, 200 Valium 10 mg
tablets, 500 Percocet tablets, and 220 Xanax 2 mg tablets'' to Patient
1. Id. at 15.
As other examples, the State ALJ found that between January and
March
[[Page 16826]]
1994, Respondent prescribed to Patient 1: 672 Lorcet 10/650,
240 diazepam 10 mg, 56 Xanax 2 mg, 360 amitriptyline 50 mg, and 56
alprazolam 2 mg; and that between January and March 1995, he prescribed
to Patient 1: 672 Lorcet 10/650, 240 diazepam 10 mg, 720
amitriptyline 50 mg, 240 alprazolam 2 mg, and 90 Prelu-2 105 mg
(phendimetrazine). Id. The ALJ further found that between July and
September 1995, Respondent prescribed to Patient 1: 784 Lorcet
10/650, 360 diazepam 10 mg, 720 amitriptyline 50 mg, 120 alprazolam 2
mg, and 90 Prelu-2 105 mg. Id. The ALJ also found that Respondent
maintained no medical records on Patient 1 during 1993, and
that he had a total of ten chart notes on him for the years 1994
through 1996.\4\ Id.
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
\4\ The State ALJ also made findings regarding Respondent's
prescriptions to Patient 1 during the months of November
and December 1991, as well as January through March 1993. See GX 8,
at 14-15.
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
The State ALJ characterized Respondent's prescribing practices ``as
irrational pharmacy,'' further explaining that ``[p]olypharmacy is the
prescription, administration or use of more medications than are
clinically indicated.'' Id. at 16. While acknowledging that Respondent
``prescribed pain pills and the patient had pain,'' as well as that
``the patient was anxious and received anxiolytics,'' the State ALJ
observed that Patient 1 ``really ceased being treated in a
fully engaged professional manner long ago'' as Respondent had
``prescribed a mixture of narcotic, anti-depressant, anti-anxiety and
anti-inflammatory medications without any serious attempt to discern
efficacy, side effects or synergy.'' Id. at 15-16.
Noting that ``[t]he most powerful tool in reducing polypharmacy is
an accurate medical record,'' the State ALJ reasoned that it was ``easy
to see why the out of control polypharmacy of the 1990's existed.'' Id.
at 16. The ALJ further found that ``[t]otally absent from
[Respondent's] care and treatment of [Patient 1] was control,
monitoring and periodic assessment,'' and that ``[f]rom 1990 to 1996,
almost all of [his] prescribing to [Patient 1] took place in
the absence of a legitimate physical examination.'' Id.
The State ALJ made additional findings based on the expert
testimony of a practitioner in pain management as to the standard of
care in treating a chronic pain patient. Id. at 20-21. While the
State's Expert testified ``that it is not necessarily a breach of the
standard of care to prescribe potent narcotic analgesics to an
addict,'' he further explained that ``[h]ow a physician goes about this
and how such a plan is monitored is the key to whether the patient is
engaged in improper drug seeking behavior or properly receiving
medications for a medical condition.'' Id. at 21.
The State's Expert testified and the ALJ found that ``if a patient
with serious and legitimate back pain admits to addiction to opioids,''
the ``treating physician should always have a psychiatrist or
psychologist working with him for adjunctive evaluation and necessary
treatment.'' Id. at 21. Moreover, ``[t]he patient should be required to
sign a narcotic contract that specifically spells out the terms and
conditions under which the physician agrees to provide pain medication
to the patient and what is expected from the patient in return.'' Id.
The ALJ further found that ``[t]he physician should explore other
[treatment] modalities besides narcotics'' to see if they will ``lessen
the need for narcotics.'' Id. While acknowledging that narcotics may
still be necessary after trying other treatment modalities, the Expert
testified that ``the prescribing must be monitored extremely closely
[and] [t]here must be very strict limitations placed on the patient to
discourage drug seeking behavior.'' Id.
The State ALJ found that the Expert ``established that [R]espondent
was guilty of excessive prescribing to [P]atient [1] based on
the extremely large quantity of drugs prescribed, the toxicity of the
medications and the absence of good faith examinations.'' \5\ Id. The
State ALJ further found that while Patient 1 ``lived in
pain,'' ``[t]he evidence is overwhelming that [Patient 1]
abused prescription medication over an extended period of time, that
his abuse was manifest and apparent to those around him and that
[R]espondent could not have been ignorant of this.'' Id. at 24. The
State ALJ then noted that while ``[i]t appears that [R]espondent was
motivated by a desire to alleviate [Patient 1's] suffering,''
Respondent ``fail[ed] to acknowledge any errors.'' Id.; see also id. at
33 (Respondent ``fails to acknowledge any responsibility for any of his
actions. He blames others or completely excuses his actions.'').
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
\5\ The State's Expert also identified five ``examples of gross
negligence by [R]espondent'' in his prescribing to Patient
1.'' Id. at 20-21. These included that ``the dose of
[D]emerol * * * was dangerous and potentially toxic,'' ``the dose of
acetaminophen,'' which is contained in Lorcet, ``was very excessive
and toxic to the patient's liver,'' ``the lack of record-keeping is
virtually unheard of in terms of this degree of prescribing,'' ``the
lack of monitoring given the patient's condition and history of
substance abuse,'' and ``the lack of use of other modalities besides
narcotics to treat the patient's pain.'' Id.
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
The State ALJ thus found that Respondent had violated numerous
provisions of both state and Federal law including, inter alia, that
``[h]e prescribed medication without a good faith examination and
medical indication,'' that ``he excessively prescribed controlled
substances,'' and that he had violated 21 CFR 1306.04(a), which
requires that ``a prescription for a controlled substance `must be
[issued] for a legitimate medical purpose by an individual practitioner
acting in the usual course of his professional practice.' '' \6\ Id. at
27-28 (citing Cal. Bus. & Prof. Code Sec. 2242, Cal. Health & Safety
Code Sec. 11153, and 21 CFR 1306.04(a)). The State ALJ further found
that Respondent had violated DEA regulations requiring that he maintain
a biennial inventory of controlled substances, that ``he failed to
maintain all required DEA 222 order forms'' for schedule II controlled
substances, and that ``he failed to maintain all required controlled
substances records.'' Id. (citing 21 CFR 1304.11-1304.13; 1305.03;
1305.13; 1304.21; 1304.24).
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
\6\ The State ALJ also found that Respondent had committed
unprofessional conduct under several provisions of California law.
GX 8, at 26-27.
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
Thereafter, the MBC adopted the ALJ's decision. Id. at 1.
Respondent's license was revoked, but the revocation was stayed and he
was placed on probation for ten years. Id. at 35. In addition,
Respondent's license was suspended ``for 180 days'' and he was ordered
to take a course in prescribing practices; he was also ordered to take
an additional Continuing Medical Education course for each year of his
probation. Id.
Respondent testified that he completed the probationary period
imposed by the MBC and did not have any violations. Tr. 117-18. He
further maintained that he had ``substantially'' improved his charting
practices. Id. at 118.
The Current Proceeding
At the hearing in this matter, Respondent testified as both a
witness for the Government and himself. The Government asked him a
series of questions regarding the findings of both the 1995 DEA Final
Order and the MBC.
With respect to Patient 1, the Government asked Respondent
whether he agreed with the DA's finding that his dispensing of
controlled substances ``between January 1990 and February 1992, was
highly irregular in the medical profession and was excessive?''
[[Page 16827]]
Tr. 15. Respondent answered: ``No, I do not.'' Id.
Next, the Government asked Respondent whether he agreed with the
DA's finding that his management of Patient 1 ``demonstrated
behavior such that the patient's demands seemed to replace your
judgment.'' Tr. 15. Respondent answered: ``No, I do not.''
The Government then asked Respondent whether he agreed with the
DA's finding that he ``dispensed controlled substances to Patient
Number 1 basically on demand?'' Tr. 16. Respondent again answered:
``No, I do not.'' Id. at 16.
Next, the Government asked Respondent whether he agreed with the
DA's finding that, during ``the early 1990's,'' he had ``dispensed
controlled substances to Patient Number 1 * * * with virtually no
records or monitoring?'' Id. at 17. Respondent answered: ``My records
were far less thorough than they should have been. I know that now and
in the future will be much more cautious.'' Id.
With respect to Patient 3, the Government asked Respondent
whether he agreed with the DA's finding that his ``conduct in
continuing to prescribe to [him], despite his use of forged
prescriptions, showed a carelessness inappropriate for continued
registration?'' Id. at 17. Respondent answered:
In the first place, this was not what I would call a forgery
although it was close. What happened was the patient got a
reasonable prescription from me, ran it through a copy machine, took
both prescriptions to pharmacies so that both prescriptions looked
extremely genuine, and yet I know I'd only written one. I don't know
if that is legally a forgery or not, but it's very similar to that.
* * * I did not think that it was a forgery. Forgeries are usually
very obvious to pharmacists who are familiar with my prescriptions
and signature. So I was blindsided on that. And I did subsequently
dismiss that patient from my practice when there were increasing
questions about what was going on.
Id. at 17-18.
The Government then asked Respondent if he agreed with the DA's
``finding that [he was] careless in continuing to prescribe to * * *
Patient Number 3?'' Id. at 18. Respondent answered: ``No, I do not, but
I had not seen the prescription that is now being called a forgery
until much later.'' Id.
As a follow-up, the Government asked Respondent if he agreed with
the finding that his ``continued prescribing to this patient showed
more probably a disregard of the requirements for detailed attention to
individual patient behavior necessary for the dispensing of controlled
substances?'' Id. at 19. Respondent answered:
I find that rather strange. I don't know what behavior is being
referred to or conduct at that point. Quite simply, the patient came
to me complaining of severe headaches, appeared to be having severe
headaches, and was prescribed, but there became increasing questions
about some things that were going on. And finally, I just terminated
his treatment.
Id.
With respect to Patient 2, the Government noted the DA's
finding that ``over a six-month period of time, [Respondent's]
prescribed [an] excessive number of refills [and] showed a reckless
disregard for medical standards in dispensing controlled substances.''
Id. The Government then asked Respondent whether he agreed that he
``showed a reckless disregard for medical standards in dispensing
controlled substances with regard to Patient Number 2?'' Id. at 19-20.
Respondent answered: ``No, I do not.'' Id. at 20.
Testifying on his own behalf regarding Patient 2,
Respondent stated that he understood that he could not ``legally write
on the prescription itself more than five refills.'' Id. at 121. He
then testified: ``I don't think I ever did write more than five
[refills] on Ms. [J.]'' Id.
The Government then objected that Respondent's counsel was trying
to re-litigate the findings as to Patient 2. Id. Respondent's
counsel acknowledged that this was ``true,'' stating that ``I am
pointing out the discrepancy in the ALJ's findings versus the final
revocation order,'' and that ``[t]here are discrepancies that I think
that need to be illuminated.'' Id. at 121-22.
While the ALJ initially expressed the opinion that Respondent was
``trying to revisit these facts which are facts that have already been
adjudicated,'' id. at 122, Respondent's counsel replied that ``the
conclusions [of the 1995 Order] aren't support by the facts, and the
facts are in the record,'' and that his line of questioning was only
being done to show that when Respondent answered the Government's
questions by stating ``that he disagreed with the conclusion,'' this
was ``in fact, supported by the record.'' Id. The ALJ then agreed to
allow Respondent's counsel to ask him questions to clarify ``why he
disagree[d] with the final order.'' Id. at 123.
Next, Respondent's counsel read a portion of the prior DEA ALJ's
recommended decision which noted that there was ``arguably * * *
conflicting evidence'' as to whether Respondent had issued more than
five refills to Patient 2 between November 14, 1990 and May 1,
1991. Id. at 125. Respondent's counsel then asked Respondent whether he
``agree[d] that the evidence that was presented and, in fact, the
footnote here that the judge found conflicted with the conclusion that
you had violated the prescription refill limits?'' Id. at 126. After
the Government again objected that Respondent's counsel was trying to
re-litigate the findings of the earlier proceeding, and before the ALJ
ruled on the objection, Respondent's counsel rephrased his question
``as simply asking is that the reason for your disagreement with [the
Government counsel's] question earlier?'' Id. Respondent answered:
The word `refill' is perhaps ambiguous. When I write a
prescription for a patient with an ongoing problem, * * * I would
write in the number of refills, if any, and that's a refill. On the
other hand, if the patient calls me back a month later and says I
need this medicine again, and I'm confident the patient still has
that symptom, that problem, I call the pharmacy and say give Ms. Doe
another 30 tablets or whatever. Legally, I think it's a new
prescription. Some people would call it a refill, but I don't think
that the refill thing was intended to necessarily refer to
situations in which a doctor phones in what the pharmacy considers a
new prescription at that point[.] * * * [W]hether I use the word
refill or say give the patient another 30 tablets, basically, it
means I've considered what to do, have hopefully a reason to do it,
and go on from there. And it's technically, I believe a new
prescription. * * * Basically, * * * I did not believe I was
violating any refill laws on this.
Id. at 127.
Next, Respondent's counsel asked him if he ``remember[ed] what the
* * * main issue [was that] the Government * * * had with Patient
Number 3?'' Id. at 127-28. Respondent answered: ``[t]he problem with
Patient Number 3 was that there was a great deal of confusion from a
lot of parties. It was * * * not until much later that I realized the
problem.'' Id. at 128. Following the Government's objection (again, on
the ground that Respondent was trying to re-litigate the findings of
the first proceeding), which was overruled by the ALJ, Respondent
testified that:
There was a question about a pharmacy that called me and said,
`We've got a prescription here, we think something is wrong with
it.' And I of course, they knew my signature and my handwriting, and
I said, `Well, you know, I did give the patient a prescription for
this, I guess you might as well fill it.' What actually happened and
what * * * no one notices was that the patient had taken my
prescriptions, run it through a copying machine, then used scissors
and cut it to size, * * * took it to pharmacies, and each of them
had what looked like a genuine prescription. And eventually, I got
copies of both and sure
[[Page 16828]]
enough, it was a photocopy so that I think I was acting in
innocence, and the pharmacist was right when he thought something
was wrong with it, but it was not a prescription that the patient
forged. He simply illegally copied a prescription.
Id. at 128-29.
Respondent was then asked whether at some point, he had ceased his
relationship with Patient Number 3. Id. at 129-30. Respondent answered:
Yes. There were too many suspicious things. I can't remember the
details, but not uncommonly a patient will say something like `my
dog ate my pills' or whatever, rather phony-sounding reason for
wanting an [sic] new prescription. And believe me, if somebody drops
a bottle in the bathroom, the pills always fall in the toilet. I
mean it's just, as a doctor, I've heard all these reasons, and I am
extremely suspicious, especially now. I often, in fact, have the
patient come into the office so I can eyeball the squirming when I
start asking the embarrassing questions, so that when these things
started happening with Mr. [F.], I finally said enough is enough, no
more, no more medical care.
Id. at 130.
Respondent's counsel then asked him ``[h]ow much time passed
between * * * this issue with regard to the forgery and your ceasing
the relationship?'' Id. Respondent answered that he could not
``remember the exact dates'' and that he had ``no memory of * * * what
that time was.'' Id. at 130-31.
Respondent was then asked if ``in any way, shape, or form do you
take responsibility for * * * Patient Number 3 regarding the forged
prescriptions?'' Id. at 131. Respondent answered:
I wrote a prescription, patient apparently went to two
pharmacies, and one of them * * * they was [sic] alert enough to
notice that a ballpoint pen hadn't indented it or anything and
simply called and said, ``I think I have a forged prescription.''
And I simply said * * * yes * * * ``That's what I wrote, the
quantity.'' ``You know my signature.'' ``You might as well fill it,
cause I did write that prescription for the patient.'' I didn't
realize the patient had photocopied it and * * * had taken it,
presumably, [to] two different places.
Id. at 132. Respondent then maintained that if he had known the
prescription had been forged, he ``would not have done that,'' but did
not specify what ``that'' was. Id.
Respondent further conceded that he did not have the required bi-
annual inventory on hand because when he first started practicing in
1959, he had to take an inventory every year and mail it in, but that
after ``the doctors of the country were notified that they no longer
needed to mail the DEA an inventory every two years, * * * we
mistakenly believed that we didn't need to do the inventory either,
because no one would ever see it except ourselves or an investigator.
So I stopped making an inventory. It was, I think, good faith.'' Id. at
134-35. Respondent, however, acknowledged that he had to keep an
inventory, receipts for any controlled substances he obtained from drug
company representatives, and dispensing records. Id. at 135-37.
The Government also asked Respondent a series of questions
regarding the MBC's Order. First, it asked Respondent whether he agreed
with the Board's finding that he was ``guilty of unprofessional conduct
in [his] care and treatment of [Patient 1] both in terms of
[his] prescribing practice and in terms of [his] recordkeeping?'' Tr.
21. Respondent answered that he ``agree[d] with the part on
recordkeeping,'' but that ``[o]n the other things, I do not agree.''
Id. Respondent then explained that ``[t]his patient received textbook
treatment in accordance with standards of the American Medical
Association, and shortly after, the FDA adopted policies which
indicated that [it] agreed with the AMA.'' Id. at 21-22.
The Government then asked Respondent whether he agreed with the
Board's finding that Patient 1 ``was making the only
therapeutic decision and that the patient was determining his need for
drugs?'' Id. at 22. Respondent answered: ``No.'' Id. Next, the
Government asked Respondent whether he agreed with the Board's finding
that ``serious monitoring [of Patient 1] was non-existent?''
Id. at 22-23. Respondent answered: ``I was obviously in a position to
observe him, that he was showing no evidence of drug overdose or
problems. He was monitored but my recordkeeping was inadequate, to say
the least.'' Id. at 23.
Next, the Government asked Respondent whether he agreed with the
Board's finding that his prescribing practices with respect Patient
1 ``could be characterized as irrational polypharmacy?'' Id.
at 23. Respondent answered: ``No, I do not, and the reason is that
polypharmacy is, by definition, irrational.'' Id. Continuing,
Respondent explained ``[t]o give more than one drug to a patient when
there is a reasonably good reason for doing that is not considered
polypharmacy in the medical profession, but it must be rational and
there must be a good reason for using more than one drug in a class.''
Id. at 24.
The Government then asked Respondent whether he agreed with the
Board's finding that his ``prescribing practices to [Patient
1] * * * made little sense?'' Id. Respondent answered:
``Again, this patient needed more than one specific drug in his
treatment depending on whether the problem was being awake and alert
and reasonably pain free during the daytime and also something
additional at night so that he could sleep as well. I do not consider
that irrational or unreasonable.'' Id. at 24-25.
Next, the Government asked whether Respondent agreed with the
Board's finding that ``even though the drugs were given for conditions
that [Patient 1] had, their manner of dispensing was totally
irrational?'' Id. at 25. Respondent answered: ``No, I do not.'' Id.
The Government then asked whether he agreed with the Board's
finding that he ``committed acts of clearly excessive prescribing or
administering of drugs to'' Patient 1? Id. at 26-27.
Respondent answered: ``No.'' Id. at 27; see also id. at 50.
The Government also asked Respondent whether he agreed with the
Board's finding that he ``had violated federal statutes and regulations
regulating dangerous drugs or controlled substances?'' Id. Respondent
answered: ``In terms of recordkeeping, there's some truth in it. In
terms of following accepted guidelines, including those of the American
Medical Association, and they're still the guidelines of the Food and
Drug Administration, although they were adopted after that, indicate
that the treatment I gave was within national standards.'' Id.
Respondent further challenged the State Expert's finding that the
doses of Demerol he prescribed to Patient 1 were potentially
toxic, contending that there was uncertainty in medical texts as to
whether metabolites of the drug accumulate and whether ``they cause any
significant harm.'' Id. at 36. He testified that even today, there is
still controversy over the appropriate dosing of Demerol, although not
``as much * * * as there used to be'' because most doctors are using
oxycodone or morphine to treat patients with severe pain. Id. at 38.
Respondent also maintained that Patient 1 had been
``treated with all sorts of things other than controlled substances
early in his course,'' and that ``the more potent medications and
narcotics were used only when the other modalities failed.'' Id. at 32.
Respondent asserted that he had tried anti-inflammatories such as Aleve
and Naproxen with Patient 1 to no avail, and that he had
referred him to ``a so-called pain clinic * * * at which they tried
everything,'' including ``extensive physical therapy'' but this ``did
not give him any relief.'' Id. at 52. While Respondent admitted that he
did not
[[Page 16829]]
obtain any of the charts that the pain clinic maintained on Patient
1, he maintained that he was aware of what modalities the
clinic had tried because ``they're pretty much standard.'' Id. at 53.
Respondent further testified that he ``frequently'' would not
document the use of non-prescription medicines ``because it's over-the-
counter,'' and thus a physician reviewing his charts ``could not have
seen necessarily everything else that was tried.'' Id. at 32. While
Respondent agreed that he needed to closely monitor a patient, he
admitted that he did not write down every time he saw Patient
1. Id. at 40. Respondent testified that Patient 1 had
lived with him for a two-year period and that he had observed him on a
daily basis. Id. at 42.
Respondent's counsel also asked him whether ``a reasonable doctor
looking at [Patient 1's] history wouldn't have enough
information to * * * form a strong opinion except to the extent that
the lack of information indicates that perhaps he wasn't treated
correct[ly], right?'' Id. at 40. Respondent answered that he did not
``agree quite with that because a person reviewing it with inadequate
records would not know * * * [and] probably would not even [be able] to
formulate a guess unless there was other evidence pointing in one
particular direction.'' Id. Respondent then testified that the Board's
decision used ``strong language,'' and that in his ``opinion, there
were not multiple violations or even violations of [the] standard of
care, although there were in recordkeeping.'' Id. at 40-41.
Next, Respondent asserted that it was not true--as found by the
State ALJ--that he had ceased treating Patient 1 ``in a fully
engaged professional manner long ago'' and noted that he had refused to
provide him with medication that he ``did not consider indicated.'' Id.
at 43. He then testified that the situation with Patient 1 was
not likely to happen again because Patient 1 ``was [a]
slightly distant cousin,'' whose family was close to his father's
relatives. Id.
Respondent testified that while he agreed with the State ALJ
statements that he ``had a desire to alleviate [Patient 1's]
suffering,'' he did not think that he had ``lost sight * * * of [his]
duty as a physician.'' Id. at 47. He then testified that he did not
think that the prescriptions ``were in error,'' and ``other physicians
also agreed that [Patient 1] needed relatively heavy
medication.'' Id. Respondent then stated that in his ``opinion,
[Patient 1] was never an addict, and I certainly never gave
him medications along those lines.'' Id. at 48.
Respondent then maintained that at some point ``in the 1990's, * *
* the AMA recommended major changes in dosage as did the FDA * * *.
[B]ut the FDA regulations were postponed at the request of the DEA,
which felt that they were too high.'' Id. at 51. Continuing, Respondent
claimed that ``[a]fter a year of discussion, the FDA decided that their
proposal was correct, that the[y] * * * did not agree with the DEA, did
agree with the American Medical Association and adopted those things, I
would guess [in the] early 1990's.'' Id.
Subsequently, Respondent testified that ``[s]hortly after [his]
Medical Board case,'' the FDA changed its position and ``approved the
higher dosage.'' Id. at 55. Clarifying his testimony, Respondent stated
that prior to the FDA action, ``the highest number of milligrams in a
tablet of oxycodone was 5 milligrams,'' and that ``after my Medical
Board hearing, the FDA approved a * * * 20 milligram and 40 milligram
tablet, [and] about a year and a half later, an 80 milligram tablet.''
Id. at 55-56. In Respondent's view, the FDA was ``simply saying many
patients need [a] higher dosage than doctors have necessarily been
using and that * * * rather than have a patient take 4 or 8 tablets at
a time or even eventually 16, a larger size tablet is relevant.'' Id.
at 56. Respondent then maintained that these ``changes'' were
``[e]xactly in line with the American Medical Association.'' Id.
Respondent then testified that as early 1958, the AMA had published
guidelines which ``made it clear that much larger doses of oxycodone
were relevant,'' that the ``milligram dosage and timing [of oxycodone]
should be identical with [that of] morphine,'' and that ``morphine
should be given, based on body weight, on the order of 15 milligrams
every 4 to 6 hours, which would be a whole lot of oxycodone tablets in
a day.'' Id. at 57. He then maintained that ``[t]he FDA and DEA are
taking opposite positions on oxycodone dosage * * * and the AMA is on
the same side as the FDA.'' Id.
Later, Respondent's counsel asked him if he was ``remorseful at all
for any of the problems that occurred?'' Id. at 138. Respondent
answered:
Remorseful, no, because in terms of the treatment I actually
gave, I believed it was good treatment. And I can't think of any
patient who was damaged by my treatment. At the same time, of
course, I certainly am sorry that this relative died while under the
care of another physician. Basically, who was giving him narcotics
and many other things. So remorse, no, but obviously, I regret many
things that happened.
Id. at 139-40. Respondent then explained that what he regretted was
that he had ``been unable to prescribe medications for people in severe
pain.'' Id. at 140.
Respondent was then asked whether he felt that ``a distinction
[should] be drawn in [his] case'' between his contention he had
``performed and issued prescriptions that were medically necessary and
the Government's contention that [he] didn't * * * properly keep track
of [them] and follow the correct procedures in doing it?'' Id. at 139.
Respondent testified:
I think it's a major distinction. I prescribed in good faith
what I thought the patient needed and was appropriate. And partly
from my ignorance and partly from maybe being very busy, I did not
keep the detailed records I now know I should have taken. The other
thing is that there were so many consultations on [Patient
1] especially, nine consultations saying yes * * * your
treatment is correct * * * the patient is getting good care. In the
practice of medicine, there are enough uncertainties so that if a
large group of physicians are almost unanimous in a patient's need
for a particular treatment, going back later and saying, well, maybe
they were all or nearly all wrong is not very productive. In other
words, there are enough uncertainties that going back [in] hindsight
is 100 percent, but at the time, things look * * * like the right
thing to do.
Id. at 140. Respondent then claimed that ``two consultants testified
for the Medical Board, but neither one of them, identified any problems
in my care or with his medications. And they simply said, oh, if
[Respondent] had only told me this or that, I would have decided
differently.'' Id.
Discussion
Section 303(f) of the Controlled Substances Act (CSA) provides that
the Attorney General ``may deny an application for [a practitioner's]
registration if he determines that the issuance of such a registration
is inconsistent with the public interest.'' 21 U.S.C. 823(f). In making
the public interest determination, the CSA directs that the following
factors be considered:
(1) The recommendation of the appropriate State licensing board
or professional disciplinary authority.
(2) The applicant's experience in dispensing * * * controlled
substances.
(3) The applicant's conviction record under Federal or State
laws relating to the manufacture, distribution, or dispensing of
controlled substances.
(4) Compliance with applicable State, Federal, or local laws
relating to controlled substances.
(5) Such other conduct which may threaten the public health and
safety.
Id.
``[T]hese factors are * * * considered in the disjunctive.'' Robert
A. Leslie, 68 FR 15227, 15230 (2003). I may rely on any one or a
combination of factors and
[[Page 16830]]
may give each factor the weight I deem appropriate in determining
whether to revoke an existing registration or to deny an application
for a registration. Id. Moreover, I am ``not required to make findings
as to all of the factors.'' Hoxie v. DEA, 419 F.3d 477, 482 (6th Cir.
2005); see also Morall v. DEA, 412 F.3d 165, 173-74 (DC Cir. 2005).
Where the Government has met its prima facie burden of showing that
issuing a new registration to the applicant would be inconsistent with
the public interest, the burden then shifts to the applicant to
``present sufficient mitigating evidence'' to show why he can be
entrusted with a new registration. Medicine Shoppe-Jonesborough, 73 FR
364, 387 (2008) (quoting Samuel S. Jackson, 72 FR 23848, 23853 (2007)
(quoting Leo R. Miller, 53 FR 21931, 21932 (1988))). ``Moreover,
because `past performance is the best predictor of future performance,'
ALRA Labs, Inc. v. DEA, 54 F.3d 450, 452 (7th Cir.1995), [DEA] has
repeatedly held that where a registrant has committed acts inconsistent
with the public interest, the registrant must accept responsibility for
[his] actions and demonstrate that [he] will not engage in future
misconduct.'' Medicine Shoppe, 73 FR at 387; see also Jackson, 72 FR at
23853; John H. Kennedy, 71 FR 35705, 35709 (2006); Cuong Tron Tran, 63
FR 64280, 64283 (1998); Prince George Daniels, 60 FR 62884, 62887
(1995); Hoxie v. DEA, 419 F.3d at 483 (``admitting fault'' is
``properly consider[ed]'' by DEA to be an ``important factor[]'' in the
public interest determination).
Where, as here, DEA has previously issued a Final Order which
revoked an applicant's former registration, ``the critical issue in
th[e] proceeding is whether the circumstances, which existed at the
time of the prior proceeding, have changed sufficiently to support
[the] conclusion that'' granting the application would be consistent
with the public interest. Ellis Turk, M.D., 62 FR 19603, 19604 (1997);
Stanley Alan Azen, M.D., 61 FR 57893, 57893-94 (1996). Contrary to the
ALJ's apparent understanding, this is not an invitation to relitigate
the findings of the prior proceeding. Rather, where, as here, an
applicant has previously been the subject of an Agency Final Order, the
doctrine of res judicata bars the relitigation of the factual findings
and conclusions of law of the prior proceeding absent the applicant's
establishing that he falls within one of the doctrine's recognized
exceptions. See City Drug Co., 69 FR 1304, 1306 (2004); Turk, 62 FR at
19604; Azen, 61 FR at 57894; see also Restatement (Second) of Judgments
Sec. 28 (2010). So too, the doctrine of res judicata bars the
relitigation of the findings of the MBC's final order. See Christopher
Henry Lister, P.A., 75 FR 28068, 28069 (2010) (citing University of
Tenn. v. Elliot, 478 U.S. 788, 798-99 (1986)); Marie Y. v. General Star
Indem. Co., 2 Cal. Rptr.3d 135, 155 (Cal. Ct. App. 2003) (``When an
administrative agency acts in a judicial capacity to resolve disputed
issues of fact properly before it which the parties have had an
adequate opportunity to litigate, its decision will collaterally estop
a party to the proceeding from relitigating those issues.''); see also
Misischia v. Pirie, 60 F.3d 626, 629-30 (9th Cir. 1995); Restatement
(Second) of Judgments, Sec. 29.
Accordingly, upon the Government's establishing that the Agency has
previously issued a Final Order revoking an applicant's registration
and absent the applicant's establishing that he falls within a
recognized exception to the application of res judicata,\7\ the
Government has satisfied its prima facie burden of showing that
granting the application would be inconsistent with the public
interest. Moreover, the scope of the issues to be litigated is limited.
As in any other proceeding, ``an applicant must accept responsibility
for [his] actions and demonstrate that [he] will not engage in future
misconduct.'' Medicine Shoppe, 73 FR at 387 (int. quotations and
citations omitted).
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
\7\ There is no dispute that neither the 1995 DEA Order, nor the
1997 MBC Order, was vacated by a court.
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
For example, in Robert A. Leslie, M.D., DEA denied the application
of a practitioner whose registration had been previously revoked
following his state court convictions for unlawfully prescribing or
furnishing controlled substances. 60 FR 14004, 14005 (1995). While the
practitioner attempted to relitigate his convictions, the then-Deputy
Administrator, agreeing with the ALJ, held that ``the conviction is res
judicata, and that [r]espondent should not be allowed to relitigate the
matter.'' Id. Continuing, the Deputy Administrator noted that
``although [r]espondent was free to offer new evidence that he would
never again engage in the type of conduct that resulted in his
conviction, he failed to do so. * * * [W]hile [r]espondent offered
evidence and expended time arguing the invalidity of his criminal
convictions, he offered no evidence of remorse for his prior conduct,
that he has taken rehabilitative steps, or that he recognizes the
severity of his actions.'' Id. The Deputy Administrator thus denied the
practitioner's application.
Likewise, when, several years later, Dr. Leslie re-applied for a
registration, the Deputy Administrator held that the 1995 Agency Order
was res judicata; the Order specifically noted that the ``[r]espondent
continued to blame others for his criminal convictions,'' contending
that his name had been forged on various prescriptions; that his
criminal convictions had been affirmed because his counsel was
ineffective; and that a Government witness in the earlier DEA
proceeding had committed perjury. Robert A. Leslie, M.D., 64 FR 25908,
25908-09 (1999). After again observing that both Dr. Leslie's criminal
convictions and the 1995 Agency Order were res judicata, the Deputy
Administrator denied his application, stating that ``[r]espondent
continues to fail to acknowledge wrongdoing or accept responsibility
for his actions. Therefore, the Deputy Administrator is not convinced
that [r]espondent has been rehabilitated and would properly handle
controlled substances in the future, even on a restricted basis.'' Id.
at 25910; see also Robert A. Leslie, M.D., 68 FR 15227, 15231 (2003)
(revoking registration obtained through administrative error, noting
that ``[i]n the face of DEA's repeated concerns regarding his lack of
contrition, the [r]espondent remains steadfast in his insistence upon
denying any previous wrongdoing. Despite previous findings that his
criminal convictions were res judicata, the [r]espondent in his support
of his most recent application * * * attempted yet again to re-litigate
his criminal convictions'').\8\
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
\8\ See also City Drug, 69 FR at 1307 (denying application;
noting that applicant had not ``present[ed] any persuasive evidence
of meaningful procedural changes * * * that would ensure that it
will not again fail to account for controlled substances or dispense
[them] without authorization,'' as well as its ``lack of
acknowledgement or explanation for previous shortages of large
quantities of controlled substances''); Turk, 62 FR at 19606
(denying application, noting that ``while [r]espondent has stated
that he has changed his inventory practices, there is more than
sufficient evidence in the record to indicate that [r]espondent has
not accepted responsibility for his prior actions as a DEA
registrant, [and] has not significantly changed his inventory
practices'').
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At the instant hearing, the Government objected to various
questions asked of Respondent by his counsel on the ground that
Respondent was attempting to relitigate the findings of the 1995 Agency
Order. Tr. 121-22. Respondent's counsel admitted that this was
``true,'' id., but justified doing so to show purported discrepancies
between the record (and the ALJ's decision) in the prior proceeding and
the Agency's Final Order. Id. at 122. The ALJ overruled the
Government's objection
[[Page 16831]]
and allowed Respondent to pursue this line of inquiry, id. at 123, 128;
she also allowed Respondent to testify extensively as to why he
disagreed with the MBC's findings. Moreover, in her decision, the ALJ
ignored many of the findings of the 1995 Agency Order regarding
Respondent's prescribing practices, and generally found proved only the
various recordkeeping violations to which Respondent admitted. See
generally ALJ. The ALJ also entirely ignored the MBC's findings that
Respondent violated California law by ``prescrib[ing] medication
without a good faith examination and medical indication,'' that ``he
excessively prescribed controlled substances,'' and that he violated
Federal law because he issued prescriptions which lacked ``a legitimate
medical purpose'' and which were issued outside of the usual course of
professional practice. Compare ALJ at 7-12, 19-27, with GX 8, at 27-28.
Indeed, in her decision, the ALJ did not even acknowledge that DEA has
long applied the doctrine of res judicata, let alone explain why the
doctrine should not apply here.
Factors Two and Four--The Applicant's Experience in Dispensing
Controlled Substances and Record of Compliance With Applicable
Controlled Substance Laws
In her discussion of these two factors, the ALJ found onl